Exam 5
Name: ______________________________________
Date: ______________________________
1. The conducting zone contains all of the following EXCEPT
A. the primary bronchi.
B. the larynx.
C. the terminal bronchioles.
D. the respiratory bronchioles.
2. Diffusion rate across the respiratory membrane is rapid because
A. there are about 750 square feet of alveoli membrane.
B. alveoli are one cell thick.
C. the air-blood barrier is two cells thick.
D. All of the choices are correct.
3. Which of the following is NOT a function of the conducting zone?
A. gas exchange
B. filtering and cleaning the air
C. warming and humidifying the air
D. All of the choices are functions.
4. Intrapleural pressure __________ during expiration.
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unchanged
Match the Laws to their definitions:
5. The pressure of a given quantity of gas is inversely proportional to its volume.
6. The pressure in a small alveolus is greater than a large alveolus as long as
the surface tension is equal
7. The total pressure of a gas mixture is equal to the sum of the pressures that
each gas in the mixture would exert independently
8. The amount of gas dissolved in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial
pressure of the gas
A. Henry's Law
B. Boyle's Law
C. Laplace’s Law
D. Dalton’s Law
9. The tendency of the lungs to return to their initial size after stretching is
A. compliance.
B. elasticity.
C. surface tension.
D. None of the choices are correct.
10. What phospholipid decreases the surface tension of the alveoli?
A. mucus
B. saliva
C. surfactant
D. lymph
11. Ventilation would be decreased by decreasing the activity of
A. type II alveolar cells.
B. type I alveolar cells.
C. alveolar macrophages.
D. None of the choices are correct.
12. Quiet inspiration will ____ thoracic and lung volume and _____ intrapulmonary pressure.
A. increase, increase
B. increase, decrease
C. decrease, increase
D. decrease, decrease
13. The volume of gas inspired or expired in a quiet respiration cycle is the
A. tidal volume.
B. vital capacity.
C. inspiratory reserve volume.
D. residual volume.
14. The volume of gas remaining in the lungs after a maximum expiration is the
A. tidal volume.
B. vital capacity.
C. inspiratory reserve volume.
D. residual volume.
15. The total amount of gas in the lungs after a maximum inspiration is the
A. vital capacity.
B. total lung capacity.
C. tidal volume.
D. functional residual capacity.
16. Pulmonary fibrosis may be caused by
A. smoking.
C. breathing in coal dust.
B. allergic reactions.
D. increased mucus production.
17. What instrument is used to measure the percent oxyhemoglobin saturation of the blood?
A. sphygmomanometer
B. spirometer
C. pulse oximeter
D. stethoscope
Matching:
18. Normal arterial PO2 is
19. Normal alveolar PO2 is
20. Normal venous PCO2 is
21. Normal venous PO2 is
A. 40 mmHg
B. 100 mmHg
C. 105 mmHg
D. 46 mmHG
22. Decompression sickness is caused by ascending to sea level too quickly which results in bubbles of _____ to
form in the blood.
A. oxygen
B. carbon dioxide
C. carbon monoxide
D. nitrogen
23. Peripheral chemoreceptors that can detect changes in blood pH are located in the
A. medulla oblongata.
B. aortic and carotid bodies.
C. pons.
D. lungs.
24. Central chemoreceptors in the medulla oblongata directly detect changes in the pH of the
A. blood.
B. cerebrospinal fluid.
C. lymph.
D. air.
25. The primary drive to breath is elicited by which of the following:
A. reduced PO2.
B. reduced PCO2.
C. increased PO2.
D. increased PCO2.
26. What is the condition of having low blood oxygen levels?
A. hypocapnia
B. hypercapnia
C. hypoxia
D. hypoxemia
27. The respiratory rhythmicity center is located in the
A. pons.
B. cerebral cortex.
C. medulla oblongata.
D. midbrain.
28. Hyperventilation is stimulated by
A. increased activity of the apneustic center.
C. hypercapnia
B. decreased contraction of the scalenes.
D. hypoxemia.
29. __________ is characterized by high red blood cell counts.
A. Anemia
B. Polycythemia
C. Uremia
D. Leukemia
30. Renal production of __________ is stimulated by hypoxemia.
A. rennin
B. colony-stimulating factor
C. erythropoietin
D. thrombopoietin
Matching:
31. The form of hemoglobin with iron in an oxidized state is
32. The form of hemoglobin with iron in a reduced state and bonded to oxygen is
33. The form of hemoglobin with iron in a reduced state and bonded to carbon
monoxide is
34. The form of hemoglobin with iron in a reduced state and not bonded to oxygen is
35. Carbon monoxide is lethal because it
A. reduces CO2 and slows breathing.
C. binds hemoglobin preventing oxygen binding.
A. oxyhemoglobin.
B. deoxyhemoglobin.
C. methemoglobin.
D. carboxyhemoglobin
B. increases CO2 and causes seizures.
D. increases oxygen unloading at the cells.
36. The affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen is __________ as the partial pressure of oxygen is raised.
A. increased
B. decreased
C. unchanged
37. What is the normal value of arterial percent hemoglobin saturation?
A. 100%
B. 97%
C. 90%
D. 86%
38. At rest, normal oxygen unloading in the tissues is ____.
A. 97%
B. 75%
C. 39%.
D. 22%
39. According to the Bohr effect, as pH is lowered, the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen
A. increases.
B. decreases.
C. remains unchanged.
40. An increase in 2,3-diphosphoglyceric acid (2,3-DPG) will ________ the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen.
A. increase
B. decrease
C. have no effect on
41. What type of hemoglobin cannot bind to 2,3-DPG and thus has a higher affinity for oxygen?
A. hemoglobin F
B. hemoglobin A
C. hemoglobin B
D. hemoglobin G
42. In anemia, 2,3-DPG is ________ and oxygen affinity is ________.
A. decreased, decreased.
B. decreased, increased.
C. increased, increased.
D. increased, decreased.
43. Which of the following will decrease the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen?
A. decreased pH, decreased temperature, or decreased 2,3-DPG
B. decreased pH, increased temperature, or increased 2,3-DPG
C. increased pH, increased temperature, or decreased 2,3-DPG
D. increased pH, decreased temperature, or increased 2,3-DPG
44. What disease is characterized by the abnormal hemoglobin S?
A. sickle-cell anemia
B. thalassemia
C. cystic fibrosis
D. emphysema
45. The exchange of chloride ions for bicarbonate through tissue capillaries is called the
A. chloride shift.
B. Bohr effect.
C. oxygen toxicity.
D. acidosis.
46. The majority of carbon dioxide is transported in the blood as
A. dissolved carbon dioxide in the blood.
B. bicarbonate ion.
C. carbaminohemoglobin.
D. carboxyhemoglobin.
47. The metabolic regulation of blood pH occurs in
A. the lungs.
C. the kidneys.
B. the liver.
D. all organs.
48. A pH above 7.45 is considered
A. acidosis.
C. normal.
B. alkalosis.
D. metabolic.
49. Acclimatization to high altitude results in __________ 2,3-DPG in erythrocytes.
A. increased
B. decreased
C. no change in
50. The enzyme ______ catalyzes the formation of H2CO3 from CO2 and water.
A. rennin
B. nitric oxide synthase
C. lactate dehydrogenase
D. carbonic anhydrase
Matching:
51. Wavelike muscular contraction of the gastrointestinal tract is called
52. Chewing of food
53. Swallowing of food
54. The mixing movement of the small intestine is called
A. deglutition.
B. segmentation.
C. peristalsis.
D. mastication.
55. Which of the following is NOT part of the gastrointestinal tract?
A. pharynx
B. liver
C. small intestine
D. esophagus
56. Which of the following motility processes is NOT correctly matched to its description?
A. peristalsis - rhythmic, wave-like contractions
B. mastication - removal of wastes
C. ingestion - taking food into the mouth
D. deglutition - swallowing
57. The movement of digested food into the blood or lymph is
A. ingestion.
B. deglutition.
C. absorption.
D. segmentation.
58. Place the tunics of the GI tract wall in the correct order from deep to superficial.
A. submucosa, mucosa, serosa, muscularis
B. mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa
C. serosa, submucosa, mucosa, muscularis
D. serosa, muscularis, submucosa, mucosa
59. Damage to which of the following nerves would reduce GI secretions?
A. glossopharyngeal nerve
B. hypoglossal nerve
C. vagus nerve
D. phrenic nerve
60. What provides intrinsic regulation of the GI tract?
A. hormones
B. autonomic nervous system
C. enteric nervous system
D. All of the choices are correct.
61. What structure keeps food from entering the larynx during swallowing?
A. epiglottis
B. laryngopharynx
C. soft palate
D. tongue
62. The combination of chewed food and saliva is called
A. chyme.
B. a bolus.
C. pylorus.
D. hiatal.
63. Which of the following is NOT a function of the stomach?
A. store food
B. kill bacteria
C. digestion of most foods
D. move chyme into the duodenum
64. The _________________ of the stomach and intestine secrete histamine and serotonin.
A. G cells
B. parietal cells
C. enterochromaffin-like (ECL) cells
D. chief cells
65. Long folds of the stomach's inner surface are called
A. plicae.
B. rugae.
C. gastric pits.
D. ghrelin.
66. The stomach churns food into a pasty material called
A. a bolus.
B. chyme.
C. chyle.
D. saliva.
67. ____________ is required for the intestinal absorption of vitamin B12.
A. Vitamin D
B. Calcium
C. Intrinsic factor
D. Vitamin C
68. Antihistamines would limit the gastric secretion of
A. pepsinogen.
B. gastrin.
C. hydrochloric acid.
D. mucus.
69. Acid chyme is buffered by __________ secreted from the pancreas.
A. mucus
B. bicarbonate
C. ammonia
D. urea
70. Helicobacter pylori is a bacterium associated with
A. peptic ulcers.
B. hiatal hernia.
C. acid reflux.
D. pancreatitis.
71. _________________ is a disorder in which acidic gastric juice travels up the esophagus.
A. Gastroenteritis
B. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
C. Pernicious anemia
D. Gastritis
72. Pepsin would have the greatest activity
A. immediately upon secretion into the stomach.
C. when the pH of the chyme is greater than 3.
B. immediately upon entering the duodenum.
D. when the pH of the chyme is less than 3.
73. __________ stimulates ECL cells to secrete histamine which stimulates HCl release from parietal cells.
A. Secretin
B. CCK
C. Gastrin
D. Ghrelin
74. What commonly ingested substances are absorbed through the stomach wall?
A. water and alcohol
B. antacid and water
C. alcohol and aspirin
D. penicillin and aspirin
75. Which of the following is NOT a structure of the small intestine that increases its surface area?
A. rugae
B. villi
C. plicae circularis
D. microvilli
76. What is the function of enterokinase secreted by the brush border?
A. activates the protein-digesting enzyme trypsin
B. breaks down dipeptides
C. causes the stomach to produce gastrin
D. causes release of pancreatic digestive enzymes
77. The majority of hydrolysis of disaccharides occurs by the actions of enzymes found
A. in the pancreatic juice.
B. in the brush border of the small intestine.
C. in saliva.
D. in the gastric mucosa.
78. Which of the following is NOT a section of the small intestine?
A. ileum
B. cecum
C. jejunum
D. duodenum
79. The primary function of the large intestine is
A. water and electrolyte reabsorption.
C. hormone degradation.
B. mineral absorption.
D. degrading toxins.
80. Which of the following is NOT a function of intestinal microbiota?
A. production of B vitamins
B. ferment indigestible contents of the chyme
C. production of vitamin K
D. hydrolysis of proteins
81. What allows the intestinal microbiota to live in the large intestine?
A. protection by innate and adaptive immune systems
B. the anaerobic environment
C. availability of nutrients
D. All of the choices are correct.
82. The process of waste removal is called
A. defecation.
C. deglutition.
B. mastication.
D. segmentation.
83. Bile is produced by
A. Kupffer cells.
C. hepatocytes.
B. gall bladder cells.
D. sinusoids.
84. The enterohepatic circulation is between the _____ and _____.
A. liver, stomach.
B. liver, pancreas.
C. liver, intestine.
D. liver, gallbladder.
85. Bile salts are derivatives of
A. sodium chloride.
C. bilirubin.
B. hemoglobin.
D. cholesterol.
86. What role do biles salts play in digestion?
A. emulsify lipids for digestion by enzymes
C. needed for water reabsorption
B. gives color to the feces
D. They play no role in digestion.
87. The liver will detoxify ammonia by converting it into
A. uric acid.
B. ammonium ions.
C. urea.
D. amino acids.
88. Converting glucose into glycogen is the process of
A. glycogenesis.
B. glycogenolysis.
C. gluconeogenesis.
D. lipogenesis.
89. Which of the following is NOT produced by the liver?
A. hydroxylated steroid hormones
B. uric acid
C. digestive enzymes
D. bilirubin
90. Zymogens are inactive forms of __________ enzymes.
A. stomach
B. liver
C. pancreatic
D. small intestine
91. Trypsin is activated by the enzyme
A. enterokinase.
C. lactase.
B. lipase.
D. carboxypeptidase.
92. Inhibition of exocrine pancreatic secretions results in
A. decreased insulin secretion following meals.
B. decreased bile synthesis and secretion.
C. production of an acidic chyme.
D. stimulation of enterokinase activity.
93. Where does the bicarbonate secreted by the pancreas come from?
A. bicarbonate in the blood
B. CO2 in the blood
C. acini cells
D. pancreatic islets
94. Which of the following is NOT an effect of gastrin?
A. stimulates parietal cells to secrete HCl
C. stimulates secretion of pancreatic juice enzymes
B. stimulates chief cells to secrete pepsinogen
D. maintains structure of gastric mucosa
95. The major stimulus for the secretion of HCl during the cephalic phase of gastric regulation is
A. the smell of food.
B. vagal stimulation of chief cells.
C. release of histamine by ECL cells.
D. vagal stimulation of parietal cells.
96. Amino acids and peptides in the stomach lumen stimulate acid secretion during the ________ phase of gastric
secretion.
A. gastric
B. cephalic
C. hepatic
D. intestinal
97. During the cephalic phase regulating gastric function
A. the vagus nerve stimulates gastrin secretion.
C. vagal nuclei are stimulated by smelling food.
B. stomach distension stimulates acid secretion.
D. gastric emptying is inhibited.
98. The arrival of chyme into the duodenum begins the _______ phase of stomach function.
A. cephalic
B. gastric
C. intestinal
D. hepatic
99. Enterogasterone will _____ gastric function.
A. stimulate
B. inhibit
C. have no effect on
100. Protection against atherosclerosis is believed to be associated with an
A. elevated HDL-cholesterol.
B. elevated LDL-cholesterol.
C. elevated total cholesterol.
D. elevated VLDL-cholesterol.