1st -- the trustee must prove a prima facie case for avoidance under 547(b) 2nd -- the burden then shifts to the creditordefendant to prove any of the defenses (or safe harbors, or exceptions) to preference liability under 547(c) See 547(g) for burdens of proof contemporaneous exchanges of new value, (c)(1) ordinary course transfers, (c)(2) enabling loans, (c)(3) subsequent advances of new value, (c)(4) floating liens, (c)(5) statutory liens, (c)(6) domestic relations debts, (c)(7) transfers of less than $600 by an individual debtor whose debts are primarily consumer debts, (c)(8) transfers of less than $5,475 by non-consumer debtors, (c)(9). transfers made as part of an alternative repayment schedule created by an approved nonprofit budgeting and credit counseling agency, § 547(h) 1st – no preference liability if transfer < $5475 Business Dr ((c)(9)) floor = $600 for consumer Dr For unsecured creditors: $5475 immunity, of course “ordinary course”, (c)(2) New value, (c)(4) Contemporaneous exchange, (c)(1) For secured creditors: Enabling loans, (c)(3) Floating liens, (c)(5) Until the addition of the $5475 floor for business preferences in 2005, the most important preference exception – by far – was “ordinary course” exception under (c)(2) A 1997 national preference survey conducted by the American Bankruptcy Institute found that the ordinary course defense was raised in 73.4% of all preference cases. http://www.abiworld.org/Content/NavigationMenu/News Room/BankruptcyResearchCenter/BankruptcyReportsRes earchandTestimony/ABI/Report_on_the_ABI_P1.htm Practical reality was that even if “equality” was perverted by an eve-of-bankruptcy transfer, was not avoidable if payment was in the ordinary course And fact-intensive nature of divining what = “ordinary” made preference litigation very uncertain, and put pressure to settle on both trustee and creditor-defendants Original hypo, where Dr has $6K in assets and owes $6K each to creditors A, B, and C Assume all are regular business creditors, debts arose in normal business operations And, debts all coming due in normal time period Day before bankruptcy, Dr chooses to use last assets to pay A in full, and nothing to B or C Payment to A was in standard manner & time A gets to keep the $ -- not avoidable As this simple example shows, the “ordinary course” exception completely eviscerates any serious notion that “equality” is a meaningful norm supporting preference avoidance On very eve of bankruptcy, one Cr gets paid in full, and all other creditors get nothing Given the evisceration of equality, what policy supports the ordinary course defense? Congress said “deterrence”: “The purpose of the exception is to leave undisturbed normal financial relations, because it does not detract from the general policy of the preference section to discourage unusual action by either the debtor or his creditors during the debtor's slide into bankruptcy.” The statement in the legislative history suggests that an eve-of-bankruptcy transfer is voidable as a preference ONLY if it is motivated by “bad” intentions – i.e., only if the transfer was made due to “unusual action by either the debtor or his creditors during the debtor's slide into bankruptcy.” This policy harkens back to the ancient notion that a preference was “bad” only if, variously over time: Dr had an intent to prefer, or Cr had an intent to obtain a preference, or Cr had (1898 Act) “reasonable cause to believe the Dr was insolvent” Whereas nothing ‘wrong” when no one was motivated by “unusual action”, instead, as legislative history said, should “leave undisturbed normal financial relations” -> trade creditors feel VERY strongly that they should be immunized from preference attack if they didn’t exert unusual pressure on the Dr to get paid – and now that’s the law! 1st, debt had to be incurred in ordinary course Almost never an issue 2nd, the payment must be ordinary Ordinary as to what? Here is where the pre-2005 and post-2005 versions of the law differ importantly Pre-2005: Cr must prove BOTH ▪ the transfer was made in the ordinary course of the business or financial affairs of the debtor and the transferee; and ▪ the transfer was made according to ordinary business terms. Courts struggled to figure out what those two tests meant Tolona Pizza leading case announcing that they state both a SUBJECTIVE test – what is “ordinary” as between this Dr and this CR AND OBJECTIVE (the “ordinary business terms”) – i.e., what is ordinary in the industry payment terms: “net 7 days” – no one did that Actual practice between Dr and Rose (sausage supplier) – for 34 months before, Dr paid from 26 to 46 days late As to others Rose sold to – norm paid in 21 days, if paid > 28-30 days, Rose withheld So Dr one of “exceptional” customers 8 payments to Rose in preference period – from 12 to 32 days, average = 22 days Did Rose have to prove only that the 8 payments made to it during the preference period were “ordinary” as compared with the prior practice as between Dr and Rose, or ALSO that the payments conformed to the industry norm? Court held: BOTH required 1st, need “subjective” ordinariness – The “discourage unusual action,” not race point 2nd – need “objective” confirmation of same: b/c is evidentiary of actual subjective ordinariness – if ≠ objectively ordinary, raises doubts as to credibility of claim of subjective ordinariness AND allay concerns of other Crs that this Cr cut a “special deal” with Dr that will favor this Cr in times of financial distress 1st, Subjective – clearly okay – Rose was paid well within (indeed, slightly better than) previously – 12 to 32 days, average 22, versus prior practice Rose-Tolona of 26-46 2nd – Objective – ends up being a VERY lenient test: “that "ordinary business terms" refers to the range of terms that encompasses the practices in which firms similar in some general way to the creditor in question engage, and that only dealings so idiosyncratic as to fall outside that broad range should be deemed extraordinary” On these facts, met objective too 21 days a goal, but up to 30 days is fine And average here was 22 days No “single set of terms” 1997 ABI Preference study found that trade creditors believed vehemently that the ordinary course exception did not work well in practice – was both vague and inconsistently applied, and gave insufficient protection Creditors felt was unfair and hard to prove compliance with unknown “industry” norms – even under a lenient Tolona approach Accordingly, 1997 Commission Report recommended changing the requirement that Cr prove compliance with BOTH subjective & objective tests, to need to prove compliance with EITHER Intent was for “subjective” to control if was provable “the conduct between the parties should prevail to the extent that there was sufficient prepetition conduct to establish a course of dealing” only “[i]n the event there is not sufficient prepetition conduct to establish a course of dealing, then industry standards should supply the ordinary course benchmark.” this approach would eliminate need for a preference defendant to prove elusive industry standards, and it is “more accurate to rely on the relationship between the parties.” BAPCPA – changed the “and” to an “or” now Cr need prove ONLY compliance with EITHER the subjective or objective tests Means that Cr will be safe if simply stays consistent with its established practices with Dr Hypo: invoices require payment in 20 days Creditor and Debtor have a longstanding practice of 40-45 days for payment -- [subjective] Industry standard (which we will assume is easily established) requires strict compliance with the 20-day invoice terms -- [objective] Creditor, however, gets paid at days 43, 40, and 45 during the preference period. What result? Cr wins Payments at days 43, 40 and 45 fell squarely within the parties’ subjective practice Totally irrelevant that industry norm was 20 days Facts: Supplier & Dr had unusual but longstanding practice – Dr would send check with the P.O., but Supplier would hold check for several weeks before presented to bank for honor In 90-day preference period, Dr delivered $72K of checks to Supplier, which were honored by bank within 40-45 days after goods delivered ▪ Consistent with prior subjective practice ▪ Also within industry time-to-payment norm ▪ But no one else in industry had a “hold-the-check-from-thestart” sort of safeguard What result? BEFORE 2005: Supplier faced a serious risk of losing the ordinary course defense, because their deal (getting checks in hand in advance of the normal time for payment, as a form of payment security) was not ordinary for the industry – even if, as it happened, Supplier did not actually present the “security” checks early As a matter of policy (remember Posner’s 2nd justification for objective test in Tolona), why should this Supplier be allowed to put in place such a special deal that gave it the option to get a jump on other creditors if the Dr’s financial affairs turned ugly? But under the new law, since Supplier put its special deal in place well before the actual onset of the debtor’s insolvency and then bankruptcy, and the parties then adhered to that special deal so as to create a course of dealing, Supplier likely will prevail by proving conformity to subjective ordinary course, under § 547(c)(2)(A). The fact of non-conformity to objective industry standards supposedly would be irrelevant But this means we allow Crs to set up “special deals” well in advance as “bankruptcy protectors” Subsequent advances of new value from CR to Dr are credited against prior preferential transfers In effect, Cr’s preference liability is reduced to the extent Cr returns value to DR after receiving a preference. Justified: Dr’s estate has been replenished to the extent of the new value, and thus other creditors have not been harmed. Encourages creditors to continue doing business with a financially troubled debtor. In practice, 547(c)(4) has been applied most often in a trade credit situation, involving ongoing extensions of credit on open account 1) after a preferential transfer, Cr gives new value to or for the benefit of Dr, 547(c)(4); 2) that new value is not secured by an otherwise unavoidable security interest, 547(c)(4)(A); and 3) Dr does not make an otherwise unavoidable transfer to or for the benefit of Cr on account of that new value, 547(c)(4)(B) Cr a trade supplier of Dr, sells on open account, & owed $10K on April 1 April 1 – Dr pay $8,500 to Cr April 15: Cr ships $4K in goods to Dr on credit May 1: bankruptcy How much, if any, is preference liability? $4,500 preference liability: $8500 payment April 1 (assuming n other defenses, such as ordinary course, and meets 547(b) elements) MINUS $4k in “new value” – the credit for new goods shipped by Cr on April 15 Note that Cr’s bk “claim” is thus = $10K –> the $4500 repays as preference + $4k unpaid on April 15 shipment + $1,500 never was paid on original $10K * makes sense – Cr never intended to be > $10K exposure Easy to justify this defense – 1st, Cr likely never would have shipped more goods on credit on April 15 if it had not gotten the payment on account on April 1 Recall, Cr never wanted to be exposed > $10K … but if not have new value defense, Cr debt = $14K Encourages trade creditors to keep doing business on credit with Dr even if Dr may be in financial trouble Now reverse times, i.e, Cr ships $4k credit new goods April 1, then April 15 Dr pays $8,500 Now the preference = $8,500 No new value defense – only applies if new value given AFTER the Dr’s preferential transfer Makes sense – neither the “replenishment” nor the “incentive” rationale applies where Cr ships 1st PREFERENCE April 1: Dr pay $8,500 $8,500 April 15: Cr ship $4K credit goods 4,500 April 20: Dr pay $3K 7,500 Now preference = $7,500 Only get credit for $1k in new value, b/c of 547(c)(4)(B) – Dr made “an otherwise unavoidable transfer to ... such Cr” – the $3K is protected under (c)(9)’s $5475 safe harbor PREFERENCE April 1: : Dr pay $8,500 8,500 April 15: Cr ship $4K credit goods 4,500 April 20: Dr pay $3K 7,500 April 25: Cr ship $7500 credit goods 0 Zero preference Final credit shipment of new value on April 25 canceled out the remaining $7,500 in thenexisting preference liability Shows can apply new value to all prior transfers by Dr April 1: Dr pays Cr $5k April 5: Dr pays Cr another $5k Issue is whether (c)(9) safe harbor works Turns on question of whether or not aggregate all the transfers by Dr to Cr during preference period If so, no (c)(9) defense, b/c total = $10K > $5475 If not, good (c)(9) defense - both transfers < $5475 Statutory language: “such transfer” in (c)(9) – against aggregation? ▪ but 102(7) says “singular includes plural” Avoid “any transfer”, (b) – same? “aggregate value” in (c)(9) – for aggregation ▪ But does this work across different transfers? Policy: If not aggregate, easy to circumvent – endless series of transfers each < $5475 Result: AGGREGATE So here, avoid BOTH transfers, $10K Note – Cr WORSE off when got 2nd transfer – was fully protected as to 1st $5k transfer – but after 2nd transfer kicks up aggregate total to 410K, no defense at all! * (c)(9) is NOT a “credit” against liability – it’s an either-or defense for a Secured Cr, have 2 possible times when might deem the “transfer” of the lien to be made for preference purposes: 1st – when effective as between the DR and the SP ▪ Only need valid transfer of lien Dr to SP, & debt ▪ i.e. = “attachment” under article 9 2nd – when effective as against 3rd parties ▪ Need public recordation If just use the 1st option, and say lien is transferred when effective Dr –SP, whether or not in public records, would allow secret liens As long as SP record any time before bankruptcy, would be safe – not avoid under strong arm clause 544(a), b/c that focuses solely on time of bk filing Not avoid as preference b/c would not have an antecedent debt – ▪ And possibly outside 90-day period as well The preference rule for timing for transfer of a lien is a compromise between the “only when recorded” and the “when effective against Dr” options 1st -- the “timing” of a lien transfer for preference purposes is when the transfer is recorded (547(e)(1)) i.e., when effective vs 3rd parties ▪ Realty – beat bfp – (e)(1)(A) ▪ Personalty – beat lien Cr – (e)(1)(B) HOWEVER -- subject to 30-day grace period, after transfer effective as between Dr and SP, 547(e)(2) If record within 30-days, deem “transfer” to have occurred back when effective between Dr-SP Fixing the transfer time alone, however, may not fully protect legitimate interests of SP Why? b/c in some scenarios the “debt” arises before the time the lien is transferred – and thus have an artificial “antecedent debt” problem Even if no delay in perfection, or relates back to when 1st effective as between Dr & SP To see this, consider a common scenario: May 1: Lender loans Dr $25K to enable Debtor to purchase certain equipment, Debtor grants Lender a security interest in that equipment, and Lender immediately perfects June 1: Dr purchases the equipment ▪ Under the UCC, the security interest in the equipment does not “attach” until June 1, when the Debtor has acquired rights in the collateral. U.C.C. § 9-203(b). ▪ Likewise, in bankruptcy, “transfer” of security interest in equipment to Lender under 547(e)(2) would be deemed to occur on June 1, when the security interest first became effective as between Lender and Debtor. The debt, though, arose on May 1, when the loan was made, and May 1 is antecedent to June 1, when transfer deemed made Would obviously be unfair to avoid Lender’s security interest as a preference, b/c of artificial construction that the lien “transfer” occurred after the “debt” arose, when no one under non-bankruptcy law could ever have possibly beaten Lender Lender did everything it possibly could do Solution is in 547(c)(3)’s safe harbor for enabling loans Assuming meet requisites of an enabling loan SP has a statutory grace period to perfect (now, 30 days) after Dr receives possession In case like our hypo, where the SP filed to perfect on May 1 (when the loan was made), but Dr did not get collateral and thus no attachment until June 1, SP is fully protected under (c)(3): Meets all requisites of enabling loan Was perfected “on or before 30 days after Dr receives possession of such property” ▪ Perfected May 1, Dr possession June 1 As it happened, though, 547(c)(3) proved less apt for saving the SP when it delayed perfecting for some period of time after security interest 1st attached Recall, though, that non-bk law might give the SP a grace period here as well Example– UCC 9-317(e) – PMSI valid against intervening Crs if SP perfects within 20 days after Dr receives possession of collateral What happened over time was that 547(c)(3), as originally enacted in 1978, did not track precisely 9317(e)’s grace period, and thus a legitimate PMSI might be exposed So Congress kept amending (c)(3) to try to conform it to UCC rule Changed trigger date from “attachment” to when Dr receives possession of collateral Expanded grace period from 10 days to 20 days (like UCC 9-317(e)), and now is 30 days BUT did not simply incorporate by reference valid non-bk relation back rules Final piece in the “time of transfer” morass re secured creditors 547(c)(1), which has defense if a “substantially contemporaneous exchange” Predicated on Dean v Davis preference prong – time of the lien to the brother-in-law (Dean) and the loan from Dean to farmer Jones – while loan came 1st, and thus technically “antecedent,” Court suggested that were intended to be and were in fact “substantially contemporaneous” and thus should not be set aside So, in slightly delayed perfection cases, can SP argue (c)(1) defense? Facts: April 1: Dr buy new car, gives Cr note for price, grants Cr security interest in car, Dr takes possession of car April 25: Cr perfects June 1: bankruptcy State law: Cr perfection “relates back” if perfect within 20 days of Dr possession When was security interest effective between Dr & Cr? April 1 (attachment under Art. 9 – agreement for security, SP gave value, Dr had rights in collateral) When was security interest perfected? April 25 (when SP filed financing statement) Is date of perfection (April 25) within 30 days of date effective between Dr & SP (April 1)? Yes Since “yes,” deem time of transfer of security interest as date effective Dr & SP (April 1) under 547(e)(2)(A) date of debt (April 1 loan) is not “antecedent” to date of security interest transfer (April 1) and thus NOT preference – not satisfy 547(b)(2) Furthermore, since the loan did enable Dr to buy the car, and was in fact so used for that purpose, is protected form preference avoidance under “enabling loan” safe harbor of 547(c)(3), since perfected within 30 days after Dr received possession Even though the state law PMSI rule only gives 20 days! The federal time period controls, irrespective of what the state law says Note that under the sort of facts have in 9.13(a), for preference purposes the Cr is the fortunate beneficiary of a bankruptcy law “relation back” rule (547(e)(2)(A)) even though: It delayed perfecting, and thus during the 90-day preference period enjoyed a “secret lien” for some time, and Did NOT qualify for a state law relation-back grace period, since missed the 20-day state period Same facts as (a), except not an enabling loan So under state law, no “grace period” whatsoever for perfection to “relate back” Still not a preference Same timing result under 547(e), since perfected within 30 days of when effective between Dr & Cr And thus no “antecedent debt” Same facts as (a) (April 1 loan & security grant, Dr takes possession, security interest attaches) State law gives CR 45 days to perfect with relation back effect Cr perfects at day 35 (May 6) Bankruptcy June 1 PREFERENCE! This is the Fink case, SCOTUS Even though now Cr DID comply with state law! Time of transfer security interest = May 6 > 30 days after effective Dr-Cr So IS = “antecedent debt” Debt = April 1; Security interest = May 6 Not saved by enabling loan defense, b/c > 30 days, 547(c)(3)(B) Purely a FEDERAL rule Not saved by contemporaneous exchange (c)(1) Courts say “specific” [viz, subsec (e) and (c)(3)] control general [(c)(1)] What? 547(c)(5) protects secured creditors with "floating liens" in inventory and receivables A lien is said to "float" when it attaches to collateral that Dr acquires after the initial security transaction (c)(5) exempts floating lien that attaches to inventory or receivables during the preference period, EXCEPT to extent Cr has improved its position during the 90-day preference period. Thus, the fifth exception requires a comparison of the creditor's security position at the beginning of the preference period with its position at the time of bankruptcy. Problem arises b/c a Cr’s security interest cannot attach to collateral until Dr has rights in that collateral True under state law, U.C.C. 9-203(a), (b)(2). And also true in bankruptcy, see 547(e)(3) Yet, some types of collateral (e.g., inventory, receivables) are expected to and do “turn over” in course of Dr’s business Old inventory sold, but new inventory acquired Collect old receivables, generate new ones Dr’s bargain with SP is that its security interest will “float” to attach to the new inventory or receivables that Dr acquires in normal course Outside of bankruptcy, under Article 9, generally other Crs cannot beat a previously perfected inventory or receivables SP But absent a saving rule, the “new” collateral would be deemed “transferred” to SP for the “antecedent” debt, & thus = preference Courts knew that it was unfair to nail the SP in these floating lien cases, but pre-Code had to do some tricky legerdemain to escape 9th Circuit held for SP in 1969 in DuBay v. Williams -- concluded that the "transfer" of the security interest occurred for preference purposes when SP perfected the security interest by filing a financing statement, not later when the debtor acquired the collateral Under current Code, reject that view in 547(e)(3) Grain Merchants v. Union Bank, also 1969 -- 7th Circuit 2 rationales for upholding SP’s lien: 1st: a "relaxed substitution of collateral" theory: Under 547(c)(1), CR is protected from preference if one item of collateral is substituted for another; the release of the lien on the original collateral is "new value" for the transfer of the security interest in the replacement However, substitution approach does not work well for floating liens b/c is difficult to trace the replacement-item-for-released-item linkage. 2nd: "entity" theory, or, more colorfully, the "Mississippi River" theory: Cr has security interest, not in specific items of collateral, but in the "entity" that is Dr’s “inventory” or “receivables.” Analogy drawn to Mississippi River: the specific molecules of water present from time to time vary, but it is still the Mississippi River. Just so, SP’s security interest may vary from time to time with regard to the precise items of collateral covered, but the "collateral" viewed as an entity is still the same. Also put out of court by 547(e)(3) Not only were the 9th and 7th Circuit theories formally really strained, but, more importantly, they posed a real preference risk Say 90 days before bk SP is under-secured, then demands buildup in collateral before bk arrives Example: 90 days before – debt = $100K, collateral = 60K (so 40 short) ; by time bk filed, collateral = 100 Even though SP obviously seems to be $40k better off, not able to avoid under either “transferred when perfected” or “Mississippi” 1. no “transfer” of collateral until Dr has interest – 547(e)(3) Thus potentially is for “antecedent debt” and prima facie preference under 547(b) 2. safe harbor defense = 547(c)(5) – the “2point improvement in position” test Compare SP’s security position 90 days before bankruptcy and see if “improved” by time of bankruptcy – so, in hypo, have a preference = 40 547(c)(5) uses two-point improvement-in-position test: security interest in inventory or receivables is only avoided to extent that CR improves its position from point one to point two. Interim fluctuations are ignored. Point One is the beginning of the preference period only exception is if Cr does not make loan until a later date; in that event, the date new value is first extended will be point one Point Two is the date of bankruptcy Comparison between these two points: extent Cr is undersecured, i.e., the amount that the debt exceeds the value of the collateral. Preference: only found to extent Cr’s unsecured claim gets smaller, i.e., its deficiency decreases, from point one to point two. Point One deficiency (debt minus collateral value) minus Point Two deficiency (debt minus collateral value) = amount avoided Note meet requisites for application (c)(5) – inventory financing, turned over entirely during preference period Dates: bankruptcy filed June 30 (point tw0), so 90 days before (point one) = April 1 Point one: debt = $100, inventory value = 100 Point two: debt = $100, inventory value = 100 No preference Not possible b/c NO DEFICIENCY AT POINT ONE! Since Cr was fully secured at point one (90 days before), it cannot “improve its position” Point one: debt = 100, collateral = 100 Point two: debt = 100, collateral = 115 Still no preference Even though did “build up” inventory, not matter, b/c since Cr was fully secured at point one, it can’t improve its position under (c)(5) ▪ Of course, Cr IS better off b/c now can get postpetition interest under 506(b)! Point one: debt = 125, collateral = 100 Point two: debt = 125, collateral = 115 Now preference = 15 The Cr was undersecured by 25 at point one, but is only undersecured by 10 at point two Thus has improved its position by 15 Point one: debt = 125, collateral 100 15 days before bankruptcy: debt 125, coll = 50 Point two: debt = 125, collateral 100 NO preference Only compare points one and two Undersecured by same amount at both (25) Ignore interim fluctuations Point one: debt = 125, collateral = 100 Day later: payment of 20 Point two: debt = 105, collateral = 100 BE CAREFUL! Simple “deficiency at pt 1 vs deficiency at pt 2” comparison might suggest should avoid 20 of lien, since deficiency is 20 less But that is b/c Dr made a payment What happens if Trustee avoids and recovers that $20 payment? – Cr’s claim is back to 125 at point two, so really did NOT improve position