Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
Hospital laboratory providing
all high-volume and emergency
testing is ___.
Laboratory medicine is a
component of
Laboratory medicine is
involved in the selection,
provision and interpretation of
___ and ___.
Laboratory testing is a process
conducted in a ___.
Laboratory testing is used for
the following purposes:
Core laboratory
Laboratory Science
Diagnostic testing and individual specimens.
Clinical laboratory
Rule a diagnosis in or out, select and monitor disease
treatment, provide a prognosis, screen for a disease, determine
the severity of and monitor a physiological disturbance.
Molecular diagnostics is the use Prevention, diagnosis, follow-up or prognosis of a disease and
of molecular biology
selection, optimization, monitoring of therapies.
techniques for the following
reasons:
In the clinical laboratory, the
Proficiency testing, auditing, Benchmarking, Clinical governance
purpose of quality control is:
Which 3 facets of laboratory
1. analytical testing
medicine can be attained with
2. use of clinical decision making informatics
the use of telemedicine and
tele-healthcare?
What are some of the tools and
- chemical testing
methods in clinical chemistry
- genetic testing
that are now used in other areas
- molecular testing
of laboratory medicine?
- cancer diagnostics
- infectious disease testing
- identity testing
What is the purpose of
For prevention, diagnosis, prognosis, follow-up of disease.
molecular diagnostics?
What does PCR stand for?
Polymerase chain reaction
What are ethics?
Are the rules or standards governing the conduct of an
individual or the members of a profession.
What are ethical issues in
Confidentiality of genetic information
laboratory medicine?
Confidentiality of patient medical information
Allocation of resources
Code of conduct
Publishing issues
Conflict of interest
What are confidentialities?
Genetic information
Patients’ medical information
What is allocation of healthcare Best use of time
resources?
Cost vs. quality
What are publishing issues?
Fraud
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Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
Plagiarism
Falsification/fabrication of data
Conflicts of interest
What is the future of laboratory
medicines?
What are the role of guidelines
in method evaluation?
What are the medical
usefulness criteria?
What are the analytical
performance criteria?
Other practical criteria are:
What is a Frequency
Distribution
What is a Histogram
What is a Nonparametric
Approach to statistics
What is a Population
What is a Sample
How many pieces of data are
needed to begin developing
reference ranges.
True or False
Probability and Probability
Distributions do not require a
large sample size to be
accurate.
Full of promise but also challenges
Explosion of insight into disease and treatment
Responsibility to stay up to date and behave ethically
Clinical and Laboratory Standard Institute.
International Organization for Standardization (ISO)
Meeting laboratory accreditation requirements.
Turnaround time.
Clinical utility.
Sensitivity.
Specificity.
Precision.
Accuracy (trueness).
Analytical range.
Detection limit.
Analytical specificity.
Instrumentation.
Principle of the assay and protocol for performing the test.
Composition and stability of reagents and reference materials.
Technologist time and required skills.
Possible hazards and appropriate safety precautions.
Specimen / instrument requirement and limitations.
a table that displays the frequency of various outcomes in a
sample, these entries on the table contain the count of
occurrences of what is being measured within a particular
group, displaying the distribution of values in the sample.
a graphical device for displaying a large set of data.
Statistics not based on parameterized distributions. in other
words this type of statistics has no dependence on a specific
set of parameters.
is the complete set of all observations that might occur as a
result of performing a particular procedure according to
specified conditions.
group of observations that has actually been selected from the
population. There is a need for proper selection of sample
20
False, a large sample size is required for accuracy of
probability and probability distribution. A large sample size
will provide many data in which to form different conclusive
statements.
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Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
What are Parameters?
What is a median?
What is a population mean?
What is population variance?
What is population standard
deviation?
What are statistics?
What is random sampling?
What is the Gaussian
Probability Distribution?
What is an example of the
Gaussian Probability
Distribution?
-What is required for Gaussian
distributions and is randomly
used in significance tests.
-What is the relationship
between instrument signal vs.
concentration of analyte? The
precision depends on stability
of instrument response for
given analyte.
-Closeness of agreement
between large-series average
and true values.
-Evaluated by comparison of
measurements given (field)
method and a reference method.
-This s caused by instrument or
1) Descriptive measures of a population
It is a constant that describes some particular characteristics of
a population.
An alternative parameter that indicates the central tendency of
a population, defined as the 50th percentile.
The parameter most commonly used to describe the central
location of a population
A parameter describing the dispersion of values about the
population mean.
The positive square root of the population variance, frequently
used to describe the population dispersion in the same units as
the population value
1) Descriptive measures of the sample.
Values calculated from the observations in sample
1) Each member of the population has an equal chance of
selection throughout the population.
Precaution to ensure random sampling
1) Symmetrical distribution of errors
Parametric approach
Student t Probability Distribution
Calibration
Trueness and Accuracy
Drift
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Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
reagent instability overtime so
hat calibration becomes biased.
-Must be closed to zero top
ensure unbiased results.
Referring to qualitative
concept, define
closeness of agreement of mean
value with “true value”.
Referring to quantitative
measurement, define a measure
of the systematic error.
Referring to qualitative
concept, what term defines
repeatability (within run),
intermediate precision (long
term) and reproducibility
(interlaboratory)?
Referring to quantitative
measurement, define a measure
of the dispersion of random
errors.
Define closeness of agreement
of a single measurement with
“true value”.
Definition for comprising both
random and systematic
influences.
What is caused by instrument
or reagent instability overtime
so that calibration becomes
biased?
What must be ensured in a
carryover to ensure unbiased
results?
True or False:
Trueness is a qualitative
concept.
Trueness is defined as
closeness of agreement of
_____ value with “true value”.
True or False:
Precision is a quantitative
measure.
Precision is associated with
___________ and __________
Define Accuracy.
Carryover
Trueness
Bias
Precision
Imprecision
Accuracy
Error of Measurement
Drift
Assay carryover must be close to zero.
True
Mean
False
Repeatability and reproducibility.
Accuracy is a qualitative concept that is closeness of
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Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
A measure of the systematic
error is _________.
A measure of the dispersion of
random errors is defined as?
Error of measurement is
defined as a quantitative
measure that comprises both
________ and systematic
influences.
Define Precision.
agreement of a single measurement with “true value”.
Bias
Imprecision
Random
Closeness of agreement between independent results under set
conditions
True
True or False:
Imprecision of measurements is
solely related to the random
error of measurements and has
no relation to the trueness of
measurements.
Closeness of agreement
Repeatability
between results of successive
measurements carried out under
the same conditions is defined
as?
Define Reproducibility.
Closeness of agreement between results of measurements
performed under changed conditions of measurements.
______ refers to the
Linearity
relationship between measured
and expected values over the
range of analytical
measurements.
Presence of linearity is a
Trueness
prerequisite for a high degree of
________.
What does analytical sensitivity Capacity of a method to detect small variations in the
mean?
concentration of analyte
True or False: Analytical
True
sensitivity is often expressed as
the slope of the calibration
curve.
Analytical sensitivity depends
SD ; slope
on the ratio between the _____
of the calibration function and
the ______.
What does analytical sensitivity Precision of method
depend on?
What are two other names for
measuring interval, reportable range
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Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
Analytical Measurement Range
and Limits of Quantification?
What is Analytical
Measurement Range and Limits
of Quantification?
What is Analytical specificity
and interference?
Give 3 examples of Analytical
specificity and interference?
What are 4 analytical goals?
What are qualitative methods?
How is comparison of
measurements obtained?
What are Parallel
measurements?
What is a Basic error model?
What are examples of basic
error model?
What is the method
comparison data model?
How is the planning a method
comparison study?
analyte concentration range over which measurements are
within declared tolerance for imprecision and bias of the
method
Capacity of procedure to determine specifically the
concentration of target analyte despite interferences
hyperlipemia, hemolysis, bilirubin, anticoagulants, antibodies,
degradation products
Based on principles and a hierarchy
Based on biological variation
Goals for bias
Relation of goals to limits set by professional bodies
Use in point-of-care testing
Clinical sensitivity
Clinical specificity
Gold standard
Independent reference method
yielded by two different methods
a set of optimal patient samples
Distinguishes pure, random errors from those related to
incorrect calibration and nonspecificity of the assay
Sample-related random bias
Calibration bias (changed in lot number) and random bias
(sample specific interferences)
Mistakes or clerical errors
It is comparison of a routine method with a reference method,
and comparison of two routine methods
-Distribution of analyte concentrations
-Representativeness of samples
•Samples from different patients categories
•Storage and treatment of samples
-Comparisons of measurements taken over days
-Ethical aspects
Plot of differences against average results of methods
What is the difference (BlandAltman) plot?
What is the difference (BlandPlot of differences in relation to existing method located
Altman) plot with specified
within given specified limits
limits?
What is the regression analysis? Applied in comparing results of analytical method
comparisons
What are 3 examples of
1. Deming Regression Analysis
Regression analysis?
2. Ordinary Least-Square Regression Analysis (OLR)
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Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
3. Nonparametric Regression Analysis (Passing-Bablok)
What is Traceability?
- Means of ensuring agreement between measurements
from routine methods
- Based on an unbroken chain of comparison
measurements leading to a known reference value
Reference measurement procedure  selected measurement
procedure  routine measurement procedure
What are some considerations
- Pre-analytical variation
for the Uncertainty Concept?
- Method imprecision
- Sample-related random interferences
- Calibration uncertainties
Bias corrections
What is Sensitivity?
Percentage of people with a disease correctly predicted by the
test
What is the formula to calculate Sensitivity = True Positive / (True positive + False negative)
sensitivity?
______ is the diseased
True Positive
individuals who are correctly
classified by the test
______ is the diseased
False Negative
individuals who are
misclassified by the test
What does specificity mean?
Percentage of people without a disease correctly predicted by
the test.
What is formula of specificity?
TN
Specificity = ---------------TN + FP
TN (True Negative) stands for: nondiseased individuals who are correctly classified by the test
FP (False Positive) stands for:
nondiseased individuals who are misclassified by the test
Following are description of
Dichotomous tests
what type of tests?
- ) Having only positive or
negative results and provide
qualitative results.
-) Have a single sensitivity and
specificity pair for a designated
assay cutoff
Following are description of
Continuous tests
what type of tests?
- ) produce quantitative results.
- ) Have an infinite number of
sensitivity and specificity pairs,
as the cutoff varies from lowest
to highest decision value.
Name the test that is generated Receiver-Operating Characteristic Plots
by plotting sensitivity (y-axis)
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Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
versus specificity (x-axis)?
When using this test, plot
displays same information
graphically?
Following are description of
what type of tests?
- ) Relative measure of test
performance.
- ) Test performance depends
on region of curve (sensitivity
vs. specificity) selected for
analysis.
Base on probabilistic reasoning,
how ROC test should be
interpreted?
-) Necessity of viewing results
through prism of the clinical
setting, and
- ) Interpretation tempered by
knowledge of the prevalence of
the disease should be
considered in ROC curve
according-----------------?
What does prevalence mean?
-------------Obtained with the
use of several techniques?
What are the two types of
predictive values?
What are predictive tests used
to for?
What are the three functions
used in a predictive value
equation?
What is the equation for the
predictive value of a positive
test (PV+)?
Receiver-Operating Characteristic Plots
Receiver-Operating Characteristic Plots
Result should not be interpreted in isolation.
Probabilistic reasoning
Frequency of a disease in the population under scrutiny.
Prevalence
Fraction of subjects with positive result having the disease in
question; fraction of subjects with a negative result who do not
have the disease
They are used to interpret dichotomous tests and continuous
tests used in dichotomous manner
Functions of sensitivity, specificity, and prevalence
What is the equation for the
predictive value of a negative
test (PV-)?
What is the Odds Ratio (OR)?
The probability of the presence of a particular disease divided
by probability of its absence.
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Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
What does the Odds Ratio
reflect?
What is the Likelihood Ratio
(LR)?
It reflects the prevalence of the disease in the
population.
The probability of occurrence of a specific test value given that
disease is present divided by the probability of same test value if
disease were absent
What does LR stand for?
Likelihood Ratio
What is the formula to calculate Sensitivity/ 1- specificity
Positive likelihood ratio (LR+)?
What is the formulat to
Specificity/ 1- sensitivity
calculate Negative likelihood
ratio (LR-)?
What is the LR for quantitative The tangent slope of ROC curve
tests?
When calculating LR, what is
Disease prevalence and other prior information
not considered?
What adjustment is required
For best estimate of probability of disease
before result is obtained?
What is Bayes’ Theorem?
Permits calculation of disease probability after new information is
added to existing data
How is Bayes’ Theorem
With the use of the likelihood ratio and odds ratio
applied to yield an odds ratio?
What assumption does Bayes’
Test independence
Theorem rest on?
What is the formula for Bayes’ P(D/R) = Sensitivity x Prevalence/ Sensitivity x Prevalence + (1
Theorem?
Specificity) x (1 – Prevalence)
What is combination testing?
Use of test panels to increase sensitivity and specificity or to decrease
costs
Why is calculation of
There is a need for test independence
performance difficult with
combination testing?
Why is it not beneficial to add
False positive rate is expected to rise
tests to a panel?
What is Combination Testing?
 Increased value of sensitivity over specificity if curable
disease with low-cost therapy is diagnosed
 Strategies for manipulating the order of testing
Order of testing does not affect performance but may affect costs
What is Sensitivity?
Result with disease.
What is Specificity?
Result without disease.
What are 2 Methods for
QUADAS
Assessing Diagnostic
STARD
Accuracy?
What is QUADAS?
Quality Assessment of Diagnostic Accuracy Studies
Standards for Reporting of Diagnostic Accuracy.
What is STARD?
1. A project designed to improve the quality of reporting
of the results of diagnostic accuracy studies.
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Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
What is Evidence-Based
Medicine?
What is evidence-based
medicine (EBM)?
What is Evidence-Based
Medicine and Laboratory
Medicine?
What are the roles of
diagnostics tests?
Will the diagnostic test leads to
change in probability the
presence of a disease?
What will be the intervention
after the primary diagnostic
test?
How does the diagnostic test
impact?
Is diagnostic test safe?
What is the outcome?
How many types are there in
evidence-based laboratory
medicine?
How is the first type in
evidence-based laboratory
studied?
What is the outcome in
evidence-based laboratory type
2?
How accuracy of diagnostic
studies in evidence-based
laboratory type 3 are?
How does the type 4 in
evidence-based laboratory be
evaluated?
What is included in evidence-


Term introduced in 1991
Conscientious, judicious, and explicit use of best
evidence
 Justifications for evidence-based approach
Encourages innovation and change
 Application to laboratory medicine of the principles
and techniques of EBM and clinical epidemiology
Ensures that the best evidence obtained is made available to
assist clinician in making the best decisions for the patient,
leading to increase probability of improved health outcomes
 Roles of diagnostic tests

Scenarios of decision-making process, each involving
a question, a decision, and an action. For, example:
 Seeking a diagnosis
 Ruling out a diagnosis
 Making a prognosis
 Treatment selection and optimization
 Treatment monitoring
Useful diagnostic test leads to change in probability of
presence of a disease, but the change alone does not prompt
the decision.
Follow-up of testing with an appropriate intervention
Value of test based on impact on patient’s health
Harm done by restriction of research
“Test and act”
Five types of studies in evidence-based laboratory medicine
Characterization of the diagnostic accuracy of tests by
studying groups of patient
Determination of the value of testing for people who are tested
(outcome)
Systematic review of studies of diagnostic accuracy or
outcome of tests to answer a specific clinical question
Economic evaluation of test to assess the economic value of
using the test
Audit of performance of tests during use to answer questions
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Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
based laboratory type 5?
What other technique is used in
evidence-based laboratory
medicine?
What is the alternative design?
How many types of verification
bias?
What are the verification bias’
types?
What is the outcome studies?
What is patient outcomes?
What is examples of patient
outcomes?
What is the usage of outcome
study?
What is the importance of
outcome studies in medicine?
How do randomized control
trials (RCT) work?
What are RCTs?
How are RCTs regulated?
What is the optimal design of
RCTs?
What are the several defining
features of systematic reviews
of diagnostic testing?
What do systematic reviews of
diagnostic tests require?
What elements of protocol are
there for diagnostic tests?
What are some systematic
reviews of diagnostic tests?
about their use
Use of computerized modeling techniques to assess costeffectiveness of tests and impact of process changes on
resource utilization
It is results of patients known to have the disease are
contrasted with a control group.
Two
Differential verification bias and Spectrum bias
It is the results of medical interventions in terms of health or
cost (clinical, operational, economic)
It is the outcomes associated with patient’s condition and
experience.
Mortality, morbidity, complication rates, length of stay in the
hospital, waiting time, costs of care, patient satisfaction with
care
- Improvement of outcomes with improved test
- Test as surrogate outcome marker
- Value of operational and economic outcomes to care
providers, purchasers, and policy makers
- Differentiation of outcome studies from studies of
prognosis
Test attributes and studies of outcomes
The requirement of proven effectiveness for drugs and the
demand for effectiveness of diagnostic testing as well as to
prove high quality care and show improved outcomes.
Patients are randomly assigned to receive either the
intervention to be tested or an alternative and an outcome is
measured.
A standard for studies of health effects of medical
interventions.
CONSORT (Consolidated Standards for Reporting Trials).
It includes the evaluation of applicability of an outcome study.
The explicit methodology helps ensure reproducibility with
multiple objectives, to answer strictly defined clinical
questions in a way that minimizes bias.
Time, multiple people with multiple skills and
database searches for previous studies?
Title, background information, composition of the review
group, a timetable, the clinical question(s) to be addressed in
the review and a search strategy.
1) Inclusion and exclusion criteria for selection of studies
2)Methodology of data extraction and data extraction forms
3)Methodology of and checklist for critical appraisal of studies
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Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
What are some key steps in a
systematic review of a
diagnostic test?
What are some strategies for
search of primary literature?
What is essential to do with
quality review and data
extraction?
Who should the data be
summarized and presented?
What are some benefits of
using meta-analysis for
multiple studies?
What is the Influence of
laboratory testing on healthcare
costs?
How to work on Hierarchy of
evidence ?
What is the definition of Costminimization analysis?
What is the definition of Costbenefit analysis?
What is the definition of Costeffectiveness analysis?
What is the definition of Costutility analysis?
What are the Perspectives of
Economic Evaluations?
4)Methodology of study synthesis
1) Identify the clinical question.
2) Define inclusion and exclusion criteria.
3) Search the literature.
4) Identify relevant studies.
5) Select studies against explicit quality criteria.
6) Extract data and assess quality.
7) Analyze and interpret data.
8) Present and summarize findings.
1) An electronic search of literature databases
2) Hand searching of key journals
3) Review of the references of key review articles
Identified papers should be read independently by two persons
and data extracted according to a template
1) Presented in tables
2) Data should include sensitivities, specificities and
likelihood ratios
3) Summarized in plots that provides an indication of the
variation among studies
4) Should also include an assessment of the quality of each
study using a scoring system such as QUADAS (Quality
Assessment of Diagnostic Accuracy)
1) Statistical way of analyzing data from multiple studies
2) Explore sources of variability in the results of clinical
studies
3) Increase confidence in the data and conclusions
4) Signal when no further studies are necessary
Costs of laboratory testing have a profound effect on medical
decisions
technical performance → clinical performance → clinical
effectiveness → economic sense
Simplest type of economic evaluation that compares the costs
of alternative approaches that produce the same outcome
Determines whether the value of the benefit exceeds the cost
of the intervention and therefore whether the intervention is
worthwhile.
Looks at the most efficient way of spending a fixed budget to
achieve a certain goal
Focuses on the quality and the quantity of the health outcome
-Patient
-Provider
-Payer (government health agency or health insurance
company)
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Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
What is the definition of silo
budgeting?
What are the clinical practice
guidelines?
What are the Steps in
developing guidelines?
What is the definition of Audit?
What is Clinical Audit?
What are the advantages of
Audit cycle?
How do you apply the principle
of Evidence-Based Laboratory
Medicine in Routine Practice?
What do reference values
mean?
What are the mandatory
conditions in the establishment
of Reference Values?
What are the mandatory
conditiions in the establishment
of Reference Values?
Society
The laboratory budget is usually “controlled” independently of
the other costs of healthcare
Tool for facilitating implementation of findings of primary
studies and systematic reviews
To assists practitioner and patient decisions about appropriate
healthcare for specific clinical circumstances
Need for transparency to ensure integrity
-Topic selection
-Establishment of target group and development team
-Identification and assessment of evidence
-Transformation of evidence into guideline
-External review and updates to guidelines
Refers to the review of case histories of patients against the
benchmark of current best practice
Benchmarking of performance with performance indicators
against performance of peers
-Problem-solving
-Monitoring of workload and demand
-Monitoring of new tests
-Monitoring variation between providers and adherence to best
practices
• Principles support manner in which laboratory medicine is
practiced
• Principles provide logic
• Means of providing high-quality service
Use is more complex for laboratory than for clinical medicine
but still critical
Results of certain type of quantity obtained from a single
individual or group of individuals corresponding to a stated
description, which must be spelled out and made available for
use by others.
Also referred to as observed values, reference interval,
reference limit
All groups of reference individuals should be clearly defined.
The patient examined should resemble sufficiently the
reference individuals in all respects other than those under
investigation.
The conditions under which the samples were obtained and
processed for analysis should be known
• All quantities compared should be of the same type.
•
All laboratory results should be produced with the
use of adequate standardized methods under
sufficient analytical quality control
•
The clinical sensitivity, clinical specificity and
prevalence in the populations tested should be known.
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Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
What are the criteria of
selection of reference
individuals?
What type of procedures are
recommended taking into
account the requirements that
will enable all the constituents
under study to be measured
accurately?
What requires preanalytical
standardization?
A total of twenty (20) samples
from reference individuals
should be analyzed and
ensuring that no more than how
many values for the QC fall
outside the proposed limit.
Considerations will include
what?
What are the Statistical
Treatment of Reference
Values?
Partitioning of the reference
values into appropriate groups
is also known as?
Reference values can be
partitioned according to what?
Statistical Treatment of
Reference Values will give rise
to narrower and more
appropriate ______?
Examples of Partitioning
Criteria for Possible
Subgrouping of the Reference
Group are?
What is important to do have an
accurate presentation of an
• Criteria should include:
• Statements describing the source population
• Should be randomly selected
• Specifications of criteria for health
• The disease of interest
Standardized
1. Preparation of individuals before sample collection
2. The sample collection itself
3. Handling of the sample before analysis
2
a)Analysis method
Equipment, reagents, calibrators, types of raw data, calculation
method
b)Quality control
c)Reliability criteria
I.
Partitioning of the reference values into appropriate
groups
II.
Inspection of the distribution of each group
III.
Identification of outliers
Determination of reference limits
stratification (strata), categorization (category), or
subgrouping (subgroup or partition)
Sex, age, and other characteristics
reference intervals
Age, Gender, Genetic Factor, Physiological Factor, and other
factors like socioeconomic, environmental and
chronobiological
To have as much information provided as is possible.
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Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
observed value in relation to
reference values?
What observed values are
recorded in relation to reference
values?
What mathematical equation
that measures distance is used
in reference ranges?
Give 2 examples of a subjectbased reference value problem.
Name 5 things that are true of
transferability reference values.
What is clinical sensitivity?
What is clinical specificity?
What is Predictive value?
What is Prevalance?
What are examples of s
Subject-Based reference values
be used as a reference value?
Usage of reference values
generated by other laboratories
is an example of what kind of
reference values?
The Use of Transferability of
reference values can be any of
the followings except:
a. Steps to ensure
comparable analytical
methods (identical
calibration, quality
control results
b. Importance of verifying
“borrowed” values
before use
c. Expressing observed
value by a mathematical
Low, usual, and high
Standard deviation
 Inherent to population-based (Fig. 5-3)
Use of subject’s own previous healthy values as reference for
future values
 Determination of reference values beyond the scope of
many laboratories; transfer solves problem
 Must be comparable populations
 Steps to ensure comparable analytical methods
 Use of pooled multicenter data
1. Importance of verifying “borrowed” values before use
 Fraction of subjects without the disease that assay correctly
predicts
 Fraction of subjects with disease that assay correctly
predicts
 Combination of disease prevalence with sensitivity and
specificity
 The proportion of study population with disease
The use of subject’s own previous healthy values as reference
for future values.
Problems inherent to population-based reference values are
encountered.
A Transferability of reference values
C
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Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
distance measure (e.g.,
standard deviation)
d. Use of pooled
multicenter data
What is Clinical sensitivity?
A fraction of subjects without
the disease that assay correctly
predicts is a clinical:
a. Clinical sensitivity
b. Clinical specificity
c. Predictive value
d. Prevalence
What is the difference between
Predictive value and
Prevalence?
Name the six types of body
fluids that may tested in the lab:
In addition to whole blood,
what are the five types of
biological specimens collected
for lab testing:
The agency responsible for
publishing and procedures for
standardized specimen
collection is:
The liquid portion of clotted
blood is:
Serum contains fibrinogen:
True or False?
The liquid portion of
anticoagulated blood is:
Plasma contains fibrinogen:
True or False?
What are the 3 layers of
centrifuged plasma:
What does K3EDTA stand for?
What does K2EDTA stand for?
What are K3EDTA and
K2EDTA?
How does K3EDTA and
K2EDTA prevent coagulation?
What is this process called?
What is the color code for
EDTA?
What is the most commonly
used anticoagulant in
A fraction of subjects with disease that assay correctly predicts
B
A Predictive value is a combination of disease prevalence with
sensitivity and specificity while a Prevalence is a proportion of
study population with disease
Cerebrospinal, synovial, pleural, amniotic, ascitic and pericardial fluids.
Serum, plasma, urine, feces, saliva.
The Clinical and laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI)
Serum
False
Plasma
True
Bottom is RBCs, Top is plasma and slim middle buffy layer is WBCs and platelets
Tripotassium ethylenediaminetetraacetate
Dipotassium ethylenediaminetetraacetate
Anticoagulants
By removing ionized calcium
Chelation
Lavender, occasionally pink or white
EDTA
16
Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
hematology for complete blood
count or any of its component
tests?
Complete blood count
What does CBC stand for?
What are the component tests
Hemoglobin, packed cell volume, total leukocyte count,
for CBC?
leukocyte differential count, platelet count
Erythrocyte sedimentation rat
What does ESR stand for?
Blood grouping, rH typing, and antibody screening
What is EDTA used for in
blood banking?
EDTA is useful for isolation of True
genomic DNA and qualitative
and quantitative virus
determinations by molecular
techniques.
EDTA inhibits certain enzymes TRUE
like alkaline phosphotase, CK
and leucine aminopeptidase.
EDTA is unsuitable for calcium TRUE
and iron analyses using
photometric or titrimetric
techniques.
By removing calcium and precipitating it into an unusable form
How does sodium citrate
prevent coagulation?
Light blue
What color is the tube for
sodium citrate?
Which tests use sodium citrate? APTT, PT, Westergren ESR
1 part anticoagulant to 9 parts blood
What is the ratio of sodium
citrate to blood?
Acid citrate dextrose
What is ACD?
Its ability to preserve both form and function of the cellular components
Why is ACD ideal for
molecular diagnostic and
cytogenic testing?
Oxalate
Which anticoagulant forms
insoluble complexes with
calcium ions?
Greater than 3g oxalate/liter of blood
At what concentration will
oxalate cause hemolysis?
anti-thrombin
What substance inactivates
blood-clotting factor thrombin
and factor Xa?
What is the recommended form Lithium heparin
of heparin?
Green
What is the color code for
heparin?
Heparin
What is the only anticoagulant
that should be used for the
17
Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
determination of pH, blood
gases, electrolytes, and ionized
calcium?
Which enzyme converts
fibrinogen to fibrin?
Why is thrombin used in “stat”
serum testing?
Which dry additive is a weak
anticoagulant and is primarily
used in preventing glycolysis?
Which 2 substances are
effective at 2g/L of blood
concentration?
What is a potent inhibitor of
urease?
What are the methods of
specimen collection?
What are supplies and
equipment of venipuncture by
syringe method?
What are supplies and
equipment of venipuncture by
vacutainer method?
What are the sites of venous
blood collection?
What are the sites of Venous
Blood Collection?
What are the recommended
order of draw for multiple
specimen collection?
Thrombin
Its short clotting time
Sodium fluoride
Sodium fluoride and potassium oxalate
Sodium fluoride
1. Venous Blood Collection (Phlebotomy or Venipuncture)
Syringe Method
Vacutainer or Evacuated Tube Method
2. Capillary or Peripheral Blood Collection (Skin Puncture)
3. Arterial Blood Collection (Arterial Puncture)
 Test requisition
 Tourniquet and disposable gloves
 Sterile disposable syringe with needle
 Alcohol swabs (70%) and gauge square pads
 Adhesive plastic strips
 Test requisition
 Tourniquet and disposable gloves
 Sterile disposable needles and needle holder
 Various evacuated blood tubes
 Alcohol swabs (70%) and gauge square pads
 Adhesive plastic strips
Veins on the anticubital fossa region:
1. Cephalic vein
2. Basilic vein
3. Medial cubital vein
 Median vein of the arm
Cephalic vein.
Basilic vein.
Medical cubital vein.
Median vein of the arm.
Yellow
Royal Blue
Clear/Red
Light Blue
Gold/Red
Red/red, orange/yellow, royal blue
18
Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
What are the methods of blood
collection?
What are the methods of
capillary or peripheral blood
collection?
True or False
Skin punctured blood is more
like arterial blood than venous
blood
A.True
B.False
Possible times when one would
perform the skin puncture
technique for a blood sample
rather than filling a tube might
include:
A.Sample volume is limited
(eg. pediatric patients)
B.Severe vein damage due to
repeated puncture
C.Burn patients
D.All of the above
Which of the following is not a
proper site for skin puncture?
A. earlobe
B. plantar or lateral surfaces of
the infant’s heel
C. thumb
D. big toe of infants
If a phlebotomist is performing
a skin puncture on a finger and
the fingers are cold and white
due to low blood circulation,
Green
Royal blue
Lavender, pearl white, pink/pink, tan (plastic)
Gray
Yellow (glass)
Patient identification.
Personal protective equipment.
Queries regarding fasting, medication.
Proper positioning and vein and site selection.
Appropriate needle, tubes, and other equipment.
Timing of collection.
Effects of tourniquet and stress.
Test requisition.
Disposable gloves and sterile small gauze squares. Sterile
disposable lancets.
Alcohol swabs (70%) and gauge square pads.
Equipment specific for the test ordered (glass slides,
micropipette, and diluent, hematocrit tubes)
A
D
C
D
19
Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
what is the proper method for
increasing blood flow?
A. Massaging finger by gently
squeezing between thumb and
forefinger.
B. Rubbing finger briskly
between hands.
C. Warm the hand by holding it
under very hot hot water for 10
minutes
D. Warm the area with a warm,
wet washcloth or heel warmer
for 3 minutes
Why should a heel stick never
be performed on the center of
the heel?
A. Because the baby may cry.
B. The heel bone may be
injured.
C. The parents may become
upset.
D. It's ok to perform a heel
stick in the center of the heel.
Blood collected from the radial
artery of the wrist, brachial
artery of the elbow, and
femoral artery in the groin is
called..
A. Venous blood
B. Arterial blood
C. Capillary blood
D. None of these
Which type of blood vessel is
used for blood gas analysis?
A. Vein
B. Capillary
C. Artery
D. B and C
True or False
Anybody is allowed to perform
an arterial puncture to obtain
blood for blood gas analysis.
A. True
B. False
True or False
Skin puncture is more like
B
B
D
B
B
20
Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
venous blood than arterial
blood.
A. True
B. False
PCO2 of venous blood is about
_____ higher than in arterial
blood.
A. 1-2 mm Hg
B. 11-12 mm Hg
C. 6-7 mm Hg
D. 5-6 mm Hg
Glucose of venous blood is
about 7 mg/L ____than skin
punctured blood
A. more
B. less
Skin punctured blood is more
prone to contamination by..
A. bacteria
B. interstitial and intracellular
fluids
C. dirt
D. all of the above.
What is Hemolysis?
What is in vivo hemolysis?
What is in vitro hemolysis?
What are the causes of in vitro
hemolysis?
What are the effects of
hemolysis?
What is Urine used for?
C
B
B
1) Disruption of the red cell membrane, resulting in the
release of hemoglobin.
Hemoglobin concentration exceeds 50mg/dL
Consequence of intravascular events
Subsequent to or during blood collection
1) Alcohol left on the skin
2) Use of small bore needles
3) Underlying red cell disorders
4) Extreme temperature during transport
Other causes
1. False increase in the concentration of plasma lactate
dehydrogenase, potassium, magnesium, phosphate and
serum inorganic phosphate
2. Additional band caused by hemoglobin may be seen on
serum protein electrophoresis (SPE)
3. Interferes with colorimetric methodologies
4. Interferes with the amplification reaction of reverse
transcriptase in molecular diagnostic testing
1) Aside from routine urinalysis, can be used for bladder
cancer screening and monitoring of therapy for bladder
cancer
2) Used for molecular testing for infectious agents
21
Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
(Chlamydia) or BK virus.
What is part of taking a urine
sample?
What are the types of urine
specimens?
Necessity of cleaning patient’s genitalia before each voiding to
minimize transfer of surface bacteria to the urine.
1) Type of specimen depends on test
2) Untimed urine specimen (random)
3) Clean, early morning, fasting specimen is most
concentrated and ideal for microscopic examination
and detection of abnormal quantities of constituents
(e.g. chorionic gonadotropin)
4) Double-voided specimen – excreted during a timed
period after complete emptying of the bladder
(glucose tolerance test)
5) Forensic studies specimen – testing for the presence of
alcohol or drugs of abuse collected under rigorous
conditions requiring chain of custody documentation
6) Catheter urine specimens – for microbiological
examinations
7) Suprapubic tap specimen – sterile specimen for
microbiological examination (culture) on infants
8) Timed specimen (4-, 12- or 24 hours)
-Need for prolonged collection period to minimize the
influence of short-term biological variations
-Importance of adherence to instructions (diet
restrictions, first urine is discarded, avoid fecal
contamination)
What is another part of taking a
urine sample?
Need for mixing of specimen because of variations in specific
gravity, volume, and composition throughout the collection
period
-The purpose for this in urine is
to reduce bacterial action,
reduces chemical
decomposition and solubilize
constituents that might
precipitate out.
-Immediately after collection,
this is the most acceptable way
of storage.
-The act or process of making
something sour (acidifying), or
changing into an acid. This can
cause precipitation of urates
(unsuitable for uric acid
determination).
Urine Preservatives
Refrigeration.
Acidification
22
Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
-In urine preservatives, what is
used to reduce pH level?
-What causes precipitation of
urates?
-What two preservatives are
used to preserve porphyrins,
urobolinogen and uric acid?
-What type of sample is used to
detect “parasites and ova” and
“Occult blood” or presence of
hidden blood for discovering
the presence of a bleeding ulcer
or malignant disease in the
gastrointestinal tract (GIT).
This type of sample is also used
for meconium testing in the
newborn’s feces to detect from
maternal drug use during the
gestational period.
-This type of specimen is used
for the screening for trypsin
activity from infants to detect
cystic fibrosis, used to
characterized the a type of
porphyria and also used to
determine nitrogen and fat in a
72 hour specimen used to
assess the severity of
malabsorption.
-This specimen is obtain from
the lumbar region of the spine,
and occasionally from cervical
region, or from the cistern or
ventricle of the brain. Used to
rule out meningitis and
demyelinating disease.
-What lumbar locations is the
CSF obtained from?
-Who is authorized for the
collection of cerebrospinal
fluid?
-What departments do the
fallowing sterile CSF tubes
belong to:
Tube #1, #2, and #3
CSF glucose is simultaneously
Sulfamic asid (10 g/L urine)
Boric acid (5 mg/L of urine)
Sodium bicarbonate or sodium hydroxide
Feces
Feces
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
L3, L4 and L5
A physician
Tube #1-Chemistry and Serology
Tube #2-Microbiology
Tube #3-Hematolgy
A blood glucose test
23
Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
ran with what kind of test?
True or false?
Antoglycolytic agents are
added to CSF
What can CSF give rapid
identification of ?
In molecular diagnostics CSF
can also be used for what kind
of cells (2) rearrangement
associated with hematologic
malignancies?
What is synovial fluid?
What is arthrocentesis?
True or False?
The technique of arthrocentesis
depends on location and size of
joint
What can synovial fluid be used
for?
What kind of tube should be
used for synovial fluid?
What kind of tubes should be
used for synovial fluid for
culture, glucose and protein?
What kind of tube should be
used for total leukocyte,
differential and erythrocyte
counts for synovial fluid?
Synovial fluid can be used to
detect the presence of
________ ___________.
What is a causative agent of
Lyme disease?
Staphylococcus aureus is a
causative of what kind of
infection?
What kind of bacteria is
Salmonella, Pasteruella and
Pseudomonas?
What is amniotic fluid?
What term is used to describe
the collection of amniotic fluid?
True or false?
Amniotic fluid can be used to
indicate prenatal diagnosis of
congenital disorders
False
Infectious agents
T-cell and B-cell
Joint fluid that lubricates a joint, tendon sheath or bursa
Surgical puncture to remove synovial fluid
True
To indicate and aid characterization of the type of arthritis
A sterile tube with or without preservative (depending on test
to be performed)
Sterile plain tubes
EDTA tubes
Infectious microorganisms
Borrelia burgdorferi
Staphylococcal infections
Aerobid Gram-negative bacilli
Liquid contained by the amniotic sac of a pregnant woman
Amniocentesis
True
24
Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
True or False?
Amniotic fluid can be used to
indicate and asses in fetal lung
maturity
True or False?
Amniotic fluid can’t be used to
look for RH isoimmunization
of intrauterine infection
What kinds of disorders can
amniotic fluid diagnose?
How is chorionic villi
removed?
When is chorionic villus
usually removed?
How is chorionic villus
observed?
What kind of characteristics are
you looking for in chorionic
villi?
True or False?
Chorionic villi has the same
chromosomal and genetic
makeup identical as the fetus
What is chorionic villi used to
test for?
What is serous fluid?
What may an accumulation of
serous fluids indicate?
What can be differentiated
using serous fluid?
What is the method of
collection for serous fluids
called?
Chorionic villi has the same
chromosomal and genetic
makeup identical to what?
What is chorionic villi used to
test for?
What is serous fluid?
Accumulation of serous fluid
may signify what?
How to differentiation whether
fluid is an transudate (effusion)
or exudate?
True
False
Cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anemia, Tay-Sach’s disease, and
thalassemia
With a catheter or needle
During gestation (early pregnancy)
Under the microscope for quality, quantity, and integrity
The quality of branching, budding, veining, and evaluation of
maternal cell contamination
True
Inherited genetic disorders
Fluid that lubricates the opposing parietal and visceral
membrane surfaces
Inflammation or infection
Whether fluid is an transudate or exudate using protein or
enzyme content analysis
Paracentesis
as the fetus
inherited genetic disorders
Fluid that lubricates the opposing parietal and visceral
membrane surfaces
inflammation or infection
using protein or enzyme content analysis
25
Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
What is the general method of
collection?
What cavities contain serous
fluid?
The fluid contained between
the visceral and parietal
membrane is known as what?
Pleural fluid is contained
between what?
Pericardial fluid is located
where?
What is thoracentesis?
What is Peritoneocentesis?
What is Pericardiocentesis?
How is the method testing of
saliva?
What are buccal cells?
paracentesis
Peritoneal cavity, Pleural cavity, Pericardial cavity
the Peritoneal Fluid
Visceral space and pleural space
Around the heart
Collection of pleural fluid
Collection of peritoneal fluid
Collection of pericardial fluid
Measure of blood group substances to determine secretor
status and genotype
Are cells of the oral cavity, excellent source of DNA.
Collected by rinsing with mouthwash and using swabs or
cytobrushes.
What is the solid tissue?
Breast cancer tissue, testing for estrogen and progesterone
receptors and have to keep freezing.
How to analysis toxicologic?
It means all materials used for collection or handing should be
made of plastic and free of contaminating trace elements
What is somatic gene analysis
Detection of mutation. The tissues are usually formalin-fixed
for?
and paraffin-embedded (FFPE). The specimens in optimal
cutting temperature (OCT) compound- mixture of polyvinyl
alcohol and polyethylene glycol.
The method of testing hair and They are used currently limited genomic identification, and
nails
also used for drug and trace metal analysis but poor
standardization of assays
What are procedures of
Identification, preservation, separation and storage, and
specimens for analysis?
transport.
How to maintenance of
All specimens treated as if infectious; no special labeling.
specimen identification?
They need for adequate labeling, regardless of size or
treatment of container.
Preservation of specimens are
Proper container and labeling, careful transport
Temperature constraints
Separation of serum and plasma, hemolysis
Challenges of RNA recovery
Remote facilities.
Separation of plasma and
- As soon as possible but not prematurely
serum:
- Room temperature storage if centrifugation not
possible in normal window
Freezer or cold storage after centrifugation
Centrifugation with a stopper in
- Prevents evaporation or aerosolization
place:
- Absolutely necessary for volatiles
26
Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
Cryopreservation:
Requirements for referring
specimens to a CAP accredited
referral laboratory:
Controllable Pre-analytical
variables include:
Uncontrollable Pre-analytical
variables include:
What are effects of changes in
posture:
- Maintains anaerobic conditions
pH changes induced by removal of stopper before
centrifugation
- Useful in preserving WBCs and DNA
- Preventing shearing of DNA
Thorough mixing after thawing
For CAP accredited laboratories, it is a requirement that the
referring laboratory validate that the referral laboratory is
CLIA certified before specimens are shipped.
 - Physiological Variables
 Posture
 Exercise and Physical training
 Circadian variation
 Menstrual cycle
 Travel
 Diet
 Food ingestion
 Vegetarianism
 Malnutrition
 Fasting and Starvation
 Lifestyle
 Smoking
 Alcohol
 Drug Administration
 Prescribed medication
 Recreational drug ingestion
Herbal preparations
 Biological influences
 Age
 Sex
 Race
 Environmental factors
 Altitude
 Ambient temperature
 Geographical location of residence
 Seasonal influences
 Underlying medical conditions
 Obesity
 Blindness
 Pregnancy
 Stress
 Fever
 Shock and trauma
Transfusion and Infusion
- Changes in posture result to hydrostatic efflux of water and
filterable substances from the intravascular space to the
27
Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
What type of physical variation
causes Shifts of fluid between
intravascular and interstitial
compartments?
Name one of the variations can
cause Changes in hormone
concentration in analyte?
Loss of fluid due to sweating
can be due to what type of
variables?
What does Circadian Variation
refer to?
What factors contributes to
Circadian Variation?
Give some examples of
Circadian Variation?
Why Menstrual Cycle is
considered one of the
preanalytical controllable
variable?
How does Travel across several
time zones affect the normal
circadian rhythm?
How many days is required to
establish a new stable diurnal
rhythm after travel across 10
time zones?
How does Synthetic diets
affect the amount of protein in
the plasma?
Which plasma constituents will
be increased when Diet mainly
consists of starch or sucrose?
Which plasma constituents will
be reduced when sucrose intake
is decreased?
Which plasma constituents will
be reduced in high
carbohydrate diet?
Individuals who eat many small
meals throughout the day
give…………….?
How food ingestion is affected
dependent interstitial fluid of the extracellular space
Increase in potassium (0.2-0.3 mmol/L) occurs after an
individual stands for 30 minutes
Exercise and Physical Training
Exercise and Physical Training
Exercise and Physical Training
The pattern of production, excretion and concentration of
analytes each 24 hours
posture, activity, food ingestion, stress, daylight or darkness
and sleep or wakefulness
Cortisol and Iron higher at 8AM and lower at 4PM
Potassium higher in AM than PM
Because the concentrations of plasma female sex hormones and other
hormones are affected by the menstrual cycle.
Due to altered pituitary and adrenal functions
Five (5) days
Day to day changes
ALP and LD
Plasma triglyceride concentration
the VLDL cholesterol concentration, triglycerides and protein
lower the VLDL cholesterol concentration, triglycerides and protein
With the time between ingestion of a meal and collection of blood.
28
Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
the concentration of certain
plasma constituents?
What plasma constituent are
reduced in individuals who
have been vegetarians for a
long time?
Does Vegetarianism affect both
HDL and LDL cholesterol
concentrations?
What are some causes of
malnutrition?
In a fasting/starving state, what
occurs to the concentration of
glucose?
In a fasting/starving state, what
occurs to the secretion of
insulin and glucagon?
What is stimulated by a
fasting/starving state?
In a fasting/starving state, what
does the body use for energy?
What is the impact of nicotine
on the body?
Does smoking increase or
decrease glucose
concentrations?
Does smoking increase or
decrease plasma growth
hormone concentrations?
How are immunoglobulins
affected with smoking?
How does smoking affect
sperm count and activity?
How does alcohol ingestion
affect blood glucose
concentrations?
What is used as a marker of
persistent drinking?
What is chronic alcoholism
associated with?
How can intramuscular drugs
alter blood serum?
What is recreational drug
ingestion?
What are some examples of
LDL cholesterol, total lipids, and phospholipids
Yes, In strict vegetarians, the LDL concentration may be 37% less
and the HDL cholesterol concentration 12% less done in
nonvegetarians
Malnutrition causes reduction of total serum protein, albumin, beta
globulin, complement C3, retinol binding globulin, transferrin, and
prealbumin
Glucose concentration decreases by as much as 18 mg/dL
Insulin secretion is greatly reduced whereas glucagon secretion may
double
Lipolysis and hepatic ketogenesis our stimulated
Keto acids and fatty acids become the principal sources of energy for
muscle
Nicotine increases the concentration of epinephrine in the plasma and
the urinary excretion of catecholamines and their metabolites
Glucose concentration increases by 10 mg/dL within 10 minutes of
smoking a cigarette
Plasma growth hormone concentration may increase tenfold within 30
minutes
IgA, IgG, and IgM levels are generally lower in smokers, whereas IgE
concentration is higher
Sperm count of male smokers is reduced compared to non-smokers;
number of abnormal forms is greater and sperm motility is less
It increases blood glucose concentration by 20 to 50%
Increased activity of gamma glutamyltransferase (GGT) enzyme is
often used as a marker of persistent drinking
Chronic alcoholism is associated with abnormal pituitary,
adrenocortical, and medullary function
Drugs administered intramuscularly can cause increased amounts of
CK and LD into the serum.
It refers to the ingestion of compounds for mood-altering purposes.
Amphetamines increase the concentration of free fatty acids,
29
Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
recreational drugs and their
side-effects on the body?
morphine increases the activity of amylase, lipase, ALT, AST, ALP
and serum bilirubin, and cannabis increases plasma concentrations of
sodium, potassium, urea, chloride and insulin but decreases those of
creatinine, glucose and uric acid
What types of herbs can cause
Long-term use of aloe vera, sandalwood, cascara sagrda may cause
hematuria and albuminuria over hematuria and albuminuria.
time?
Green tea has been reported to
Microcytic anemia
cause what?
What are tonka beans known to Reversible liver damage
cause?
What is an uncontrollable
Age; Newborn, the older child to puberty, the sexually mature adult,
variable?
and the elderly adult
What does age have a notable
Age has a notable effect on reference intervals particularly hormones
effect on?
What sort of changes are
Characteristic
usually seen after puberty
between young female and
male humans?
What type of hormones, such as Sex hormones
prolactin, become apparent?
Certain biological
Higher enzyme readings
characteristics, such as greater
muscle mass in men, can
produce what type of
differences in men and women?
After menopause, activity of
ALP
what enzyme increases in
women until it is higher than in
men?
Is total serum protein
Black
concentration known to be
higher in people that are black
or white?
Is serum albumin typically less Black
in people that are black or
white?
In_____ men, serum IgG is
Black, white
40% higher, and serum IgA
may be 20% higher than in
____ men
One type of environmental
Altitude
factor?
Why is it that in individuals
because of reduced atmospheric PO2.
living at a high altitude, blood
hemoglobin and hematocrit are
30
Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
greatly increased?
The fasting basal concentration
of ______ is high in individuals
living at the high altitude, but
concentrations of renin and
aldosterone are decreased.
What takes longer? Complete
adaption to higher or lower
altitudes?
What can ambient temperature
have an effect on?
Acute exposure to heat may
decrease plasma protein
concentration by up to what
percent?
When you sweat, what is being
lost?
Ambient temperature may
cause a decrease in plasma
potassium by as much as what
percent?
What can you expect to see an
increase in serum
concentrations of in people who
live in areas with hard water?
In areas where there is much
heavier automobile traffic, what
can you expect to see an
increase in?
Individuals who work indoors,
as opposed to those who work
outdoors, will likely have a
higher concentration of what?
Serum concentration of
cholesterol, triglycerides and
beta lipoproteins are positively
correlated with what underlying
medical condition?
Serum LD activity and glucose
concentration increase in both
sexes with an increase of what?
In men, with increasing body
weight, what else can you
expect to see an increase in?
In women, with increasing
body weight, what else can you
Growth hormone
Higher
Body fluids
10%
Salt and water
10%
Cholesterol, triglycerides, and magnesium
Carboxy hemoglobin
Vitamin D
Obesity
Weight
Serum AST, creatinine, total protein and blood hemoglobin
concentration
Serum calcium
31
Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
expect to see an increase in?
Normal stimulation of what
body part is reduced with
blindness?
In people with blindness, The
normal diurnal variation of
what hormone may or may not
persist?
As a result of reduced
aldosterone secretion, plasma
levels of what compounds are
also reduced?
In individuals with blindness,
plasma glucose may be _____
and insulin tolerance is ____.
During pregnancy, what type of
lipids can you see an increase
in?
Urine volume ___ during
pregnancy
The glomerular filtration rate
increases by what percent
during the third trimester.
The erythrocyte sedimentation
rate increases by what fold
during pregnancy.
What types of stress can
influence concentration of
plasma constituents?
What plasma constituents can
anxiety stimulate increased
secretion?
The hypothalamic pituitary axis
Cortisol
Sodium and chloride
Reduced, less
Cholesterol, triglycerides
Increases
50%
Fivefold
Physical and mental stress.















aldosterone,
angiotensin,
catecholamines,
cortisol
prolactin
renin
somatotropin,
TSH
Vasopressin
Albumin
Cholesterol
Fibrinogen
Glucose
Insulin
lactate.
32
Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
What is reduced in secretion
during fever?
T4
Which hormones are increased
in excretion during fever?
 free cortisol
 17-hydroxycorticosteroids
17-ketosteroids
Corticotropin secretion is stimulated to produce a threefold to fivefold
increase in the serum cortisol concentration
During shock and trauma, what
stimulates increase in serum
cortisol concentration, and by
how much?
During shock and trauma, what
increases excretion and
secretion, respectively?
17-hydroxycorticosteroid and catecholamines
Which activities are increased
during shock and trauma?
Aldosterone and renin activity are increased
What is increased and
decreased during transfusions
of whole blood or plasma?
What is a delta check and what
is it used for?
What is the reference change
value?
Which population is the
reference change value
generally higher?
What are other terms for Total
Quality Management (TQM)?
When implementing TQM, the
framework for quality
management emphasizes
establishment of:
What is Quality Laboratory
 Transfusion of whole blood or plasma raises the
plasma protein concentration.
 Serum LD activity, primarily LD-1 and LD-2
isoenzymes, and bilirubin are increased.
 Transfusions may reduce levels of sodium chloride and
water retention but may increase potassium
concentration.
It is the difference between two successive results, regardless of
interval between, and it is used to identify a clinically significant
change in values.
The reference change value is the value that must be exceeded before
a change in consecutive test results is statistically significant.
The reference change value is generally higher in hospitalized people
than in healthy ones





Total Quality Control
Total Quality Leadership
Continuous Quality Improvement
Quality Management Science
Industrial Quality Management.
1. Quality Laboratory Processes (QLPs)
2. Quality Control (QC)
3. Quality Assessment (QA)
4. Quality Systems (QSs)
QLPs include analytical processes, general policies, practices, and
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Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
Processes (QLPs)?
What is Implementing TQM?
What is QC?
What is QA?
What is Turnaround Time
(TAT)?
What is QI?
What is QP?
What is Total Quality
Management?
What is QS
What is Personnel Competency
and Training?
procedures that define how all aspects of the work are done.
Completion of Total Quality Management, for example, QLP, QC,
QA, QI, QP.
Quality Control emphasizes statistical control procedures but also
includes non-statistical check procedures such as linearity checks,
reagent and standard checks, and temperature monitors.
Quality Assessment concerned primarily with broader measures and
monitors of laboratory performance such as turnaround time,
specimen identification, patient identification, and test utility.
The time between when a test is orders or a specimen is submitted for
analysis and when the test results are reported.
Quality Improvement provides a mechanism through which one can
act on those measures.
Quality Planning provides the planning step.
 Is considered a quality system that is implemented to
ensure quality.
It is a set of key quality elements that must be in place for other
organization's work operations to function in a manner to meet the
organization's stated quality objectives.
Quality System include the following:
 Documents and records
 Organization
 Personnel
 Equipment
 Purchasing and Inventory
 Process control
 Information and Occurrence Management
 Assessment: external and internal
 Process Improvement
3. Customer service
 Importance of people, training, and education
 A key factor for successful training and assessment of
laboratory staff is the planning and implementation of
targeted education programs.
 Assessment of competence in job tasks as required by
CLIA must be conducted semiannually the first year of
employment and annually thereafter, and upon
implementation of new test methodology before
reporting of patient test results.
 Detailed directions on how to develop and implement a
training and competency assessment program that
meets regulatory requirements, and provides example
of forms for documentation and record keeping should
be made available.
 Design of an in-service training program.
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Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
How many phases are presence
in a clinical testing process?
What method is considered in
analytical method?
What should be monitored in a
laboratory-wide basis?
What are the documentation of
analytical protocols?
What are the procedures
involved in monitoring of
technical competency?
What are the Statistical control
of analytical methods?
What does the unit identify?
What does the number
indicate?
How is reagent-grade water
prepared?
What is ion exchange?
What is the process of reverse
osmosis?
How effective is reverse
 Internet education programs provide an effective, costefficient way to implement in-service training.
Web-based training programs in quality control concepts are
available.
Phases of total testing process:
1. Pre-analytical (Pre-Examination)
2. Analytical (Examination)
3. Post analytical (Post-Examination)
Components of a reliable analytical method has to be
considered
Variables should be monitored on a laboratory-wide basis
Documentation of analytical protocols
a) Procedure document
b) Laboratory manual
Monitoring of technical competency
a) Written list of objectives
b) Incident reports, internal and external QC
checks
c) In-service and continuing education
Employee conferences to detect nontechnical issues
Statistical control of analytical methods
a) Comparison of observed and known values
b) Use of control limits to detect problems
c) Need for control materials
d) Selection of control products
e) Use of control charts
f) Calculation of control limits
g) Interpretation of control data
h) Reducing the risk of false alarms
i) Levey-Jennings chart
j) Westgard multirule procedure
k) Identifying sources of analytical errors
Combined use of liquid controls and moving averages of
patient values for quality control monitoring
The unit identifies the dimension - mass, volume, or
concentration - of a measured property
The number indicates how many units are contained in the
property
It’s prepared by distillation through the process of vaporizing
and condensing liquid to purify or concentrate a substance.
The process that removes ions to produce mineral free
deionized water.
Water is forced through a semipermeable membrane that acts
as a molecular filter.
It removes 95-99% of organic compounds and bacteria; 9035
Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
osmosis?
Why do we us ultraviolet
oxidation?
Whose specifications must
reagent grade or analytical
reagent grade chemicals meet?
What are ultrapure reagents?
What are reference materials?
What are primary reference
materials?
What are secondary reference
materials?
Where are standard reference
materials (SRMs) available?
Where are certified reference
materials (CRMs) available?
What glassware should be used
for accurate work?
What are pipettes used for?
What are two kinds of pipettes?
What does a transfer pipette
consist of?
What are some characteristics
of a transfer pipette?
What are 2 types of transfer
pipettes?
What is a volumetric transfer
pipette used for?
What is an Ostwald-Folin
pipette used for?
What are some characteristics
of the Ostwald-Folin pipette?
What do measuring or
97% of all ionized and dissolved minerals.
Using ultraviolet radiation eliminates many bacteria and
cleaves many ionizing organics.
American Chemical Society (ACS).
Reagents that exceed purity specifications ex. “spectrograde”,
“nanograde”, “HPLC pure”.
Any material or substance, one or more physical or chemical
properties of which are sufficiently well established for it to be
used for calibration of instruments, validation of methods,
assignment of values to materials, and evaluation of the
comparability of results.
Highly purified chemicals that are directly weighed or
measured to produce a solution whose concentration is exactly
known, 99.98% purity.
Solutions whose concentrations cannot be prepared by
weighing the solute and dissolving a known amount into a
volume of solution.
NIST for clinical and molecular laboratories. Examples are
pure crystalline standards, human-based standards, animal
blood standards, standards containing drugs of abuse in urine
and human hair, and SRMs used for DNA profiling/crime
scene investigations.
At the Institute for Reference Materials and Measurements
(IRRM) for clinical and molecular laboratories.
Only class A glassware
They are used for the transfer of a volume of liquid from one
container to another.
1) To contain (TC) a specific volume of liquid
2) To deliver (TD) a specific volume
Consist of a cylindrical bulb joined at both ends to a narrower
glass tubing.
A calibration mark is etched around the upper suction tube,
and the lower delivery tube is drawn out to a gradual taper.
1) Volumetric transfer pipette
2) Ostwald-Folin pipette
Calibrated to deliver (TD) accurately a fixed volume of a
dilute aqueous solution.
Used for accurate measurement of viscous fluids, such as
blood or serum.
1) The bulb is closer to the delivery tip
2) Has an etched ring near the mouthpiece indicating that it is
a blow-out pipette.
A piece of glass tubing that is drawn out to a tip, and is
36
Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
graduated pipettes look like?
What are measuring or
graduated pipettes used for?
What are 2 measuring or
graduated pipettes?
How does a Serological pipette
look like?
How does a Mohr pipette look
like?
What are some pipetting
techniques?
graduated uniformly along its length.
Principally used for the measurement of reagents and
generally are not considered sufficiently accurate for
measuring samples and calibrators.
1) Serological Pipette
2) Mohr Pipette
1) Has graduation marks down to the tip, visible or not visible
2) Must be blown out to deliver the entire volume of the
pipette
3) Has an etched ring near the bulb end of the pipette
signifying that it is a blowout pipette
It is calibrated between two marks.
1) Pipetting bulbs should always be used
2) Pipettes must be held in the vertical position when the
liquid level is adjusted to the calibration line and during
delivery
3) When sighted at eye level, use lower meniscus for readings
4) Flow of liquid should be unrestricted, and the tapes should
be touching the inclined surface of the receiving container.
5) The pipette is allowed to drain, and then the remaining
liquid is blown out with a pipetting bulb
What is a micropipettes ?
A hallow glass tube used for measuring small volumes of
liquid in microliters and transfer of liquid from one source to
anothere
Pipettes come in different
Yes from single piece glass pipettes to more complex
sizes?
adjustable or electronic pipettes for various purposes with
differing levels of accuracy and precision
What is the purpose of a pipette To draw up liquid for the purpose of measuring and
?
transferring a specific volume of liquid
What is the mouthpiece of the
The end of the pipette to which suction is applied to draw up
pipette?
liquid into the pipette
What is the calibration lines of Marks on the stem of the pipette to show the point where
a pipette?
liquid must be drawn to give a specific volume
What is Volume of the pipette ? Stated in millimeters example inscription may read 10ml in
1/10 ml and the pipette is graduated in 1/10 ml increments
allowing it to be used to measure volumes up to 10 ml
What is the T.D of the pipette? “To deliver “pipettes designed to deliver a specific volume of
fluid
What is the T. C of the pipette
“To contain “ pipettes designed to contain a certain volume of
fluid
Why must a distinction
Because there may be a difference between the volume a
between T.D and T.C pipettes
pipette will contain and a volume it will deliver
be made ?
What is T.D calibrated with ?
Distilled or deionized water
What is T.C glassware
Mercury
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Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
calibrated with ?
What is the meniscus ?
What is centrifugation ?
What is gravimetric ?
What is a Double-pan, singlepan and electronic balances
Define Thermometry.
What are the two models of
thermometers?
Define Dilution.
Define Evaporation.
Define Lyophilization.
Define Filtration.
Which agencies and
organizations address issues on
safety?
What are the key elements to
ensure safety in the clinical
laboratory?
A crescent shaped structure appearing at the surface of a liquid
column it has the appearance of a contact lens
The process of using centrifugal force to separate the lighter
portion of a solution mixture or suspension from heavier
portions.
The process used to measure the mass of a substance
Types of balances
Refers to the measurement of temperature to verify that
devices measure within their prescribed temperature limits.
liquid-in-glass thermometer and thermistor probe
decreasing the concentration or activity of a given solution by
adding solvent
conversion of a liquid or volatile solid to vapor
better known as freeze drying is used in laboratory medicine
for the preparation of calibrators, control materials, reagents,
and individual specimens for analysis.
passage of a liquid through a filter by means of gravity,
pressure, or a vacuum
-Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
-Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
-The Joint Commission (TJC)
-College of American Pathologists (CAP)
-A formal safety program
-Documented policies and effective use of mandated plans
and/or programs
-Identification of significant occupational hazards such as
biological, chemical, fire and electrical hazards
The person who is given the responsibility to implement and
maintain a safety program.
Who is the “Safety Officer” or
“Chair of the Safety
Committee?
Who will provide technical
-chemical hygiene officer
guidance in the development of
the chemical hygiene plan
(CHP)?
What are the safety standard for proper labeling of chemicals, types and locations of fire
laboratory environments?
extinguishers, hoods that are in good working order, proper
grounding of electrical equipment, ergonomic issues and
means for the proper handling and disposal of biohazardous
materials.
What does PPE stand for?
Personal protective equipment.
What are the primary
Clothing such as laboratory coats, gowns or scrubs, gloves and
requirements for PPE?
eye protection (face shields)
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Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
What are the safety equipments
used in camical laboratory?
What does OSHA stand for?
What does CMC stand for?
Which agencies used for safety
inspection?
What does MSDS stand for?
How to used MSDS in
chemical hygine plan?
How to used Exposure control
plan?
How to used Tuberculosis
control plan?
How to work Ergonomics
program?
What type of hazards
encountered in the laboratory?
What is the principle of the
Universal Precautions?
The purpose of barrier
protection and other Personal
Protection Equipment is to?
Proper storage and use of
chemicals is necessary to
prevent dangers such as:
What is the proper way of
diluting acids?
How should hazardous
chemicals be dispensed?
To avoid chemical hazards,
how should organic solvents be
handled?
List all the ways electrical
hazards can be prevented in the
-Personal protective equipment (PPE)
-Eye washers or face washers
-Heat-resistant (non-asbestos) gloves
-Eye safety devices such as safety goggles, glasses and visors
-Desiccator guards
-Chemical fume hood
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
Center for Medicare and Medicaid Services
-Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
-Commission on Inspection and Accreditation of the CAP
-The Joint Commission (TJC)
-Center for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
Material Safety Data Sheet
The need for Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) which
defines each chemical is toxic, carcinogenic or dangerous
Ensures the protection of laboratory workers against potential
exposure to blood-borne pathogens and ensures that the
medical wastes produced by the laboratory are managed and
handled in a safe and effective manner.
Prevent the transmission of tuberculosis by early identification
and isolation of patients at risk, environmental controls,
appropriate use of respiratory protection equipment, education
of laboratory employees and early initiation of therapy.
Designed to prevent work-related musculoskeletal disorders
through prevention and engineering controls
-Biological
-Chemical
-Electrical
-Fire hazards
To treat all human blood and other potentially infectious
materials as infectious
prevent the skin and mucous membrane contamination from
specimens
Burns, explosions, fires and toxic fumes
By slowly adding them to water while mixing
With a commercially available automatic dispensing device
Under a fume hood


Prohibit use of all extension cords
Worn wires on all electrical equipment should be
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Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
lab:
Class A fire is caused by?
Class B fire is caused by?
Class C fire is caused by?
Class D fire is caused by?
Class E fire is classified as?
Define Photometry
Define Spectrophotometry
What is Photometric
measurement ?
What is wavelength?
What does Beer’s Law state?
What is a tungsten light bulb?
What is the function of a
mercury vapor lamp
Name the 10 parts that are in a
Single-beam
spectrophotometer.
Name the 2 types of Light
source.
Name the 3 types of Filters.
Spectrophotometers are
classified as a
What are the 2 choices of
replaced immediately
All equipment should be grounded with the use of three-prong
plugs
Ordinary Combustibles
Flammable liquids and gases
Electrical equipment
Powdered metal (combustible) material
A fire that cannot be extinguished
-measurement of luminous intensity of light or amount of
luminous light falling on a surface from such a source
-Uses filter to isolate a narrow wavelength range of the
spectrum for measurements
-measurement of intensity of light at selected wavelengths
-Use prisms or gratings to isolate a narrow wavelength range
of the spectrum for measurements
The process use to measure light intensity independent of
wavelength
A characteristic of electromagnetic radiation; the distance
between two wave crests that is measured in nanometers (nm)
The concentration of a substance is directly proportional to the
amount of light absorbed or is inversely proportional to the
logarithm of the transmitted light.
A light source in the visible range of spectra. An example is a
quartz halogen lamp.
Supplies the needed energy in the UV region. It is used for
calibration purposes but is not practical for absorbance
measurements because it is used only at certain wavelengths
 Manual operation procedure
 Types of light sources
 Filters
 Monochromators
 Fiber optics
 Cuvets
 Photodetectors
 Readout devices
 Digital hardware and software
Recorders
• Incandescent and laser
•
•
Glass, Prisms, Gratings
Single- or Double-beam
•
Bandwidth and Turbidity
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Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
monochromators.
What does a cuvet do?
What does a photodetector do?
Name the 4 Performance
parameters of an instrument.
What does NIST stand for?
What does SRMS stand for?
What does IRMM stand for?
What is reflectance
photometry?
What transformation/equation
is used for converting data into
a linear format in reflectance
photometry
What is used in dry film
chemistry systems?
What is Atomic Absorption
spectrophotometry?
What are the 2 limitations of
atomic absorption
spectrophotometry?
What is another name for
flameless method in atomic
absorption spectrophotometry?
Name the 7 components of an
Atomic Absorption
spectrophotometry.
•
•



•
•
•
•
•
•
Absorbs a portion of radiant energy.
Converts light into an electrical signal that is proportional
to the number of photons.
Comparison of unknown with calibrator(s)
Comparison with published/previously determined values
NIST-provided SRMS for comparison
IRMM-provided reference materials
National Institute if Standards and Technology
Standard Reference Materials
Institute for Reference Material and Measurements
A spectrophotometric technique in which diffused light
illuminates a reaction mixture in a carrier
Kubelka-Munk equation or Clapper-Williams
transformation
•
Reflectance photometry
•

•
An optical technique in which an element in the sample is
excited and the radiant energy produced is measured.
Spectral interferences
Non-spectral interferences
•
Zeeman correction
What is Fluorometry?
 Hollow cathode
 Chopper
 Flame
 Entrance Slit
 Monochromator
 Exit Slit
• Detector
Measurement of emitted fluorescent light
When does Fluorescence
occur?
Fluorescence occurs when a molecule absorbs light at one
wavelength and re-emits light at a longer wavelength.
What is an atom or molecule
that fluoresces called?
What is the best way to
describe Flow Cytometry?
Flow Cytometry is:
a. Able to measure
A fluorophore
The process in which measurement of physical and/or chemical characteristics of
cells or particles are made, while cells or particles pass, preferably in single file,
through the measuring apparatus in a fluid stream.
D
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Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
multiple parameters
including cell size,
granularity, DNA and
RNA content, DNA
nucleotide ratios,
chromatin structure,
antigens, total protein
content, cell receptor,
membrane potential and
calcium ion
concentration.
b. It combines laserinduced fluorometry
and particle light
scattering analysis
c. Is the process in which
measurement of
physical and/or
chemical characteristics
of cells or particles are
made, while cells or
particles pass,
preferably in single file,
through the measuring
apparatus in a fluid
stream.
All of the above.
What is a single-channel front
surface photofluorometer
dedicated to the analyses of
zinc protoporphyrin in whole
blood called?
Hematofluorometer
How does Phosphorescence
differ from fluorescence ?
What is Phosphorimetry ?
Phosphorescence continues even after radiation causing it has ceased.
Luminometry is all of these
except:
a. Chemiluminescence,
bioluminescence,
electrochemiluminescen
ce Are types of
B
Measurement of phosphorescence, a type of luminescence
produce by certain substances after radiant energy or other
types of energy are absorbed, with a longer decay time of
emission.
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Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
luminescence in which
the excitation event is
caused by a chemical,
biochemical or
electrochemical
reaction, and not by
photo illumination.
b. It has longer decay time
of emission
c. Instruments for
measuring this type of
light emission are
generally known as
luminometers.
Nephelometry and
Turbidimetry are:
Factors influencing light scatter
include:
a. Effect of particle size
b. wavelength dependence
c. concentration of the
particles
d. distance of observation
e. All of the above.
What are the 5 types of
electrochemistry used in the
clinical laboratory?
Which electrochemical
technique measures the
difference in electrical potential
between two electrodes (halfcells) in an electrochemical
cell?
What are the three types of
potentiometric electrodes?
Analytical techniques of measuring scattered light
E




Potentiometry
Voltammetry
Amperometry
Conductometry
Coulometry
Potentiometry


Redox electrodes
Ion-selective membrane electrodes (glass and polymer)
PCO2 glass-sensing electrodes
Potentiometry is usually
applied for?
What is Voltammetry?
What process in voltammetry


pH monitoring
Electrolyte determination (ISE)
Electrodes for PCO2
An electrolytic electrochemical process in which a specific oxidation or reduction
reaction occurs at the surface of the working electrode.
The charge transfer (current flow) at the surface of the working electrode.
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Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
provides the analytical
information required?
Name 2 applications in which
voltammetry is used?
What method of voltammetry is
used to quantify dopamine in
brain tissue of freely moving
animals?
What method of voltammetry is
used for detecting trace
concentrations of toxic metal
ions?
Which electrochemical process
monitors current at the fixed
(controlled) voltage between
working and reference
electrodes in an electrochemical
cell?
Amperometry is applied for?
Conductometry is used in order
to determine what?
Name 2 purposes for which
conductometry is used?
An electrochemical technique
that measures the electrical
charge passing between two
electrodes in an electrochemical
cell, with the amount of charge
passing between the electrodes
being directly proportional to
oxidation or reduction of an
electroactive substance at one
of the electrodes is
called____________.
Coulometry is applied in
_________
An optical sensor used in
analytical instruments to
measure pH, blood gases and
electrolytes
What specific type of chemical
sensor that consist of a
biological recognition element
and physicochemical
transducer, and often an
electrochemical or optical

Anodic stripping voltammetry
Rapid scan cyclic voltammetry
Rapid scan cyclic voltammetry
Anodic stripping voltammetry
Amperometry
Clark amperometric PO2
The quantity of an analyte present in a mixture; by measuring its effect on the
electrical conductivity of the mixture.

Conductivity-based hematocrit measurements
Coulter principle - electronic counting of blood cells
Coulometry
Coulometric titration of chloride
Optodes
Biosensors
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Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
device?
What special class of
biosensors in which the
immobilized biological
recognition element is a
binding protein?
The migration of charge solutes
or particles within a liquid
medium under the influence of
an electric field.
What is Isoelectric point
(pl)
An ampholyte is
_____________
What molecule behaves as an
ampholyte in a solution and are
considered amphoteric? It also
contains many ionizable amino
and carboxyl groups.
A measuring technique that
uses an optical system to scan
and quantify electrophoretic
fractions separated on the gel or
other medium.
In electrophoresis, after the
support is removed from the
electrophoresis cell, dried and
fixed to prevent diffusion of
sample components, it is then
________ in order to visualize
the individual protein zones.
An electrophoresis technique
that produces zones of proteins,
which are heterogeneous and
physically separated from one
another.
What are the factors affecting
electrophoresis?
Affinity sensors
Electrophoresis
The pH at which a molecule has no net charge and will not migrate during
electrophoresis
A molecule that is positively or negatively charge on the basis of the pH of the
solution in which it resides;
Protein
Densitometry
Stained
Zone electrophoresis




The net electrical charge of the molecule
The size and shape of the molecule
Electric field strength
Properties of the supporting medium
Temperature of operation
According to the theory of
electrophoresis, anions
move through the solutions
toward the______.
Anode
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Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
Cathode
According to the theory of
electrophoresis, cations move
through the solutions toward
the __________.
A Negative
A cathode is a________
electrode. Choose one only.
a. Negative
b. Positive
c. Polarized
d. Neutral
B Positive
A anode contains delivers a
continuous _______ charge to
the solution. Select one option.
a. Negative
b. Positive
c. Polar
d. Bipolar
A new MLT lab requires a new C. Isolectric Focusing Power Supply
power supply for
electrophoresis procedures.
Select the correct one from the
catalog below:
a. Trans-ductor Pulse
Generator
b. Inductive Power Supply
c. Isolectric Focusing
Power Supply
d. Car Battery
Yes
The buffer establishes the
pH at which electrophoresis
is performed.
Does it impact the solute as
well? (Yes or No)
Evaluate the statement (True or False
False) Trans-barbital and
barbital buffers have identical
pH.
C,D,E
Which gels are compatible
with electrophoresis?
Choose 3 out of 5.
a. SBA gel
b. Triptic Soy Agarose Gel
c. Starch gel and cellulose
acetate
d. Agarose gel
e. Polyacrylamide gel
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Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
If mobile phase is a liquid, the
technique is
called_____________
a. Spectrum
Chromatography
b. Reverse Phase-Flow
Cytometry
c. Liquid chromatography
d. Acid Reduction
Chromatography
If mobile phase is a gas, the
technique is
called_____________
a. Spectrum
Chromatography
b. Reverse Phase-Flow
Cytometry
c. Acid Reduction
Chromatography
d. gas chromatography
c. liquid chromatography
d. gas chromatography
In Column Chromotagraphy the b. Silicon, polymer
stationary phase may consist of
a particle of pure ______or
_______, or it may be coated
onto or chemically bonded to
support particles. Select the
correct media.
a. Silicon dioxide,
sapphire bonded glass
b. Silicon, polymer
c. Agarose Gel, Thayers
McConkey Media
d. SBA agar, plastic
Planar Chromotography has
a. sheet of paper
two options for media. Identify b. solid surface
the correct two.
a. sheet of paper (paper
chromatography)
b. solid surface (thin-layer
chromatography [TLC])
c. Silicon
d. Polymer
Chromatography is a physical
a. Stationary, mobile phases
process whereby the
components (solutes/analytes)
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Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
of a sample mixture are
separated as a result of their
differential distribution
between the ________ and
_______ phases.
a. Stationary, mobile
phases
b. Gas, Solid Phases
c. Plasma, Superfluidic
d. Liquid, Stationary
What is Planar
Chromatography?
What is the reference value in
planar chromatography?
What is Gas chromotography?
What is Liquid
Chromatography?
What are the different
chromatophric separation
•
•
Paper Chromatography
The stationary phase consists of a layer of water or a
polar solvent coated onto the fibers of the sheet of
paper
• Thin Layer Chromatography (TLC)
The stationary phase is a thin layer of particles of a material
such as silica gel that is spread uniformly on a glass plate or a
plastic or aluminum sheet
• Rf value
• Expression of solute's migration in TLC or PC
• the ratio of solute migration to solvent front migration
Distance from application point
to solute center
Rf = -----------------------------------------Distance from application point
to mobile phase front
• Gas chromatography
• A gas mobile phase, or carrier gas, is used to carry a
mixture of volatility solutes through a column
containing the stationary phase, which usually is a
nonvolatile liquid coated or bonded to particles or the
inner surface of a capillary
• the mobile phase, or carrier gas, is typically an inert
gas such as nitrogen, helium, or argon
•
separation of analytes is based on differential
partitioning into the stationary phase
• Liquid chromatography
• Separation is based on the differential distribution of
the solutes between a liquid mobile phase and a
stationary phase
•
When particles of small diameter are used as the
stationary phase support, the technique is referred to as High
Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC) or High
Pressure Liquid Chromatography (HPLC)
• Ion exchange chromatography
• Partition chromatography
48
Chem PPT Flashcards, Unit 1
mechanisms?
What is ion exchange
chromatography?
What is partition
Chromatography?
What is absorption
chromatohraphy?
What is size exclusion
chromatography known as and
what does it mean?
•
•
•
Adsorption chromatography
Size exclusion chromatography
Affinity chromatography
• Ion exchange chromatography
• Based on exchange of ions between charged stationary
phase and ions of opposite charge in mobile phase
• Cationic or anionic exchange resin
Used for the separation of amino acids, glycated hemoglobin,
hemoglobin variants and oligonucleotides
• Partition chromatography
• Basis of separation is the differential distribution of
solutes between two immiscible liquids with one of the
immiscible liquids serving as the stationary phase
• separation is based on differences in the relative
solubility of solute molecules between stationary and
mobile faces
• Classification of partition chromatography:
1. Gas liquid chromatography (GLC)
2. Liquid-liquid chromatography (LLC)
• Adsorption chromatography
• The basis of separation is differential adsorption of
solutes on the surface of the stationary phase
•
Hydrogen bonding and hydrophobic interactions are
the forces that mediate separations
• Size exclusion chromatography
• Also known as:
• 1. Gel filtration chromatography
• 2. Gel permeation chromatography
• 3. Steric exclusion chromatography
• 4. Molecular exclusion chromatography
• 5. Molecular Sieve chromatography
•
Basis of separation are the differences in their
molecular sizes
49