Physics  Practice Final Exam
THERE IS MORE AFTER THE ANSWERS
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
The following values may be used throughout the test whenever needed:
G = 6.673 × 1011 m3/kgs2
c = 3.00 × 108 m/s
me = 9.11 × 1031 kg
1.
2.
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4.
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6.
7.
8.
k = 8.99 × 109 Nm2/C2
e = 1.602 × 1019 C
mp = 1.67 × 1027 kg
A force does positive work on an object if
A. the force is perpendicular to the object’s velocity.
B. the force is in the same direction as the object’s velocity.
C. the force is in the opposite direction of the object’s velocity.
D. there is an equal and opposite force acting on the object and the object is at rest.
A 1.00  103 kg sports car accelerates from rest to 25.0 m/s in 7.50 s. What is the average
power output of the automobile engine? (Ignore friction)
A. 1.67 kW
C. 41.7 kW
B. 83.3 kW
D. 245 kW
The more powerful the motor is,
A. the longer the time interval for doing the work is.
B. the shorter the time interval for doing the work is.
C. the greater the ability to do the work is.
D. the shorter the workload is.
A worker pushes a wheelbarrow with a horizontal force of 50.0 N over a level distance of
5.0 m. If a frictional force of 43 N acts on the wheelbarrow in a direction opposite to that of
the worker, what net work is done on the wheelbarrow?
A. 250 J
C. 35 J
B. 0.0 J
D. 465 J
A hill is 100 m long and makes an angle of 12 with the horizontal. As a 50 kg jogger runs
up the hill, how much work does gravity do on the jogger?
A. 49 000 J
C. –10 000 J
B. 49 000 J
D. 10 000 J
A child moving at constant velocity carries a 2 N ice-cream cone 1 m across a level surface.
What is the net work done on the ice-cream cone?
A. 0 J
C. 2 J
B. 0.5 J
D. 20 J
A flight attendant pulls a 50.0 N flight bag a distance of 250.0 m along a level airport floor at
a constant speed. A 30.0 N force is exerted on the bag at an angle of 50.0 above the
horizontal. How much work is done on the flight bag?
A. 7500 J
C. 4820 J
B. 8030 J
D. 5750 J
A 3.00 kg toy falls from a height of 10.0 m. Just before hitting the ground, what will be its
kinetic energy? (Disregard air resistance. g = 9.81 m/s2.)
A. 14 J
C. 29.4 J
B. 600 J
D. 294 J
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What is the kinetic energy of a 0.135 kg baseball thrown at 40.0 m/s?
A. 54.0 J
C. 108 J
B. 5.4 J
D. 216 J
Which of the following energy forms is associated with an object in motion?
A. potential energy
C. nonmechanical energy
B. elastic potential energy
D. kinetic energy
Which of the following energy forms is associated with an object due to its position?
A. potential
C. total
B. positional
D. kinetic
Which of the following energy forms is stored in any compressed or stretched object?
A. nonmechanical energy
C. gravitational potential energy
B. elastic potential energy
D. kinetic energy
Old Faithful geyser in Yellowstone National Park shoots water every hour to a height of 40.0
m. With what velocity does the water leave the ground? (Disregard air resistance. g = 9.81
m/s2.)
A. 7.00 m/s
C. 19.8 m/s
B. 14.0 m/s
D. 28.0 m/s
A professional skier starts from rest and reaches a speed of 56 m/s on a ski slope 30.0 above
the horizontal. Disregarding friction, find the minimum distance along the slope the skier
would have to travel in order to reach this speed.
A. 5.7 m
C. 320 m
B. 160 m
D. 640 m
A 40.0 N crate starting at rest slides down a rough 6.0 m long ramp inclined at 30.0 with the
horizontal. The force of friction between the crate and ramp is 6.0 N. Using the work–kinetic
energy theorem, find the velocity of the crate at the bottom of the incline.
A. 7.5 m/s
C. 10.0 m/s
B. 2.6 m/s
D. 6.4 m/s
A child riding a bicycle has a total mass of 40.0 kg. The child approaches the top of a hill
that is 10.0 m high and 100.0 m long at 5.0 m/s. If the force of friction between the bicycle
and the hill is 20.0 N, what is the child’s velocity at the bottom of the hill? (Disregard air
resistance. g = 9.81 m/s2.)
A. 18 m/s
B. 15 m/s
C. 11 m/s
D. The child stops before reaching the bottom.
What is the average power supplied by a 60.0 kg secretary running up a flight of stairs rising
vertically 4.0 m in 4.2 s?
A. 570 W
C. 57 W
B. 560 W
D. 6.5 W
A jet engine develops 1.0  105 N of thrust to move an airplane forward at a speed of 9.0 
102 km/h. What is the power output of the engine?
A. 90 MW
C. 25 MW
B. 324 MW
D. 1500 MW
Water flows over a section of Niagara Falls at a rate of 1.20  106 kg/s and falls 50.0 m.
What is the power of the waterfall?
A. 589 MW
C. 147 MW
B. 294 MW
D. 60.0 MW
20. Which of the following has the greatest momentum?
A. truck with a mass of 2250 kg moving at a velocity of 25 m/s
B. car with a mass of 1210 kg moving at a velocity of 51 m/s
C. truck with a mass of 6120 kg moving at a velocity of 10 m/s
D. car with a mass of 1540 kg moving at a velocity of 38 m/s
21. The change in an object’s momentum is equal to
A. the product of the mass of the object and the time interval.
B. the product of the force applied to the object and the time interval.
C. the time interval divided by the net external force.
D. the net external force divided by the time interval.
22. Two pucks float and glide horizontally across a level air hockey table. The pucks ride on a
cushion of air and experience no friction. Consider these two pucks to be a system. Which
of the following would cause a change in the total momentum of this system?
A. The upward force of the air rushing out of the holes in the hockey table.
23.
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28.
B. The mutual gravitational force of the two pucks acting on one another.
C. The normal force that causes a puck to bounce off the walls at the edge of the table.
D. The normal force that causes the pucks to bounce off one another when they collide.
A 6.0  10–2 kg tennis ball moves at a velocity of 12 m/s. The ball is struck by a racket,
causing it to rebound in the opposite direction at a speed of 18 m/s. What is the change in the
ball’s momentum?
A. –0.36 kgm/s
C. –1.1 kgm/s
B. –0.72 kgm/s
D. –1.8 kgm/s
The impulse experienced by a body is equivalent to the body’s change in
A. velocity.
C. momentum.
B. kinetic energy.
D. force.
An astronaut with a mass of 70.0 kg is outside a space capsule when the tether line breaks.
To return to the capsule, the astronaut throws a 2.0 kg wrench away from the capsule at a
speed of 14 m/s. At what speed does the astronaut move toward the capsule?
A. 5.0 m/s
C. 3.5 m/s
B. 0.4 m/s
D. 7.0 m/s
A bullet with a mass of 5.00 g is loaded into a gun. The loaded gun has a mass of 0.52 kg.
The bullet is fired, causing the empty gun to recoil at a speed of 2.1 m/s. What is the speed
of the bullet?
A. 48 m/s
C. 21 m/s
B. 220 m/s
D. 110 m/s
Two skaters, each with a mass of 50.0 kg, are stationary on a frictionless ice pond. One
skater throws a 0.200 kg ball at 5.00 m/s to the other skater, who catches it. What will be the
resulting speed of the skater that catches the ball?
A. 0.0199 m/s
C. 1.00 m/s
B. 0.0200 m/s
D. 5.00 m/s
A diver with a mass of 80.0 kg jumps from a dock into a 130.0 kg boat at rest on the west
side of the dock. If the velocity of the diver in the air is 4.10 m/s to the west, what is the final
velocity of the diver after landing in the boat?
A. 2.52 m/s to the west
C. 1.56 m/s to the west
B. 2.52 m/s to the east
D. 1.56 m/s to the east
29. A 1.5  103 kg truck moving at 15 m/s strikes a 7.5  102 kg automobile stopped at a traffic
light. The vehicles hook bumpers and skid together after the collision. What is the decrease
in kinetic energy that occurs during the collision?
A. 1.1  105 J
C. 1.7  105 J
4
B. 1.2  10 J
D. 5.6  104 J
30. Which of the following best describes the total kinetic energy of the system after a two-body
collision if the total momentum of the system remains constant?
A. stays the same or is increased
C. stays the same or is decreased
B. stays exactly the same
D. temporarily increases and then decreases
31. An object with a mass of 0.10 kg makes an elastic head-on collision with a stationary object
with a mass of 0.15 kg. The final velocity of the 0.10 kg object after the collision is –0.045
m/s. What was the initial velocity of the 0.10 kg object?
A. 0.16 m/s
C. 0.20 m/s
B. –1.06 m/s
D. –0.20 m/s
32. A bowling ball with a mass of 7.0 kg strikes a pin that has a mass of 2.0 kg. The pin flies
forward with a velocity of 6.0 m/s, and the ball continues forward at 4.0 m/s. What was the
original velocity of the ball?
A. 5.1 m/s
C. 2.2 m/s
B. 5.7 m/s
D. 3.3 m/s
33. A simple pendulum swings in simple harmonic motion. At maximum displacement,
A. the acceleration reaches a maximum.
C. the acceleration reaches zero.
B. the velocity reaches a maximum.
D. the restoring forces reach zero.
34. If a force of 50 N stretches a spring 0.10 m, what is the spring constant?
A. 5 N/m
C. –5 N/m
B. 500 N/m
D. –500 N/m
35. Which of the following is the time it takes to complete a cycle of motion?
A. amplitude
C. frequency
B. period
D. revolution
36. Which of the following is the number of cycles or vibrations per unit of time?
A. amplitude
C. frequency
B. period
D. revolution
37. A mass on a spring vibrates in simple harmonic motion at an amplitude of 8.0 cm. If the
mass of the object is 0.20 kg and the spring constant is 130 N/m, what is the frequency?
A. 0.25 Hz
C. 4.0 Hz
B. 1.8 Hz
D. 6.4 Hz
38. What is the period of a 4.12 m long pendulum?
A. 0.648 s
C. 4.07 s
B. 2.04 s
D. 9.69 s
39. A periodic wave has a wavelength of 0.50 m and a speed of 20 m/s. What is the wave
frequency?
A. 0.02 Hz
C. 40 Hz
B. 20 Hz
D. 10 Hz
40. A musical tone sounded on a piano has a frequency of 410 Hz and a wavelength of 0.80 m.
What is the speed of the sound wave?
A. 170 m/s
C. 330 m/s
B. 240 m/s
D. 590 m/s
41. Bats can detect small objects, such as insects, that are approximately the size of one
wavelength. If a bat emits a chirp at a frequency of 60.0 kHz and the speed of sound waves
in air is 330 m/s, what is the size of the smallest insect that the bat can detect?
A. 1.5 mm
C. 5.5 mm
B. 3.5 mm
D. 7.5 mm
42. Waves propagate along a stretched string at a speed of 8.0 m/s. The end of the string vibrates
up and down once every 1.5 s. What is the wavelength of the waves traveling along the
string?
A. 3.0 m
C. 6.0 m
B. 12 m
D. 5.3 m
43. Standing waves are produced by periodic waves of
A. any amplitude and wavelength traveling in the same direction.
B. the same amplitude and wavelength traveling in the same direction.
C. any amplitude and wavelength traveling in opposite directions.
D. the same frequency, amplitude, and wavelength traveling in opposite directions.
44. Which of the following wave lengths would produce standing waves on a string
approximately 3.5 m long?
A. 2.33 m
C. 3.75 m
B. 2.85 m
D. 4.55 m
45. How many nodes and antinodes are shown in the standing wave above?
A. two nodes and three antinodes
C. one-third node and one antinode
B. one node and two antinodes
D. three nodes and two antinodes
46. A 3.0 m long stretched string is fixed at both ends. If standing waves with a wavelength of
two-thirds L are produced on this string, how many nodes will be formed?
A. 0
C. 3
B. 2
D. 4
47. In the diagram above, use the superposition principle to find the resultant wave of waves W
and Z.
A. a
C. c
B. b
D. d
48. In the diagram above, use the superposition principle to find the resultant wave of waves Q
and R.
A. a
C. c
B. b
D. d
49. Sound waves
A. are a part of the electromagnetic spectrum.
B. do not require a medium for transmission.
C. are longitudinal waves.
D. are transverse waves.
50. Which of the following is the region of a longitudinal wave in which the density and
pressure are less than normal?
A. rarefaction
C. spherical wave
B. compression
D. Doppler effect
51. Which statement about sound waves is correct?
A. They generally travel faster through solids than through gases.
B. They generally travel faster through gases than through solids.
C. They generally travel faster through gases than liquids.
D. They generally travel faster than light.
52. For a standing wave in an air column in a pipe that is open at both ends, there must be at
least
A. one node and one antinode.
C. two antinodes and one node.
B. two nodes and one antinode.
D. two nodes and two antinodes.
53. If one end of a pipe is closed,
A. all harmonics are present.
C. only odd harmonics are present.
B. no harmonics are present.
D. only even harmonics are present.
54. What is the lowest frequency that will resonate in a 2.0 m length organ pipe closed at one
end? The speed of sound in air at this temperature is 340 m/s.
A. 42 Hz
C. 170 Hz
B. 85 Hz
D. 680 Hz
55. If a guitar string has a fundamental frequency of 500 Hz, what is the frequency of its second
harmonic?
A. 250 Hz
C. 1000 Hz
B. 750 Hz
D. 1500 Hz
56. What is the wavelength of microwaves of 3.0  109 Hz frequency?
A. 0.060 m
C. 10 m
B. 0.10 m
D. 110 nm
57. What is the frequency of infrared light of 1.0  10–4 wavelength?
A. 3.0 10–2 Hz
C. 3.0 1012 Hz
4
B. 3.0 10 Hz
D. 3.0 102 Hz
58. Yellow-green light has wavelength of 560 nm. What is its frequency?
A. 5.4 1016 Hz
C. 5.4 1011 Hz
15
B. 1.9 10 Hz
D. 5.4 1014 Hz
59. In a vacuum, electromagnetic radiation of short wavelengths
A. travels as fast as radiation of long wavelengths.
B. travels slower than radiation of long wavelengths.
C. travels faster than radiation of long wavelengths.
D. can travel both faster and slower than radiation of long wavelengths.
60. In a double-slit interference pattern the path length from one slit to the first dark fringe of a
double-slit interference pattern is longer than the path length from the other slit to the fringe
by
A. three-quarters of a wavelength.
C. one-quarter of a wavelength.
B. one-half of a wavelength.
D. one full wavelength.
61. In Young’s double-slit experiment, a wave from one slit arrives at a point on a screen one
wavelength behind the wave from the other slit. What is observed at that point?
A. dark fringe
C. multicolored fringe
B. bright fringe
D. gray fringe, neither dark nor bright
62. The distance between the two slits in a double-slit experiment is 0.04 mm. The second-order
bright fringe (m = 2) is measured on a screen at an angle of 2.2 from the central maximum.
What is the wavelength of the light?
A. 1.5 μm
C. 770 μm
B. 1.5 mm
D. 770 nm
63. The distance between two slits in a double-slit experiment is 0.005 mm. What is the angle of
the third-order bright fringe (m = 3) produced with light of 550 nm?
A. 0.19
C. 12
B. 6.3
D. 19
64. Monochromatic light shines on the surface of a diffraction grating with 5.0  103 lines/cm.
The first-order maximum is observed at a 20.0 angle. Find the wavelength.
A. 68 μm
C. 680 nm
B. 480 nm
D. 350 nm
65. The angle between the first-order maximum and the zeroth-order maximum for
monochromatic light of 2300 nm is 27. Calculate the number of lines per centimeter on this
grating.
A. 1600 lines/cm
C. 2500 lines/cm
B. 2.0  103 lines/cm
D. 4500 lines/cm
66. What happens when a rubber rod is rubbed with a piece of fur, giving it a negative charge?
A. Protons are removed from the rod.
C. The fur is also negatively charged.
B. Electrons are added to the rod.
D. The fur is left neutral.
67. When a glass rod is rubbed with silk and becomes positively charged,
A. electrons are removed from the rod.
C. protons are added to the silk.
B. protons are removed from the silk.
D. the silk remains neutral.
68. Which sentence best characterizes electric conductors?
A. They have low mass density.
B. They have high tensile strength
C. They have electric charges that move freely.
D. They are poor heat conductors.
69. Which sentence best characterizes electric insulators?
A. Charges on their surface do not move. C. Electric charges move freely in them.
B. They have high tensile strength
D. They are good heat conductors.
70. If two point charges are separated by 1.5 cm and have charge values of 2.0 C and –4.0 C,
respectively, what is the value of the mutual force between them? (kc = 8.99  109 Nm2/C2)
A. 320 N
C. 0.048 N
B. 4.8 N
D. 0.032 N
71. Four charges—A, B, C, and D— are at the corners of a square. Charges A and D, on
opposite corners, have equal charge, whereas both B and C have a charge of 1.0 C. If the
force on B is zero, what is the charge on A?
A. –1.0 C
C. –0.35 C
B. –0.50 C
D. –0.71 C
72. Two charges are located on the positive x-axis of a coordinate system. Charge q1 = 2.00 
10–9C, and it is 0.02 m from the origin. Charge q2 = –3.00  10–9C, and it is 0.04 m from the
origin. What is the electric force exerted by these two charges on a third charge, q3 = 5.00 
10–9, located at the origin?
A. 2.2  10–4 N
C. 3.1  10–4 N
B. 1.4  10–4 N
D. 8.4  10–4 N
73. Two equal positive charges, both q = 2.0  10–6 C, interact with a third charge, Q = 4.0 10–
6
C, as shown in the figure above. What is the magnitude of the electric force on Q?
A. 0.23 N
C. 0.46 N
B. 0.35 N
D. 0.58 N
74. A 5.0 μC charge is placed at the 0 cm mark of a meterstick and a 4.0 μC charge is placed at
the 50 cm mark. What is the electric field at the 30 cm mark?
A. 30 kN/C
C. 400 kN/C
B. 330 kN/C
D. 1400 kN/C
75. A force of 6.0 N acts on a charge of 3.0 μC when it is placed in a uniform electric field.
What is the magnitude of this electric field?
A. 18 μN/C
C. 0.5 μN/C
B. 2.0 MN/C
D. 130 MN/C
76. A proton moves 0.10 m along the direction of an electric field of magnitude 3.0 N/C. What
is the change in kinetic energy of the proton?
A. 4.8  1020 J
C. 4.8  1018 J
19
B. 4.8  10 J
D. 5.3  1021 J
77. A proton, initially at rest, is accelerated through an electric potential difference of 500 V.
What is the resulting speed of the proton?
A. 220 km/s
C. 96 Gm/s
B. 310 km/s
D. zero
78. A 12 V battery maintains the electrical potential difference between two parallel metal plates
separated by 10 cm. What is the electric field between the plates?
A. 1.2 N/C
C. 120 N/C
B. 8.3 mN/C
D. zero
79. The current in an electron beam in a cathode-ray tube is 7.0  10–5 A. How much charge hits
the screen in 5.0 s?
A. 2.8  103 C
C. 3.5  10–4 C
B. 1.4  10–5 C
D. 71000 C
80. A wire carries a steady current of 0.1 A over a period of 20 s. What total charge moves
through the wire in this time interval?
A. 200 C
C. 2 C
B. 20 C
D. 0.005 C
81. What is the potential difference across a resistor of 5.0  that carries a current of 5.0 A?
A. 125 V
C. 4.0 V
B. 25 V
D. 1.0 V
82. A flashlight bulb with a potential difference of 4.5 V across it has a resistance of 8.0 . How
much current is in the bulb filament?
A. 3.7 A
C. 9.4 A
B. 1.8 A
D. 0.56 A
83. The power ratings on light bulbs are measures of the
A. rate that they give off heat and light.
B. voltage they require.
C. density of the charge carriers.
D. amount of negative charge passing through them.
84. If a 75 W light bulb operates at a voltage of 120 V, what is the current in the bulb?
A. 0.63 A
B. 1.6 A
C. 9.0  103 A
D. 1.1  10–4 A
85. If a 5.00  102 W heater has a current of 4.00 A, what is the potential difference across the
ends of the heating element?
A. 2.00  103 V
C. 2.50  102 V
B. 125 V
D. 8.00  10–3 V
86. If a 325 W heater has a current of 6.0 A, what is the resistance of the heating element?
A. 88 
C. 9.0 
B. 54 
D. 11 
87. If a lamp has a resistance of 120  when it operates at a power of 1.00  102 W, what is the
potential difference across the lamp?
A. 110 V
C. 130 V
B. 120 V
D. 220 V
88. An electric toaster requires 1100 W at 110 V. What is the resistance of the heating coil?
A.0.091 
C. 1.0  101 
B. 9.0 
D. 11 
89. A steam turbine at an electric power plant delivers 4500 kW of power to an electrical
generator that converts 95 percent of this mechanical energy into electrical energy. What is
the current delivered by the generator if it delivers energy at 3600 V?
A. 660 A
C. 1190 A
B. 1320 A
D. 1250 A
90. Three resistors with values of 4.0 , 6.0 , and 8.0 , respectively, are connected in series.
What is their equivalent resistance?
A. 18 
C. 0.54 
B. 6 
D. 1.8 
91. Three resistors connected in series carry currents labeled I1, I2, and I3, respectively. Which of
the following expresses the total current, It, in the system made up of the three resistors in
series?
A. It = I1 + I2 + I3
C. It = I1 = I2 = I3
B. It = (1I1 + 1/I2 + 1/I3)
D. It = (1I1 + 1/I2 + 1/I3)–1
92. T hree resistors connected in series have voltages labeled V1, V2, and V3. Which of the
following expresses the total voltage taken over the three resistors together?
A. Vt = V1 + V2 + V3
C. Vt = V1 = V2 = V3
B. Vt = (1/V1 + 1/V2 + 1/V3)
D. Vt = (1/V1 + 1/V2 + 1/V3)–1
93. Three resistors with values of 4.0 , 6.0 , and 10.0  are connected in parallel. What is
their equivalent resistance?
A. 20.0 
C. 0.52 
B. 6.7 
D. 1.9 
94. Three resistors connected in parallel carry currents labeled I1, I2, and I3. Which of the
following expresses the total current It in the combined system?
A. It = I1 + I2 + I3
C. It = I1 = I2 = I3
B. It = (1I1 + 1/I2 + 1/I3)
D. It = (1I1 + 1/I2 + 1/I3)–1
95. Three resistors connected in parallel have voltages labeled V1, V2, and V3. Which of the
following expresses the total voltage across the three resistors?
A. Vt = V1 + V2 + V3
C. Vt = V1 = V2 = V3
B. Vt = (1/V1 + 1/V2 + 1/V3)
D. Vt = (1/V1 + 1/V2 + 1/V3)–1
96. What is the equivalent resistance for the resistors in the figure above?
A. 2.3 
C. 12 
B. 5.2 
D. 22 
97. What is the equivalent resistance for the resistors in the figure above?
A. 1.3 
C. 0.75 
B. 2.3 
D. 0.44 
98. Three resistors connected in parallel have individual values of 4.0 , 6.0 , and 10.0 , as
shown above. If this combination is connected in series with a 12.0 V battery and a 2.0 
resistor, what is the current in the 10.0  resistor?
A. 0.59 A
C. 11A
B. 1.0 A
D. 16A
99. How much current is in one of the 10  resistors in the diagram shown above?
A. 0.8 A
C. 0.6 A
B. 2 A
D. 4 A
Physics Practice Final Exam
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. B
2. C
3. B
4. C
5. C
6. A
7. C
8. D
9. C
10. D
11. A
12. B
13. D
14. C
15. D
16. C
17. B
18. C
19. A
20. B
21. B
22. C
23. D
24. C
25. B
26. B
27. A
28. C
29. D
30. C
31. C
32. B
33. A
34. B
35. B
36. C
37. C
38. C
39. C
40. C
41. C
42. B
43. D
44. A
45. D
46. D
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
B
B
C
A
A
C
C
A
C
B
C
D
A
B
B
D
D
C
B
B
A
C
A
A
C
B
C
D
B
A
B
C
C
C
B
D
A
A
B
C
A
D
C
A
C
A
D
A
C
B
B
98. A
99. A
Optics Practice Test
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
____
____
____
____
____
____
____
____
____
____
____
1. A material that reflects or absorbs any light that strikes it is
a. opaque.
c. translucent.
b. transparent.
d. concave.
2. Frosted glass is
a. transparent.
c. clear.
b. translucent.
d. opaque.
3. What happens when parallel rays of light hit a smooth surface?
a. diffuse reflection
c. refraction
b. diffraction
d. specular reflection
4. When the surface of a mirror curves inward, like the inside of a bowl, it is called a
a. plane mirror.
c. concave mirror.
b. convex mirror.
d. diffuse mirror.
5. The bending of light rays as they enter a new medium is called
a. diffuse reflection.
c. refraction.
b. regular reflection.
d. diffraction.
6. What happens when light passes from air into water?
a. The light speeds up.
c. The light slows down.
b. The light continues at the same speed.
d. The light forms a mirage.
7. A curved piece of glass or other transparent material that is used to refract light is called a(n)
a. mirror.
c. reflector.
b. lens.
d. optical fiber.
8. Because the light rays never meet, a concave lens can produce
a. no image.
c. only a real image.
b. both real and virtual images.
d. only a virtual image.
9. What color would a tomato be under blue light?
a. The tomato would seem to disappear.
b. The tomato would still appear red.
c. The tomato would appear black.
d. The tomato would appear white.
10. The primary colors of light are
a. red, yellow, and blue.
b. yellow, cyan, and magenta.
c. red, green, and blue.
d. red, orange, yellow, green, blue, and violet.
11. Colored substances that are used to color other materials are called
a. pigments.
c. mirages.
b. lenses.
d. filters.
12. What instruments use lenses or mirrors to collect and focus light from distant objects?
a. microscopes
c. telescopes
b. optical fibers
d. lasers
____ 13. Clear glass, water, and air are examples of what kind of material?
a. opaque
c. translucent
b. fluid
d. transparent
____ 14. What occurs when parallel rays of light hit a rough or bumpy surface?
a. regular reflection
c. refraction
b. diffuse reflection
d. diffraction
____ 15. Any two primary colors of light combined in equal amounts produce
a. a complementary color.
c. a fluorescent color.
b. a secondary color.
d. the third primary color.
____ 16. What type of image does a plane mirror produce?
a. real and inverted
c. real and upright
b. virtual and inverted
d. virtual and upright
____ 17. Which waves have some electrical properties and some magnetic properties?
a. longitudinal waves
c. mechanical waves
b. transverse waves
d. electromagnetic waves
____ 18. Electromagnetic waves can transfer energy without a(n)
a. medium.
b. electric field.
c. magnetic field.
d. change in either a magnetic or an electric field.
____ 19. Light that is only vibrating in one direction is called
a. transverse light.
c. white light.
b. polarized light.
d. photoelectric light.
____ 20. In a vacuum, all electromagnetic waves have the same
a. wavelength.
c. speed.
b. frequency.
d. amplitude.
____ 21. Visible light has a higher frequency than
a. X-rays.
c. infrared rays.
b. ultraviolet rays.
d. gamma rays.
____ 22. The range of electromagnetic waves placed in a certain order is called the
a. electromagnetic spectrum.
c. electromagnetic frequency.
b. electromagnetic wavelength.
d. electromagnetic field.
____ 23. The electromagnetic waves with the highest frequencies are called
a. radio waves.
c. X-rays.
b. gamma rays.
d. visible light.
____ 24. What is a copy of an object formed by the reflection or refraction of light?
a. spectrum
c. focal point
b. wave
d. image
____ 25. What is transferred by electromagnetic waves?
a. sound
c. electromagnetic radiation
b. electricity
d. resonance
____ 26. Which electromagnetic waves have the longest wavelengths and lowest frequencies?
a. infrared waves
c. ultraviolet rays
b. radio waves
d. gamma rays
____ 27. A packet of light energy is called a
a. wavicle.
c. wave.
b. photon.
d. photoelectron.
____ 28. The speed of an electromagnetic wave in a vacuum is
a. 300,000 m/s
c. 30,000 m/s
b. 30,000 km/s
d. 300,000 km/s
____ 29. In ray diagrams with mirrors & lenses, what do we call the point where rays of light cross?
a. rest point
c. object
b. optical axis
d. focal point
Modified True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false. If false, change the identified word or phrase to
make the sentence or statement true.
____ 30. A transparent material absorbs light.
____ 31. A focal point image is formed where light rays meet at a point.
____ 32. A mirage is caused by reflection as light passes through layers of air at different temperatures.
____ 33. A convex lens is fatter in the center than at its edges.
____ 34. A white carpet will appear red when viewed through a red filter because the filter only absorbs
red light.
____ 35. A secondary color of light is produced by mixing three primary colors together.
____ 36. An apple is an opaque object that absorbs all colors except red.
____ 37. Polarized light consists of waves that vibrate in one direction only.
____ 38. Electromagnetic waves that have wavelengths slightly shorter than those of visible light are called
ultraviolet rays.
____ 39. The photoelectric effect proves that light acts like a wave.
Completion
Complete each sentence or statement.
40. A(n) ____________________ material is one that allows light to pass through it, but not very
well.
a. transparent
b. translucent
c. opaque
d clear
41. Diffuse ____________________ occurs when parallel rays of light hit a bumpy, or uneven,
surface.
a. refraction
b. diffusion
c. diffraction
d. reflection
42. A material’s index of refraction is a measure of how much a ray of light ____________________
when it enters that material at an angle.
a. bends
b. reflects
c. diffracts
d. interferes
43. Because of refraction, glass prisms separate white light into a visible ____________________ of
colors.
a. spectrum
b. range
c. wavelengths
d. amplitudes
44. As parallel rays of light pass through a(n) ____________________ lens, they are bent toward the
center of the lens.
a. specular
b. plane
c. convex
d. concave
45. An opaque object has a particular color because it reflects some wavelengths of light and
____________________ the rest.
a. reflects
b. absorbs
c. transmits
d. scatters
46. Any two colors that combine to form ____________________ light are called complementary
colors.
a. red
b. blue
c. green
d. white
47. In electromagnetic waves, the magnetic fields are ____________________ to the electric fields.
a. parallel
b. 30c. 180d. 90
48. In the phenomenon known as the ____________________ effect, electric current will flow when
light shines on certain substances. This explains how solar panals work.
a. ciliary
b. lens
c. photon
d. photoelectric
49. Red light has the longest ____________________ of any color of visible light.
a. frequency
b. amplitude
c. wavelength
d. rest position
50. The visible part of the electromagnetic spectrum you can see is called ____________________
light.
a. ultraviolet
b. visible
c. infrared
d. cosmic
Matching
A
B
*Hint: the object (lady’s face) is always on the left side of the mirror & the image is always on the right side)
a. concave
b. convex
c. virtual
d. real
____ 51. What type of mirror is B?
____ 52. What type of images do both mirrors produce?
____ 53. Which mirror would make the best make-up mirror?
A
a. convex
b. specular
c. plane
B
d. diffuse
e. 90
____ 54. What type of reflection is shown in ray diagram B?
____ 55. What type of mirror is shown in ray diagram A?
____ 56. Ray diagram A shows regular reflection. This is also called_______reflection.
Short Answer
Use the diagram to answer each question.
57. Is this image real or virtual?
a. Real
b. virtual
58. What type of image will form if the candle is placed between E and D?
a. real
b. virtual
Use the diagram to answer each question.
59. On which side of the lens—left or right—would the focal point appear to be?
a. left
b. right
60. What type of image does this lens form?
a. real
b. virtual
61. This lens could also be called a
a. converging lens
b. diverging lens
Use the diagram to answer each question.
62. Name the type of wave labeled C.
a. infrared light
b. visible light
c. gamma rays
d. ultraviolet light
63. Name the type of wave that has the greatest energy.
a. infrared light
b. visible light
64. Which letter indicates X-rays?
c. gamma rays
d. ultraviolet light
Ch 17&18 Practice Test
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7. ANS: B
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
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26.
27.
28.
29. ANS: D
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
A
B
D
C
C
C
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
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ANS:
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ANS:
ANS:
D
C
C
A
C
D
B
B
D
D
A
B
C
C
A
B
D
C
B
B
D
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
T, T
F, refraction
T
F, transmits red light
F, two primary colors
T
T
MODIFIED TRUE/FALSE
30. ANS: F, F
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
ANS: T
ANS: F, like particle.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
ANS:
ANS:
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COMPLETION
MATCHING
51. ANS: B
52. ANS: C
53. ANS: A
54. ANS: D
55. ANS: C
56. ANS: B
SHORT ANSWER
57. ANS:
a
58. ANS:
B
59. ANS:
A
60. ANS:
B
61. ANS:
B
62. ANS:
D
63. ANS:
C
64. ANS:
D
B
D
A
A
C
B
D
D
D
C
B