Saudi Red Crescent qualification exam sample questions
1- The "main part" of the patient history is the:
a- Identifying data
b- Past medical history
c- Source of the history
d- Chief complaint
2- The chief complaint is best derived from:
a- The scene size-up
b- The patient, either verbally or nonverbally
c- Medical records
d- The initial radio dispatch
3- The component of the patient history that identifies the chief complaint
and provides a full, clear, chronological account of the symptoms is called
the:
a- Current health history
b- History of present illness
c- Past medical history
d- Sample history
4- What does the letter Q represent in the mnemonic memory device
OPQRST?
a- Quantity
b- Question
c- Quality
d- Qualification
5- You respond to a complaint of abdominal pain. Which mnemonic memory
device can help you better understand the patient's chief complaint?
a- AEIOU
b- ABCDE
c- OPQRST
d- DCAP-BLS
6- In the mnemonic memory device SAMPLE, the M stands for
_____________:
a- Medical history
b- Medications
c- Manifestations
d- Multiple symptoms
7- Asking a patient with abdominal pain about his or her last bowel
movement helps the paramedic to determine the patient's:
a- Current health status
b- Past medical history
c- Chief complaint
d- Fitness level
8- Information about the patient's allergies is important because:
a- Emergency medications often produce allergic reactions
b- This information may be important and useful to others involved in the
patient's care
c- Many unconscious patients are suffering from an allergic reaction
d- Patients with food allergies would be expected to develop a reaction
several hours after eating
9- Paramedics should ask about last menstrual period when interviewing
female patients between the ages of:
a- 12 and 55
b- 10 and 40
c- 11 and 45
d- 14 and 6
10- Which examination technique would help a paramedic discover crepitus?
a- Inspection
b- Palpation
c- Percussion
d- Auscultation
11- The bell end of the stethoscope:
a- Emphasizes low-pitched sounds
b- Emphasizes high-pitched sounds
c- Is ideal for listening to breath sounds
d- Is ideal for listening to bowel sounds
12- If an adult blood pressure cuff is used for a small child, the result will be:
a- No measurable systolic pressure
b- No measurable diastolic pressure
c- A falsely high reading
d- A falsely low reading
13- An abnormal speech pattern in which the patient has poorly articulated
speech is called:
a- Aphasia
b- Dysphonia
c- Dysarthria
d- Nyphagia
14- The most accurate temperature readings are provided by:
a- Oral measurement
b- Axillary measurement
c- Tympanic measurement
d- Rectal measurement
15- Bilateral pressure to the carotid arteries may cause:
a- Tachycardia
b- Bradycardia
c- Dyspnea
d- Subcutaneous emphysema
16- The best location to auscultate heart sounds is the:
a- Front of the chest over the base of the heart
b- Front of the chest over the apex of the heart
c- Back of the chest under the scapula
d- Axillary line adjacent to the nipple line
17- Which of the following methods can help a paramedic differentiate a
pleural friction rub from a pericardial friction rub?
a- Percussion of the thorax
b- Auscultation of chest with the patient holding his or her breath
c- Palpation of the chest wall
d- Friction rubs cannot be differentiated in the field
18- What kind of information is obtained during the scene size-up?
a- Life-threatening injuries
b- Nature of incident or mechanism of injury
c- Vital signs
d- Chief complain
19- In which of the following situations is protective eyewear recommended?
a- Bleeding control with minimal bleeding
b- Blood drawing
c- Handling and cleaning microbe-contaminated equipment
d- Bleeding control with spurting blood
20- The part of the patient assessment in which the initial evaluation is
repeated and the patient is monitored en route to the hospital is called
the:
a- Follow-up
b- Detailed physical examination
c- Ongoing assessment
d- General impression
21- An apparently unconscious patient opens his eyes when you touch him
gently on the shoulder and speak. This patient is:
a- Alert
b- Responsive to verbal stimuli
c- Responsive to pain only
d- Unresponsive
22- The paramedic first auscultates a patient's breath sounds during:
a- Scene size-up
b- Initial assessment
c- Focused history and physical exam
d- On-going assessment
23- Which of the following terms best describes "shock"?
a- Tachycardia
b- Hypoperfusion
c- Low blood pressure
d- Trauma
24- A fall from a height of more than __________ is considered a significant
mechanism of injury for infants and children.
a- 20 feet
b- 15 feet
c- 10 feet
d- 8 feet
25- Ongoing assessment of unstable patients should be performed at least
every:
a- 2 minutes
c- 8 minutes
b- 5 minutes
d- 10 minutes
26- Ongoing assessment of stable patients should be performed at least every:
a- 2 minutes
b- 5 minutes
c- 8 minutes
d- 10 minutes
27- Managing a life-threatening condition as soon as it is found is an example
of:
a- Reading the patient
b- Reading the scene
c- Reacting
d- Revising management plans
28- Obvious but non-life-threatening injuries that take attention away from
more serious injuries are called:
a- Secondary injuries
b- Tunnel vision injuries
c- Troubling injuries
d- Distracting injuries
29- You and your partner are called to the scene of a motor vehicle collision.
There are seven patients with various trauma complaints. The team
member responsible for performing patient triage is:
a- The team leader
b- The patient care person
c- The incident commander
d- The transportation chief
30- When treating a 6-month-old in respiratory arrest, use the:
a- Holistic approach
b- Diagnostic approach
c- Resuscitative approach
d- Contemplative approach
31- Vehicle-mounted transmitters usually have lower output than base
stations and provide a range of approximately _______ miles over average
terrain.
a- 5 to 7
c- 25 to 30
b- 10 to 15
d- 40 to 50
32- Which of the following is a role of an emergency medical dispatcher?
a- Provide on scene medical direction to EMS
b- Relay instructions from command physicians
c- Provide prearrival instructions to the caller
d- Decide to which hospital the patient should be transferred
33- In a call-prioritization-prearrival instructions system, the emergency
medical dispatcher:
a- Dispatches the closest available ambulance
b- Determines what type of assistance is needed for an emergency call
c- Tells the EMS providers what equipment to take to the scene
d- Chooses the destination hospital before EMS arrives on scene
34- If mechanisms of hemostasis fail, the result is:
abcd-
Apnea
Chest pain
Increased intracranial pressure
Hypotension
35- The pressure differential between systemic systolic and diastolic readings
is called:
a- Pulse pressure
b- Vascular resistance
c- Mean arterial pressure
d- Hemostasis
36- The abnormal narrowing of an artery is called:
a- Emboli
b- Adhesions
c- Angina
d- Stenosis
37- A severe allergic reaction due to histamine release from exposure to an
antigen is called:
a- Psychogenic shock
b- Antihistamine shock
c- Septic shock
d- Anaphylactic shock
38- A serious systemic bacterial infection most commonly causes what type of
shock?
a- Anaphylactic shock
b- Septic shock
c- Hypovolemic shock
d- Psychogenic shock
39- Hypovolemic shock due to any cause is treated primarily with:
a- Crystalloid fluid volume replacement
b- Vasopressor agents to aid in peripheral vascular resistance
c- Colloid plasma expander agents
d- Vasodilatory agents to aid preload
40- Which of these IV solutions can help to combat systemic acidity in the
body's tissues?
a- 0.9% sodium chloride (NS)
b- Lactated Ringer (LR)
c- 5% dextrose in water (D5W)
d- D5½NS
41- The treatment of choice for an acute anaphylactic reaction is to
administer:
a- Dopamine
b- Solu-Medrol
c- Benadryl
d- Epinephrine
42- Which layer of the skin acts as a protective barrier against bacterial
infection and helps to maintain fluid balance?
a- Dermis
b- Epidermis
c- Stratum corneum
d- Stratum granulosum
43- One difference between a hematoma and a contusion is that a hematoma:
a- Results in bruising but contusions do not
b- Is an open injury; a contusion is a closed injury
c- Is a more severe injury and may result in greater blood loss than a
contusion
d- Occurs when organs are damaged; a contusion occurs when muscle tissue
is damaged
44- Abrasions are typically:
a- Minor injuries with a low risk for infection
b- Painful, with a high risk for infection
c- Closed with sutures and have a high risk for infection
d- Sealed with an occlusive dressing and have a low risk for infection
45- After an injury, blood flow to the injured area:
a- Decreases to promote hemostasis
b- Increases, causing further damage to already injured tissue
c- Increases to meet the increased metabolic demands of injured tissue
d- Decreases, causing hypoxic damage to the injured tissue
46- You are dispatched to a day-care center for a 3-year-old with a bruise to
his right eye. The day-care provider is concerned that this child may have
been abuse she states that although the child "bonked" his right eye on a
chair 2 days earlier, he did not have the bruise yesterday, and his father
was unable to produce "a suitable explanation" of the current
presentation. Which of the following is true regarding this child's
contusion and subsequent bruising?
a- Bruising always occurs within 1 to 2 hours of the original injury
b- Bruising always occurs within 24 hours of the original injury
c- Bruising may be delayed by as much as 48 hours after an injury
d- Bruising would result only if underlying skeletal structures have been
fractured
47- The major cause of maxillofacial injury is:
a- Motor vehicle crashes
b- Intentional violence
c- Athletic injuries
d- Industrial injuries
48- Following a car crash involving blunt-force trauma to the face, a patient
complains that her "teeth don't feel right" when she closes her mouth.
You suspect:
a- Le Fort fracture
b- Mandible fracture
c- Maxillary fracture
d- Fracture of the hard palate
49- The most commonly fractured facial bone (s) is (are) the:
a- Zygoma
b- Maxilla
c- Mandible
d- Nasal bones
50- One sign of a blowout fracture of the eye is:
a- Exophthalmos (bulging globe)
b- Enophthalmos (recessed globe)
c- Anophthalmos (displaced globe)
d- Graves presentation (abnormal protrusion of the globe)
51- Injuries to which zone of the neck carry the highest mortality?
a- Zone I
b- Zone II
c- Zone III
d- Zone IV
52- Brain injury caused by the effects of hypoxia or hypocapnia are termed:
a- Traumatic brain injury
b- Secondary brain injury
c- Diffuse brain injury
d- Untreatable brain injury
53- To help ensure maximum oxygenation of the brain, EMS providers
should:
a- Measure intracranial pressure
b- Evaluate the cerebral perfusion pressure
c- Calculate the mean arterial pressure
d- Maintain systolic blood pressure at 90 mm Hg
54- Intubation is recommended for patients with a Glasgow Coma Scale
grade of:
a- 8 or less
b- 9 or 10
c- 11 or 12
d- 13 to 15
55- Which of the following is true regarding brain perfusion?
a- The brain uses a large amount of the body's oxygen but only a minute
amount of the body's glucose
b- The brain uses a very small amount of the body's oxygen but requires 25%
of total available glucose
c- The brain requires approximately one fifth of the body's total oxygen and
one fourth of the body's total glucose
d- The brain requires approximately one half of the body's available oxygen
but is unable to use glucose because it does not pass through the bloodbrain barrier
56- The highest incidence of spinal cord trauma occurs in:
a- Men between the ages of 32 and 55
b- Men between the ages of 16 and 30
c- Women between the ages of 18 and 22
d- Women between the ages of 32 and 55
57- Which of the following is a negative mechanism of injury?
a- Tripping over a curb and twisting an ankle
b- Falling from 2 feet
c- Being involved in a low-speed motor vehicle crash
d- Undergoing a sports injury
58- A spinal injury that causes compression along the length of the spinal
column is known as:
a- Axial loading
b- Hyperextension
c- Distraction
d- Hyperrotation
59- Injury mechanisms such as hangings typically cause a ____________ type
spinal cord injury.
a- Subluxation
b- Distraction
c- Axial loading
d- Herniation
60- Common mechanisms of injury to the spinal cord that result in BrownSéquard syndrome are:
a- Hangings
b- Fall injuries
c- Gunshot wounds
d- Rear-end motor vehicle collisions
61- When applying a rigid cervical collar, you will know it is properly
positioned if:
a- The head is slightly extended
b- The head is slightly flexed
c- The patient’s nose points 5 to 10 degrees past neutral
d- The patient can comfortably open his or her mouth
62- To achieve neutral alignment when immobilizing children:
a- Immobilize children over the age of 6 to a short spine board instead of a
long spine board
b- Turn the board upside down to minimize spaces
c- Pad under the child’s head to bring the body into alignment
d- Pad under the child’s torso to accommodate the larger occiput
63- You should consider removing a patient's helmet if:
a- The helmet fits tightly and restricts your ability to assess the head
b- A full face shield limits access to the airway
c- The patient is wearing shoulder pads, causing the head to flex forward
d- The patient complains of neck pain
64- A patient in neurogenic shock would present with the following:
a- Tachycardia
b- Cool pale skin
c- Warm dry skin
d- Normal blood pressure
65- When you find a patient with a suspected spinal cord injury to be
severely hypotensive, you should suspect:
a- Spinal shock
b- Neurogenic shock
c- Autonomic hyperreflexia
d- Hypotension arising from another cause
66- The most commonly fractured ribs include ribs:
a- 1 and 2
b- 3 through 8
c- 9 through 12
d- 11 and 12
67- Because of the pain associated with rib fractures, the patient may not
breathe deeply, in an attempt to splint the injury. This may result in
which of the following complications?
a- COPD
b- Adult onset asthma
c- Atelectasis
d- Bronchitis
68- Fractures to the first and second ribs:
a- Occur commonly and have few complications
b- Imply great force was exerted to cause the injury
c- Are commonly complicated by spleen or liver injuries
d- Most commonly occur in children
69- Air trapped in the pleural space under pressure is known as:
a- Simple pneumothorax
b- Complete pneumothorax
c- Tension pneumothorax
d- Open pneumothorax
70- The correct placement for a needle thoracostomy (or needle
thoracentesis) would be:
a- The 2nd intercostal space, under the 3rd rib, midclavicular line
b- The 2nd intercostal space, over the 3rd rib, midclavicular line
c- The 5th intercostal space, over the 6th rib, midclavicular line
d- The 3rd intercostal space, over the 3rd rib, midaxillary line
71- Two minutes after inserting a needle into the pleural space of a patient
with a suspected tension pneumothorax, the patient begins to deteriorate
again, with decreasing oxygen saturations. You note decreased breath
sounds over the affected side. Your next action is to:
a- Intubate the patient
b- Insert another needle into the pleural space
c- Apply a one-way valve to the needle
d- Remove the needle and apply an occlusive dressing
72- Treatment for a patient with a suspected hemothorax includes:
a- Pericardiocentesis
b- Needle decompression
c- Intubation
d- Fluid administration to keep the systolic BP at 60 mm Hg
73- Alveolar and lung capillary damage resulting in interstitial and
intraalveolar bleeding and swelling most accurately describe:
a- Pneumothorax
b- Pulmonary contusion
c- Flail chest
d- Paper-bag effect
74- Beck's triad relates to the symptoms of what trauma-induced condition?
a- Aortic rupture
b- Diaphragmatic rupture
c- Myocardial contusion
d- Pericardial tamponade
75- You are treating a patient with a suspected pneumothorax. After
inserting a needle into the pleural space, you note a constant release of
air. You suspect:
a- Pulmonary contusion
b- Tracheobronchial injury
c- Simple pneumothorax
d- Open pneumothorax
76- Death due to abdominal trauma is usually a result of:
a- Continuing hemorrhage and delayed surgical repair
b- Unpreventable infection
c- Exsanguination occurring within 30 minutes of the injury
d- Rupture of hollow organs and resulting nutritional deficiencie
77- Which of the following is true about mechanism of abdominal injury?
a- Shootings and stabbings are the primary cause of abdominal injury.
b- Motor vehicle trauma is involved in as much as 75% of blunt abdominal
trauma
c- Penetrating abdominal trauma has a higher mortality rate than blunt
abdominal trauma
d- More than 75% of patients with penetrating abdominal trauma
exsanguinate on scene
78- If the structure identified in this scenario is severely injured, the greatest
concern is:
a- Pneumothorax
b- Rapid and significant blood loss
c- Spillage of digestive enzymes into the abdominal cavity
d- Leakage of urine and uric acid into the abdominal cavity
79- Most retroperitoneal hemorrhages occur as a result of:
a- Kidney laceration
b- Pancreas injury
c- Tear of the duodenum
d- Pelvic fractures
80- Ecchymosis around the umbilicus (Cullen's sign) is indicative of
hemorrhage in which of the following organs?
a- Spleen
b- Liver
c- Stomach
d- Pancreas
81- Leakage of urine into the abdominal cavity will result in a painful
presentation known as:
a- Urethritis
b- Peritonitis
c- Incontinence
d- Pyelonephritis
82- The urinary bladder is more likely to rupture:
a- When it is full
b- When it is empty
c- In women
d- In men
83- The most significant indicator of severe abdominal trauma is the presence
of:
a- Unexplained shock
b- Bowel sounds in the chest cavity
c- Referred pain in one or both shoulder blades
d- Abdominal distention
84- An abdominal evisceration is managed in the field by:
a- Replacing the contents into the abdominal cavity and keeping the patient
warm
b- Covering the abdominal contents with moist dressing
c- Cooling the patient to reduce metabolism
d- Administering oral fluids and pain medication
85- Abdominal distention is:
a- An early sign of peritoneal irritation
b- A late finding of peritoneal irritation
c- A rupture or tear in the diaphragm
d- Consistent with the hemorrhage associated with damage to a solid organ
86- When assessing musculoskeletal injuries, paramedics should:
a- Make every attempt to diagnose the injury correctly
b- Not be concerned with differentiating among sprains, strains, and fractures
c- Manage patients as though they have a sprain
d- Manage patients as though they have a strain
87- A fracture of the femur can result in blood loss of up to:
a- 250 mL
b- 500 mL
c- 1000 mL
d- 2000 mL
88- A mnemonic for remembering signs and symptoms of musculoskeletal
injury is:
a- DCAP-BTLS
b- AVPU
c- SAMPLE
d- OPQRST
89- In the mnemonic memory device DCAP-BTLS, the "S" stands for:
a- Severity
b- Swelling
c- Sensation
d- Subluxation
90- "Buddy splinting" refers to a technique in which a broken:
a- Arm is secured to a rigid splint
b- Arm is secured to a long backboard
c- Finger or toe is taped to an adjacent but uninjured finger or toe
d- Leg is secured by holding the injury in place against a long backboard
91- What type of dressing is most appropriate to cover an open fracture site?
a- Occlusive
b- Dry, sterile gauze
c- Moistened, sterile gauze
d- Sterile gauze moistened with an antiseptic solution
92- Which of the following injuries is most likely to be limb threatening?
a- Fracture of the humerus
b- Hip dislocation
c- Open tibia-fibula fracture
d- Subcondylar fracture of the elbow
93- A fracture or dislocation should be realigned when:
a- The patient reports extreme pain
b- Circulation is impaired
c- The site is bleeding
d- The lower leg is involved
94- Once the decision has been made to realign a fracture site you should:
a- Make only one attempt at realignment
b- Continue realignment attempts until distal pulses are present
c- Continue realignment attempts until the gross deformity has been reduced
d- Wait to perform the procedure and realign only if the patient loses distal
circulation
95- As a rule, fractures and dislocated joints should be:
a- Reduced in the field
b- Repositioned in the field
c- Immobilized with a soft splint
d- Immobilized in the position of injury
96- Before manipulating any injured extremity, you must:
a- Position the patient on a long backboard
b- Place the patient on high-flow oxygen
c- Assess distal pulses, sensation, and motor function
d- Administer intravenous analgesic per medical direction
97- The right atrium receives blood from the systemic circulation and the:
a- Left ventricle
b- Coronary veins
c- Pulmonary arteries
d- Pulmonary veins
98- To increase cardiac output, you can:
a- Increase heart rate and decrease stroke volume
b- Decrease heart rate and increase stroke volume
c- Increase both heart rate and stroke volume
d- Decrease both heart rate and stroke volume
99- Jugular vein distention in cardiac patients should be evaluated with the
patient positioned:
a- Sitting straight up
b- Leaning forward
c- Lying flat
d- With the head elevated 45 degrees
100- Atrial flutter is almost always caused by:
a- Hyperexcitability syndrome
b- Rapid reentry
c- Enhanced conduction channels
d- Ectopic atrial pacemakers
101- The majority of acute myocardial infarctions involve the:
a- Left ventricle
b- Right ventricle
c- Anterior portion of both ventricles
d- Inferior portion of both ventricles
102- The process of air moving into and out of the lungs is:
a- Ventilation
b- Diffusion
c- Respiration
d- Oxygenation
103- Bradycardia with a pulmonary cause is:
a- A sign that the patient is handling the event well
b- Less serious than tachycardia
c- An ominous sign of severe hypoxemia
d- A cardiac event and is not related to the pulmonary complaint
104- Your patient tells you that he has been coughing up thick green sputum.
This is indicative of:
a- Allergies
b- Inflammatory disease
c- Pulmonary edema
d- Pneumonia
105- The term "obstructive airway disease" refers to:
a- Pneumonia, asthma, and emphysema
b- Chronic bronchitis, pneumonia, and asthma
c- Inflammatory diseases, asthma, and pneumonia
d- Chronic bronchitis, asthma, and emphysema
106- A reactive airway disease that is stimulated by both intrinsic and
extrinsic factors is known as:
a- Emphysema
b- Chronic bronchitis
c- Cystic fibrosis
d- Asthma
107- The current cornerstone of asthma treatment in the United States is:
a- Steroids
b- Albuterol
c- Racemic epinephrine
d- Aminophylline
108- A local preschool has closed because of an epidemic of pneumonia
among the children. The most common cause of children's pneumonia is:
a- Fungus growing in the preschool
b- Influenza A
c- Environmental exposure to allergens
d- Streptococcal pneumonia
109- One factor that may help differentiate pneumonia from COPD is the
presence of:
a- Rales
b- Rhonchi
c- Productive cough
d- Fever
110- A condition that exists when the capillaries in the lung have greater
permeability, which leads to rales and stiff alveoli, is known as:
a- ARDS
b- COPD
c- Pulmonary embolism
d- Asthma
111- Rapid deep breathing characterized by resulting respiratory alkalosis is
known as:
a- Kaposi syndrome
b- Hyperventilation syndrome
c- Hysteria-induced alkalosis
d- Tachypnea
112- If a patient is hyperventilating, you would expect blood flow to the brain
to:
a- Markedly increase
b- Moderately increase
c- Not be affected
d- Decrease
113- The Cushing triad consists of:
a- Elevated blood pressure, pulse, and respiratory rate
b- Decreased blood pressure, pulse, and respiratory rate
c- Elevated blood pressure, decreased pulse and respiratory rate
d- Decreased blood pressure, increased pulse and respiratory rate
114- The single best indicator of a serious neurological condition is:
a- Increased intracranial pressure
b- Retrograde amnesia
c- Rapidly worsening level of consciousness
d- Hypoxia
115- If a patient develops a coma slowly, you would suspect which of the
following causes?
a- Intracranial bleeding
b- Head trauma
c- Hypoglycemia
d- Brain tumor
116- Status epilepticus is defined as:
a- A period of abnormal perception prior to a seizure
b- Repetitive seizures without any period of awakening
c- Seizure activity on only one side of the body
d- The medical term for psychogenic epilepsy
117- Endocrine glands secrete their hormones into the:
a- Lymphatic system
b- Target tissues
c- Bloodstream
d- Effector organs
118- The primary functions of insulin are to:
a- Transport glucose into the cells
b- Decrease glucose metabolism
c- Eliminate pancreatic glycogen stores
d- Increase blood glucose concentration
119- When testing a patient's blood glucose level, you obtain a reading of 120
mg/dL. This reading is:
a- Abnormally low
b- Normal
c- The high end of normal
d- Extremely elevated
120- If needed (as in the absence of insulin), fatty acids in the liver can be
metabolized and used for energy. The eventual breakdown products of
fatty acids in the liver are known as:
a- Amino acids
b- Glycoleins
c- Ketone bodies
d- Pyruvic acids
121- The type of diabetes that causes the body to destroy its own insulinproducing cells is:
a- Type 1
b- Type 2
c- Specific types
d- Gestational
122- A diabetic patient exhibits Kussmaul breathing to:
a- Compensate for metabolic acidosis
b- Create a metabolic alkalosis
c- Create a respiratory alkalosis
d- Reverse respiratory acidosis
123- Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia may include:
a- Combative behavior
b- Warm, moist skin
c- Bradycardia
d- Flaccidity
124- Administration of dextrose 50% can precipitate neurological
complications in:
a- Unresponsive patients
b- Teenage patients
c- Alcoholic patients
d- Type 1 diabetics
125- You observe a patient with a very round face, thick trunk, and
extremely thin arms and legs. He tells you he has an adrenal gland
disorder. You suspect:
a- Myxedema
b- Cushing syndrome
c- Adrenal tumor
d- HHNK
126- An antigen is a substance that produces:
a- Anaphylaxis
b- Allergic reaction
c- Sensitivity
d- Antibodies
127- The primary antibody affecting an anaphylactic reaction is:
a- IgM
b- IgE
c- IgA
d- IgG
128- The medication most commonly responsible for anaphylactic reactions
is:
a- Aspirin
b- Steroids
c- Penicillin
d- Furosemide
129- The chemical released in an anaphylactic reaction that causes rapidly
increased vascular permeability and capillary and venule dilation is:
a- Leukotriene
b- Histamine
c- Heparin
d- Kinin
130- Hypotension in an anaphylactic reaction occurs primarily as a result of:
a- Myocardial infarction
b- Peripheral vasoconstriction
c- Capillary permeability and vasodilation
d- Loss of sympathetic nervous tone
131- During an anaphylactic reaction, urticaria may be noted on the skin,
and swelling may be noted in the __________________.
a- Legs and feet
b- Abdomen
c- Face and tongue
d- Fingers and toes
132- Medications that may be prescribed for a patient with a history of
anaphylactic reactions so they may be used in an emergency may include:
a- Propranolol
b- Procainamide
c- Clonidine
d- Epi-Pen
133- Expect that a fluid bolus of up to ____________ may be needed to
restore blood pressure in anaphylactic patients.
a- 500 mL
b- 1 L
c- 2 L
d- 4 L
134- Administration of epinephrine should be:
a- Via SQ injection
b- At half the usual dose for cardiac arrest
c- Withheld until the airway is established
d- At high doses, up to 3 to 5 mg every 3 minutes
135- SQ or IM epinephrine may not be effective for a patient having severe
anaphylactic reactions because of:
a- The patient's age
b- Decreased peripheral perfusion
c- Bronchoconstriction
d- The type of allergen
136- Most accidental poisonings in children from 1 to 3 years of age occur by
means of:
a- Injection
b- Inhalation
c- Ingestion
d- Absorption
137- Which of the following organs is most likely to show the effects of
poisoning first?
a- Liver
C- Spleen
b- Kidney
d- Heart
138- The dosage of activated charcoal in a child is:
a- 0.1 g/kg
b- 100 g
c- 15 to 30 g
d- 10 mg/kg
139- If the stinger is left in the wound after a sting by a honey bee, you
should:
a- Use forceps to remove the stinger
b- Scrape the stinger from the wound
c- Pull the wound out with fingers only
d- Leave the stinger in place
140- The most commonly ingested NSAID in overdose is:
a- Aspirin
b- VIOXX
c- Tylenol
d- Ibuprofen
141- All types of blood cells are formed in the:
a- Spleen
b- Liver
c- Bone marrow
d- Thymus
142- Which of these products is responsible for the blood-clotting process?
a- Albumin
b- Globulin
c- Fibrinogen
d- Plasma protein
143- Hemoglobin is measured in grams per 100 mL of bloo The normal range
is:
a- 1 to 8 g/100 mL
b- 10 to 15 g/100 mL
c- 12 to 18 g/100 mL
d- 15 to 22 g/100 mL
144- A differential blood count defines the:
a- Ratio of red blood cells to white blood cells
b- Absolute numbers of RBCs, WBCs, and platelets
c- Number of red blood cells bound to oxygen
d- Percentage of different types of WBCs present in blood
145- On assessing a patient who you suspect has leukemia, you would most
likely palpate the:
a- Bowel
b- Liver
c- Kidney
d- Bladder
146- A common sign/symptom in sickle cell crisis is:
a- Weight gain
b- Hypertension
c- Severe abdominal pain
d- Excessive hyperactivity
147- At what age does menarche usually occur?
a- 10 years
b- 13 years
c- 47 years
d- 50 years
148- The most serious complication of a ruptured ovarian cyst is:
a- Ectopic pregnancy
b- Hemorrhage
c- Infection
d- Loss of future ovarian function
149- The goal of treatment in the field for a woman with abdominal pain and
vaginal bleeding is to:
a- Identify life-threatening conditions and transport rapidly
b- Determine the cause of the bleeding
c- Rule out ectopic pregnancy
d- Aggressively manage the cause of the bleeding
150- Abdominal pain in a woman that presents 1 week after menstruation is
typical of:
a- Mittelschmerz
b- Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
c- Ruptured ovarian cyst
d- PID
151- You can estimate the amount of vaginal blood lost by asking the patient:
a- “Is there more or less blood than during your normal period?”
b- “How much blood have you lost?”
c- “How many pads or tampons were soaked per hour?”
d- “For how many hours have you been bleeding?”
152- IV access for patients with gynecological complaints:
abcd-
Should be initiated prior to transport
Can wait until transport begins
Is usually unnecessary
Can be detrimental to the patient
153- Many patients with pain caused by gynecological complaints prefer to
be transported:
a- Sitting on the bench seat
b- In a left-lateral recumbent position
c- Lying prone
d- Lying supine with legs extended
154- Vaginal bleeding should be controlled with:
a- Administration of Pitocin
b- Uterine massage
c- Trauma dressings or sanitary pads
d- Vaginal packing or tampons
155- Analgesic therapy for abdominal pain should be:
a- Administered orally
b- Withheld until after physician evaluation
c- Given intravenously
d- Given by IM or SQ injection
156- When treating a patient who was sexually assaulted:
a- Assess a thorough history of the assault for reporting purposes
b- Limit the history of the event to elements necessary for care
c- Genital examination is mandatory for accurate assessment
d- Allow the patient to express feelings with no fear that his or her words will
be reported
157- An ambulance equipment and supply checklist should be completed:
a- After each call is completed
b- At the beginning of each shift
c- On completion of the weekly vehicle safety check
d- As required by state statute
158- According to current American Heart Association recommendations,
advanced life support should be on the scene of a cardiac arrest within:
a- 2 minutes
b- 4 minutes
c- 8 minutes
d- 12 minutes
159- If a scene has been secured before your arrival, park the ambulance:
a- 50 to100 feet in front of the scene
b- 200 feet away and upwind if possible
c- 100 feet past the scene and uphill if possible
d- 200 feet in front of the scene and downwind
160- If the paramedic ambulance arrives at a motor vehicle crash scene
before fire or police units secure the scene, the ambulance should be
parked:
a- 50 feet before the crash scene for patient and personal protection
b- 100 feet before the scene, broadside to oncoming traffic for visibility
c- Off the roadway if possible
d- Past the scene, with headlights on the scene for visibility
161- If an EMS response is cancelled en route to the scene, the paramedic
should:
a- Return to the station; no documentation is necessary
b- Contact medical direction for advice
c- Document who cancelled the response and the time of cancellation
d- Request dispatchers to document the events
162- The atrioventricular valves of the heart are the:
a- Mitral and aortic
b- Aortic and pulmonic
c- Mitral and tricuspid
d- Tricuspid and pulmonic
163- Edema is:
a- Caused by excess fluids
b- A problem of fluid distribution
c- Caused by water leaving the interstitial spaces
d- A problem caused by excessive fluid administration
164- Which of the following vital signs is normal for a newborn?
a- Heart rate of 60 beats per minute
b- Respiratory rate of 25 breaths per minute
c- Temperature of 96° F
d- Blood pressure of 70 mm Hg systolic
165- A normal reaction to a finger gently stroking the sole of a newborn's
foot is:
a- Toes spread outward and upward
b- Toes curl in
c- Foot is withdrawn
d- Ankle twists laterally
166- When assessing the head of a 6-month-old, a paramedic feels a soft
depression on the skull near the front of the head This indicates:
a- A possible skull fracture
b- Dehydration
c- A delayed closing of the fontanelle
d- A normal finding for a 6-month-old
167- At birth, the only hard bones in an infant's body are in the:
a- Femur
b- Spinal column
c- Ribs
d- Fingers
168- The onset of puberty for boys typically occurs between the ages of:
a- 8 and 13
b- 10 and 12
c- 13 and 15
d- 14 and 16
169- Sublingual drug administration refers to medications that are:
a- Injected into the tongue
b- Placed under the tongue
c- Rubbed on the skin inferior to the mandible
d- Placed between the tongue and the roof of the mouth
170- Which of the following routes has the most rapid onset of action?
a- Subcutaneous
b- Intramuscular
c- Intravenous
d- Intradermal
171- Hyperventilation leads to:
a- Dilated cerebral vessels
b- Hypercarbia
c- Improved cerebral perfusion
d- Low carbon dioxide levels
172- Which of the following is true of chemical burns?
a- Thermal heat is not generated during contact
b- The chemical changes in the skin produce more damage than the heat
c- Chemical burns usually occur instantaneously on contact
d- Chemical burns cause less morbidity than thermal burns.
173- The normal movement of the diaphragm during inspiration:
a- Causes the diaphragm to move up
b- Increases the side-to-side dimensions of the chest
c- Flattens the diaphragm
d- causes passive inhalation
174- Air normally moves into the lungs from the:
a- Pressure gradient created when the lungs expand
b- higher pressure within the lungs during inspiration
c- Positive pressure forcing air into the lung
d- Increased intrathoracic pressure during inspiration
175- ____________ muscles are involved in movement:
a- Cardiac
b- Involuntary
c- Skeletal
d- Smooth
176- Which of the following types of assessment is performed on an
unresponsive patient?
a- A complete secondary survey
b- A DCAPBTLS survey
c- A rapid medical assessment
d- A rapid SAMPLE assessment
177- Which of the following types of assessment is performed on a responsive
patient with a medical complaint?
a- A complete secondary survey
b- A DCAPBTLS survey
c- A rapid medical assessment
d- A rapid SAMPLE assessment
178- which of the following is not determined in a scene size-up:
a- the need for additional resources
b- potential hazards to the EMS crew
c- mechanism of injury
d- chief complaint
179- At what point is the scene size-up complete?
a- When crashed vehicles have been stabilized
b- At the end of the call
c- Upon stabilization of the c-spine
d- When the number of patients has been determined