CMA Vital Signs Practice Test
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
Body Temperature
____
1. What is the name given to the heat regulating center of the body?
a. Medulla
b. Hypothalamus
c. Pituitary gland
d. Olfactory lobe
____
2. Most of the heat produced in the body is through:
a. Shivering
b. Perspiration
c. Voluntary muscle contractions
d. Digestion
____
3. The transfer of heat from one object to another is known as:
a. Conduction
b. Radiation
c. Convection
d. Microwaves
____
4. What is the normal range for body temperature?
a. 96°F to 98°F
b. 97°F to 99°F
c. 98°F to 99°F
d. 97°F to 100.4°F
____
5. Which of the following represents the average normal body temperature?
a. 37.8°C
b. 96.8°F
c. 98.6°F
d. 99.6°F
____
6. A temperature of 100°F is classified as:
a. Normal
b. Hyperpyrexia
c. Hypothermia
d. Low-grade fever
____
7. A temperature of 103°F is classified as:
a. Hyperpyrexia
b. Pyrexia
c. Hypopyrexia
d. Low-grade fever
____
8. A temperature of 97.6°F is classified as:
a. Normal
b. Hypothermia
c. Subnormal
d. Low-grade fever
____
9. Which of the following terms refers to a fever?
a. Hypothermia
b. Febrile
c. Dehydration
d. Afebrile
____ 10. All of the following tend to increase body temperature EXCEPT:
a. Crying
b. Vigorous physical exercise
c. Pregnancy
d. Cold weather
____ 11. You take Mrs. Main’s temperature at 7:00 A.M.; it reads 97.8°F. At 3:00 P.M., you take
____ 12.
____ 13.
____ 14.
____ 15.
____ 16.
her temperature again; it reads 99°F. How might you account for the difference?
a. During sleep, body metabolism slows down
b. Mrs. Main normally runs a low body temperature
c. During sleep, muscle activity increases
d. Women normally run a higher body temperature than men
Which of the following symptoms are experienced by a patient when his or her
temperature begins to rise?
a. Coldness and chills
b. Perspiration
c. Bradycardia
d. Hyperventilation
e. All of the above
What is the name given to the type of fever in which a wide range of temperature
fluctuations occur, all of which are above normal?
a. Crisis
b. Remittent
c. Intermittent
d. Continuous
What is the name given to the type of fever in which the temperature fluctuates
minimally, but always remains elevated?
a. Stadium
b. Remittent
c. Intermittent
d. Continuous
Which of the following are symptoms that may occur during the course of a fever?
a. Headache
b. Increased pulse and respirations
c. Increased thirst
d. Loss of appetite
e. All of the above
A vague sense of body discomfort, weakness, and fatigue that often marks the onset of a
disease is known as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
____ 17.
____ 18.
____ 19.
____ 20.
____ 21.
____ 22.
____ 23.
____ 24.
The blahs
Malaise
Crisis
Adventitious
Before taking body temperature with an electronic thermometer:
a. The probe must be covered with a disposable cover
b. The thermometer must be shaken down to 96°F
c. The thermometer must be calibrated
d. The ear canal must be straightened
The axilla is recommended as the preferred site for taking the temperature of:
a. An infant
b. A preschooler
c. An adult
d. An uncooperative patient
When taking axillary body temperature, the arm should be held close to the body to:
a. Allow for proper placement of the thermometer
b. Prevent irritation to the skin
c. Prevent the transfer of pathogens
d. Prevent air currents from affecting the reading
If an axillary temperature of 100°F was taken orally, it would register as:
a. 98°F
b. 99°F
c. 100°F
d. 101°F
The rectal site should NOT be used to take the temperature of:
a. A newborn
b. An unconscious patient
c. An infant
d. A mouth-breathing patient
If a rectal temperature of 99°F was taken orally, it would register as:
a. 97°F
b. 98°F
c. 99°F
d. 100°F
Which of the following probes should be selected to measure rectal body temperature
with an electronic thermometer?
a. Blue-collared
b. Red-collared
c. Pink-collared
d. Green-collared
A rectal thermometer must be lubricated before insertion to prevent:
a. The transfer of pathogens
b. An inaccurate temperature reading
c. The thermometer from breaking
d. Irritation of the rectal mucosa
____ 25. How far should the probe be inserted when measuring the rectal temperature of an infant?
a. 1/2 inch
b. 3/4 inch
c. 1 inch
d. 11/2 inches
____ 26. After measurement of rectal temperature with an electronic thermometer, the probe cover
____ 27.
____ 28.
____ 29.
____ 30.
____ 31.
____ 32.
should be ejected into:
a. The regular trash
b. A biohazard sharps container
c. A biohazard waste container
d. A chemical disinfectant
Which of the following may occur if the lens of a tympanic membrane thermometer is
dirty?
a. The lens may break
b. The reading may be falsely low
c. The tympanic membrane may become irritated
d. The reading may be falsely high
The lens of a tympanic membrane thermometer should be cleaned with:
a. A mild detergent
b. An abrasive cleanser
c. An antiseptic wipe
d. A soft tissue
A tympanic membrane thermometer should not be used to measure temperature on a
patient who has:
a. Otitis externa
b. A small amount of cerumen in the ear
c. Big ears
d. Strep throat
Reasons why the temporal artery is a good site for measuring body temperature include
all of the following EXCEPT:
a. It is not affected by ambient temperature
b. It is easily accessible
c. It has a constant, steady flow of blood
d. It is located close to the surface of the skin
The temporal artery site can be used to measure body temperature in:
a. Infants
b. Children
c. Adults
d. Elderly
e. All of the above
How does a temporal artery temperature reading compare with an oral body temperature
reading?
a. Approximately 1° higher than an oral reading
b. Approximately 1° lower than an oral reading
c. Approximately 2° higher than an oral reading
d. It is the same as an oral reading
____ 33. Which of the following could result in an inaccurate temporal artery temperature reading?
a. Having the patient remove his Sponge Bob hat
b. Using a probe with a shiny lens
c. Quickly scanning the forehead
d. Keeping the button continually depressed while scanning
____ 34. When the patient’s forehead is sweating, which of the following ensures an accurate
temporal artery temperature reading?
a. Cleaning the lens with an antiseptic wipe
b. Brushing the patient’s hair to the side
c. Applying a probe cover
d. Taking the temperature behind the earlobe
____ 35. Chemical thermometers must be stored in:
a. The freezer
b. A dry heat oven
c. A watertight container
d. A cool area
Pulse
____ 36. The purpose of measuring pulse includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a. To assess pulse rate after special procedures that affect heart functioning
b. To determine if the patient is developing hypertension
c. To assess pulse rate after the administration of medications that affect heart
functioning
d. To establish the patient’s baseline pulse rate
____ 37. Excessive pressure should not be applied when measuring pulse because:
a. The pulse may increase
b. The pulse may decrease
c. It could close off the radial artery
d. It could affect the rhythm of the pulse
____ 38. Which of the following individuals has the fastest pulse rate?
a. Infant
b. School-age child
c. Adolescent
d. Adult
____ 39. How does physical exercise affect the pulse?
a. Increases the pulse rate
b. Decreases the pulse rate
c. Has no effect on it
d. Results in a dysrhythmia
____ 40. For an artery to be considered as a pulse site, it must be:
a. Located in a closed cavity
b. Located away from major nerves
c. Located over a firm tissue such as bone
d. Located close to the heart
____ 41. Where is the radial pulse located?
a. On the thumb side of the wrist
b. In the center of the antecubital space
c. On the little finger side of the wrist
d. On the anterior side of the neck
____ 42. The apical pulse is located:
a. In the fourth intercostal space at the left margin of the sternum
b. In the fifth intercostal space at the junction of the left midclavicular line
c. On the anterior side of the neck, slightly to one side of the midline
d. On the fourth rib at the junction of the right margin of the sternum
____ 43. Where is the popliteal pulse located?
a. In front of the ear and just above eye level
b. In the middle of the groin
c. On the anterior side of the neck
d. In the back of the knee
____ 44. Where is the femoral pulse located?
a. In the posterior hip region
b. In the back of the knee
c. In the middle of the groin
d. On the anterior side of the neck
____ 45. Which of the following pulse sites can be used to assess circulation to the foot?
a. Posterior tibial
b. Ulnar
c. Femoral
d. Popliteal
____ 46. Which of the following pulse sites is often used to monitor pulse during exercise?
a. Temporal
b. Carotid
c. Ulnar
d. Dorsalis pedis
____ 47. What is the normal range for the resting pulse rate of an adult?
a. 60 to 100 beats/min
b. 60 to 80 beats/min
c. 70 to 90 beats/min
d. 80 to 100 beats/min
____ 48. Which of the following terms describes an abnormally fast pulse rate?
a. Tachypnea
b. Bounding
c. Tachycardia
d. Bradycardia
____ 49. You are measuring the pulse and find it has a normal rhythm and volume. How should
you record this?
a. Dysrhythmia and regular
b. Bounding and strong
c. Regular and strong
d. Thready and regular
____ 50. You are measuring the pulse and find it feels weak and rapid. How would you record
____ 51.
____ 52.
____ 53.
____ 54.
____ 55.
this?
a. Bounding
b. Thready
c. Tachycardia
d. Bradycardia
You are taking the pulse and find it feels extremely strong and full. How would you
record this?
a. Bounding
b. Thready
c. Bradycardia
d. Tachycardia
Which of the following individuals may normally exhibit bradycardia?
a. A trained athlete
b. An infant
c. An elderly person
d. A diabetic patient
What is the term used to describe an irregularity in the heart’s rhythm?
a. Fibrillation
b. Ectopic beat
c. Bradycardia
d. Dysrhythmia
Which of the following is used to describe the condition in which the radial pulse rate is
less than the apical pulse?
a. Apical-radial pulse
b. Pulse pressure
c. Pulse deficit
d. Atrial fibrillation
Which of the following tests might be ordered for a patient with a dysrhythmia?
a. MRI
b. Heart catheterization
c. ECG
d. Blood gas analysis
Respiration
____ 56. One respiration consists of:
a. One inhalation
b. One exhalation
c. One inhalation and one exhalation
d. The opening and closing of the valves of the heart
____ 57. During exhalation:
a. Oxygen is taken into the lungs
b. The diaphragm descends
c. The lungs expand
d. Carbon dioxide is removed from the lungs
____ 58. Internal respiration is the:
a. Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the lungs and blood
b. Removal of carbon dioxide from the lungs
c. Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the blood and body cells
d. Measurement of the oxygen saturation of the blood
____ 59. The control center for involuntary respiration is the:
a. Medulla
b. Thalamus
c. Hypothalamus
d. Olfactory lobe
____ 60. The normal respiratory rate of an adult ranges from:
a. 8 to 16 respirations per minute
b. 10 to 18 respirations per minute
c. 12 to 20 respirations per minute
d. 16 to 22 respirations per minute
____ 61. Which of the following individuals has the slowest respiratory rate?
a. Newborn
b. Infant
c. Preschool child
d. Adult
____ 62. What is the term used to describe an abnormal decrease in the rate and depth of
respiration?
a. Tachypnea
b. Hypopnea
c. Orthopnea
d. Bradycardia
____ 63. What is the term used to describing breathing that is easier in a sitting position?
a. Orthopnea
b. Dyspnea
c. Bradypnea
d. Eupnea
____ 64. What type of breathing may occur with a panic attack?
a. Wheezing
b. Bradypnea
c. Hyperventilation
d. Hypoxia
____ 65. What is the term used to describe temporary cessation of breathing?
a. Hypoxia
b. Hypopnea
c. Apnea
d. Anoxia
____ 66. What is the term used to describe a bluish discoloration of the skin caused by a lack of
oxygen?
a. Cyanosis
b. Hypoxia
c. Apnea
d. Ischemia
____ 67. Which of the following individuals would be LEAST likely to have dyspnea?
a. A patient with chronic bronchitis
b. A patient with arthritis
c. A patient with emphysema
d. A patient with asthma
____ 68. Which of the following conditions is often characterized by hypopnea?
a. Sleep disorders
b. Dehydration
c. Fever
d. Chills
____ 69. If a patient’s pulse rate is 80 beats/min, the patient’s respirations would most likely be:
a. 14 respirations per minute
b. 16 respirations per minute
c. 18 respirations per minute
d. 20 respirations per minute
Pulse Oximetry
____ 70. Pulse oximetry provides the physician with information on:
a. The rate and depth of respiration
b. Cardiac dysrhythmias
c. The amount of oxygen being delivered to the tissues
d. Circulation to the extremities
____ 71. The function of hemoglobin is to:
a. Transport oxygen in the body
b. Defend the body against infection
c. Assist in blood clotting
d. Transport nutrients to the cells
____ 72. The abbreviation used to record oxygen saturation as measured by a pulse oximeter is:
a. SaO2
b. PCO2
c. PO2
d. SpO2
____ 73. The oxygen saturation level of a healthy individual is:
a. 95% to 99%
b. 90% to 95%
c. 85% to 90%
d. 75% to 85%
____ 74. What term designates a decrease in the oxygen saturation of the blood?
a.
b.
c.
d.
____ 75.
____ 76.
____ 77.
____ 78.
____ 79.
____ 80.
____ 81.
____ 82.
Apnea
Hypoxemia
Hypopnea
Hypoxia
All of the following may cause a decrease in the SpO2 reading EXCEPT:
a. Pneumonia
b. Asthma
c. Emphysema
d. Gastritis
The purpose of the power-on self-test (POST) performed by a pulse oximeter is to:
a. Determine if the battery is low
b. Check the internal systems of the oximeter
c. Calculate the patient’s oxygen saturation level
d. Search for the patient’s pulse
Proper care of the pulse oximeter includes:
a. Hitting the probe against a hard object
b. Autoclaving the probe for 20 minutes
c. Lifting the monitor by the cable
d. Cleaning the monitor with a nonabrasive cleaner
e. All of the above
Which of the following does NOT affect the SpO2 reading?
a. Dark fingernail polish
b. Darkly pigmented skin
c. Bruises
d. Artificial fingernails
Which of the following prevents ambient light from interfering with the SpO2 reading?
a. Cleansing the placement site with an alcohol wipe
b. Warming the probe placement site
c. Covering the probe with a washcloth
d. Proper alignment of the probe on the patient’s finger
What effect could patient movement have on the pulse oximetry procedure?
a. Prevents the probe from picking up the pulse signal
b. Causes a decrease in blood flow to the finger
c. Prevents the probe from being aligned properly
d. Causes the photodetector to absorb too much light
If the patient’s fingers are cold when performing pulse oximetry, the medical assistant
should:
a. Take the reading on another finger
b. Use a disposable probe to take the reading
c. Cleanse the probe with an antiseptic wipe
d. Ask the patient to rub his or her fingers together
All of the following can be used as a probe placement site EXCEPT the:
a. Toe
b. Earlobe
c. Finger of an arm to which an automatic blood pressure cuff is applied
d. Index finger
Blood Pressure
____ 83. Blood pressure measures:
a. The contraction and relaxation of the heart
b. The number of times the heart beats per minute
c. The force exerted on the walls of the arteries by the blood
d. The expansion and recoiling of the aorta
____ 84. The phase in the cardiac cycle in which the heart relaxes between contractions is known
as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
____ 85.
____ 86.
____ 87.
____ 88.
____ 89.
____ 90.
Diastole
Systole
Pulse pressure
Baseline recording
The systolic blood pressure represents the:
a. Pressure in the arteries when the ventricles contract
b. Pressure in the arteries when the heart relaxes
c. Pressure in the arteries when the atria contract
d. Expansion and recoiling of the aorta
What is the term used to describe the point of lesser pressure on the arterial walls when
assessing blood pressure?
a. Systolic pressure
b. Diastolic pressure
c. Diastole
d. Hypotension
e. Pulse pressure
Normal blood pressure for an adult is:
a. 120/80 or higher
b. Less than 120/80
c. 110 to 140 over 60 to 90
d. 70 to 80 beats/min
Blood pressure is measured in:
a. Units
b. Degrees
c. Beats/min
d. Millimeters of mercury
Which of the following BP readings would be classified as hypertension, stage 1?
a. 116/78 mm Hg
b. 120/80 mm Hg
c. 130/88 mm Hg
d. 144/92 mm Hg
e. All of the above
All of the following are risk factors for developing hypertension EXCEPT:
a. Obesity
b. Smoking
c. Sleep apnea
d. Alcohol consumption
____ 91. If a patient’s blood pressure is 130/85 mm Hg, the patient’s pulse pressure would be:
a. 45
b. 85
c. 130
d. 215
____ 92. Which of the following has an effect on blood pressure?
a. Pain
b. Bladder distention
c. Body position
d. Smoking
e. All of the above
____ 93. A diaphragm chestpiece on a stethoscope is most useful for hearing:
a. Lung and bowel sounds
b. Heart sounds
c. Vascular sounds
d. Low-pitched sounds
____ 94. What type of cuff would probably be needed to measure blood pressure on an
____ 95.
____ 96.
____ 97.
____ 98.
underweight adult weighing 93 lb?
a. Aneroid
b. Adult
c. Child
d. Thigh
Over which artery is the stethoscope placed when taking blood pressure?
a. Radial
b. Brachial
c. Apical
d. Carotid
When measuring blood pressure, the patient’s arm should be positioned:
a. Above heart level
b. At heart level
c. Across the chest
d. With the palm facing downward
Which of the following indicates that the proper cuff size has been selected?
a. The cuff fits snugly
b. The bladder of the cuff encircles 80% of the circumference of the arm
c. The cuff is at least 1 inch above the bend in the elbow
d. The bladder is centered over the antecubital space
Which of the following represents an ERROR in blood pressure technique?
a. Directing the ear pieces of the stethoscope slightly forward in the ear
b. Placing the cuff 2 inches above the bend in the elbow
c. Positioning the manometer at a viewing distance of 2 feet
d. Releasing the air in the cuff as slowly as possible
____ 99. When measuring blood pressure, the first clear tapping sound represents:
a. The systolic pressure
b. Phase IV of the Korotkoff sounds
c. The diastolic pressure
d. The palpatory blood pressure reading
____ 100. When measuring blood pressure, the Korotkoff phase in which the sounds disappear is:
a. Phase I
b. Phase III
c. Phase IV
d. Phase V