AP Government Test
Chapters 3 and 6
Chapter 3- Federalism
Part I. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Choose 15 Questions from Chapter 3, 10 Questions From Chapter 6 and do 41-45.
1) The US Federal system refers to a way of organizing a nation so that
A) there are three branches of government and a system of checks and balances.
B) all power is centralized in the national government.
C) there is one federal government and states have no say or control in implementing policies.
D) power is centralized in state and local government.
E) both national and state levels of government share authority over the same land and people.
2) The power to directly regulate drinking ages, marriage and divorce, sexual behavior, and the like has been granted
A) to the President.
B) to state governments.
C) to both the state and national governments.
D) to the national government.
E) to all governments by the Bill of Rights.
3) The primary thrust of the original intent and wording of the Tenth Amendment is that
A) the national government can take control of a state government during a national emergency.
B) if the Constitution does not give a power to the national government then it is reserved for the states.
C) both the states and national government are bound by the limitations in the Bill of Rights.
D) national laws override state laws when there is a conflict between the two.
E) state legislatures have the ultimate authority to determine what a state government's powers are.
4) In the Constitution, the powers to coin money, to enter into treaties, and to regulate commerce with foreign nations and among the
states were given to
A) the individual states.
B) the Senate only.
C) both the individual states and the national government.
D) the national government.
E) neither the individual states nor the national government.
5) Only the national government is allowed to
A) make and enforce laws.
B) make treaties with foreign nations.
C) levy taxes.
D) take private property for public purposes.
6) The McCulloch v. Maryland case dealt with what specific grievance?
A) import taxes on goods made in other states
B) toll bridges on interstate roads
C) can a state coin its own money
D) can a state tax the national government (National Bank)
E) the location of Maryland's capital city
7) The enumerated (expressed) powers of Congress and the national government are those
A) set out in the first ten amendments.
B) specifically spelled out in the Constitution.
C) requiring ratification by the states.
D) not specifically spelled out in the Constitution, but nonetheless acknowledged.
8) Federal policies not specifically listed in the Constitution such as regulating food and drugs, building interstate highways, protecting
consumers, cleaning up the environment are all justified as __________ of Congress.
A) constitutionally specified powers
B) enumerated powers
C) “necessary and proper” powers
D) reserved powers
E) categorical grants
9) The Constitution's provision that Congress has the right to "make all laws necessary and proper for carrying into execution" its
powers is often referred to as the
A) enumerated powers.
B) Unwritten Amendment.
C) elastic clause.
D) heart of fiscal federalism.
E) privileges and immunities.
10) In determining the power of Congress to regulate commerce in the case of the Heart of Atlanta Hotel, (and the early precedent of
Gibbons v. Ogden), the Supreme Court
A) defined commerce very broadly, encompassing virtually every form of commercial activity.
B) defined commerce very narrowly in considering the right of Congress to regulate it.
C) prohibited Congress from regulating business activity on the grounds it violated private property rights.
D) listed the implied powers of Congress and the national government.
E) listed the enumerated powers of Congress and the national government.
11) In the 1950s and 1960s, the proclamation of states' rights was usually made by those opposing the national government's efforts in
the area of
A) abortion rights.
B) environmental law.
C) the interstate highway system.
D) civil rights for African Americans.
E) the Vietnam War.
12) A marriage license issued in one state is valid and honored in all states under the constitutional provision of
A) national supremacy.
B) privileges and immunities.
C) full faith and credit.
D) separation of powers.
E) national licensure.
13) The national government has exclusive control over foreign and military policy, the postal system, and monetary policy, while the
states have exclusive control over other specific areas. If there was a clear delineation of all duties—this would reflect
A) dual federalism.
B) fiscal federalism.
C) cooperative federalism.
D) divided government.
E) tripartite federalism.
14) If the allocation of power in a cooperative federal system were compared to a cake it would most likely be
A) a layer cake with two distinct layers.
B) a marbled cake where the colors blend into each other.
C) a single-layer cake.
D) a bundt cake.
15) Especially since the New Deal, and Reinforced by the Civil Right Movement of the sixties, one could safely characterize the US
government as __________ federalism.
A) cooperative
B) tripartite
C) fiscal
D) unitary
E) single
16) The No Child Left Behind Act is an example of
A) dual federalism.
B) triangulation.
C) unitary federalism.
D) cooperative federalism.
E) layer cake federalism.
17) Most federal monies and grants issued to states to use are given in the form of
A) disaster loans.
B) urban renewal grants.
C) block grants.
D) categorical grants.
E) revenue sharing.
18) A federal requirement that the drinking age must be 21 before states can receive federal highway monies is an example of
A) a project grant supported by the interest groups.
B) an important element of the "formula" used to calculate formula grants.
C) the efforts of state agencies to get federal funds.
D) an unfunded mandate.
E) a string attached to a categorical grant.
19. The fact that the existing Republican majority in Congress prefers block grants to categorical grants indicates that
A) they want the federal government to exercise less authority over the states.
B) they intend to raise more money from state governments to reduce the federal budget deficit.
C) they want to decrease federal aid to state governments.
D) they want to increase federal aid to state governments.
E) they want federal money to be spent at the neighborhood level rather than the state level.
20. Expansions of unfunded mandates (American With Disabilities Act of 1990 would be and example) by the national government
present difficult funding problems for
A) the recipient of the service or program.
B) federal taxpayers.
C) state and local governments.
D) Congress.
E) foreign governments.
21. Which of the following reasons do you think has most influenced the fact that over the last 125 years, the people of the United States
have turned increasingly to the national government to solve problems?
A) we have a unitary government.
B) of the lessons of the Civil War.
C) a problem or policy often requires an amount of money that the federal government can more easily supply.
D) of corruption at the state level.
E) the Tenth Amendment gave increased power to the national government.
22. In describing the historical power struggle between the federal government and state governments, which of the following has
appeared weakest.
a. Amendment X of the Constitution.
b. Article VI of the Constitution.
c. The necessary and proper clause.
d. Resources (money) made available by the federal government.
e. The interstate commerce clause of the constitution.
23. States cannot declare acts of Congress unconstitutional, and therefore unenforceable. In other words, states do not have the right of
a. nullification.
b. local mandate.
c. dual federalism.
d. habeas corpus.
e. ex post facto
24. During the 1960s, the nature of federal grants began to change because
a. Congress vastly slowed the flow of money to states.
b. states began refusing grants due to the number of strings attached.
c. the federal government began giving out grant monies to encourage states to comply with Civil Rights goals.
d. the federal government lost its ability to finance grant programs due to the deficit.
e. Congress passed income tax laws for the first time.
25. In our current federal system, the best illustration of concurrent powers would be
a. the power to declare war
b. the power to determine the minimum age for marriage.
c. the power to tax.
d. the power to sign and approve treaties.
e. the power to regulate interstate commerce.
Chapter 6 – Political Socialization/ Public Opinion
26) The U.S. Constitution requires that the government conduct a census of the population every
A) five years.
B) presidential election year.
C) ten years.
D) 25 years.
E) year.
27) All of the following are accurate US demographic trends in recent years except
A) there is a growing minority majority.
B) the largest growth ethnicity is the Hispanic population.
C) the average age of an American is getting older .
D) Americans are leaving the southern and western coastal regions and moving to the Great Lakes and heartland region.
28) The political impact of the graying of America is that
A) the issues of medicare and social security is consistently on the political agenda.
B) the United States is doomed.
C) Issues such as head start programs and family daycare will receive more federal monies.
29) One can best predict how the political ideology of a person by
A) knowing the political leaning of their friends.
B) knowing the political leaning of their teachers.
C) knowing the political leaning of their parents.
D) knowing their age.
E) knowing their race.
30) According to many observers, "the new parent" in the socialization process has become
A) interest groups.
B) friends and peers.
C) the mass media.
D) the mother.
E) schools.
31) One of the effects of growing older on political learning and political behavior is that
A) interest in politics decreases.
B) people become more liberal.
C) the strength of one's party attachment declines.
D) political participation increases.
E) aging increases a person's trust in government.
32) In public opinion polling, a sample as small as around __________ people can faithfully represent the "universe" of Americans.
A) 1,500 B) 50,000 C) 20,000 D) 5,000 E) 10,000
33) The first key to the accuracy of public opinion polls is
A) polygraphs.
B) the larger the size of the sample, the better.
D) political ideology.
E) random sampling.
34) Random sampling in public opinion polling operates on the principle that
A) everyone should have an equal probability of being selected.
B) the questions to be asked of a given respondent must be selected randomly so that all respondents are asked the same question the
same number of times.
C) answers to include in aggregate poll results must be selected by chance in order to maximize accuracy.
D) the larger the number of people who are polled, the greater accuracy of the poll.
E) both B and C
35) A pollster using a representative sample of 1,500 Americans finds that 51 percent support candidate X and 49 percent support
candidate Y. The pollster's conclusion should be that
A) the poll should be retaken with a larger sample.
B) the poll should be retaken using the random method.
C) X is likely to win.
D) polls are unreliable predictors of political outcomes.
E) the race is too close to call because of a possible sampling error.
36) An exit poll is taken
A) just prior to the election, in order to get a last reading of the public's views.
B) on election day, by interviewing voters as they leave the polling place.
C) to measure an officeholder's popularity as he or she is leaving office.
D) as people leave supermarkets, shopping malls, sporting events, or movies, and are thus available for interviews.
E) in all of these situations.
37) If public opinion analysts agree about anything it is that
A) people's views on politics are coherent and consistent.
B) people do not have opinions on most current public policy issues.
C) the average citizen in the United States is aware of the world around them.
D) the level of knowledge about politics of the average American is low.
E) people have something to say about almost every issue.
38) Which of the following is TRUE of most conservatives in American politics?
A) They believe we should spend much less on the military budget.
B) They favor the current status quo and do not want to make any major changes in government policy.
C) They favor free market solutions to problems rather than looking to the government for regulating business.
D) They are opposed to prayer in public schools.
E) They are in favor of affirmative action programs.
39) In general, liberal ideology supports
A) a small, less active government that gives freer reign to the private sector.
B) a strong central government that sets policies to promote equality.
C) individuals responding generously to each other to solve society's problems without looking to government to do so.
D) public and government ownership of the means of production.
E) strong local and state governments that are closer to the people.
40) Conservatives would tend to favor each of the following EXCEPT
A) low taxes.
B) the right to life.
C) increased military spending.
D) affirmative action.
E) free-market solutions.
In light of the current relationship between the national government and state governments, select the term that appears to be, or has
been the strongest if they are, or were doing battle.
41)
A) Article VI
B) Amendment X
42)
A) Nullification
B) Civil War
43)
A) McCulloch v. Maryland
B) Lopez v. United States
44)
A) Categorical Grants
B) Block Grants
45)
A) Necessary and Proper Clause
B) Amendment X