Phthisiology
Text tests
1. In what term from the beginning of illness does the typical rentgenological| picture of miliary
tuberculosis appear ?
A. On the first days
B. * On 7th days
C. Through 3-4 weeks
D. Through 2-3 months
E. Through 5-6 months.
2. What kind of rentgenological| picture is most typical for miliary tuberculosis?
A. Flakes of snow".
B. Snow-storm".
C. Bat’s wings|
D. Weeping willow".
E. * Looks like millet dissemination
3. By what method does selection of bacteriae| usually appear at miliary tuberculosis?
A. Bakterioskopy.
B. Bakterioskopy after the using method of flotation.
C. Bacteriological.
D. Biological.
E. * Usually doesn’t appear by any method.
4. What sputum in patients with miliary tuberculosis?
A. Mucous.
B. Mucous and purulent.
C. Purulent.
D. Mucous| with bloodstreaks.
E. * Sputum is absent.
5. How does usually miliary tuberculosis finish without treatment?
A. Spontaneous curing.
B. * By death in 4-5 weeks.
C. By death in 5-7 months.
D. Passing to infiltration tuberculosis.
E. Passing to chronic tuberculosis.
6. What character usually has temperature reaction for a patient on miliary tuberculosis?
A. Subfebrility| during the first 3-5 days of illness.
B. Protracted inconstant subfebrility|.
C. Fever during the first 3-5 days of illness.
D. * The Wrong fever
E. Normal temperature.
7. What is the most characteristic investigation, if miliary tuberculosis does not end with death of patient?
A. * Convalescence with development of diffuse pneumofibrosis.
B. Convalescence with forming the hearths of Gon.
C. Passing into subsharp disseminated tuberculosis.
D. Passing into fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis.
E. Development the cirrhosis of lungs.
8. What complication is not typical |for miliary tuberculosis?
A. * Sharp insufficiency of kidney.
B. Cerebral comma.
C. Sharp hepatic insufficiency.
D. Amyloidosis.
E. Endotoxicosis.
9. What is correct continuation of suggestion? Miliary tuberculosis....
A. Is the most frequent form of tuberculosis.
B. Takes the second place (after the infiltration tuberculosis) in the structure of morbidity on secondary
tuberculosis.
C. * Nowadays meets rarely.
D. Takes the second place (after the tuberculosis of intrathoracic nodes) in the structure of morbidity on
primary tuberculosis.
E. Nowadays meets in casuistic cases.
10. What thesis is faithful?
A. * Miliary tuberculosis is one of the most unfavourable| form of tuberculosis.
B. Miliary tuberculosis is a favourable form of tuberculosis.
C. Miliary tuberculosis is a torpid| form of tuberculosis.
D. Miliary tuberculosis is a subclinical form of tuberculosis.
E. Miliary tuberculosis is a | form of tuberculosis without symptome.
11. What thesis is faithful?
A. Miliary tuberculosis is a local form of tuberculosis.
B. * Miliary tuberculosis is a general |form of tuberculosis.
C. Miliary tuberculosis is characterized by migrant defeats of different organs.
D. Only the lungs are struck at miliary tuberculosis .
E. The defeat takes place in 1-2 parenchymal |organs at miliary tuberculosis.
12. What is the method of provocation of wheezes for patients with tuberculosis?
A. deep breathing
B. breathing through the mouth.
C. * deep inhalation after the easy coughing.
D. breathing through the nose.
E. quiet breathing
13. Patient of 35 at a reception to tuberculosis dispensary complains about a weakness, promoted sweating,
cough with sputum of mucus character. Roentgenological: in S1,2 of left lung darkening of weak
intensity with unclear contours was found. What kind of research should be done to confirm diagnosis
tuberculosis?
A. General blood test.
B. Biochemical blood test.
C. * Sputum’s test on MBT.
D. Immunological research of blood.
E. Sputum’s test on the second flora.
14. Patient of 43 undergo a coursus-cav of anmycobacterial medication treatment concerning FDT
(12.12.1998) of left lung’s upper part (fibrocavernous, phase of infiltration and dissemination),
Destr-+ Mbt+ M+ K+ resist 0, ISTO, Cat4 Cog4(2004).What research above all should be done to a
patient to set an optimum combination of chemo medication?
A. Determine a type of MBT.
B. Determine presence of the second flora.
C. * Determine sensitiveness of MBT to antimycobacterial medication.
D. To define massiveness of bacterioexcretion
E. To define virulence of MBT.
15. Indicate the incorrect formulation of clinical diagnosis of lung tuberculosis
A. FDTB (16.06.2003) of the lungs upper sections (disseminated), Destr +, (infiltration ), MBT +M+C+,
Resist -, Hist 0, Cat1 Coh2(2003).
B. CTB (12.01.2000) the upper section of the right lung (fibrous-cavernous), Destr +, (infiltration),
MBT +M-C+ Resist I (S, H) Hist0. Lung haemoptysis. RI II, Cat 4 Coh1(2000).
C. FDTB (20.03.2001) of the lower part of the right lung (tuberculoma), Destr +, MBT- M-C-, Hist 0,
Cat1 Coh1(2001).
D. * FDTB (20.09.2003), (nidus tuberculosis), (infiltration), MBT-M-C-, Hist 0, Cat3 Coh3(2003).
E. RTB (20.06.2003) of the upper part of the right lung (infiltrative), Destr -, MBT- M-C-, Hist 0, Cat2
Coh2(2003).
16. How is tuberculous etiology of pleurisy confirmed?
A. By the presence of tuberculous changes in lungs or other organs.
B. Finding of MBT| in a pleural exudate or in sputum|.
C. Mantouex test reaction is positive or recent tuberculin intensifier|.
D. Puncture biopsy of pleura.
E. * All indicated are correct.
17. What is the mechanism of development of pleural inflammation by MBT| ?
A. Sputogenic.
B. Only lymphogenic|.
C. * Lympho-hematogenic.
D. Bronchogenic|.
E. Only hematogenic |.
18. What is the reason of appearance of exsudate in a pleural cavity at different clinical forms of
tuberculosis?
A. The anatomic and functional connection between the sheets of pleura, lymphatic nodes and lymphatic
system of lungs.
B. The inflammation of pleura that caused by MBT|, that penetrate into pleura by lymphogenic way
from the hearths or infiltrations| in lungs.
C. Pleura hypersensibilization by MBT decay products |.
D. The inflammation of pleura that caused by MBT|, that penetrate into pleura because of bacteriemia||.
E. * All indicated assertions are faithful.
19. At what type of exsudate is a small amount of free liquid in a pleural cavity , an exsudate is organized
quickly|?
A. Purulent.
B. Serous.
C. * Fibrinous and serous-fibrinous
D. Haemorrhagic and serous-haemorrhagic.
E. Serous-purulent|.
20. What of tubercular pleurisy is the most widespread ?
A. * Exudative (serous or serous-haemorrhagic liquid).
B. Armourclad.
C. Chillous.
D. Haemorrhagic.
E. Purulent.
21. What is the character of exsudate at the tuberculous empyema ?
A. Serous-fibrinous| and fibrinous |.
B. Haemorrhagic
C. * Serous-purulent| and purulent.
D. Serous-haemorrhagic.
E. Chillous.
22. For what disease or state transudate into pleural cavity is not typical |?
A. Myxedema|.
B. * Cirrhosis of liver.
C. Tuberculosis.
D. Stagnant cardiac insufficiency.
E. Nefrotic syndrome.
23. What composition of pleural liquid is typical for an exsudate?
A. All indicated is an exsudate.
B. * Relative density - 1025, protein content- 45 g/l, protein (in effusion/ in the serum of blood)-0,8,
activity of LDG| -2,1 mmol/(l/hour), content of cells -2,1?109/l.
C. Relative density - 1010, protein content - 20 g/l, protein (in effusion/ in the serum of blood)-0,2,
activity of LDG| - 1,1 mmol/(l/hour), content of cells- 0,8?109/l.
D. Relative density - 1005, protein content- 15 g/l, protein (in effusion/ in the serum of blood)-0,3,
activity of LDG| -0,9 mmol/(l/hour), content of cells -0,5?109/l.
E. Relative density - 1000, protein content- 10 g/l, protein (in effusion/ in the serum of blood)-0,4,
activity of LDG| -1,3 mmol/(l/hour), content of cells -0,6?109/l.
24. What method of research is decisive in diagnostics of pleurisy of any etiology?
A. * Pleural puncture
B. Roentgenologic examination|.
C. Ultrasound examination.
D. Clinic and information of physical| methods.
E. Tuberculin tests.
25. Complication of what form of tuberculosis can be an allergic pleurisy?
A. Lung infiltrative tuberculosis|.
B. Nidus lung tuberculosis.
C. Subacute disseminated lung tuberculosis|.
D. Lung tuberculoma.
E. * Tuberculosis of intrathoracic |lymphatic nodes.
26. What method help to find MBT in pleural liquid at an allergic tubercular pleurisy||?
A. * It is impossible to find .
B. By an ordinary bacterioscopy|.
C. By flotation method.
D. By cultural method.
E. By luminescent microscopy.
27. Complication of what form of tuberculosis can be development of perifocal pleurisy?
A. Fibrous-cavernous lung tuberculosis.
B. Lung infiltrative tuberculosis|.
C. Subacute disseminated lung tuberculosis|.
D. Chronic disseminated lung tuberculosis|.
E. E. * All noted forms.
28. What measures are the most important in treatment at the purulent (exudative) tuberculous pleurisy?
A. To increase the amount of antimycobacterial drugs.
B. * Repeated aspirations of exsudate with creation of negative pressure in a pleural cavity.
C. Setting of corticosteroids|.
D. Desintoxication| therapy.
E. All marked.
29. What complications can accompany a tuberculous empyema?.
A. Broncho-pleural fistula||.
B. Toracic fistula|.
C. Amyloidosis of internal organs.
D. Pneumopleurisy|.
E. * All marked.
30. What is the exsudate at tuberculous pleurisy?
A. * Mainly lymphocytic
B. Mainly neutrophilic.
C. Chillous.
D. Monocytic|.
E. Macrophagic.
31. What tuberculin and at dose is used at mass tuberculinization?
A. 100 % Koch alt tuberculin
B. * PPD-L in standard dilution in 2TU dose
C. PPD-L in standard dilution in 5TU dose
D. PPD-L in standard dilution in 10TU dose
E. 25 % dilution of purified dry tuberculin
32. The sensitivity of organism to tuberculin may be intensified with:
A. Senile age
B. Lymphogranulomatosis
C. Lymphosarcoma
D. Treatment with immunodepressants
E. * Bronchial asthma
33. Koch’s testing is used for:
A. Prophylaxis of tuberculosis
B. Early tuberculosis revealing
C. Determination of infection index of population with tuberculosis
D. * Differential diagnostics of infectious and postvaccinal allergy
E. Revealing the persons with the increased risk of tuberculosis illness
34. A 2-years old child reaction to Mantoux test with 2 TU – 7 mm infiltration, at the age of 4 – 3 mm.
Postvaccinal seam of 4 mm. Define the character of tuberculin reaction.
A. Infectious allergy
B. A “range” of tuberculin testing
C. The child is ill with tuberculosis
D. * Postvaccinal allergy
E. Doubtful Mantoux reaction
35. From what age and in what terms is mass tuberculinization performed:
A. * From 12-months age, annually
B. At 7 and 14 years of age only
C. From 12-months age, once in 2-3 years
D. From 7 up to 14 years annually
E. From 7 and each 5 years up to 30-years old age
36. What is the “range” of tuberculin reactions?
A. Transition of negative reaction to tuberculin to a positive one after BCG vaccination
B. Transition of negative reaction to tuberculin to a positive one after BCG revaccination
C. * Sensitivity change to tuberculin due to the primary infection with tuberculosis mycobacteria
D. Appearance of hyperergy reaction to tuberculin in patients infected with tuberculosis
E. Negative reaction to tuberculin in seriously ill tuberculosis patients
37. What is the aim of mass tuberculinization:
A. For prophylaxis of MBT infection
B. For prophylaxis of tuberculosis illness
C. * For early tuberculosis revealing among children
D. For early tuberculosis revealing among adults
E. For revealing the persons with the increased risk of tuberculosis illness
38. A 6 years old boy K., had a “range” of tuberculin reaction. What examinations should be done?
A. * General clinical examination, inspection roentgenogram of the thoracic cage organs, general blood
and urine test
B. Koch’s testing, general blood and urine test
C. Fluorography, general blood and urine test
D. Tomography, smear examination from pharynx for MBT
E. Fibrobronchoscopy, examination of contents from bronchi for MBT
39. While carrying out the differential diagnostics between infectious postvaccinal reactions on the
tuberculin is not taken into account:
A. The contact with the tuberculosis patients
B. The intensiveness of the reaction on the Mantoux test of previous years
C. A presence of postvaccinal scar
D. The time of the carrying out of the vaccibation BCG
E. * The poisoning by the carbon oxide some yars ago
40. If there is the positive reaction on the tuberculin with 2 TU on the skin of antebrachium there can be
visible:
A. * Infiltrate by the size of 5 –16 mm
B. Infiltrate with a vesicle in the centre
C. Hyperemia more than 5 mm
D. Infiltrate by the size more than 16 mm
E. Infiltrate by the size of 2-4 mm
41. Which one from the mentioned diseases can decrease the sensibility of an organism to tuberculin?
A. Cataral otitis
B. Allergic rhinitis
C. Bronchial asthma
D. Hypertonic disease
E. * Measles
42. Primary forms of tuberculosis comprise:
A. Nidus
B. Disseminated
C. * Tuberculosis intoxication
D. Caseous pneumonia
E. Infiltrative
43. Specific complications comprise:
A. Haemophthisis
B. Chronic lung heart
C. Lung atelectasis
D. * Larynx tuberculosis
E. Amyloidosis disease
44. The characteristic phase of tuberculous process progression is:
A. Suction
B. Condensation
C. * Sowing
D. Scarring
E. Calcination
45. Formulating the clinical diagnosis of lung tuberculosis, first of all should be defined:
A. The process phase
B. The clinical form
C. Bacterial secretion
D. Localisation process
E. * Type of tuberculuos process
46. Single nidal shades of small intensity with vague contours were revealed on the apex of both lungs of a
19-years old woman patient during the prophylactic fluorographyc examination. What is the clinical form
of tuberculosis?
A. Infiltrative
B. Lung tuberculoma
C. * Nidus
D. Caseous pneumonia
E. Disseminated
47. A 25-year-old patient fell ill acutely. Complaints for headache, dry cough, dyspnea, temperature rise up
to 39,0? C. Objectively: general condition is grave, lips cyanosis, rales are not heard. Blood analysis:
leuk. – 12x109/l, ESR – 16 mm/hour. Plain roengenogram: the whole length of both lungs is full with
multiple, small focal shadows of low intensity. Mantoux test – 5mm infiltrate. What clinical form of
lungs tuberculosis does this patient have?
A. Nidus
B. Infiltrative
C. Disseminated
D. * Miliary tuberculosis
E. Caseous pneumonia
48. Patient N., 26. Roentgenologic examination showed multiple focal shadows in upper and medial lungs
segments of low and medium intensity. Sputum contains MBT. Blood analysis: ESR – 38 mm/hour.
What diagnosis is the most probable one?
A. Infiltrative lung tuberculosis
B. Nidus lung tuberculosis
C. * Disseminated lung tuberculosis
D. Caseous pneumonia
E. Lung fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
49. To the primary forms of tuberculosis belong:
A. Disseminated
B. Nidus
C. Infiltrative
D. Tuberculoma
E. * Tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes
50. The most informative method of roentgenologic examination at the diagnostics of a small form of
tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes:
A. A. A target roentgenogram
B. B. A fluorogram
C. * C. A tomogram on the level of trachea bifurcation
D. D Observation roentgenogram of the thoracic cage
E. E Bronchogram
51. The patient of 52 years old, during 9 months was treated because of the infiltrative tuberculosis of the
upper part of the right lung, decay phase, MBT (+). At X-ray examination: the upper part of the right
lung became smaller in volume, under the clavicle there’s a decay cavity 3 cm in diameter, the trachea is
moved to the right, MBT (-). Define the form of tuberculosis.
A. Cyrrhotic
B. Caseuos pneumonia
C. * Fibrous-cavernous
D. Infiltrative
E. Nidus
52. What is meant by the diagnosis “tuberculous intoxication in children”?
A. An intoxication syndrome at a small form of tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes.
B. * A symptom complex of functional and objective signs of intoxication as a result of primary
infestation with tuberculosis mycobacteria with unestablished localization.
C. An intoxication syndrome at a primary tuberculous complex.
D. An intoxication syndrome at a primary tuberculous complex of ileocecal section of intestine.
E. Subfebrile body temperature, perspiration appeared, cough, voice hoarseness.
53. Paraspecific manifestations of primary tuberculosis:
A. * Micropolyadenitis, nodual erythema, phlyctenuar keratoconjunctivitis
B. Tuberculosis of skin and tonsils
C. Amiloidosis of internal organs, pleural empyema
D. Tuberculosis pleurisy and pericarditis
E. Tuberculous peritonitis and tuberculosis of intestine
54. What is the primary tuberculosis?
A. First diagnosed tuberculosis
B. Tuberculosis that develops in firstly infected persons.
C. Tuberculosis what has developed after the primary tuberculous complex.
D. Tuberculosis revealed during the prophylactic examination.
E. * Tuberculosis caused by mycobacteria of beef type.
55. Phtisiologist tactics to a 7-year-old child with a diagnosis of tuberculous intoxication.
A. To observe in a tuberculous dispensary for 2 years.
B. To undergo treatment with 3 antimycobacterial preparations within 4-6 months assuming the follow
of sanatoric-hygiene regime.
C. To improve the health in a recreation camp.
D. * To observe in a children’s out-patient department up to the age of 14.
E. To make chemioprophylaxis with isoniazide within 3 months.
56. The most common complication for the primary tuberculous complex.
A. Chronic lung tuberculosis
B. Lung haemophtisis
C. Spontaneous pneumothorax
D. * Pleurisy
E. Amiloidosis of intestinal organs
57. To detect the “small” form of tuberculous bronchoadenitis, it’s necessary to perform:
A. Inspection roentgenography
B. Target roentgenography
C. Fibrobronchoscopy
D. * Tomography on bifurcation trachea
E. USE
58. The most frequent segmental localization of the primary lung affect:
A. I, II, III, IV segments
B. I, II, IV, VII segments
C. I, II, IV, VI segments
D. * II, III, VIII, IX segments
E. I, II, VI, VII segments
59. Patients with firstly diagnosed tuberculosis of lungs may receive sick leaves with the term up to:
A. 1 month
B. 4 months
C. 6 months
D. * 10 months
E. 14 months
60. Particularly risk for the human comes from ill with tuberculosis:
A. * Cows
B. Horses
C. Hens
D. Goats
E. Dogs
61. What is BCG and BCG-M vaccine?
A. Killed mycobacteria culture
B. Mycobacteria vital activity products
C. * Mycobacteria live weakened culture
D. Compound of purified tuberculin and killed mycobacteria
E. Insufficient by purified dry tuberculin
62. What is the value of BCG vaccine?
A. Tuberculosis lighter course
B. Prevents infestation
C. Guarantee from an illness
D. * Less chance of catching tuberculosis
E. Prevents tuberculosis relapse
63. In what time after BCG-vaccination does the immunity develop?
A. In 6-8 days
B. * In 6-8 weeks
C. In 6-8 months
D. In 9-12 months
E. In 5-7 years
64. In what cases is revaccination with BCG vaccine done?
A. To infestated persons
B. * To noninfected persons
C. To contractual persons with doubtful reaction on Mantoux test with 2 TU
D. To tuberculosis patients
E. To persons who had previously been ill with tuberculosis
65. The terms of BCG revaccination performance in Ukraine.
A. On 3-5th day after birth
B. On 3-5th week after birth
C. At 3, 5 years of age
D. * At 7,14 years of age
E. At 17, 30 years of age
66. A healthy child was born weighing 3200 g. On what day after the birth is the BCG vaccination done?
A. 1-2
B. * 2-5
C. 7-11
D. 13-15
E. 25-30
67. Vaccination and revaccination with BCG vaccine is done:
A. Cutaneously
B. * Intracutaneously
C. Subcutaneously
D. Intramuscularly
E. Perorally
68. What does a 5 mm seam formed in 4 months after BCG vaccination testify?
A. To high reaction of vaccine
B. To complication - keloid seam
C. To violation of vaccine injection techniques
D. To the lack of antituberculous immunity
E. * To the presence of postvaccinal immunity
69. What antimycobacterial preparation is prevalently used to make the chemoprophylaxis?
A. Streptomycinum
B. Rifampicinum
C. Pyrazinamidum
D. * Isoniazidum
E. Ethambutolum
70. The chemoprophylaxis is performed during:
A. 3 days
B. 3 weeks
C. * 6 months
D. 1 months
E. 9 months
71. After realized BCG vaccine inoculation some not used vaccine remained. What is to be done with it?
A. * In 2-3 hours after dilution the not used vaccine has to be destroyed by boiling
B. In 24 hours the not used vaccine has to be destroyed
C. To preserve 2-3 days. Then to destroy
D. To preserve during one week in a refrigerator
E. To preserve during one year in a refrigerator
72. Principal method of revealing tuberculosis among children.
A. Bacterioscopy of sputum
B. Fluorography
C. * Tuberculinodiagnostics (Mantoux test with 2 TU)
D. Bronhoscopy
E. Tomography on bifurcation level
73. What organs are more frequent struck at miliary tuberculosis?
A. * Lungs.
B. B. Kidneys.
C. Brain-tunics.
D. Overhead respiratory tracts.
E. Lymphatic nodes.
74. What kind are the hearths at miliary tuberculosis?
A. * They are small, exsudative, without a tendency to confluence and disintegration.
B. They are large exsudative with a tendency to confluence and disintegration.
C. They are small, productive, compact and calcinated.
D. They are polymorphic.
E. They are large calcinates |.
75. What form have cavities of disintegration at miliary tuberculosis?
A. Bilateral symmetric thin-walled cavities.
B. Bilateral asymmetric thick-walled cavities.
C. One-sided plural cavities of different form.
D. One thick-walled cavity and plural thin-walled "daughters's" cavities .
E. * There aren’t cavities
76. What result of Mantoux text is typical for clinical picture of miliary tuberculosis?
A. * Negative
B. Doubtful
C. Positive
D. Giperergichniy
E. Results are different
77. What reason for evolving of cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Resistance to antimicrobial medication.
B. Not timely process definition.
C. Medical mistakes.
D. Injurious clinical course.
E. * Any with above possible to be a reason for evolution of cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis.
78. What is the main characteristic of fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Disposition to forming acinar, acinar-nodes and lobular centers.
B. Disposition for creation infiltrations and caverns.
C. * Old fibrous cavity and fibrosis in abutting pulmonary tissue.
D. Polychemoresistance.
E. Periodical or permanent bacterioexcretion.
79. What is clinic category for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis patient with long term?
A. * Fourth.
B. First.
C. Second.
D. Third.
E. Fifth
80. What are typical complications for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Tuberculosis bronchus.
B. Bronchogenic dissemination.
C. Tuberculosis larynx.
D. Tuberculosis colitis.
E. * All with above.
81. What need take into account for prescription of medicine for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis
patient?
A. Symptoms of intoxication.
B. Attendant pathology.
C. * Sensitivity to anti-tuberculosis medications.
D. Bronchial-lung syndrome.
E. Quantity and size of caverns.
82. What clinical course is typical for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. * Wavy, with remission and exacerbation.
B. Acute, progressive.
C. Near acute.
D. Without symptoms or with few symptoms.
E. Quick feedback.
83. What clinical presentation is typical for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. No complaints or cough with minor spew. Sometime local humid wheeze.
B. * Cough with spew, breathlessness, sometime spew with blood Time to time high temperature, hyper
hydrosis. Local humid wheezing during remission – good state of health.
C. Cough, spew with objectionable odor. During worsening – high temperature, hyper hydrosis,
sometime spew with blood moist and dry wheezing “Drumsticks”.
D. Pain in thorax, often sputum with blood and smell, breathlessness, diminished breath sounds, sometime humid
or dry local wheeze.
E. No complaints. Time to time dry cough. Temperature is normal (inflammation is able to raise
temperature). Auscultatory data are small.
84. What rontgenological changes describe availability of fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. One insulated or plural thin-walled cavern . Pulmonary tissue is a little bit change Focal shadows are
absent.
B. Cavity with coiled internal contour, irregular walls, knotty external contour, more frequent in front
segments.
C. Cavity with wide sides and fluid level, more frequent in the inferior segments on lungs. Around –
fibrosis. Focal shadows are absent.
D. * Cavity with thick walls, more frequent in the upper segments of lungs. Around – fibrosis.
Sometimes mediastinal displacement. Below – focal bronchogenic dissemination.
E. Insulated cavity without perifocal seepage, without fibrosis, without bronchogenic dissemination.
85. What feature is typical for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis in our time?
A. * Complications by not specific inflammatory processes.
B. Frequent evolution of internal amyloidosis.
C. Profuse bleeding in lungs.
D. Frequent aspergillosis.
E. Evolution of tuberculous meningoencephalitis.
86. What contraindication to surgery for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis patient?
A. * Wide distribution of the focus of disease.
B. Bronchiectasis is present.
C. Bleeding in lungs.
D. Resistivity to 2 antituberculous medications.
E. Wide bacterioexcretion.
87. What tests need to do when available cavity dissociation for potentially tuberculosis patient?
A. Multiphase exploration spew concerning mycobacteriums tuberculosis.
B. Tomography of the thorax organs.
C. Bronchoscopy with take a samples for cytodiagnosis and histologic study.
D. Bronchography.
E. * Need to complete all above explorations.
88. What variant of clinical course is typical for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Limited and relatively stable.
B. Slowly progressive.
C. Quickly progressive.
D. Course with complications.
E. * All above variants are possible.
89. What medications suitable for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis patiens in addition to classic
antituberculosis medications?
A. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, (NSAID).
B. Glucocorticoid.
C. * Guinolone.
D. Cephalosporin.
E. Sulfanilamide
90. What morphological changes evolve in the lungs in fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis patiens?
A. Bronchogenic dissemination.
B. Pneumosclerosis.
C. Emphysema.
D. Bronchiectasis.
E. * All above.
91. From wich clinic form of tuberculosis most often forms fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Tuberculoma.
B. Tuberculous primary complex
C. * Infiltrative form.
D. Focal form.
E. Cirrotic form.
92. Which most often not specific complication for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. * Chronical cor pulmonale.
B. Larynx tuberculosis.
C. Spontaneous pneumothorax.
D. Pulmonary atelectasis.
E. Internal amyloidosis.
93. Which most often specific complication for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. * Larynx tuberculosis.
B. Colorectal tuberculosis.
C. Tuberculous pleurisy.
D. Genitals tuberculous.
E. Renal tuberculosis.
94. Which is the most often reason for death of fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis patients?
A. Pulmonary atelectasis.
B. * Chronical cor pulmonale.
C. Pulmonary hemorrhage.
D. Renal amyloidosis.
E. Progressive tuberculosis.
95. Which disease needs to be distinguish fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis from?
A. Eosinophylic infiltration.
B. Chronic bronchitis.
C. * Chronic abscess.
D. Pleuropneumonia.
E. Lung infarction.
96. Which disease least advisable to be distinguish fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis from?
A. Chronic abscess.
B. Central cancer.
C. Cystic disease.
D. * Chronic bronchitis.
E. Multiple bronchiectasis.
97. Patient age 48 years. He is sick by fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis of the high part of left lung
during 6 years. Mycobacteriums tuberculosis+. Worsening state of health after supercooling. What
complains of patient are typical for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis of the lungs?
A. Cough with sputum with blood streaks, hyper hydrosis, worsening of the appetite, decreasing of the
body weight.
B. Cough, increasing of the body temperature, hyper hydrosis, general weakness, decreasing of the body
weight.
C. Increasing of the body temperature, hyper hydrosis, general weakness, decreasing of the body weight.
D. Headache, hyper hydrosis, general weakness, decreasing of the bode weight.
E. * Cough wit sputum, breathlessness, pain in thorax, increasing of the body temperature, hyper
hydrosis, general weakness, decreasing of the body weight.
98. What clinical presentation is the most typical for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Long remissions.
B. * Chronic clinical course.
C. Absent any remissions.
D. Periods of remissions alternate with acute conditions.
E. Permanent progress of process.
99. Which what diseases do not need to do differential diagnosis for fibrous cavernous pulmonary
tuberculosis?
A. Chronic abscess.
B. Cancer in degradation stage.
C. Multiple bronchiectasis.
D. Pneumonia complicated by an abscess.
E. * Lung tuberculoma.
100. Patient at the age of 43 years admitted to hospital with complains about weakness, decreasing of the
appetite, hyper hydrosis, subfebrile temperature, cough with spew. Tuberculosis of the left lung was
revealed 8 years ago. Three year ago patient had relapse of diseaseRadiographic data:both lungs fibrous
changeUpper part of left lung has cavity with diameter 10 centimeters with area of perifocal
inflammation.Upper part of right lung has some cavities of disintegration.Sputum has mycobacterium
tuberculosis+. What clinic form of pulmonary tuberculosis is present in the patient?
A. Caseous pneumonia.
B. Tuberculoma.
C. Infiltrative form.
D. * Fibrous-cavernous form.
E. Cirrhosis form.
101. From what age is fluorographic examination performed?
A. * 5 years
B. 7 years
C. 14 years
D. 15 years
E. 17 years
102. To timely revealed of tuberculosis belong:
A. * Primary tuberculosis complex, ph. decay, MBT (+)
B. Nidus lung tuberculosis, ph. infiltration, MBT (-)
C. Lung cirrhotic tuberculosis, MBT (-)
D. Infiltrative lung tuberculosis, ph. decay, MBT (-)
E. Disseminated lung tuberculosis, ph. decay, MBT (-)
103. To lately revealed lung tuberculosis belong:
A. Lung tuberculoma, MBT (+)
B. * Tuberculosis pleurisy
C. Miliary tuberculosis, MBT (+)
D. Infiltrative lung tuberculosis, ph. decay, MBT (-)
E. Lung fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis, MBT (+)
104. The complete fluorographic examination of the population beginning with 18 years of age is performed.
A. Once in 6 months
B. * Once in 2 years
C. Once in 1 year
D. Once in 3 years
E. Once in 5 years
105. The group with the increased risk of catching tuberculosis includes patients with:
A. Chronic tonsillitis
B. Diabetes
C. Inguinal hernia
D. * Hypertonic disease
E. Ascaridosis
106. What dispensary registration category will the patient with FDTB (22.02.2202) of the upper part of the
left lung (infiltration), Destr+, MBT+M+C+, Resit+ (S, R), HIST0 be observed in?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. * 4
E. 5
107. Patient K., 25, died from lung fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis, MBT (+). For how long must members of
his family be observed at antitubercular dispensary?
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 12 months
D. * 2 years
E. 5 years
108. Prophylactic fluorographic examinations rate of “obligatory contingents”:
A. Once in 6 months
B. Once in 9 months
C. * Once a year
D. Once in 2 years
E. Once in 3 years
109. Permanent invalidity is established for males and females consequently at the age of:
A. 45 and 35 years
B. 50 and 40 years
C. * 60 and 55 years
D. 55 and 45 years
E. 65 and 60 years
110. The atypical form of clinical progress of miliary tuberculosis is:
A. Pulmonary
B. Meningeal
C. Typhoid
D. Septic (Landuzi disease)
E. * Renal
111. A man of 46. Two months ago was dismissed from a prison. Has been falling ill gradually: cough,
dyspnea, temperature rise up to 38°C. Roentgenogram: focal shadows of low intensity with illegible
contours in the upper lungs lobs. Which diagnosis is the most probable?
A. Carcinomatosis
B. Nidus pneumonia
C. * Disseminated lung tuberculosis
D. Nidus lung tuberculosis
E. Chronic bronchitis
112. The main roentgenological indications of disseminated (subacute) lung tuberculosis:
A. Bilateral total small-nidus lung lesion
B. * Bilateral symmentrical nidal lesion, mainly in the upper and the medium parts of lungs
C. One-side nidal lesion
D. Bilateral nidal lesion
E. Bilateral nidal-infiltrative process in the upper part of the both lungs
113. The most rational combination of antimycobacterial preparations at treating tuberculous
meningoencephalitis.
A. Isoniazidum, rifampicinum, ethambutolum
B. * Isoniazidum, rifampicinum, streptomycini, pyrazinamidum
C. Isoniazidum, streptomycini, pyrazinamidum, ethambutolum
D. Isoniazidum, rifampicinum, kanamycini, ethionamidum
E. Pyrazinamidum, ethionamidum, streptomycini, thioacetazon
114. The most frequent beginning of tuberclosis meningoencephalitis.
A. * Gradual
B. Subacute
C. Without any symptoms
D. Relapsing
E. Sudden
115. The frequency of primary tuberculous meningitis (isolated lesion of cerebral membranes).
A. 2 %
B. 5 %
C. * 20 %
D. 40 %
E. 50 %
116. The results of which examination are more informative for the confirmation of the tuberculous
meningitis?
A. Mantoux test
B. Koch’s test
C. General blood test
D. * Examination of spinal liquor
E. Examination of albumen fractions in blood serum
117. Which pairs of cranial nerves are mainly affected at tuberculous meningitis?
A. * III, VI, VII, XII
B. I, II, III
C. I, II, X, XII
D. V, VI, X
E. II, III, VII
118. The average duration of the prodromic period in patients with tuberculous meningitis.
A. 1-7 days
B. 5-10 days
C. * From 1 to 4 weeks
D. 2-3 months
E. 4-6 months
119. What is the most probable content of glucose in spinal liquor in the patient with tuberculous meningitis?
A. * 1,5 mmol/l
B. 2,4 mmol/l
C. 3,9 mmol/l
D. 5,5 mmol/l
E. 6,5 mmol/l
120. At the grave stage of the tuberculous meningitis besides isoniasid, ryphampicin, pirasinamid and
streptomycin sulphate, one should also prescribe:
A. ATF, cocarboxilasa, inhalation with 2% solution of solutison
B. B. * Endolumbal administration of calcium chlorine complex of streptomycin, glucocorticosteroids,
dehydration therapy
C. Intrarectal administration of isoniazid, vitamins B1, B6 and C
D. 10% solution of manit, albumin, dibazol
E. Sibason, 25% solution of magnium sulphate, prozerin
121. Which pathomorphological changes prevail during focal pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Alternate inflammation.
B. * Productive inflammation.
C. Necrosis.
D. Escudative inflammation.
E. Pneumofibrosis.
122. In which way the most often reveals focal tuberculosis?
A. At clinical examination.
B. * At prophylactic photofluorographic examination.
C. At bacterioscopy analysis of spew.
D. At bronchoscopic examination.
E. At immunological examination.
123. Which is the most typical localization of centers at focal pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. * 1-2 segments.
B. 3-4 segments.
C. 7-8 segments.
D. 9-10 segments.
E. Root of lung.
124. Which is the most typical complains in focal pulmonary tuberculosis patients?
A. * Weakness, hyper hydrosis, rapid fatigability, minor increased temperature.
B. Fever.
C. Cough with big quantity of purulent spew.
D. Pulmonary hemorrhage.
E. Shortness of breath.
125. About which duration of disease does the most often indicate patients during gathering of anamnesis?
A. 3-4 days.
B. 1-2 weeks.
C. Below 1 year.
D. * 1-2 months.
E. 4-5 years and more.
126. Which is the most typical auscultatory data during focal pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Diffused dry crepitations.
B. Dry crepitations in upper parts.
C. * No changes.
D. Dry and humid crepitations.
E. Diffused humid crepitations.
127. Which is the most typical percussion data during focal pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Dullness of percussion sound in upper parts.
B. Dullness of percussion sound near root.
C. Dullness of percussion sound in basal areas.
D. Tympanic percussion sound.
E. * No changes.
128. Which are the most typical radiological indications of new tuberculosis focus in the lungs?
A. * Small or average intensity, nonccontrast borders, diameter up to 1 centimeter.
B. Big intensity, clear borders, diameter up to 1 centimeter.
C. Small intensity, clear borders, diameter more than 1 centimeter.
D. Big intensity, nonccontrast borders, diameter more than 1 centimeter.
E. Average intensity, round shape, diameter 3-5 centimeters.
129. Which is the most typical radiological indications of old tuberculosis focus in the lungs?
A. Small or average intensity, nonccontrast borders, diameter up to 1 cm.
B. * Big intensity, clear borders, diameter up to 1 cm.
C. Small intensity, clear borders, diameter more than 1 cm.
D. Big intensity, nonccontrast borders, diameter more than 1 cm.
E. Average intensity, round shape, diameter 3-5 cm.
130. Which tuberculin test needs to do for doubtful activity of focal tuberculosis?
A. Mantoux test with 2 TU.
B. Mantoux test, deluted,
C. Pirquet's test
D. * Koch’s test.
E. Mantoux test with 5 TU.
131. In which way does the most often become apparent bacterioexcretion at focal pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Practically always by use bacterioscopy.
B. Never.
C. Often by use bacterioscopy.
D. * Sometimes by bacterioscopy.
E. Always by use bacterioscopy.
132. Which complication practically absent at focal tuberculosis?
A. Escudative pleurisy.
B. Chronic bronchitis.
C. Polysegmental fibrosis.
D. * Profuse pulmonary hemorrhage
E. Hospital-acquired pneumonia.
133. In progressing focal tuberculosis able proceed to other clinical forms of tuberculosis. In which form
focal tuberculosis usually not proceed directly?
A. Infiltrative pulmonary tuberculosis.
B. Disseminated pulmonary tuberculosis.
C. Pulmonary tuberculoma.
D. Caseous pneumonia.
E. * Fibrous cavernous tuberculosis.
134. Which form of backward evolution of tuberculosis is impossible for focal tuberculosis?
A. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
B. Pulmonary tuberculoma.
C. * Miliary tuberculosis.
D. Impossible backware evoluion to focal tuberculosis from any other form of tuberculosis.
E. Disseminated pulmonary tuberculosis.
135. What roentgenologic signs convincingly testify about the activity of focal tuberculosis?
A. * Focuses of medial intensity with distinct exterior contours.
B. Group of focuses, different in size, of high intensity.
C. Focuses of low intensity with illegible contours.
D. Gohn’s focus.
E. Focuses of medium intensity on the background of limited pneumosclerosis.
136. What medical preparations are advisable for the usage for a trial treatment of a patient with the aim of
differential diagnosis of the local tuberculosis and pneumonia?
A. Streptomycin and sulfaleni
B. Streptomycin and isoniazidum
C. * Penicillin and sulfaleni
D. Penicillin and rifampicimun
E. Penicillin and streptomycin
137. Maximum size of shadows at nidus lung tuberculosis is:
A. 1 mm
B. 1,5 mm
C. 5 mm
D. * 10 mm
E. 25 mm
138. The most trustworthy criteria of nidal tuberculosis activity.
A. Intoxication syndrome
B. Changes in haemogram
C. * Revealing of micobacteria tuberculosis
D. Nidus shadow of medium intensity with distinct contours
E. Positive Mantoux testing of 2 TU
139. Maximum number of segments affected at nidus lung tuberculosis.
A. 1
B. * 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
140. Which tuberculin test has the most informative meaning for defining the activity of the tuberculous
process:
A. Pirquet’s test
B. Mantoux test
C. * Koch test
D. Moro test
E. Pirquet’s graduated test.
141. Which is the most accurate definition of infiltrative pulmonary tuberculosis as clinicorontgenological
form of specific process?
A. * Infiltrative tuberculosis is area of specific inflammation with mainly escudative nature, with size
more than 1 cm, with disposition to progress and disintegration, possible bronchogenic semination.
B. Infiltrative tuberculosis is focus of specific inflammation which necessarily accompaniment of
disintegration pulmonary tissue and disemination of pulmonary tissue.
C. It is form of specific inflammation with availability in the lungs formed and stable by dimension
cavity with marked infiltrative and (sometime) fibrous changes in surrounding pulmonary tissue.
D. Infiltrative tuberculosis is area of specific inflammation with chronical torpid behavior, with size
more than 1 cm, with predisposition to spontaneous recovery.
E. Infiltrative tuberculosis has big quantity of specific centers in the lungs. At initial stage of disease
prevails escudative-necrotizing reaction with future evolution of productive inflammation.
142. Which factors are not important for initial stage and clinical course of infiltrative pulmonary
tuberculosis?
A. Morphological structure of infiltration.
B. Width of perifocal inflammation.
C. Size of area caseous necrosis.
D. Complications from side of bronchopulmonary system.
E. * Availability in anamnesis immunization by vaccine BCG (Calmette-Gurin bacillus).
143. Which factors are the most important (deciding factor) for diagnosis of infiltrative form of tuberculosis?
A. Mycobacteriums tuberculosis in the sputum or scourage of bronchus..
B. Hyperergic tuberculin sensitivity according Mantoux test with 2 TU PPD-L
C. * Availability of mycobacteriums tuberculosis and presence infiltration on the rontgenogram.
D. Availability shadow on the rontgenogram which allocated in 1,2 or 6 segments.
E. Complains concerning cough with sputum, pain in chest, sputum with blood, rise in temperature of
the body, general weakness, information about former tuberculosis.
144. To which dispensary category does patient with first diagnosed infiltrative pulmonary tuberculosis in
disintegration stage and availability bacterioexcretion belong ?
A. * To first.
B. To third.
C. To second.
D. To fourth.
E. To fifth.
145. Which disease at first needs to be differentiate from infiltration not homogeneous structure in the upper
part of right lung with “track” to root and focal shadows around?
A. Pneumonia.
B. Central pulmonary cancer.
C. * Infiltrative tuberculosis.
D. Eosinophylic infiltration.
E. Infarct-Pneumonia.
146. Which changes in the hemogram are typical for infiltrative tuberculosis?
A. Leukopenia, lymphocytosis, acceleration of ESR, anemia.
B. * Small leucocytosis, lymphopenia, enlarged ESR, anemia, small increase of stab neutrophils,
monocytosis.
C. High leukocytosis, significant accereratioun of ESR, acidophilia, lymphopenia.
D. High leukocytosis with significant increasing of stab neutrophils, lymphocytosis, normal ESR,
monocytopenia, absent eosinophiles.
E. Formula of white blood not changeESR more than 50 mm/Hr, full-blown anemia.
147. Which X-ray syndrome is the most typical for infiltrative form of tuberculosis?
A. Syndrome of total darkening.
B. Syndrome of round shadow.
C. Syndrome of pathological changed root of the lung.
D. * Syndrome of limited darkening.
E. Syndrome of focal shadow.
148. Which clinical syndrome is the most often suitable for infilrative tuberculosis?
A. * Intoxicational.
B. Abdominal.
C. Meningeal.
D. Hyperthermic.
E. Painful.
149. Which criterion of effective treatment of infiltrative pulmonary tuberculosis in disintegration stage,
mycobacteriums tuberculosis+, is the most important?
A. Resolution of perifocal inflammatory reaction in pulmonary tissue?
B. Cicatrization of disintegration cavity
C. Fallout of intoxication occurrence.
D. Recovery of ability to work
E. * Elimination of bacterioexcretion
150. Which combination of antituberculous medications is the most worthwhile for first diagnosed
infilatrative pulmonary tuberculosis with destruction?
A. * Isoniazid, streptomycin, rifampicin, pyrazinamide.
B. Kanamycin, ethambutol, isoniazid, rifampicin.
C. Isoniazid, pyrazinamide, amikacin, ofloxacin.
D. PAS(A)(para-aminosalicylic acid)-natrium, ethambutol, isoniazid, rifampicin.
E. Streptomycin, ethambutol, mycobutine, ethionamide.
151. Which is a characteristic property of tissue reaction at infiltrative tuberculosis?
A. Limited distribution of specific inflammation, marked peculiarity to its encapsulation.
B. * Peculiarity to quick caseous necrosis.
C. Peculiarity to spontaneous resorption of infiltration.
D. Infiltrations quick dissipate, in other parts of lungs possible to appear new infiltrations (short-term).
E. Typical diffusive growing of conjunction tissue, sclerotic changes in lymphatic vessels and glands,
thickening of the pleura.
152. Which ways are the most probable for forming fresh centers of dissemination at infiltrative
tuberculosis.
A. * Lympho-bronchogenic.
B. Only hematogenic.
C. Only sputogenic.
D. Hematogenic-lymphogenic.
E. Only lymphogenic.
153. Which enumerated complications practically always accompany infiltrative form of tubercular process
with?
A. Atelectasis of appropriate part of lung.
B. Pulmonary hemorrhage.
C. Amyloidosis of inner organs.
D. Spontaneous pneumothorax.
E. * Tuberculosis of draining bronchus.
154. Which with mentioned below methods of examination (at suspicion about infiltrative tuberculosis) in
the adult not critical at diagnosis withs?
A. Visual rontgenography of thorax organs.
B. * Biochemical blood analysis.
C. Bronchoscopy.
D. Rontgenography of chest organs in lateral projection.
E. Bacterioscopy and bacteriological exploration of spew concerning mycobacterium tuberculosis.
155. The illness, with which differential diagnostics of caseous pneumonia should be made most frequent:
A. * Staphylococcal pneumonia
B. Central cancer
C. Eosinophilic pneumonia
D. Nidal pneumonia
E. Bronchoectasia
156. On the background of what complications of lungs tuberculosis caseous pneumonia is the most
frequent?
A. * Pulmonary haemoptysis
B. Spontaneous pneumothorax
C. Larynx tuberculosis
D. Amyloidosis of kidney
E. Atelectasis of particle lung
157. The predominant segmental localization of tuberculosis infiltration
A. I, II, III segments
B. I, III, V segments
C. I, IV, V segments
D. * I, II, VI segments
E. II, VI IX segments
158. Under the mask of what diseases is tuberculosis infiltrate the most frequent?
A. Peripheral lung cancer
B. Retention cyst
C. * Pneumonia
D. Eosinophile infiltrate
E. Aspergiloma
159. The most characteristic blood analysis in patients with the infiltrative lung tuberculosis.
A. Leu– 25,0(10_/l; е – 3, p – 6, s – 51, l – 23, m – 7 %; ESR – 6 mm/hour.
B. * Leu- 9,8(10_/l; е – 5, p – 6, s – 65, l – 13, m – 11 %; ESR – 36 mm/hour.
C. С. Leu- 4,0(10_/l; е – 2, p – 2, s – 60, l – 26, m – 9 %; ESR – 6 mm/hour.
D. Leu– 16,5(10_/l; е – 10, p – 10, s – 64, l – 14, m – 2 %; ESR – 21 mm/hour.
E. Е. Leu– 6,0(10_/l; е – 4, p – 3, s – 60, l – 26, m– 6 %; ESR – 7 mm/hour.
160. A darkening of medium intensity with a lightening in the center and a path to the root has been revealed
to the right beneath the clavicle of a patient B., 40, during fluorographic examination. He feels well.
Formulate the preliminary diagnosis.
A. Primary tuberculosis complex.
B. * Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Lung tuberculoma.
D. Fibrous cavernous tuberculosis.
E. Caseous pneumonia.
161. Which clinical course is typical for caseous pneumonia?
A. * Violent, acute progressive.
B. Initially chronic.
C. Near acute.
D. Without symptoms.
E. Forward with little symptoms.
162. On base of which infiltrative most often evolve lobar caseous pneumonia?
A. Round.
B. Lobular.
C. Periscysurite.
D. Like a cloud.
E. * Lobitis.
163. Which pathogenic variant isn`t typical for evolution of lobular caseous pneumonia?
A. Result of aspiration pneumonia after hemorrhages and spew with blood.
B. Malignant variant of near acute disseminated tuberculosis.
C. Complications in terminal stages of chronic form of tuberculosis.
D. Distribution of caseous output in the bronchuses and lungs through fistula with lymph glands.
E. * In terminal stage of Miliary tuberculosis.
164. Which is the most typical combination of complains for caseous pneumonia patients?
A. * High temperature of the body, profuse sweat, paint in chest, shortness of breath, cough with
greenish sputum, quick growing of intoxication syndromes.
B. Worsening of appetite, hyper hydrosis, sub febrile temperature, petulance, weakening of memory.
C. C Dry cough, general weakness, periodical sputum with blood, instable subfebrile state.
D. High temperature, headache, sputum, diarrhoea, chill.
E. Periodical pain in the side, sub febrile temperature changing to febrile, rare cough, pain in chest
gradually decreases, appears shortness of breath.
165. What result of Mantoux test with 2 TU PPD-L is the most typical at extended clinical presentation of
caseous pneumonia?
A. Papule with diameter 21 mm and more.
B. * Negative reaction.
C. . Papule with diameter 10-15 mm.
D. . Papule with diameter 16-21 mm.
E. . Papule with diameter 5-10 mm.
166. Which rontgenologic indication is typical for caseous pneumonia?
A. * Homogeneous shadow is partially limited.
B. Shadow not homogeneous, possible to out from part.
C. Appear of clarifications due disintegration cavity.
D. Centers of bronchogenic dissemination in other part current or other lung.
E. Massive not uniform darkening of all part of a lung against a background possible individual more
solid centers.
167. In which way hemogram will be changed at caseous pneumonia?
A. * Hypo chromic anemia, leucocytosis 13.0-20.0 х109/L, eosinopenia, lymphopenia, ESR-acceleration
up to 50-70 mm/Hr.
B. Red blood in normal state, leucocytosis 20.0-40.0 х109/L, ESR-acceleration up to 35-55 mm/Hr,
lymphopenia, monocytopenia.
C. Monocytosis, lymphocytosis, normal ESR, leukopenia, hypochromic anemia.
D. Hypo chromic anemia, leucocytosis 10.0-12.0 х109/L, eosinopenia, lymphopenia, stub shift up to 815%, ESR-acceleration up to 20-25 mm/Hr.
E. Expressed hypo chromic anemia, normal state of white blood, ESR acceleration up to 50-70 mm/Hr.
168. Which medications, except antituberculosis, are able to stop evolution of caseous pneumonia?
A. Disintoxication.
B. Vitaminous.
C. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory.
D. * Fluoroquinolones.
E. Immunomodulator.
169. Which result is expected at positive dynamic of caseous pneumonia.
A. * Transformation to massive pneumocirrhosis.
B. Full resorption of infiltration.
C. Limited pneumofibrosis.
D. Forming of tuberculoma.
E. Chronic disseminated tuberculosis.
170. Which definition for caseous pneumonia is the most precise?
A. * Caseous pneumonia is a clinical form of tuberculosis, which has many specific centers in the lungs:
initially disease has prevailed escudative-necrotic reacton with future evolving of productive
inflammation,
B. Caseous pneumonia is area of specific inflammation which has prevailed escudative nature, with size
more than 1 cm, with necessarily disintegration of pulmonary tissue and its semination.
C. C .Caseous pneumonia is a clinical form of secondary form of tuberculosis with significant changes
in the lungs with acute progressive clinical course At quick widening of caseous mass forming huge
cavities or big quantity of small caverns.
D. Caseous pneumonia is progressive evolution of expressed perifocal inflammation around fresh
tubercular appearances, which was formed due exogenous super infection or endogenous
revivification.
E. Caseous pneumonia is clinical form of initial tuberculosis, with grave condition of patient, significant
symptoms of intoxication, frequent catarrhal events in lungs, massive bacterioexcretion.
171. To which category relate patients of caseous pneumonia?
A. * To first.
B. To third.
C. To second.
D. To forth.
E. To fifth.
172. What quantity of medications with anti-tuberculosis action need to appoint to caseous pneumonia
patients in intensive stage.
A. 2-3.
B. 6-7.
C. 3-4.
D. 4-5.
E. * 5-6.
173. Which diseases need to disambiguate lobar caseous pneumonia with?
A. * Pleuropneumonia.
B. Infarct of lung.
C. Pneumonia complicated by an abscess.
D. Exudative pleurisy.
E. With central cancer.
174. Which factors is the most important at disambiguate diagnostic between infilrative tuberculosis and
pneumonia?
A. Level of bacterioexcretion.
B. Localization of process.
C. Presense disintegration cavity in pulmonary tissue.
D. Presense complications.
E. * Violent and progressive course of disease.
175. Which rontgenologic syndrome accompanies pulmanary tuberculoma?
A. Syndrome of focal shadow.
B. * Syndrome of round shadow
C. Syndrome of limited darkening
D. Syndrome of ring-shaped brightening.
E. Syndrome of root of the lung pathology.
176. What rontgenologic picture is typical for tuberculoma?
A. Intensive shadow with diffused outlines, with brightening in the center and horizontal liquid level.
B. Round homogeneous shadow with contrast outlines, more often in deep layers of the lung,
neighbouring lung tissue is not changed.
C. * Round and intensive shadow in I, II, VI segments with contrast outlines, sometime with sickleshaped brightening or with including of the lime.
D. Homogenous shadow with humpbacked outlines, tension bars in the form of “rays”, sometime
increased lymph nodes in the root.
E. Round homogenous shadow with contrast outlines, sometimes with including of the
limNeighbouring lung tissue is not changed.
177. What therapeutic approach is the most effective at pulmonary tuberculoma.
A. * Resectable surgery against a background of chemotherapy.
B. Chemotherapy + common strengthening therapy.
C. Chemotherapy in conjunction with absorbable therapy.
D. Physiotherapy against a background of chemotherapy.
E. Chemotherapy in conjunction with hormonal therapy.
178. In which case surgery is appropriate at tuberculoma?
A. Stationary course.
B. * Disintegration and bacterioexcretion.
C. Small size of tuberculoma (up to 2 cm).
D. Regressive course of tuberculoma.
E. Declining years.
179. What is a definition for tuberculoma?
A. * Tuberculoma is limited by capsule from conjunctive tissue focus of caseous with size more that 1
cm with chronic and torpid course.
B. Tuberculoma is center of specific pneumonia with size up to 1 cm which localized in border of 1-2
segments.
C. Tuberculoma is area of specific inflammation with prevailed escudative character with size more 1
cm, with disposition to spontaneous recovery.
D. Tuberculoma is area of specific inflammation with prevailed escudative character with size more 1
cm, with disposition to progress and disintegration.
E. Tuberculoma is accretion of rough conjunctive tissue in the lung as a result of involution of different
forms of tuberculosis.
180. How many versions of tuberculomas are distinguished regarding pathomorphologic structure?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. * 5
181. What sensitively to tuberculine according Mantoux test with 2 TU PPD-L is typical to tuberculoama?
A. Negative.
B. Papule 5-10 cm.
C. * Often hyperergic.
D. Present hyperemia without papule creation.
E. Papule 5-10 cm.
182. What course is the most typical for tuberculoma?
A. Gradual progressive worsening.
B. * Few symptoms or without symptoms.
C. Acute start. Quick worsening.
D. Near acutLike influenza or pneumonia.
E. Acute start. Quick reverse evolution due chemical medications.
183. What clinic symptoms are the most typical for tuberculoma?
A. * Sometime subfebrile state, minor cough, possible absent of complains.
B. Strong cough, pain in chest, shortness of breath.
C. High temperature, chill, pain in chest, purulent spew.
D. Cough, spew with unpleasant smell, hyper hydrosis, spew with blood.
E. Pain in chest. Spew with blood, Shortness of breath.
184. Which morphologic type of tuberculoma is possible as result of focal tuberculosis?
A. Infiltrative-pneumonic.
B. Homogeneous.
C. Pseudotuberculoma.
D. * Conglomerate.
E. Like ball.
185. Why chemical therapy for tuberculoma is low effective?
A. * Tuberculoma has no blood vessels.
B. It is secondary form of tuberculosis.
C. At tuberculoma always present polychemoresistivity.
D. At tuberculoma always disturbed passability of draining bronchus.
E. At tuberculoma present hyperergic sensitivity to tuberculine.
186. In which morphological sort of tuberculoma possible to evolve due long course?
A. Infiltrative-pneumonic.
B. Homogeneous.
C. Pseudotuberculoma.
D. Conglomerate.
E. * Zayer-by-layer
187. Which instrumental method is good enough at verify diagnose in a case when middle lung field has
round center up to 3 cm in diameter with contrast outlines?
A. Fluorography.
B. Bronchography.
C. * Transthoracal paracentetic biopsy.
D. Bronchoscopy.
E. Rontgenoscopy.
188. What type of breathing is auscultating at tuberculoma?
A. * Vesicular.
B. Bronchial.
C. Amphoric.
D. Stenotic.
E. Mixed.
189. What is the therapeutic approach at first revealed tuberculoma with size 3-4 cm?
A. Urgent surgery.
B. * Medical treatment start with prescription of antituberculosis medicine, after this – surgery.
C. Just specific conservative treatment.
D. Case monitoring.
E. Tuberculin therapy.
190. What combination of antituberculosis medicines is the most suitable at first revealed small
tuberculoma?
A. * Isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide.
B. Streptomycin, isoniazid, rifampicin.
C. Streptomycin, rifampicin, ethambutol.
D. Amikacin, kanamycin, pyrazinamide,
E. Rifampicin, ofloxacin, pyrazinamide.
191. What segments are tuberculomas the most often localized in?
A. I, II, III
B. * I, II, VI
C. I, VI, X
D. I, II, VIII
E. II, IV, V
192. What illness is the most expedient to differentiate tuberculoma with?
A. * Aspergilloma
B. An air-cyst
C. Central cancer
D. Eosinophilic infiltrate
E. Chronic abscess
193. How many versions of tuberculomas clinical progress do you know?
A. 1
B. 2
C. * 3
D. 4
E. 5
194. The most rational combination of antimycobacterial preparations at the initial stage in patients with lung
tuberculoma, MBT (-).
A. Isonoazidum + streptomycini + rifampycini
B. * Isonoazidum + rifampycini + pyrazinamidum
C. Isonoazidum + streptomycini + pyrazinamidum
D. Isonoazidum + pyrazinamidum + PASA
E. Rifampycini + ethionamidum + kanamycini
195. What clinical form of tuberculosis is tuberculoma formed from most frequently?
A. Disseminated
B. Fibrous-cavernous
C. Cirrhotic
D. Nidus
E. * Infiltrative
196. At the absence of positive treatment dynamics during 2-4 months the patients with lungs tuberculosis
are prescribed for:
A. * Economical resection of a lung
B. Pneumonectomy
C. Decortication of a lesion of lung
D. Hormonotherapy
E. Antimycobacterial therapy up to 6-8 months
197. What do patients with the unfolded clinical picture of tuberculosis, regardless to the localization of the
process complain of?
A. * Weakness, excessive perspiration, loss of weight, promoted temperature of body
B. Attacks of stuffiness at the change of weather
C. Consciousness blank
D. Disturbance of sensitiveness, “creeping of ants” in extremities
E. Headache, pain in abdomen without clear localization
198. What character does temperature curve at tuberculosis carry usually?
A. Constant
B. One-day
C. Hectic
D. Three-day
E. * None of the above
199. What character of sputum at uncomplicated lung tuberculosis is most reliable?
A. * Slime, transparent
B. Bright-yellow
C. Green-yellow
D. Green with a sharp odour
E. Rusty
200. What character of pain in a thorax at “fresh” uncomplicated lung tuberculosis is the most typical?
A. Phantomlike
B. Attackable
C. * Constant
D. Sanestopathetic
E. Migrated
201. What does cause the pain at “fresh” uncomplicated tuberculosis?
A. Lung tissue decay
B. Expressed exudation in a lung tissue
C. Bronch`s lesion
D. * Pleura`s lesion
E. Prevailing productive reaction
202. What character of sputum secretion at uncomplicated lung tuberculosis is most typical?
A. The sputum is secreted mainly in the morning after smoking in an amount of 10-15 ml
B. * The sputum is secretion during a day in an amount of 30-100 ml
C. Liquid waterly sputum is secreted constantly to 1,5-2,0 l for a day
D. A patient can tell, when thick stinking sputum was one-time secreted by “full mouth”
E. Viscous sputum is secreted after completion of asthma attacks only
203. How do tuberculosis patients explain the weight loss more frequently?
A. Appetite worsening
B. Taste distortion, disgusting to the separate types of meal
C. Economy on the meal
D. * They can not explain, because appetite and rhythm of feed are remained ordinary
E. Wishing to lose flesh
204. When does the disposition of perspiration appear at tuberculosis?
A. At physical tension
B. At psychic-emotional tension
C. * At night
D. At becoming overheated
E. In the day-time
205. What disease anamnesis is the most characteristic for lung tuberculosis?
A. A patient felt ill acute three day ago, nowadays the state is some improved
B. * A patient considers himself to be ill a few months
C. A patient considers himself to be ill “all life”, repeatedly inspected without a result
D. A patient notes the state worsening every fourth day
E. A patient notes the state worsening at reduction of light day every year
206. Which of the cited data of life anamnesis is the risk factor of tuberculosis disease?
A. * Illegal working migration
B. Vaccination against hepatitis B
C. Being in the countries of Western Europe 3 years less ago
D. A change of profession on more skilled
E. Retirement
207. Which of diseases in anamnesis increase the risk of tuberculosis disease?
A. Ischemic heart disease
B. Neurodermitis
C. * Stomach ulcer
D. Deforming arthrosis
E. Appendicitis
208. In what age of men tuberculosis disease is the most reliable?
A. * 20-29 years
B. 30-39 years
C. 50-59 years
D. 60-69 years
E. above 70 years
209. In what age of women tuberculosis disease is the most reliable?
A. 20-29 years
B. * 30-39 years
C. 40-49 years
D. 50-59 years
E. above 60 years
210. What thorax form in a tuberculosis patients is the most typical?
A. Hypersthenes
B. * Paralytic
C. Rachitic
D. Scoliotic
E. Emphysematic
211. What is the most informative phenomenon at auscultation of tuberculosis patient?
A. Dispersed dry rales
B. Inconstant dry and moist rales in the area by the root
C. * Moist local rales on the lung apexes
D. Pleura friction murmur
E. “Mute” lung
212. A patient 45, complains of the weakness, periodical raising of body temperature to 37,7?C, cough with
sputum expectoration more than 3 weeks. There are tuberculosis patients in a family. In what thorax
areas can one reveal auscultative changes at objective examination of the patient most frequently?
A. In the lover parts of lungs
B. In the lower third of lungs
C. In the area under scapular
D. * In the area under clavicle
E. In the axillary’s region
213. Infiltrative tuberculosis of the upper part of the right lung in decay phase has been revealed in a patient,
MBT (+). What breathily murmurs do you expect to hear above the area lesion?
A. Dry whistling rales
B. Crepitation
C. Murmur of pleural rub
D. Bronchial breathing
E. * Local moist rales
214. Percussion note with tympanic tinge, amphoric respiration at auscultative above the upper part of the
right lung in a tuberculosis patient. What should be changes in lungs thought about?
A. Infiltration of the lung tissue
B. Lung cirrhosis
C. Atelectasis
D. * Large cavern
E. Spontaneous pneumothorax
215. 215. A patient six-year-old boy with primary tubercular complex, above the lower department of thorax
in right side auscultate pleural friction What do pathological changes we think about?
A. Spontaneous pneumothorax.
B. * Dry pleurisy.
C. Ecsudatical pleurisy.
D. Pleuropneumonia.
E. Pleural empyema.
216. For a patient a "fork" symptom is determine What do pathological changes we think about?
A. Primary tubercular complex
B. Spontaneous pneumothorax.
C. * Cirrhosis of lung.
D. Dry pleurisy.
E. Tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodus.
217. In patient with tuberculosis under a left shoulder-blade we can hear medium rales. What do such
changes testify about?
A. Focal changes in pulmonary tissue.
B. Bronchitis.
C. * Presence of cavities of disintegration.
D. Spontaneous pneumothorax.
E. Atelectasis
218. What type of breathing in the projection of defeat at infiltrating tuberculosis is characteristic?
A. vesicular respiration
B. amphoric breath sounds
C. * Mixed breathing.
D. bronchial respiration
E. interrupted breathing
219. What information is the most important at questioning of patient with suspicion on tuberculosis?
A. Family status of patient.
B. Profession.
C. Material well-being .
D. * Contact with a patient with tuberculosis.
E. Presence of cattle in thehousekeeping (cows).
220. What disease can a "fork" symptom be determined at?
A. Tuberculoma
B. Miliary tuberculosis.
C. Dry pleurisy.
D. * Cirrotic tuberculosis .
E. Silicotuberculosis.
221. What symptoms do belong to the "pectoral" symptoms of tuberculosis?
A. low grade fever, cough, head pain, lack of breath, general weakness.
B. * hemoptysis, lack of breath, chest pain, cough, excretion of sputum
C. heart pain, low grade fever, cough, hemoptysis lack of breath.
D. hepatic colic, lack of breath, cough, hemoptysis low grade fever
E. Vomit, hoarse voice, cough, lack of breath, excretion of sputum
222. In how many times contact persons are more frequently ill , than uncontacts with tuberculosis?
A. 2-4.
B. * 5-10.
C. 15-20.
D. 25-30.
E. 31-35.
223. What roentgenological method is used for skrining survey of population with the purpose of exposure
tuberculosis of breathing organs?
A. Sciagraphy.
B. Computerized tomography.
C. * Fluorography.
D. Rentgenoscopy.
E. Bronchography.
224. What method more expedient to apply for control of dynamicsto efficiency of treatment of patients with
tuberculosis ?
A. * Sciagraphy.
B. Roentgenokymography.
C. Fluorography.
D. Roentgenoscopy.
E. Bronchography.
225. What method is most effective for estimate of localization of shade in a pulmonary tissue and its
correlation with surrounding tissues?
A. Sciagraphy.
B. * Computerized tomography.
C. Fluorography.
D. Rentgenoscopy.
E. Bronchography.
226. What method more frequent will be used to exposure the destruction of lungs tissue?
A. Sciagraphy.
B. * Computerized tomography .
C. Spot-film sciagraphy.
D. Rentgenoscopy.
E. Bronchography.
227. With what roentgenological method is more expedient to begin additional inspection, if at prophylactic
fluorography inspection in the first and second segments of lungs focal shades are discovered?
A. * From survey sciagraphy.
B. From computerized tomography.
C. From spot-film sciagraphy.
D. From rentgenoscopy.
E. From bronchography.
228. What method gives the detailed information about a structure and homogeneity of shade in lungs?
A. Tomography
B. * Computerized tomography.
C. Spot-film sciagraphy.
D. Rentgenoscopy.
E. Bronchography.
229. What methods of research of breathing organs transferring are roentgenological?
A. Sciagraphy.
B. Computerized tomography.
C. Rentgenoscopy.
D. Bronchography
E. * Bronchoscopy.
230. What is the criteria of optimum inflexibility of sciagram?
A. * On the sciagram evidently seen the first three-four pectoral vertebrae.
B. On the sciagram evidently contours of shoulder-blades.
C. On the sciagram evidently seen first six-eight pectoral vertebrae.
D. On the sciagram evidently seen ribs.
E. On the sciagram evidently seen breastbone.
231. What components of lungs tissue are not visible on a sciagram?
A. Roots of lungs.
B. Dig vascular barrels.
C. The walls of bronchial tubes.
D. * Teeth ridges.
E. Interstice of lungs.
232. What is the high bound of the norm of a lungs root width?
A. 1,0 sm
B. * 2,5 sm
C. 3,5 sm
D. 5 sm
E. 7,5 sm
233. What form do normal roots of lungs have?
A. Optus corner opened aside pulmonary field.
B. Triangle, by the apex turned to middle shade.
C. * Sector of a circle.
D. Rectangle.
E. Complex polycyclic figure.
234. In the patient of 35 years it was first found out infiltrative tuberculosis of the overhead particle of the
right lung with the presence of destructive changes. On the survey sciagram cavity of disintegration we
can see unclear. What does roentgenological method of research need to be applied for visualization of
cavity?
A. Bronchography.
B. Fluorography.
C. Lateral sciagraphy.
D. * Tomography
E. Radioxerography.
235. The patient of 45 years . He is on treatment in T.prophylactic center concerning the relapse of
tuberculosis of the left lung (infiltrative tuberculosis). In patient's phlegm appear MBT but on a survey
sciagram destructive changes are not determineWhat roentgenological method of research should we use
to find the source which excretes bacterias?
A. * Tomography.
B. Bronchography.
C. Spot-film sciagraphy.
D. Rentgenoscopy.
E. Lateral sciagraphy
236. The Patient 37 years olHe is ill with cirrhotic tuberculosis of overhead particle of the right lung during
10 years. The patient is prepared to the operation.It is needed to define mobile of lower edge of
lungs.What method of roentgenological research is used in this case?
A. Tomography.
B. Bronchography.
C. Sciagraphy.
D. * Rentgenoscopy.
E. NMR.
237. Sick men 35 years old. He is directed to the T.prophylactic center with a diagnos of tuberculosis. It was
made more inspection and as a result were revealed destructive changes in the overhead particle of right
lung.What roentgenological method of research was used for more inspection?
A. Lateral sciagraphy.
B. Bronchography.
C. Radioxerography.
D. * Tomography.
E. Fluorography.
238. Sick women 35 years olShe grumbles about a cough with sputum, pain in the right part of thorax,
weakness, increase body's temperature up to 37,8°On the survey sciagram of the right lung it is found
out an area of unhomogeneous structure without clear contours. It was established the diagnosis:
tuberculosis What disease does have alike roentgenological signs?
A. Bronchial asthma.
B. * Pneumonia.
C. Cyst.
D. Bronchitis.
E. lungs oedema.
239. In the patient of 20 years on the fluorography inspection in the apex-back segment of the left lung
found out area of dark patch small intensity with unclear contours up to 1sm in a diameter.To what
roentgenological syndrome does the founded out formation belong to?
A. clearing up syndrome.
B. round shade syndrome.
C. * focal shades syndrome.
D. ring shade syndrome.
E. Desimination syndrome
240. The patient of 35 years grumbles about the shortness of breath, weight in a right side increasing of
body's temperature up to 39°On a survey sciagram found out the homogeneous intensive dark patch
from the level of the IV rib to the diaphragm with an oblique border Such roentgenological changes are
inherent for:
A. Pneumonia.
B. Cancer.
C. Eosinophylic infiltration.
D. * Exudatic pleurisy.
E. Dry pleurisy.
241. The patient is 35 years. At a prophylactic inspection in infraclavicular region of right lung (lateral part
of it) found out the area focal shade of small intensity .What segment of lung does the area belongs to?
A. VIII.
B. VI.
C. IV.
D. VI.
E. * VII.
242. Sick woman 50-ty years acted in to the Tuberculous prophylactic center complaining on a cough, weakness,
decline of mass , cough with sputum. A differential diagnostic is conducted between infiltrative tuberculosis of
upper particle of left lung and a cancer of lungs .What roentgenological method of research is optimum to
confirm the diagnosis?
A. Radioxerography.
B. Bronchography.
C. * Computerized tomography.
D. Pleurography.
E. Rentgenoscopy.
243. In the patient 1 month after the completed treatment of infiltrative tuberculosis of upper particle of right
lung, appeared intermittent rise in temperature up to 37,1-37,2°C and coughing. It was made an
extraordinary roentgenological inspection - changes weren`t discovered in lungs.What roentgenological
method is expedient to use for visualization of the changes of bronchial tubes of upper particle of right
lung?
A. Sciagraphy.
B. * Bronchography.
C. Rentgenoscopy.
D. Tomography.
E. Spot-film sciagraphy.
244. The patient of 24 years acted into the Tuberculous prophylactic center complaining about a weakness, decline of
appetite, cough with sputum. A survey sciagram was made, on which in the part of the left lung an annular shade is
determine. Such character of shade is inherent for:
A. Hearth.
B. Infiltration.
C. Fibrosis.
D. * Disintegration of pulmonary tissue.
E. Exudat accumulation.
245. Sick woman 20 years old is directed to phthisiatrician, concerning changes, that were discovered on
fluorogram (prophylactic inspection). We can see changes not very good, because they are hidden behind
the collar-bonWhat roentgenological research we need to use, to find out these changes?
A. Rentgenography.
B. Bronchography.
C. Rentgenoscopy.
D. Lateral sciagraphy.
E. * Sciagraphy with the maximal taking of collar-bone.
246. What is the basic method of the discovering tuberculosis among people using masssurveys ?
A. Rentgenoscopy.
B. Computerized tomography .
C. Bronchography.
D. * Fluorography
E. Spot-film sciagraphy.
247. What research method we have to use to confirm the presence of bronchiectasis?
A. Spot-film sciagraphy.
B. Survey sciagraphy.
C. Fіstulography.
D. Tomography.
E. * Bronchography.
248. A focal shade is:
A. Dark patch in a diameter up to 0,2 sm.
B. Dark patch 0,2 - 0,4 sm in a diameter.
C. Dark patch 0,5 - 1,0 sm in a diameter.
D. * Dark patch in a diameter to 1,0 sm.
E. Dark patch from 1,0 to 2,0 sm in a diameter.
249. Patient of 29 years on a roentgenological inspection found out in the right lung under a collar-bone
dark patch in a diameter to 1sm, small intensity with unclear contours. What type of pathological shade
is certain in the woman?
A. * focal
B. Infiltrative .
C. focal-infiltrative .
D. Annular.
E. Linear.
250. What are the most frequent segmental localization of the second forms of tuberculosis of lungs?
A. I, II, III segments.
B. II, III, IV segments.
C. III, V, VI segments.
D. * I, II, VI segments.
E. II, III, X segments.
251. What method of research is executed for confirmation of presence of liquid in a pleural cavity?
A. Fluorography.
B. Tomography.
C. Bronchography.
D. * Laterography.
E. Spot-film sciagraphy.
252. When were the X-rays discovered?
A. In 1882 year.
B. * In 1895 year.
C. In 1944 year.
D. In 1951 year.
E. In 1965 year.
253. For how many criterias do we estimate the quality of technical implementation of survey sciagram?
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 3.
D. * 4.
E. 5.
254. From how many parts does the root of lung consist of? (roentgenologicaly)
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. * 3.
D. 4.
E. 5.
255. How many segments can be in left lung?
A. 8-11.
B. 8-12.
C. * 9-10.
D. 9-11.
E. 9-12.
256. What method of research should be conducted for confirmation the small forms of tuberculosis of
intrathorax glands?
A. Spot-film sciagraphy.
B. * Computerized tomography .
C. Tomography.
D. Sciagraphy in a lateral proection.
E. Fluorography on inhalation and exhalation.
257. What percent of patients with tuberculosis in Ukraine are detected at mass fluorographycal inspection?
A. 5 %.
B. 15%.
C. 25%.
D. 35%.
E. * 50%.
258. What is the most substantial morphological sign determines weight of the tubercular process?
A. Dystrophy.
B. Plethora.
C. * Destruction.
D. Hypostasis.
E. Metaplasia.
259. Treatment of what state is most perspective and important from the epidemiological point of view?
A. At first diagnosed tuberculosis without destruction.
B. * At first diagnosed tuberculosis with destruction.
C. Relapse.
D. Chronic tuberculosis.
E. Primary tuberculosis.
260. What phases characterize the progress of tuberculosis?
A. * Infiltration, disintegration, semination.
B. Resorption, compression, scarring.
C. C Encrustation, mineralization.
D. Hyperemia, exudation, resorption
E. Proliferation, metaplasia, degeneration.
261. On the exposure of what changes in biopsy material is based histological confirmation of tubercular
character of inflammation?
A. * Pirogov-Langerhans cells , caseous necrosis.
B. Cells of foreign bodies, fibroblasts.
C. A big amount of neutrophiles, colicvation necrosis.
D. Proliferation of lymphocytes.
E. Proliferation of poorly differentiated cells.
262. What organs are more frequently strucked by tuberculosis in Ukraine?
A. * Lungs.
B. Genital organs.
C. Kidneys.
D. Bones and joints.
E. Eyes.
263. Whatever concept doesn't have the pathogenetical and clinical filling?
A. Primary tuberculosis.
B. Secondary tuberculosis.
C. * Tertiary tuberculosis.
D. Chronic tuberculosis.
E. Relapse of tuberculosis.
264. Whatever information has no matter at formulation the diagnosis of tuberculosis?
A. Presence or absence of destruction.
B. Presence or absence of bacterioexcretion.
C. * The way of contamination.
D. Resistance of mycobacterium.
E. Data of exposure of disease.
265. Whatever complication is not characteristic for pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Pulmonary bleeding.
B. Spontaneous pneumothorax
C. * Bronchial asthma.
D. Secondary pulmonary hypertension.
E. Atelectasis.
266. What is understood under a cohort at formulation the diagnosis of tuberculosis?
A. Group of patients with the identical clinical form of disease.
B. Group of patients, homogeneous on age, sex.
C. * Group of patients which found out during one quarter.
D. Group of patients with identical concomitant pathology.
E. Group of patients with east motion of disease.
267. Whatever category of patients is not distinguished in clinical classification of tuberculosis?
A. Patients with the first diagnosed tuberculosis without bacterioexcretion.
B. Patients with the first diagnosed tuberculosis with bacterioexcretion.
C. * Patients with the first diagnosed tuberculosis without bacterioexcretion on background of
concomitant pathology.
D. Patients with relapse of tuberculosis.
E. Patients with chronic tuberculosis.
268. What method of study of bacterioexcretion is not used in formulation of diagnosis according to modern
classification?
A. Microscopical.
B. Cultural.
C. Investigation of resistance to preparations of the I row.
D. Investigation of resistance to preparations of the II row.
E. * Biological.
269. What is the definition of primary tuberculosis?
A. At first diagnosed tuberculosis.
B. Initial signs of tuberculosis.
C. Nondestructive tuberculosis.
D. * Tuberculosis which arose up just after infection.
E. Tuberculosis with an affection of only one organ or system.
270. What is the definition of secondary tuberculosis?
A. Relapse of tuberculosis.
B. Destructive tuberculosis.
C. * Tuberculosis which arose up long after an infection.
D. Generalized tuberculosis.
E. Tuberculosis with the unfolded clinical picture.
271. Whatever changes of pulmonary tissue usually do not arise up as a result of the tuberculosis?
A. Pneumofibrosis.
B. Calcinations.
C. * Carnification of lungs.
D. Emphysema.
E. Bronchiectasis
272. What information must not contain the classification of any illness according to the IKD-10?
A. Clinical form of disease.
B. Localisation of affection.
C. * Prognosis.
D. Accompanimental diseases.
E. Complication.
273. Patient of 44 underwent a course of medical treatment during 1 week. Patient was diagnosed: the lungs’
FDT (15.01.2004) (desemination, phase to infiltration and disintegration), Destr+,
MBT+M+K+rezisto GISTO Cat1 Cog1(2004). MBT has been discovered by bacteriological method in
3 analyses. What is the most reliable reason that the record of K O was made in a diagnosis?
A. Kulturalniy analysis was not conducted.
B. Negative result of sputum’s sowing was got.
C. * Insufficient period for MBT’s growth
D. Absence of MBT in sputum.
E. Incorrect results of bacterioscopy.
274. Patient of 25 is on treatment in tuberculosis dispensary with a diagnosis: FDT (2.02.2004) of right
lung’s upper part (infiltrative, phase of disintegration and semination), Destr- mbt+ m- k+ Resist+ (N,R)
resist O, GIST O, Cat4 Cog1(2004). The patient was appointed proper treatment: N, R, S, Z. In two
months during conducting roentgenological control positive dynamics was not seen. As a result of
determination of MBT sensitiveness to untuberculosis preparations was got in 2 months after patient’s
receipt .What is the principal reason of treatment’s ineffectiveness?
A. * Existence of MBT’s resistance to unmycobacterial medications.
B. Smoking.
C. Periodic using of alcohol.
D. Protracted reception of chemo medication.
E. In the absence of fifth preparation.'
275. Patient of 20 went to tuberculosis dispensary with complaints about a weakness, indisposition, cough
with sputum. On a survey rontgenography were discovered infiltrative changes on the upper part of right
lung with the presence of cavity of disintegration. Using bacterioscopic method MBT were found in
sputum.What amount of MBT should be found in 1 ml of sputum (at a revision 300 eyeshots)?
A. 500.
B. * 5000.
C. 1000.
D. 100.
E. 100000.
276. Patient of 42 grumbles about weakness, bad appetite and sleep, decline of body’s mass.
Roentgenlogical: in S1 infiltrative darkening was found out in a right lung. General analysis of blood:
Er.- 4,8х1012, Нb - 146 г/л, L - 8,5х109, ESR - 22 mm/hr.What research should be done to a patient
with the purpose to exposure MBT?
A. * Taking of washing liquid of bronchial tubes.
B. Tomography.
C. To take a Manta’s sample from 2 PPD-L.
D. To explore sputum.
E. To make immunological research.
277. Patient of 43 complains about weakness, bad appetite, decline of body’s mass, subfebrile temperature
(37,1°-37,4°C), pain in left sideDuring roentgenological examination in S 1-2 of a left lung limited
microfocal disseminations has been determinated, to the bottom from the IV rib exudation. At
bacterioscopic research of liquid MBT were not found.What research is optimum for confirmation of
etiology of found changes for this patient?
A. Examination of sputum.
B. Making bronchoscopy.
C. Immunologic research.
D. * Biopsy of pleura.
E. Cytological research of exudation.
278. Patient of 36 went to the stationary section of tuberculosis dispensary with complaints about cough
with sputum, weakness, temperature - 38,0°C, severe headache, nausea and vomit that does not bring a
facilitation. A disease has begun gradually. Patient went to the therapeutist and then X-ray examination
was madAs a result of examination small (1-2 mm in diameter) multiply nonintencive shades with
unclear contours along lungs were determinePatient was diagnosed: a FDT (3.12.2003) of lungs (miliary
in a phase of infiltration and disintegration), Destr+, Mbt+m-k+ rezist, GIST O Kat1kog4(2003).What
kind of research will reliably confirm possibility tubercular meningitis’ development?
A. Bacterial analysis of sputum.
B. Immunologic research.
C. Encephalography.
D. Bacterioscopy of spinal liquid.
E. * Biochemical analysis of composition of spinal liquid.
279. What biochemical components of MBT cause their firmness to acids, alkalis and alcohols?.
A. Albumen
B. Hydrocarbon
C. * Lipids
D. Polysaccharide.
E. Mineral salts.
280. What constituent combinations of MBT are the basic transmitters of antigens’ characteristic features?
A. * Albumen
B. Hydrocarbon
C. Lipids
D. Polysaccharide.
E. Mineral salts.
281. What mycobacterium are called L-form?
A. Vaccine’s culture of MBT.
B. Avisual forms of MBT.
C. Atypical forms of MBT.
D. * MBT, which has partly lost a cellular wall.
E. Filtering forms of MBT.
282. What is the reason of origin of primary medicinal firmness of MBT?
A. Untimely exposure of tuberculosis.
B. Late exposure of tuberculosis.
C. Nonregularly taking of antimycobacterial medications.
D. Treatment by chemicals of understated doses.
E. * Infection by stable cultures of MBT.
283. What is the frequency of primary medicinal firmness of MBT in patients with tuberculosis?
A. 0,5-1%.
B. 2 - 5 %.
C. * C.1-14%.
D. D.15-20%.
E. 25 - 30 %.
284. How often does the second medicinal firmness of MBT develop to antimycobacterial medications in
patients with tuberculosis?
A. 1-5%.
B. 5-10%.
C. 10 - 20 %.
D. 20-40%.
E. * 50 - 60 %.
285. What is primary medical firmness of MBT?
A. * MBT firmness of the patients which had not been yet treated by antimycobacterial medications.
B. MBT firmness of patients with the primary form of tuberculosis.
C. MBT firmness of patients with the chronic forms of tuberculosis.
D. MBT firmness of patients with the relapses of tuberculosis.
E. MBT firmness of patients with the small forms of tuberculosis.
286. What types of MBT are the most pathogenic for a human being?
A. M. Africanum.
B. M Avium.
C. M. Bovinus.
D. * M.Tuberculosis.
E. Kansasii.
287. What kinds of mycobacterial cause mycobacteriozis?
A. L-forms mycobacterium.
B. M. tuberculosis.
C. Acid-proof saprophytes.
D. * Atypical mycobacterium.
E. MBT, firm to antimycobacterial medications.
288. What kind of sputum is characteristic for patients with pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. * Mucus-purulent, odourless, 10-50 milliliters per days.
B. Purulent with a strong unpleasant smell, ferruginous color, to 500 milliliters.
C. Purulent, odourless, to 300 milliliters.
D. Mucus-watery, 50-100 milliliters.
E. Purulent -containing soom blood with an unpleasant smell, 100-150 milliliters per days.
289. With the purpose of MBT chromosome revelation sowing sputum was done on hard environment. What
does the appearance of colony mean on a third day from sowing?
A. Mycobacterium’s growth, which are propagating quickly.
B. Growth of highly virulent mycobacterium.
C. Growth of atypical mycobacterium.
D. * Growth of unspecific microflora.
E. Growth of L-form mycobacterium.
290. What are the terms of appearance of tuberculosis’s mycobacterium growth on hard nourishing
environments?
A. 2-3 days.
B. 7-14 days.
C. * 3-4 weeks.
D. 3-5 months.
E. 6 months.
291. In what percentage of people tuberculosis is caused by M. bovis?
A. 1-2%.
B. * 3-5%.
C. 10-20%.
D. 25-30%.
E. 35-50%.
292. What type of exciter, after Runyon classification, is considered to be atypical mycobacterium?
A. M. Bovis.
B. M.africanum
C. Filtrate’s forms.
D. * M. avium.
E. M tuberculosis.
293. What is the major diagnostic sign of joining tuberculosis in patient with pneumoconiosis|?
A. Positive result of Mantaex testing of 2 TU PPD-L.
B. * Revealing MBT in sputum.
C. Presence of symptoms of tubercular intoxication.
D. Information about the tuberculosis carried in the past.
E. Presence of nidus shadows on a roentgenogram.
294. What kind is the sensitiveness to tuberculin after the Mantaex test of 2 TU PPD-L at
silicotuberculosis?
A. Negative.
B. Doubtful.
C. Poorly positive.
D. * Hyperergy
E. Vesicule-necrotic.
295. What kind of symptoms (complaints) can testify the complication of silicosis by tuberculosis?
A. * Intoxication.
B. The pant.
C. The cough.
D. Pain in thorax.
E. All these symptoms.
296. What are the roentgenologic| signs of tuberculosis in diabetes patients?
A. Infiltrative tuberculosis, more frequent cloudsimilar infiltration, polysegmentation infiltration or lobit
||.
B. Bilateral infiltration | in lower particles of lung (caused by reactivation of| process in |intrathoracic
lymphatic nodes with lymphogenic| and |bronchogenic eruption).
C. Large tuberculoma with undistinct contours, perifocal inflammation, which is able to decay.
D. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis (with severe progressive course, can be complicated by caseous|
pneumonia).
E. * All these signs.
297. The prognosis and course of which illness is not favourable at tuberculosis in combination with
diabetes|?
A. Always of tuberculosis.
B. Always of diabetes.
C. Of both diseases.
D. * That illness, which arose up the first.
E. That illness,| which arose up the second.
298. What |are the indications to fluorography of the patient with diabetes?
A. After carried hyperglycemic| and hypoglycemic comma.
B. After carried a flu or pneumonia.
C. After any operative interference .
D. At appearance of symptoms, which are characteristic for tuberculosis or hyperergy reaction.|
E. * All these sings.
299. What disease can assist development of tuberculosis?
A. Essential hypertension.
B. Infectious mononucleosis|.
C. * Ulcer of the stomach and duodenum.
D. All marked disease.
E. Nothing of transferred.
300. In stomach and duodenal ulcer patient, who was prepared for operation, an active tuberculosis was
discovered.What is the best doctor’s tactic ?
A. Treatment of tuberculosis after an operation.
B. Operation is combined with beginning of tuberculosis treatment.
C. * Operation after stabilizing of specific process.
D. Operation is only in 2 years from the beginning of tuberculosis treatment.
E. Operation is absolutely contra-indicated.
301. What forms of tuberculosis prevail for stomach and duodenal ulcer patients after the resection of
stomach?
A. Primary tuberculous complex.
B. Out of lungs tuberculous processes.
C. * Infiltrative and exsudative forms of tuberculosis with propensity to progress, formation of plural
destructions and bronchogenic dissemination||.
D. Chronic forms of tuberculosis.
E. Tuberculous mesadenitis|.
302. What from transferred is characteristic for a tuberculous process on the late stages of HIV-infection|?
A. * All transferred .
B. The expressed durable intoxication with negative Mantoux test.
C. Diffuse infiltrates| in upper, middle and lower lung sections.
D. Mainly |out of lungs defeats, enlargement of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes, lymphadenopathia
E. In the halves of patients – MBT absence from the sputum||.
303. What are the most dangerous periods that contributing to aggravation, recurrence and progressing of old
tubercular hearths for pregnant ?
A. The second month of pregnancy.
B. The fifth month of pregnancy.
C. The last weeks before childbearing.
D. The first 6 months after childbearing.
E. * All marked periods are dangerous.
304. What course is typical for tuberculosis which arises at first time after the childbearing?
A. Rapid reversed development.
B. * Rapid progressing with expressed clinical symptomatic|.
C. Slow reversed development.
D. Poor symptomatic |motion.
E. Initially chronic motion.
305. What are the main principles of tuberculosis treatment during pregnancy?
A. To begin treatment only after childbearing.
B. * Treatment by generally accepted principles .
C. Obligatory breaking the pregnancy regardless of process.
D. The dynamic looking after the motion of process. At progressing - immediate treatment.
E. The treatment should be performed immediately after revealing active tuberculosis|.
306. Is it possible to vaccinate a newborn child which borned |from a mother sick with tuberculosis?
A. Absolutely contra-indicated in any case.
B. * It is possible, if a child does not have contra-indications and was immediately isolated from |mother
after childbearing.
C. It is possible, but needed to do Mantaex test before vaccinate.
D. Contra-indicated, if mother is sick with destructive tuberculosis.
E. It is possible, if mother accepted antimycobacterial drugs during pregnancy.
307. What from these preparations has antimicobacterial action ?
A. Nitroxolin.
B. * Cyprofloxacin.
C. C. Kotrimaxazol.
D. Amoxycylin.
E. Doxicylin.
308. What from these preparations does not have antimicobacterial action?
A. Isoniazidum.
B. Rifampicinum.
C. * Ceftriaxon.
D. Pyrazinamidum.
E. Etambutolum.
309. What from these preparations is not used for therapy for| patients with first found out tuberculosis?
A. Isoniazidum.
B. * Natrii paraaminosalicylatis (PASA is Natrum)
C. Etambutolum.
D. Pyrazinamidum.
E. Streptomycini
310. What from the drugs does operate only on extracellularly distributed MBT?
A. Isoniazidum.
B. Etambutolum.
C. Pyrazinamidum.
D. * Streptomycini.
E. Rifampicinum.
311. What from the drugs can cause polyneuropathy?
A. * Isoniazidum.
B. B. Etambutolum.
C. C. Pyrazinamidum.
D. D. Rifampicinum.
E. E. Streptomycini.
312. What disease is contra-indication for setting of Isoniazidum?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis.
B. Chronic obstructive bronchitis.
C. * Epilepsy.
D. Chronic pancreatitis.
E. Ulcerous illness.
313. What disease is contra-indication to setting of Streptomycini?
A. Chronic hepatitis.
B. Alcoholism.
C. Acute sinuitis.
D. * Ischemic heart trouble.
E. Psoriasis.
314. What disease is contra-indication to setting of Etambutolum?
A. Acute conjunctivitis.
B. Chronic keratitis.
C. Chalazion.
D. * Degeneration of nipple of visual nerve.
E. Cataract.
315. What disease does aggravate the bearableness of Pyrazinamidum|?
A. Chronic bronchitis.
B. * Chronic hepatitis.
C. Chronic colitis.
D. Chronic cholecystitis.
E. Ischemic heart trouble.
316. What combination of preparations must we appoint to a patient with the first first diagnosed infiltrative
tuberculosis in the phase of disintegration?
A. Isoniazidum, Streptomycini|, Kanamycini|, Etambutolum|.
B. Rifampicinum, Streptomycini|, Amoxycylini|, Pyrazinamidum.|
C. Isoniazidum, Ethionamidum|, PASA is Natrum|, Etambutolum|.
D. * Isoniazidum, Rifampicinum|, Pyrazinamidum|, Streptomycini|.
E. Streptomycini, Viomycini|, Florimycini|, Kanamycini|.
317. What combination of preparations must we appoint to a patient with the first diagnosed Nidus lung
tuberculosis?
A. Isoniazidum, Streptomycini|, Kanamycini
B. Rifampicinuum, Streptomycini|, Amoxycylini
C. * Isoniazidum, Rifampicinum|, Pyrazinamidum
D. Isoniazidum, Ethionamidum|, PASA is Natrum
E. Streptomitsin, Viomycini|, Florimycini||.
318. What combination of preparations does it follow to appoint a patient with found out reactivation| of
tuberculosis before the receipt of results of sensitiveness of MBT| to antimycobacterial drugs?
A. Isoniazidum, Streptomycini|, Kanamycini, Etambutolum, Ethionamidum
B. * Isoniazidum, Rifampicinum|, Pyrazinamidum, Streptomycini, Etambutolum
C. Rifampicinum, Isoniazidum, Streptomycini, Amoxycylini Pyrazinamidum
D. Isoniazidum, Rifampicinum |, Ethionamidum|, PASA is Natrum , Etambutolum |.
E. Rifampicinum, Streptomycini, Viomycini|, Florimycini|, Kanamycini
319. What is recommended duration of treatment patient with the first discovered tuberculosis?
A. 10 days.
B. 2 months.
C. * 6 months.
D. 9 months.
E. 2 years.
320. In the patient suffering from tuberculous meningoencephalitis the right-side ptosis, midriasis, divergent
strabismus, were found. The damage of what cranial-brain nerve is present?
A. IV
B. * III
C. VI
D. VII
E. X
321. The method of the definition of a kind of spontaneous pneumothorax.
A. Roentgenologic
B. On the basis of the clinic data.
C. * The pressure measurement in the pleural cavity (manometry)
D. Computer tomography
E. USE
322. Which of those complications are specific?
A. * Larynx tuberculosis
B. Atelectasis
C. Pulmonary haemorrhage
D. Spontaneous pneumothorax
E. Chronic lung heart
323. Which of the illnesses are the most frequently complicated with pulmonary haemorrhages?
A. Aspergilloma
B. Lung cancer
C. Bronchus adenoma
D. * Lung tuberculosis
E. Pneumonia
324. An urgent aid at a valvate spontaneous pneumothorax.
A. Fibrobronchoscopy
B. Artificial lung ventilation
C. * Pleural cavity drainage
D. Respiratory gymnastics
E. Strict bed rest
325. The main method of chronic lung heart diagnostics
A. Elecrocardiography
B. Phonocardiography
C. Balistocardiography
D. * Echocardiography
E. Roentgenoscopy
326. The frequency of lung haemorrage in lung tuberculosis patients.
A. 1-2 %
B. 3-5 %
C. * 6-19 %
D. 20-25 %
E. 30-35 %
327. The main reason of the profuse pulmonary bleeding in patients with tuberculosis.
A. * Blood vessel rapture
B. Pulmonary artery thrombosis
C. Varicose of blood pulmonary vessels
D. Activation of fibrinolysis
E. Violations in blood coagulation system
328. What is the most frequent immediate causes of death at pulmonary haemorrage in pulmonary
tuberculosis patients?
A. Anemia
B. Aspirational pneumonia
C. * Asphyxia
D. Atelectasis
E. Tuberculosis progressing
329. In order to lower the pressure in the system of the pulmonary artery, one should prescribe.
A. Penicyllin, camphorae, arphonad
B. * Atropin, euphilin, ganglioblockers
C. Isoniazidum, atropin, uterics
D. Oxygen, camphor, trombin
E. Dicinin, epsilon-aminocapronic acid, nitrosorbid
330. Procoagulative action preparations.
A. Camphor
B. * Dicinon
C. Benzohexoniy
D. Amben
E. Atropin
331. The most effective fibrinolysis inhibitor.
A. Trasilol
B. Contrycal
C. * Epsilon-aminocapronic acid (EACA)
D. Amben
E. Albumin
332. More frequently the spontaneous pneumothorax in patients with lungs tuberculosis appear:
A. At fibrobronchoscopy
B. During pleural puncture
C. At cavern wall rupture
D. * At subpleural emphysematous bubbles rupture
E. At pneumotachometria
333. Amiloidosis is a system disease, it complicates the chronic purulent processes in the organism and is
characterized by the violations of:
A. Carbon metabolism.
B. * Albumen metabolism
C. Metabolism of fats
D. Vitamin exchange
E. Acid-alkaline equilibrium
334. How many stages of amyloidosis of kidneys are discriminated.
A. 2
B. 3
C. * 4
D. 5
E. 6
335. The greatest importance for the confirmation of lung atelectasis diagnosis is:
A. USE
B. Pneumotachometry
C. Roentgenoscopy
D. * Computer tomography
E. Bronchoscopy
336. Select the clinicoradiological variant of infiltrative tuberculosis which occurs most often:
A. lobe
B. pericisurit
C. rounded infiltrate
D. * cloudy infiltrate
E. lobular infiltrate
337. Mainly the tuberculosis is localized in what segments:
A. 1, 2, 5
B. 2, 3, 4
C. * 1, 2, 6
D. 2, 6, 10
E. 2, 3, 5
338. Bordered time for diagnosis "tuberculous intoxication" (tuberculosis without established localization) in
children and teenagers:
A. * 18 years
B. 25 years
C. 20 years
D. 10 years
E. 12 years
339. Children and teenagers do not have investigation of tubercular intoxication:
A. convalescence
B. local form of tuberculosis
C. * lethal end
D. lasted with next convalescence fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
E. lasted with next convalescence disseminated tuberculosis
340. Character of temperature reaction for patients with a diagnosis "tuberculous intoxication" is all, except
for:
A. * subfebrile in the morning
B. subfebrile
C. febrile
D. the subfebrile had at intervals of normal temperature
E. normal temperature
341. Patients with the diagnosis of "tuberculous intoxication" have the most characteristic symptom all,
except for:
A. vegeto-vascular violations
B. mikropoliadenia
C. positive reaction for a test Mantu
D. * negative reaction for a test Mantu
E. luck in development general weakness
342. Inperceptual type of tuberculosis - it:
A. nonsymptomatic form
B. oligosymptomatic form
C. rentgenpositive" persons
D. * incomprehensible form
E. bright displays of disease
343. Patients with bacterial excretion of focal tuberculosis:
A. * liquid exposure of MBT, mainly by the method of sowing
B. rareness of exposure of MBT, tetrada of Erlikh
C. frequent exposure of MBT mainly bacterioscopy
D. single exposure of MBT at frequent researches
E. valid for one occasion selection of MBT, violation of cardiac rhythm
344. Focal tuberculosis of doubtful activity is characterized:
A. scanty bacterioexcretion
B. * by the expressly outlined hearths of middle intensity of homogeneous or heterogeneous due to
including of calcination structure without the clinical signs of activity
C. by hearths of different intensity for patients with the symptoms of intoxication
D. by intensive hearths and fibrosis with the signs of intoxication
E. by polymorphic hearths without the signs of intoxication
345. What type of infiltration is answered by a R-depiction: is darkening of upper lobe lungs?
A. lobular
B. rounded
C. nebulous
D. periscisurit
E. * lobitis
346. Atelectasis of what segments more frequent all does develop at tuberculosis of intrathoracic
lymphonodes?
A. * S3, 4, 5, 6 right lungs
B. S1+2, S3 counter-clockwise lungs
C. S1, 2
D. S1+2
E. S 2, 3,4 counter-clockwise lungs
347. The pulmonary component of primary tubercular complex is more frequent localized in segments:
A. * S3, S4, S5, S8
B. S2, S6, S10
C. S1, S2, S3
D. S6, S7, S10
E. S1, S2
348. A primary tubercular complex most often needs to be differentiated from:
A. * by the "protracted pneumonia
B. tumours
C. sarkoidosis
D. lymphogranulomatosis
E. by a "sharp abscess
349. A sensitiveness to the tuberculin at a primary tubercular complex:
A. * normal
B. all of answers are faithful
C. doubtful
D. negative
E. all of answers are not faithful
350. A patient who has the most frequent reason of the profuse bleeding fibro-cavernous tuberculosis:
A. tuberculosis of bronchial tubes
B. * dug up aneurysm
C. concomitant aspergilloma
D. bronchiectasis
E. tubercular meningitis
351. Clinical motion of "small" form of tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphonodes:
A. sharp beginning, symptoms are expressed
B. subsharp beginning, oligosymptomatic motion
C. * asymptomatic or oligosymptomatic motion
D. asymptomatic
E. chronic
352. Ran across tumorous forms of tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic knots:
A. * sharp beginning, symptoms are expressed
B. subsharp beginning, oligosymptomatic
C. asymptomatic or oligosymptomatic
D. oligosymptomatic
E. sharp beginning, oligosymptomatic
353. Estimate the results of sowing of mucus, if 200-500 colonies of MBT grew on an environment:
A. * 3+
B. 1+
C. 4+
D. 2+
E. 5+
354. What lymphatic intrathoracic nodes are more frequently to be struck at tuberculosis?
A. paratracheal
B. bifurcational
C. * bronchopulmonary, tracheobronchial
D. paratracheal, bifurcatoinal
E. paraaortal
355. For whom more frequent tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphonodes is complicated by atelectasis?
A. * for children
B. for adults
C. for elderly people
D. for pregnant
E. for drug addicts
356. For whom more frequent is tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphonodes?
A. for adults
B. * for children
C. for pregnant
D. for men
E. for drug addicts
357. At chronic motion of disseminated tuberculosis more intensive hearths are disposed in:
A. * upper departments of lungs
B. middle departments of lungs
C. pararadical departments of lungs
D. basale departments of lungs
E. cortical departments of lungs
358. Most common complication of chronic diseminated white plague:
A. hemoptysis
B. * chronic pulmonary heart
C. chronic kidney insufficiency
D. amiloidosis of internals
E. spontaneous pneumothoracs
359. Plural hearths (more 5) in lungs by a size not less than 1 see it:
A. * large remaining changes
B. small remaining changes
C. infiltrative changes
D. cavities
E. bull
360. Single (to 5) hearths by a size less than 1 see:
A. large remaining changes
B. * small remaining changes
C. infiltrative changes
D. cavities
E. bull
361. Large remaining changes:
A. fibrosis of one segment is limited
B. single hearths less than 1 see
C. lymphonodes are calcinated to 1 see
D. * fibrosis more a 1 segment
E. focal pls more than 1 see
362. Sizes of shallow tuberculoma (in see) :
A. to 1
B. * 1 - 2
C. to 3
D. to 4
E. 5-7
363. Sizes of middle tuberculoma (in see):
A. 1-2
B. to 1
C. * 2-4
D. 5-6
E. 6-8
364. Sizes of large tuberculoma (in see):
A. to 1
B. 1 - 2
C. 2 - 4
D. * more than 4
E. 6 - 8
365. What auscultational phenomenon more frequent does appear for patients with tuberculosis in the phase
of disintegration?
A. amphor breathing
B. crepitation
C. * moist wheezes in the projection of cavity of destruction
D. dry wheezes
E. vesicular breathing
366. The most frequent localization of tuberculoma is in lungs:
A. S6
B. S10
C. * S2
D. S3
E. S1
367. What form of tuberculosis is tuberculoma more frequent formed from?
A. primary complex
B. focal
C. * infiltrated
D. disseminated
E. tuberculosilicosis
368. Select the type of cavity of disintegration at infiltrated tuberculosis of lungs:
A. elastic
B. rigid
C. bronchiogenic
D. fibrotic
E. * pneumoniogenic
369. What variant of infiltration is answered by a R-depiction: darkening of three-cornered form in basis of
upper fate of right lung with the washed out top limit and clear lower, by a top turned to radix?
A. lobular
B. rounded
C. cloudline
D. * periscisurit
E. lobitis
370. What disease is characterised by limitation of mobility of bronchial tube in the place of his defeat?
A. tuberculoma
B. * tuberculosis of bronchial tube
C. sarcoidosis
D. bronchitis
E. adenoma
371. What forms of tuberculosis of trachea and bronchial tubes do prevail in modern terms?
A. * infiltrative
B. ulcerous
C. fistular
D. focal
E. disseminated
372. Estimate the result of sowing, if 20-100 colonies grew on an environment:
A. * 1+
B. 3+
C. 2+
D. 4+
E. 5+
373. The most frequent source of defeat of pleura is at a tubercular pleuritis:
A. * the Tubercular changes in intrathoracic lymphatic nodes
B. changes in lungs
C. changes of extrapulmonary localization
D. changes in peripheral lymphatic nodes
E. changes are in pulmonary sines
374. What is character of effusion at a tubercular pleuritis right all, except:
A. serosal
B. festering
C. serosal-hemorragic
D. * khilezus
E. serous-fibrinous
375. What morphological type of cavity is characteristic for a fibrious-cavernous tuberculosis?
A. pneumogenic
B. elastic
C. rigid
D. * fibrotic
E. largenesses
376. More frequent miliary tuberculosis is on prevalence:
A. with the limited defeat of lungs
B. with the total defeat of lungs
C. * generalised
D. with the subtotal defeat of lungs
E. with the defeat of two segments
377. Numerous hearths prevail in overhead departments at:
A. * diseminated tuberculosis
B. silicosis
C. miliary carcinosis
D. Sarcoidosis
E. to idiopatic interstitial pneumonia
378. Plural focal pls prevail in pararadial areas at everything, except for:
A. to sharp bacterial pneumonia
B. silicotuberculosis
C. Besnier-Boeck-Schaumann
D. to stagnant lungs
E. * miliary carcinosis
379. Presence of "path" as a shadow strip from tubercular infiltrated to radix testifies lungs to:
A. * activity of process
B. bronchogenic way of origin of process
C. lymphogenic way of origin of process
D. presence of disintegration in infiltration
E. presence of cavity
380. For which is there a characteristic presence of symptom of "fork" on the remoteness of motion of
tubercular process"?
A. fresh infiltrative
B. * fіbro-cavernous
C. focal
D. tuberculoma
E. diseminated
381. Overwhelming localization of hearths is at a disseminated tuberculosis of lymphogenic genesis:
A. * middle departments, lower departments
B. overhead departments
C. S1,s2
D. S5,s6,s7
E. S3, S4
382. Character and location of fosi is at a sub acute disseminated tuberculosis of hematogenous genesis:
A. polymorphic, asymmetric located hearths in the middle and lower departments of lungs
B. * large, symmetric located fosi, mainly in the overhead and middle departments of lungs
C. productive character in the overhead departments of lungs
D. single, asymmetric located hearths are in the overhead departments of lungs
E. exudate character in the lower departments of lungs
383. Tuberculoma is not differentiated with :
A. adenoma
B. * pneumonia
C. neuroma
D. hamartohondroma
E. by a peripheral cancer
384. Cicatrical stenosis of bronchial tube is most characteristic for:
A. cancer
B. chronic bronchitis
C. * to a tuberculosis
D. bronchoectasis
E. cystic hypoplasia
385. Tuberculosis and cancer more frequent all localized in:
A. to one fate
B. to one segment
C. * to one lung
D. different lungs
E. both lungs
386. Basic signs of difference of tubercular hearths from the silicotic nodes all is right , except for:
A. localization in the overhead-back departments of lungs
B. polymorphism of hearths
C. * increase of amount of hearths from above to the bottom
D. less intensity
E. blurred outline
387. What kinds and forms of MBT are in swingeing majority of cases infecting people?
A. * by bacterial forms of human type of MBT
B. by bacterial forms of bovine type of MBT
C. both bacterial and by L-forms and ultrasmall forms of MBT of human type
D. by L-forms and ultrasmall forms of MBT of human type
E. by the bacterial forms of horse type
388. What from transferred topographical marks is utillized in modern classification for denotation in the
diagnosis of localization and prevalence of process at a tuberculosis?
A. * segment
B. he pulmonary field
C. intercostalis
D. collar-bone
E. ribs
389. What from transferred marks is utillized in modern classification for denotation in the diagnosis of
localization and prevalence of process at a tuberculosis?
A. * particle
B. the pulmonary field
C. area
D. intercostalis
E. region
390. Which of the following phases of tubercular process is not present in classification of tuberculosis?
A. disemination
B. calcification
C. * compression
D. infiltrations
E. destruction
391. What from the transferred diagnosis was plugged in classification of tuberculosis, how tuberculosis of
indefinite localization?
A. * tubercular intoxication
B. turn of tuberculin test
C. hyperergic reaction on a tuberculin
D. negative reaction on a tuberculin
E. a doubtful reaction on a tuberculin
392. Who does from listed patients do not belong to bacterioexcretion?
A. * Mbt is detected by any method once if expliciting sources of bacterioexcretion is absent
B. found out "MBT any method multiple at presence of source of bacterioexcretion
C. found out "MBT discovered by any method multiple at absent of source of bacterioexcretion
D. found out "MBT the method of sowing (3+), singly, in default of clinical information and doubtful
roentgenologic information which testify to activity of process
E. found out "MBT the method of bacterioscopy, singly, at presence of clinicoradiological information
which testify to activity of process
393. With which method and how many times we inspect sputum of patient with cough lasting more then 3
weeks:
A. * 3 scopy
B. 2 scopy and 2 sowing
C. 3 scopy and 3 sowing
D. 3 scopy and 1 sowing
E. 4 scopy, 3 sowing
394. Name the automated system with the use of liquid nourishing environments for the speed-up exposure
of MBT:
A. * BACTEC MGIT 960
B. microscopy of stroke after Cilem-Nil'senom
C. polymerase -chain reaction
D. occupied on the environment of Levenshtein-Yensena
E. reaction of imunobloting
395. What from the transferred ways is a tubercular infection passed in swingeing majority of cases (to
95%)?
A. * to a aerogene(aircraft-drip, dust)
B. to contact (direct, indirect)
C. to natal
D. to inherited
E. to alimentary (food stuffs are from patients with tuberculosis of animals, food stuffs, tableware,
repeatedly infected a sick man)
396. Patients, with the tubercular defeat of what organs is the basic sources of infection?
A. * lungs
B. bones and joints
C. peripheral lymphatic nodes with fistula
D. urinary ways
E. skin
397. What character does a contact from bacteria discharging have a most epidemic danger?
A. * domestic (permanent, protracted)
B. apartment
C. periodic (repeated)
D. casual (non-permanent, "street")
E. production
398. At what method of exposure of MBT in a sputum does a patient have a most epidemic danger?
A. * to the simple bacterioscopy
B. to the luminescent bacterioscopy
C. flotation
D. to a sowing
E. to the biological assay
399. What from the transferred factors is attributed to the number those which influence on infecting and
disease on tuberculosis?
A. * all of answers are faithful
B. the inherited propensity to tuberculosis
C. absence of vaccination, re-vaccination and chemoprophilaxis
D. unfavorable social terms (low quality of life)
E. smoking, use of alcohol
400. What from the transferred morphological elements is specific for tuberculosis?
A. * epithelioid cells, kazeoz
B. histiocytes
C. monocytes
D. alveolar epithelium
E. neutrophils
401. What from the transferred morphological elements is specific for tuberculosis?
A. * giant cells of Pirogova-Langkhansa
B. mononuclear cells
C. erythrocytes
D. segmented neutrophils
E. lymphoid cells
402. What from the transferred morphological elements is specific for tuberculosis?
A. * kazeoz
B. fibroblasts
C. endothelial cells
D. plazmocitarni cells
E. segmented neutrophils
403. Mainly which from the transferred ways does MBT spread at forming of miliary tuberculosis?
A. * to hematogenous
B. to lymphogenous
C. to transplacental
D. to contact
E. to bronchogenic
404. Which from the transferred sources can miliary tuberculosis result from?
A. by affected persons by tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes
B. remaining changes of tuberculosis in lungs
C. remaining changes of tuberculosis of extrapulmonary localizations
D. * all of answers are correct
E. a disease on tuberculosis is in anamnesis
405. What from the noted requirements are needed for forming of miliary tuberculosis?
A. source of MBT
B. bacteriemiya
C. decline of immunity
D. sensitivity of fabrics vessels
E. * all of answers are correct
406. What from the transferred methods of research can be informing for recognition of miliary tuberculosis?
A. research of the bottom of eye
B. * Spiral CT of lungs
C. FZD
D. determination of protein fraction of blood
E. bronchography
407. How does miliary tuberculosis begin usually?
A. * sharply,
B. undulans
C. asymptomaticly
D. gradually
E. subsharply
408. Which from the transferred forms can miliary tuberculosis flow as?
A. * all answers are correct
B. meningeal
C. pulmonary
D. tifoid
E. septic
409. What from the transferred displays is it possible to find out at auscultation patients with miliary
tuberculosis?
A. * all answers are correct
B. vesicular breathing
C. hard breathing
D. weak vesicular breathing
E. littlevesicle wheezes
410. What from the transferred methods of X-ray research most informing for the exposure of miliary
tuberculosis?
A. X-rayscopy
B. * computer tomography
C. tomography
D. fluorography
E. radiography
411. Which symptoms are specific for cirrhotic tuberculosis?
A. * periodic aggravation of process
B. protracted bacterial examination
C. fresh bronchogenic semination
D. presence of cavity
E. high body temperature
412. What from the transferred signs does distinguish cirrhotic tuberculosis from a cirrhosis lungs?
A. * presence of active tubercular hearths among a cirrhosis
B. calcification pleura
C. change of mediastinum in an opposite side
D. by volume diminishing of affected lungs (particles)
E. massive excrescence of cicatrical tissue
413. What term is a fibrosna-cavernous white plague usually formed during?
A. * 2
B. 1 year
C. 6 months
D. 3
E. 5 years
414. Most frequent symptom of fibro-cavernous tuberculosis?
A. * all answers are correct
B. hemoptysis, bleeding
C. intoxication
D. shortness of breath
E. cough with a sputum
415. What from the transferred symptoms typical for a fibrosna-cavernous white plague?
A. * all of answers are correct
B. narrowing of mediastinal intervals on the side of greater defeat
C. more pronounced subclavian and upperclavian fossa on the side of greater defeat
D. landslide of trachea toward a greater defeat
E. by "volume diminishing of hemotoraks on the side of greater defeat
416. What variant of motion can be observed for patients with a fibrosna-cavernous white plague all answers
are correct, except ?
A. * rapid regression of process
B. preference of complications
C. relative stability of process
D. rapid progress
E. slow progress
417. What from the transferred complications more frequent all does develop for patients with a
fibrocavernous tuberculosis?
A. * chronic pulmonary heart
B. hemoptysis, pulmonary bleeding
C. adrenal insufficiency
D. spontaneous pneumothorax
E. amiloidosis of internalss
418. Which from the transferred forms of tuberculosis is a fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis usually formed
from?
A. * infiltrative, disseminated
B. focal
C. tuberculoma
D. primary tubercular complex
E. cirrhotic
419. What from the transferred elements can appear at research of sputum only for patients with
tuberculosis?
A. * epitelioid cells
B. pieces of lime
C. constant elastic fibres which keep an alveolar structure
D. constant elastic fibres as snatches
E. caltificated fibres
420. From overhead respiratory tracts by tuberculosis more frequent of all struck:
A. * larynx
B. pharynx
C. gums
D. tonsils
E. tongue
421. What form of tuberculosis of bronchial tubes is bacterio excretion often marked at?
A. * fistula
B. to infiltrative
C. tumor
D. to ulcerous
E. focal
422. Broncholithiasis more frequent of all shows up:
A. * by symptoms of chronic bronchitis or pneumonia
B. sharp (knife-like) pain in a thorax
C. by attacks of difficulty in breathing
D. to hemoptisis
E. by a painful cough
423. The main method of tuberculous endobronchitis diagnosis:
A. Mantoux test with 2TU
B. * bronchoscopy, histologycal
C. Koch test
D. by a polymerase chain reaction
E. observative X-ray
424. Consider tuberculosis of bronchial tubes:
A. * the limited infiltration of bronchial tube
B. stenosis of bronchial tube
C. broncholithiasis
D. atelectasis
E. fibrosis
425. Basic objective symptom of fibrogenial pleurisy:
A. * noise of friction of pleura, pain in a thorax
B. cough
C. shortness of breath
D. moist wheezes
E. intoxication
426. What diseases can remind pain at a tubercular pleurisy?
A. * all of answers are correct
B. angina
C. osteochondrosis
D. maist
E. mediastenal neuralgia
427. What from the transferred changes can appear at x-ray research of thorax for persons who have a
fibrinosis pleurisy?
A. * all of answers are correct
B. calcification of pleura
C. different localization pleura accretions
D. diffuse dimness of the pulmonary field
E. fibrotic stratifications
428. What from diagnostic receptions can be used for establishment of tubercular etiology of fibrinosis
pleurisy?
A. test of Koch
B. trial treatment of AMBP in default of effect from preparations of wide spectrum
C. * all of answers are correct
D. exception of other illnesses which can be accompanied by affection of pleura
E. pleuroscopy with next biopsy of pleura
429. How can a tubercular exsudate pleurisy begin?
A. * all of answers are correct
B. sharply
C. subsharply
D. sharply from prodromes
E. asymptomatic (effusion appears at prophylactic fluorography)
430. What from the transferred methods are the most informative for establishment of diagnosis of exsudate
pleurisy?
A. * pleura puncture
B. rentgenoscopy
C. x-ray
D. auscultation
E. percussion
431. Which of the transferred indexes are typical for patients with a tubercular serosal pleurisy at research of
pleura effusion?
A. * all of answers are correct
B. absence or single cells of mezoteliyu
C. lymphocytes (90 - 100%)
D. protein 30-60 grammes/l
E. density 1,015-1,022 kg/l
432. Which of the transferred indexes are more frequently observed for patients with a tubercular exsudate
pleurisy at research of pleura effusion?
A. protein more 60 grammes/l
B. density below 1,012 kg/l
C. * lymphocytes (90 - 100%)
D. erythrocytes
E. negative reaction of Rivalt
433. At what diseases does pleura effusion more frequently has transsudative character all is correct, except:
A. all of answers are correct
B. to stagnant cardiac insufficiency
C. 20 nephrotical syndrome
D. 20 cirrhosis of liver
E. * TELA
434. What from the transferred methods are the most informative for establishment of tubercular etiology of
exsudate pleurisy in default of MBT in effusion?
A. * biopsy of pleura (puncture, during thoracoskopy, opened)
B. trial treatment by antiphthisic preparations
C. trial treatment by preparations of wide spectrum of action
D. clinicoradiological
E. exception of diseases the symptom of which can be pleura effusion
435. Tubercular pleurisy as independent clinical form of tuberculosis –it is:
A. * tubercular defeat of pleura with pouring out of lymphogenic or hematogennogo genesis of hillocks
and formation of fibrosna-cavernous effusion, now and then as an empyema
B. specific defeat of pleura which serosal pleura effusion of lymphocytic character accumulates at, now
and then as an empyema
C. reaction of pleura on the tubercular defeat of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes as exudation
D. and fibrosa or serosal effusion, now and then as an empyema
E. specific defeat of pleura of hematogenous genesis, as an empyema
436. Disseminated tuberculosis is characterized:
A. * by a presence, usually in both lungs, hearths of dissemination of hematogenous, now and then
lymphogenic or mixed genesis, different remoteness, with different correlation of exsudate and
productive inflammation; by sharp, subsharp and chronic motion
B. to a pouring out of plural of hearths of dissemination of hematogenous or bronchogenic genesis in
intersticial fabric of both lungs with sharp, subsharp and chronic motion of disease
C. different genesis and remoteness pouring out of hearths of dissemination in both lungs with sharp,
subsharp or chronic motion of process
D. by a presence of single hearths of dissemination in both lungs with sharp and subsharp motion
E. to a pouring out of single hearths of dissemination of hematogenous or bronchogenic genesis in
intersticial fabric one-sided
437. Focal tuberculosis is characterized:
A. * by a presence of different genesis and remoteness of small (to 10 mm in a diameter) hearths of
mainly productive character within the limits of 1-2 segments in one or both lungs and
oligosymptomatic motion
B. to a pouring out of two-bit of shallow (to 1-1,5 see) hearths of lymphobronchogenous genesis in the
apexes of lungs
C. by a presence of lymphobronchogenous genesis of hearths to 1,0 see in a diameter, mainly productive
character in the apex of one or both lungs
D. by a presence of different genesis and remoteness of small (to 2 see) hearths of mainly productive
character
E. to a pouring out of two-bit of shallow (to 1sm) hearths of lymphobronchogenous genesis in the
apexes of lungs
438. Infiltrative tuberculosis - is:
A. * specific exsudate-pneumonic process by a size more 10 mm with propensity to making progress
motion
B. different size infiltration of pulmonary fabric with a caseson core, with propensity to disintegration
C. infiltration of pulmonary fabric from during more 1-1,5 with the expressed clinical displays and
propensity to disintegration
D. productive character in the apex of one or both lights
E. by a presence of different genesis and remoteness of small (to 2 see) hearths of mainly productive
character
439. Caseson pneumonia - it:
A. * sharp specific pneumonia which is characterized by quickly increasing caseos-necrotic changes and
heavy, quite often by quickly making progress motion with lethal investigation
B. caseson-necrotic process of large draught with quickly making progress motion
C. quickly making progress process with large caseson-necrotic changes with heavy, quite often lethal
investigation
D. quickly making progress process with large cavities, by quickly making progress motion with lethal
investigation
E. quickly making progress process with large caseson-necrotic changes with easy motion
440. Tuberculoma of lungs - is:
A. * various genesis, as a rule, incapsulated, mainly caseson formation more 10 mm in a diameter, with
an insignificant clinic
B. caseson focus is "incapsulated with a diameter more 1,5 with an insignificant clinic and
asymptomatic motion
C. focus of caseson, surrounded a thin fibrotic capsule diametrom more 1 with torpid motion
D. caseson focus is incapsulated with a diameter less than 1 with a bright clinic and stormy motion
E. various genesis, neinkapsulevane, mainly kazeozne education more 2 see in a diameter, with a bright
clinic
441. A fibro-cavernous tuberculosis is characterized:
A. * by a presence of fibrotic cavity, development of fibrotic changes in pulmonary fabric round a
cavity, hearths of bronchogenous contamination in that and (or) opposite lungs, permanent or
periodic bacterial excretion, chronic undulating, as a rule, by making progress motion
B. by "chronic undulating motion of fibro-cavernous process from contamination and quite often - by
complications
C. by a "fibro-cavernous process from bacterial excretion not less 2th annual remoteness and by chronic
undulating motion
D. by a fibro-cavernous process without bacterial excretion , with sharp motion
E. by development of fibrotic changes in pulmonary fabric, absence of cavities, permanent or periodic
bacterial excretion
442. Miliary tuberculosis - it:
A. * hematogenous, almost always generalized form of tuberculosis which is characterized the even,
abundant pouring out of shallow, from millet grain of tubercular humps in the interstitium of lungs
and, as a rule, in other organs
B. sharp hematogenous-disseminated tuberculosis with pouring out in lungs, and sometimes in other
organs of miliary genesis and remoteness hematogenous-disseminated process which is characterized
by pouring out in lungs plural, mainly exsudate miliary humps
C. different genesis and remoteness hematogenous-disseminated process which is characterized by the
single pouring out in lungs, sometimes in other organs
D. by a presence of fibrotic cavity, development of fibrotic changes in pulmonary fabric round a cavity,
hearths of bronchogenous contamination in that and (or) opposite lungs, permanent or periodic
bacterial excretion, chronic undulating, as a rule, by making progress motion
E. sharp specific pneumonia which is characterized by quickly increasing caseson-necrotic changes and
heavy, quite often by quickly making progress motion with lethal investigation
443. A cirrhotic tuberculosis is characterized:
A. * to large excrescences of cicatrical fabric, which active tubercular hearths which stipulate the
periodic sharpening and scanty bacterial excretion are saved among
B. by a posttubercular cirrhosis lungs with the periodic sharpening, bronchogenic contamination and
bacterial excretion
C. by fibro-cavernous changes with preference of cirrhosis, scanty bacterial excretion, chronic torpid,
with different complications by motion
D. to insignificant excrescences of cicatrical fabric, by fibro-cavernous changes with preference of
cirrhosis
E. by a posttubercular cirrhosis lungs without bacterial excretion
444. Define a main factor which is instrumental in the origin of caseous pneumonia:
A. the immunodeficient state of organism
B. all of answers are not correct
C. * all of answers are correct
D. becoming more frequent of medicinal stabiliti of MBT
E. becoming more frequent of tuberculosis among a population
445. What distributing of cosous pneumonia is depending on a gender:
A. * men are more "frequently ill
B. women are more "frequently ill
C. men and women are ill identically often
D. not established
E. more often men are ill
446. Caseous pneumonia begins usually:
A. * acute
B. undulance course
C. gradually
D. asymptomaticly
E. inaperceptno
447. What from the transferred symptoms are characteristic for cousous pneumonia:
A. * all of answers are correct
B. confused consciousness, adinamiya
C. cachexy
D. dyspnea
E. swelling of the legs
448. A focal shade is:
A. Dark patch in a diameter up to 0,2 sm.
B. Dark patch 0,2 - 0,4 sm in a diameter.
C. Dark patch 0,5 - 1,0 sm in a diameter.
D. Dark patch in a diameter to 1,0 sm.
E. * Dark patch from 1,0 to 2,0 sm in a diameter.
449. A cloud-like darkening of the upper part of the right lung with a lightening in the center, to the left
paracardially a group of small intensity nidi have been revealed during fluorographic examination of a
female patient, 30, suffering from a stomach ulcer. A preliminary diagnosis.
A. * Infiltrative tuberculosis.
B. Lung tuberculoma.
C. Fibrous cavernous tuberculosis.
D. Caseous pneumonia.
E. Disseminated tuberculosis.
450. A darkening of medium intensity with a lightening in the center and a path to the root has been revealed
to the right beneath the clavicle of a patient B., 40, during fluorographic examination. He feels well.
Formulate the preliminary diagnosis.
A. Primary tuberculous complex.
B. * Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Lung tuberculoma.
D. Fibrous cavernous tuberculosis.
E. Caseous pneumonia.
451. A group of shadows of small and medium intensity of 3-8 mm in diameter has been revealed in the
upper part of the right lung in a patient of 25 years old on a fluorogoram. The patient’s state is
satisfactory. Mantoux test with 2 TU – 16 mm infiltrate. What disease is the most probable one?
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Eosinophil infiltration
C. Nidus pneumonia
D. * Nidus lung tuberculosis
E. Peripheral lung cancer
452. A round shadow with wave-like outer contours was found in the 3-rd segment of the left lung of a man
of 60 during a fluorographic examination. There were single calcinates in the roots. ESR – 62 mm/hr.
What illness can be suspected?
A. * Periferal cancer.
B. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Disseminated tuberculosis.
D. Lung tuberculoma.
E. Focal tuberculosis.
453. About which duration of disease does the most often indicate patients during gathering of anamnesis?
A. 3-4 days.
B. 1-2 weeks.
C. Below 1 year.
D. * 1-2 months.
E. 4-5 years and more.
454. Amiloidosis is a system disease, it complicates the chronic purulent processes in the organism and is
characterized by the violations of:
A. Carbon metabolism.
B. * Albumen metabolism
C. Metabolism of fats
D. Vitamin exchange
E. Acid-alkaline equilibrium
455. An urgent aid at a valvate spontaneous pneumothorax.
A. Fibrobronchoscopy
B. Artificial lung ventilation
C. * Pleural cavity drainage
D. Respiratory gymnastics
E. Strict bed rest
456. At the absence of positive treatment dynamics during 2-4 months the patients with lungs tuberculosis
are prescribed for:
A. * Economical resection of a lung
B. Pneumonectomy
C. Decortication of a lesion of lung
D. Hormonotherapy
E. Antimycobacterial therapy up to 6-8 months
457. Fluorographic examination has been conducted for a patient 25, on the occasion of the complains of the
raising of body temperature and cough, as a result of which darkening of small intensity of 4,0-5,0 cm in
diameter with the destruction present has been revealed in the upper part of the right lung. MBT has been
revealed in sputum. What rales will be the most characteristic for such changes in lungs?
A. Disseminated rales
B. Diffused single rales
C. * Local rales
D. Moist and dry rales along lung lesion
E. Moist rales in lower parts of lungs
458. For a patient a "fork" symptom is determined. What do pathological changes we think about?
A. Primary tubercular complex
B. Spontaneous pneumothorax.
C. * Cirrhosis of lung.
D. Dry pleurisy.
E. Tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodus.
459. For how many criterias do we estimate the quality of technical implementation of survey sciagram?
A. 1.
B. * 2.
C. 3.
D. 4.
E. 5.
460. Formulating the clinical diagnosis of lung tuberculosis, first of all should be defined:
A. The process phase
B. The clinical form
C. Bacterial secretion
D. Localisation process
E. * Type of tuberculuos process
461. From how many parts does the root of lung consist of? (roentgenologicaly)
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. * 3.
D. 4.
E. 5.
462. From what age and in what terms is mass tuberculinization performed:
A. * From 12-months age, annually
B. From 12-months age, once in 2-3 years
C. At 7 and 14 years of age only
D. From 7 up to 14 years annually
E. From 7 and each 5 years up to 30-years old age
463. From wich clinic form of tuberculosis most often forms fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Tuberculoma.
B. Tuberculous primary complex
C. * Infiltrative form.
D. Focal form.
E. Cirrotic form.
464. Haemoptysis appeared in a day after hyperinsolation of a girl of 17. No pathologic changes were found
in the lungs of fluorography six months ago. Damp middle-blistered rales are heard beneath the right
clavicle, Mantoux test with 2 TU – 23 mm infiltrate. What changes in lungs can one think about?
A. Spontaneus pneumothorax.
B. Lung tuberculosis.
C. Multiple nidi.
D. Cirrhosis of a lung.
E. * Decay cavities.
465. How do tuberculosis patients explain the weight loss more frequently?
A. Appetite worsening
B. Taste distortion, disgusting to the separate types of meal
C. Economy on the meal
D. * They can not explain, because appetite and rhythm of feed are remained ordinary
E. Wishing to lose flesh
466. How many segments can be in left lung?
A. 8-11.
B. 8-12.
C. * 9-10.
D. 9-11.
E. 9-12.
467. How often does the second medicinal firmness of MBT develop to antimycobacterial medications in
patients with tuberculosis?
A. 1-5%.
B. 5-10%.
C. 10 - 20 %.
D. 20-40%.
E. * 50 - 60 %.
468. If there is the positive reaction on the tuberculin with 2 TU on the skin of antebrachium there can be
visible:
A. * Infiltrate by the size of 5 –16 mm
B. Infiltrate with a vesicle in the centre
C. Hyperemia more than 5 mm
D. Infiltrate by the size more than 16 mm
E. Infiltrate by the size of 2-4 mm
469. In how many times contact persons are more frequently ill , than uncontacts with tuberculosis?
A. 2-4.
B. * -10.
C. 15-20.
D. 25-30.
E. 31-35.
470. In order to lower the pressure in the system of the pulmonary artery, one should prescribe.
A. Penicyllin, camphorae, arphonad
B. * Atropin, euphilin, ganglioblockers
C. Isoniazidum, atropin, uterics
D. Oxygen, camphor, trombin
E. Dicinin, epsilon-aminocapronic acid, nitrosorbid
471. In patient with tuberculosis under a left shoulder-blade we can hear medium rales. What do such
changes testify about?
A. Focal changes in pulmonary tissue.
B. Bronchitis.
C. * Presence of cavities of disintegration.
D. Spontaneous pneumothorax.
E. Atelectasis
472. In progressing focal tuberculosis able proceed to other clinical forms of tuberculosis. In which form
focal tuberculosis usually not proceed directly?
A. Infiltrative pulmonary tuberculosis.
B. Disseminated pulmonary tuberculosis.
C. Pulmonary tuberculoma.
D. Caseous pneumonia.
E. * Fibrous cavernous tuberculosis.
473. In stomach and duodenal ulcer patient, who was prepared for operation, an active tuberculosis was
discovered.What is the best doctor’s tactic ?
A. Treatment of tuberculosis after an operation.
B. Operation is combined with beginning of tuberculosis treatment.
C. * Operation after stabilizing of specific process.
D. Operation is only in 2 years from the beginning of tuberculosis treatment.
E. Operation is absolutely contra-indicated.
474. In the patient 1 month after the completed treatment of infiltrative tuberculosis of upper particle of right
lung, appeared intermittent rise in temperature up to 37,1-37,2°C and coughing. It was made an
extraordinary roentgenological inspection - changes weren`t discovered in lungs. What roentgenological
method is expedient to use for visualization of the changes of bronchial tubes of upper particle of right
lung?
A. Sciagraphy.
B. * Bronchography.
C. Rentgenoscopy.
D. Tomography.
E. Spot-film sciagraphy.
475. In the patient of 20 years on the fluorography inspection in the apex-back segment of the left lung found
out area of dark patch small intensity with unclear contours up to 1sm in a diameter. To what
roentgenological syndrome does the founded out formation belong to?
A. clearing up syndrome.
B. round shade syndrome.
C. * focal shades syndrome.
D. the changed focal picture syndrome.
E. Desimination syndrome
476. ?In the patient of 35 years it was first found out infiltrative tuberculosis of the overhead particle of the
right lung with the presence of destructive changes. On the survey sciagram cavity of disintegration we
can see unclear. What does roentgenological method of research need to be applied for visualization of
cavity?
A. Bronchography.
B. Fluorography.
C. Lateral sciagraphy.
D. * Tomography
E. Radioxerography.
477. In what age of men tuberculosis disease is the most reliable?
A. * 20-29 years
B. 30-39 years
C. 50-59 years
D. 60-69 years
E. above 70 years
478. In what age of women tuberculosis disease is the most reliable?
A. 20-29 years
B. * 30-39 years
C. 40-49 years
D. 50-59 years
E. above 60 years
479. In what percentage of people tuberculosis is caused by M. bovis?
A. 1-2%.
B. * 3-5%.
C. 10-20%.
D. 25-30%.
E. 35-50%.
480. Indicate the incorrect formulation of clinical diagnosis of lung tuberculosis
A. FDTB (16.06.2003) of the lungs upper sections (disseminated), Destr +, (infiltration ), MBT +M+C+,
Resist -, Hist 0, Cat1 Coh2(2003).
B. CTB (12.01.2000) the upper section of the right lung (fibrous-cavernous), Destr +, (infiltration),
MBT +M-C+ Resist I (S, H) Hist0. Lung haemoptysis. RI II, Cat 4 Coh1(2000).
C. FDTB (20.03.2001) of the lower part of the right lung (tuberculoma), Destr +, MBT- M-C-, Hist 0,
Cat1 Coh1(2001).
D. * FDTB (20.09.2003), (nidus tuberculosis), (infiltration), MBT-M-C-, Hist 0, Cat3 Coh3(2003).
E. RTB (20.06.2003) of the upper part of the right lung (infiltrative), Destr -, MBT- M-C-, Hist 0, Cat2
Coh2(2003).
481. Infiltrative tuberculosis of the upper part of the right lung in decay phase has been revealed in a patient,
MBT (+). What breathily murmurs do you expect to hear above the area lesion?
A. Dry whistling rales
B. Crepitation
C. Murmur of pleural rub
D. Bronchial breathing
E. * Local moist rales
482. Is it possible to vaccinate a newborn child which borned |from a mother sick with tuberculosis?
A. Absolutely contra-indicated in any case.
B. * It is possible, if a child does not have contra-indications and was immediately isolated from |mother
after childbearing.
C. It is possible, but needed to do Mantaex test before vaccinate.
D. Contra-indicated, if mother is sick with destructive tuberculosis.
E. It is possible, if mother accepted antimycobacterial drugs during pregnancy.
483. Koch’s testing is used for:
A. Prophylaxis of tuberculosis
B. Early tuberculosis revealing
C. Determination of infection index of population with tuberculosis
D. * Differential diagnostics of infectious and postvaccinal allergy
E. Revealing the persons with the increased risk of tuberculosis illness
484. Maximum number of segments affected at nidus lung tuberculosis.
A. 1
B. * 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
485. Maximum size of shadows at nidus lung tuberculosis is:
A. 1 mm
B. 1,5 mm
C. 5 mm
D. * 10 mm
E. 25 mm
486. More frequently the spontaneous pneumothorax in patients with lungs tuberculosis appear:
A. At fibrobronchoscopy
B. During pleural puncture
C. At cavern wall rupture
D. * At subpleural emphysematous bubbles rupture
E. At pneumotachometria
487. Nidal shades of medium intensity with vague contours were revealed on the left apex of a 20-years old
youth during fluorographic examination. His general state is good. Mantoux test with 2 TU – 19 mm
infiltrate. Your preliminary diagnosis?
A. Primary tuberculous complex.
B. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Disseminated tuberculosis.
D. Lung tuberculoma.
E. * Focal tuberculosis.
488. On base of which infiltrative most often evolve lobar caseous pneumonia?
A. Round.
B. Lobular.
C. Periscysurite.
D. Like a cloud.
E. Lobitis.
489. On the background of what complications of lungs tuberculosis caseous pneumonia is the most
frequent?
A. Pulmonary haemoptysis
B. Spontaneous pneumothorax
C. Larynx tuberculosis
D. Amyloidosis of kidney
E. Atelectasis of particle lung
490. Percussion note with tympanic tinge, amphoric respiration at auscultative above the upper part of the
right lung in a tuberculosis patient. What should be changes in lungs thought about?
A. Infiltration of the lung tissue
B. Lung cirrhosis
C. Atelectasis
D. * Large cavern
E. Spontaneous pneumothorax
491. Plan a specific treatment to a patient with FDTB (03.03.2001) of the upper part of the right lung
(caseous pneumonia), Destr+, MBT+M+C+, Resist-, HIST0, Cat1 Coh1(2001). The patient is 45, weight
– 46 kg. His general condition is difficult. There is no accompanying pathology. Prescribe
antimycobacterial preparations.
A. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + streptomycini.
B. Isoniazidum + pyrazinamidum
C. * Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + streptomycini + pyrazinamidum .
D. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum.
E. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + ethambutolum.
492. Primary forms of tuberculosis comprise:
A. Nidus
B. Disseminated
C. * Tuberculosis intoxication
D. Caseous pneumonia
E. Infiltrative
493. Procoagulative action preparations.
A. Camphor
B. * Dicinon
C. Benzohexoniy
D. Amben
E. Atropin
494. Single nidal shades of small intensity with vague contours were revealed on the apex of both lungs of a
19-years old woman patient during the prophylactic fluorographyc examination. What is the clinical form
of tuberculosis?
A. Infiltrative
B. Lung tuberculoma
C. * Nidus
D. Caseous pneumonia
E. Disseminated
495. Small and average nidi of little intensity have been revealed on the apex of the right lung during
fluorographic examination of a man aged 30. During the last month he notes the decrease of the appetite,
perspiration, inconsiderable cough. Prescribe of antimicobacterial therapy on the 1-st stage.
A. * Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + pyrazinamidum
B. Isoniazidum + pyrazinamidum
C. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + streptomycini + pyrazinamidum + ethambutolum.
D. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum.
E. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + ethambutolum.
496. Specific complications comprise:
A. Haemophthisis
B. Chronic lung heart
C. Lung atelectasis
D. * Larynx tuberculosis
E. Amyloidosis disease
497. The characteristic phase of tuberculous process progression is:
A. Suction
B. * Sowing
C. Condensation
D. Scarring
E. Calcination
498. The frequency of lung haemorrage in lung tuberculosis patients.
A. 1-2 %
B. 3-5 %
C. * 6-19 %
D. 20-25 %
E. 30-35 %
499. The greatest importance for the confirmation of lung atelectasis diagnosis is:
A. USE
B. Pneumotachometry
C. Roentgenoscopy
D. Computer tomography
E. * Bronchoscopy
500. The most rational combination of antimycobacterial preparations at the initial stage in patients with lung
tuberculoma, MBT (-).
A. Isonoazidum + streptomycini + rifampycini
B. * Isonoazidum + rifampycini + pyrazinamidum
C. Isonoazidum + streptomycini + pyrazinamidum
D. Isonoazidum + pyrazinamidum + PASA
E. Rifampycini + ethionamidum + kanamycini
501. The most trustworthy criteria of nidal tuberculosis activity.
A. Intoxication syndrome
B. Changes in haemogram
C. * Revealing of micobacteria tuberculosis
D. Nidus shadow of medium intensity with distinct contours
E. Positive Mantoux testing of 2 TU
502. The predominant segmental localization of tuberculosis infiltration
A. I, II, III segments
B. I, III, V segments
C. I, IV, V segments
D. * I, II, VI segments
E. II, VI IX segments
503. The prognosis and course of which illness is not favourable at tuberculosis in combination with
diabetes|?
A. Always of tuberculosis.
B. Always of diabetes.
C. Of both diseases.
D. * That illness,| which arose up the first.
E. That illness,| which arose up the second.
504. The prophylactic photoroentgenographic examination of a 25-year-old patient showed in segments 1-2
of the left lung focal shadows of low intensity without distinct contours. Mantoux test with 2 TO – 7 mm
infiltrate. Blood analysis: leuk. – 9,9 x 109/l, ESR – 26 mm/hour. Which is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Nidus lung tuberculosis
B. Infiltrative lung tuberculosis
C. Nidus pneumonia
D. Lung cancer
E. Eosiniphil infiltration
505. The sensitivity of organism to tuberculin may be intensified with:
A. Senile age
B. Lymphogranulomatosis
C. Lymphosarcoma
D. Treatment with immunodepressants
E. * Bronchial asthma
506. To the primary forms of tuberculosis belong:
A. Disseminated
B. Nidus
C. Infiltrative
D. Tuberculoma
E. * Tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes
507. To which category relate patients of caseous pneumonia?
A. * To first.
B. To third.
C. To second.
D. To forth.
E. To fifth.
508. To which dispensary category does patient with first diagnosed infiltrative pulmonary tuberculosis in
disintegration stage and availability bacterioexcretion belong ?
A. * To first.
B. To third.
C. To second.
D. To fourth.
E. To fifth.
509. Under the mask of what diseases is tuberculosis infiltrate the most frequent?
A. Peripheral lung cancer
B. Retention cyst
C. * Pneumonia
D. Eosinophile infiltrate
E. Aspergiloma
510. What is the method of provocation of wheezes for patients with tuberculosis?
A. deep breathing
B. breathing through the mouth.
C. * deep inhalation after the easy coughing.
D. breathing through the nose.
E. quiet breathing
511. What types of MBT are the most pathogenic for a human being?
A. M. Africanum.
B. M Avium.
C. M. Bovinus.
D. * M.Tuberculosis.
E. Kansasii.
512. What |are the indications to fluorography of the patient with diabetes?
A. After carried hyperglycemic| and hypoglycemic comma.
B. After carried a flu or pneumonia.
C. After any operative interference .
D. At appearance of symptoms, which are characteristic for tuberculosis or hyperergy reaction.|
E. * All these sings.
513. What are the main principles of tuberculosis treatment during pregnancy?
A. To begin treatment only after childbearing.
B. * Treatment by generally accepted principles .
C. Obligatory breaking the pregnancy regardless of process.
D. The dynamic looking after the motion of process. At progressing - immediate treatment.
E. The treatment should be performed immediately after revealing active tuberculosis.
514. What are the most dangerous periods that contributing to aggravation, recurrence and progressing of old
tubercular hearths for pregnant ?
A. The second month of pregnancy.
B. The fifth month of pregnancy.
C. The last weeks before childbearing.
D. The first 6 months after childbearing.
E. * All marked periods are dangerous.
515. What are the most frequent segmental localization of the second forms of tuberculosis of lungs?
A. * I, II, III segments.
B. II, III, IV segments.
C. III, V, VI segments.
D. I, II, VI segments.
E. II, III, X segments.
516. What are the roentgenologic| signs of tuberculosis in diabetes patients?
A. Infiltrative tuberculosis, more frequent cloudsimilar infiltration, polysegmentation infiltration or lobit
||.
B. Bilateral infiltration | in lower particles of lung (caused by reactivation of| process in |intrathoracic
lymphatic nodes with lymphogenic| and |bronchogenic eruption).
C. Large tuberculoma with undistinct contours, perifocal inflammation, which is able to decay.
D. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis (with severe progressive course, can be complicated by caseous|
pneumonia).
E. * All these signs.
517. What are the terms of appearance of tuberculosis’s mycobacterium growth on hard nourishing
environments?
A. 2-3 days.
B. 7-14 days.
C. * 3-4 weeks.
D. 3-5 months.
E. 6 months.
518. What are typical complications for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Tuberculosis bronchus.
B. Bronchogenic dissemination.
C. Tuberculosis larynx.
D. Tuberculosis colitis.
E. * All with above.
519. What biochemical components of MBT cause their firmness to acids, alkalis and alcohols?.
A. Albumen
B. Hydrocarbon
C. * Lipids
D. Polysaccharide.
E. Mineral salts.
520. What character does temperature curve at tuberculosis carry usually?
A. Constant
B. One-day
C. Hectic
D. Three-day
E. * None of the above
521. What character of pain in a thorax at “fresh” uncomplicated lung tuberculosis is the most typical?
A. Attackable
B. * Constant
C. Sanestopathetic
D. Migrated
E. Phantomlike
522. What character of sputum at uncomplicated lung tuberculosis is most reliable?
A. * Slime, transparent
B. Bright-yellow
C. Green-yellow
D. Green with a sharp odour
E. Rusty
523. What character of sputum secretion at uncomplicated lung tuberculosis is most typical?
A. The sputum is secreted mainly in the morning after smoking in an amount of 10-15 ml
B. * The sputum is secretion during a day in an amount of 30-100 ml
C. Liquid waterly sputum is secreted constantly to 1,5-2,0 l for a day
D. A patient can tell, when thick stinking sputum was one-time secreted by “full mouth”
E. Viscous sputum is secreted after completion of asthma attacks only
524. What clinic symptoms are the most typical for tuberculoma?
A. * Sometime subfebrile state, minor cough, possible absent of complains.
B. Strong cough, pain in chest, shortness of breath.
C. High temperature, chill, pain in chest, purulent spew.
D. Cough, spew with unpleasant smell, hyperhidrosis, spew with blood.
E. Pain in chest. Spew with blood, Shortness of breath.
525. What clinical course is typical for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. * Wavy, with remission and exacerbation.
B. Acute, progressive.
C. Near acute.
D. Without symptoms or with few symptoms.
E. Quick feedback.
526. What clinical form of tuberculosis is tuberculoma formed from most frequently?
A. Disseminated
B. Fibrous-cavernous
C. Cirrhotic
D. Nidus
E. * Infiltrative
527. What clinical presentation is the most typical for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Long remissions.
B. * Chronic clinical course.
C. Absent any remissions.
D. Periods of remissions alternate with acute conditions.
E. Permanent progress of process.
528. What clinical presentation is typical for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. No complaints or cough with minor spew. Sometime local humid wheeze.
B. * Cough with spew, breathlessness, sometime spew with blood. Time to time high temperature,
hyperhidrosis. Local humid wheeze. During remission – good state of health.
C. Cough, spew with objectionable odor. During worsening – high temperature, hyperhidrosis,
sometime spew with blood. Humid and dry wheeze. “Drumsticks”.
D. Pain in thorax, often sputum with blood, breathlessness, diminished breath sounds, sometime humid
or dry local wheeze.
E. No complaints.Time to time dry cough. Temperature is normal (inflammation is able to raise
temperature). Auscultatory data are small.
529. What combination of antituberculosis medicines is the most suitable at first revealed small
tuberculoma?
A. * Isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide.
B. Streptomycin, isoniazid, rifampicin.
C. Streptomycin, rifampicin, ethambutol.
D. Amikacin, kanamycin, pyrazinamide,
E. Rifampicin, ofloxacin, pyrazinamide.
530. What components of lungs tissue are not visible on a sciagram?
A. Roots of lungs.
B. Dig vascular barrels.
C. The walls of bronchial tubes.
D. * Teeth ridges.
E. Interstice of lungs.
531. What constituent combinations of MBT are the basic transmitters of antigens’ characteristic features?
A. * Albumen
B. Hydrocarbon
C. Lipids
D. Polysaccharide.
E. Mineral salts.
532. What contraindication to surgery for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis patient?
A. * Wide distribution of the focus of disease.
B. Bronchiectasis is present.
C. Bleeding in lungs.
D. Resistivity to 2 antituberculous medications.
E. Wide bacterioexcretion.
533. What course is the most typical for tuberculoma?
A. Gradual progressive worsening.
B. * Few symptoms or without symptoms.
C. Acute start. Quick worsening.
D. Near acute. Like influenza or pneumonia.
E. Acute start. Quick reverse evolution due chemical medications.
534. What course is typical for tuberculosis which arises at first time after the childbearing?
A. Rapid reversed development.
B. * Rapid progressing with expressed clinical symptomatic|.
C. Slow reversed development.
D. Poor symptomatic |motion.
E. Initially chronic motion.
535. What disease anamnesis is the most characteristic for lung tuberculosis?
A. A patient felt ill acute three day ago, nowadays the state is some improved
B. * A patient considers himself to be ill a few months
C. A patient considers himself to be ill “all life”, repeatedly inspected without a result
D. A patient notes the state worsening every fourth day
E. A patient notes the state worsening at reduction of light day every year
536. What disease can a "fork" symptom be determined at?
A. Miliary tuberculosis.
B. Tuberculoma
C. Dry pleurisy.
D. * Cirrotic tuberculosis .
E. Silicotuberculosis.
537. What disease can assist development of tuberculosis?
A. Essential hypertension.
B. Infectious mononucleosis|.
C. * Ulcer of the stomach and duodenum.
D. All marked disease.
E. Nothing of transferred.
538. ?What do patients with the unfolded clinical picture of tuberculosis, regardless to the localization of the
process complain of?
A. * Weakness, excessive perspiration, loss of weight, promoted temperature of body
B. Attacks of stuffiness at the change of weather
C. Disturbance of sensitiveness, “creeping of ants” in extremities
D. Consciousness blank
E. Headache, pain in abdomen without clear localization
539. What does cause the pain at “fresh” uncomplicated tuberculosis?
A. Lung tissue decay
B. Expressed exudation in a lung tissue
C. Bronch`s lesion
D. * Pleura`s lesion
E. Prevailing productive reaction
540. What feature is typical for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis in our time?
A. * Complications by not specific inflammatory processes.
B. Frequent evolution of of internal amyloidosis.
C. Profuse bleeding in lungs.
D. Frequent aspergillosis.
E. Evolution of tuberculous meningoencephalitis.
541. What form do normal roots of lungs have?
A. Optus corner opened aside pulmonary field.
B. Triangle, by the apex turned to middle shade.
C. * Sector of a circle.
D. Rectangle.
E. Complex polycyclic figure.
542. What forms of tuberculosis prevail for stomach and duodenal ulcer patients after the resection of
stomach?
A. Primary tuberculous complex.
B. Out of lungs tuberculous processes.
C. * Infiltrative and exsudative forms of tuberculosis with propensity to progress, formation of plural
destructions and bronchogenic dissemination.
D. Chronic forms of tuberculosis.
E. Tuberculous mesadenitis.
543. What from transferred is characteristic for a tuberculous process on the late stages of HIV-infection|?
A. The expressed durable intoxication with negative Mantaex test.
B. Diffuse infiltrates| in upper, middle and lower lung sections.
C. Mainly |out of lungs defeats, enlargement of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes, lymphadenopathia
D. In the halves of patients – MBT absence from the sputum||.
E. * All transferred .
544. What illness is the most expedient to differentiate tuberculoma with?
A. * Aspergilloma
B. An air-cyst
C. Central cancer
D. Eosinophilic infiltrate
E. Chronic abscess
545. What information is the most important at questioning of patient with suspicion on tuberculosis?
A. Family status of patient.
B. Profession.
C. Material well-being .
D. * Contact with a patient with tuberculosis.
E. Presence of cattle in the housekeeping (cows).
546. What is a definition for tuberculoma?
A. * Tuberculoma is limited by capsule from conjunctive tissue focus of caseous with size more that 1
cm with chronic and torpid course.
B. Tuberculoma is center of specific pneumonia with size up to 1 cm which localized in border of 1-2
segments.
C. Tuberculoma is area of specific inflammation with prevailed escudative character with size more 1
cm, with disposition to spontaneous recovery.
D. Tuberculoma is area of specific inflammation with prevailed escudative character with size more 1
cm, with disposition to progress and disintegration.
E. Tuberculoma is accretion of rough conjunctive tissue in the lung as a result of involution of different
forms of tuberculosis.
547. What is clinic category for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis patient with long term?
A. * Fourth.
B. First.
C. Second.
D. Third.
E. Fifth
548. What is primary medical firmness of MBT?
A. * MBT firmness of the patients which had not been yet treated by antimycobacterial medications.
B. MBT firmness of patients with the primary form of tuberculosis.
C. MBT firmness of patients with the chronic forms of tuberculosis.
D. MBT firmness of patients with the relapses of tuberculosis.
E. MBT firmness of patients with the small forms of tuberculosis.
549. What is the “range” of tuberculin reactions?
A. Transition of negative reaction to tuberculin to a positive one after BCG vaccination
B. Transition of negative reaction to tuberculin to a positive one after BCG revaccination
C. * Sensitivity change to tuberculin due to the primary infection with tuberculosis mycobacteria
D. Appearance of hyperergy reaction to tuberculin in patients infected with tuberculosis
E. Negative reaction to tuberculin in seriously ill tuberculosis patients
550. What is the aim of mass tuberculinization:
A. For prophylaxis of MBT infection
B. For prophylaxis of tuberculosis illness
C. * For early tuberculosis revealing among children
D. For early tuberculosis revealing among adults
E. For revealing the persons with the increased risk of tuberculosis illness
551. What is the basic method of the discovering tuberculosis among people using masssurveys ?
A. Rentgenoscopy.
B. Computerized tomography .
C. Bronchography.
D. * Fluorography
E. Spot-film sciagraphy.
552. What is the criteria of optimum inflexibility of sciagram?
A. * On the sciagram evidently seen the first three-four pectoral vertebrae.
B. On the sciagram evidently contours of shoulder-blades.
C. On the sciagram evidently seen first six-eight pectoral vertebrae.
D. On the sciagram evidently seen ribs.
E. On the sciagram evidently seen breastbone.
553. What is the frequency of primary medicinal firmness of MBT in patients with tuberculosis?
A. 0,5-1%.
B. 2 - 5 %.
C. * 1-14%.
D. 15-20%.
E. 25 - 30 %.
554. What is the high bound of the norm of a lungs root width?
A. 1,0 sm
B. * 2,5 sm
C. 3,5 sm
D. 5 sm
E. 7,5 sm
555. What is the main characteristic of fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Disposition to forming acinar, acinar-nodose and lobular centers.
B. Disposition for creation infiltrations and caverns.
C. * Old fibrous cavity and fibrosis in abutting pulmonary tissue.
D. Polychemoresistance.
E. Periodical or permanent bacterioexcretion.
556. ?What is the major diagnostic sign of joining tuberculosis in patient with pneumoconiosis|?
A. Positive result of Mantaex testing of 2 TU PPD-L.
B. * Revealing MBT in sputum.||
C. Presence of symptoms of tubercular intoxication.
D. Information about the tuberculosis carried in the past.
E. Presence of nidus shadows on a roentgenogram.
557. What is the most frequent immediate causes of death at pulmonary haemorrage in pulmonary
tuberculosis patients?
A. Anemia
B. Aspirational pneumonia
C. * Asphyxia
D. Atelectasis
E. Tuberculosis progressing
558. What is the most informative phenomenon at auscultation of tuberculosis patient?
A. Dispersed dry rales
B. Inconstant dry and moist rales in the area by the root
C. * Moist local rales on the lung apexes
D. Pleura friction murmur
E. “Mute” lung
559. ?What is the most substantial morphological sign determines weight of the tubercular process?
A. Dystrophy.
B. Plethora.
C. * Destruction.
D. Hypostasis.
E. Metaplasia.
560. What is the reason of origin of primary medicinal firmness of MBT?
A. Untimely exposure of tuberculosis.
B. Late exposure of tuberculosis.
C. Nonregularly taking of antimycobacterial medications.
D. Treatment by chemicals of understated doses.
E. * Infection by stable cultures of MBT.
561. What is the therapeutic approach at first revealed tuberculoma with size 3-4 cm?
A. Urgent surgery.
B. * Medical treatment start with prescription of antituberculosis medicine, after this – surgery.
C. Just specific conservative treatment.
D. Case monitoring.
E. Tuberculin therapy.
562. What is understood under a cohort at formulation the diagnosis of tuberculosis?
A. Group of patients with the identical clinical form of disease.
B. Group of patients, homogeneous on age, sex.
C. * Group of patients which found out during one quarter.
D. Group of patients with identical concomitant pathology.
E. Group of patients with east motion of disease.
563. What kind is the sensitiveness to tuberculin after the Mantaex test of 2 TU PPD-L at silicotuberculosis|?
A. Negative.
B. Doubtful.
C. Poorly positive.
D. * Hyperergy|.
E. Vesicule-necrotic.
564. What kind of sputum is characteristic for patients with pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. * Mucus-purulent, odourless, 10-50 milliliters per days.
B. Purulent with a strong unpleasant smell, ferruginous color, to 500 milliliters.
C. Purulent, odourless, to 300 milliliters.
D. Mucus-watery, 50-100 milliliters.
E. Purulent -containing soom blood with an unpleasant smell, 100-150 milliliters per days.
565. What kind of symptoms (complaints) can testify the complication of silicosis by tuberculosis?
A. * Intoxication.
B. The pant.
C. The cough.
D. Pain in thorax.
E. All these symptoms.
566. What kinds of mycobacterial cause mycobacterioz?
A. L-forms mycobacterium.
B. M. tuberculosis.
C. Acid-proof saprophytes.
D. * Atypical mycobacterium.
E. MBT, firm to antimycobacterial medications.
567. What method does allow to determinate mycobacterium sensitivity to antimycobacterial preparations?
A. Bacterioscopy
B. * Bacteriological
C. PCR
D. IEA
E. Biological
568. What method does allow to perform tipuvannya mіkobakterіy?
A. Direct microscopy
B. * Culturally examination
C. Biological testing
D. PCR
E. IEA
569. What method gives the detailed information about a structure and homogeneity of shade in lungs?
A. Tomography
B. * Computerized tomography.
C. Spot-film sciagraphy.
D. Rentgenoscopy.
E. Bronchography.
570. What method is most effective for clarification of localization of shade in a pulmonary tissue mass and
its correlation with surrounding tissues? (by ribs, spine, and others like that)?
A. Sciagraphy.
B. * Computerized tomography.
C. Fluorography.
D. Rentgenoscopy.
E. Bronchography.
571. What method more expedient to apply for control of dynamics to efficiency of treatment of patients
with tuberculosis ?
A. * Sciagraphy.
B. Roentgenokymography.
C. Fluorography.
D. Roentgenoscopy.
E. Bronchography .
572. What method of revealing MBT is most economic?
A. * Direct microscopy
B. Culturally examination
C. Biological testing
D. PCR
E. IEA
573. What method of revealing MBT is most sensitive and specific?
A. Direct microscopy
B. * Culturally examination
C. Biological testing
D. PCR
E. IEA
574. What method of study of bacterioexcretion is not used in formulation of diagnosis according to modern
classification?
A. Microscopical.
B. Cultural.
C. Investigation of resistance to preparations of the I row.
D. Investigation of resistance to preparations of the II row.
E. * Biological.
575. What mycobacteriosis pathogenic is most typical?
A. M. marinum
B. * M. avium-intracellulare
C. M. smegmaticus
D. M. tuberculosis
E. M. leprae
576. What number of MBT in 1 ml of pathological material, if looked over 100 eye shots does microscopic
examination a positive result give at?
A. 5-10
B. 50-100
C. * 50000-100000
D. 5000-10000
E. 500-1000
577. What number of MBT in 1 ml of pathological material does bacteriological examination a positive
result give at?
A. 2-10
B. * 20-100
C. 200-1000
D. 2000-10000
E. 20000-100000
578. What organs are more frequently strucked by tuberculosis in Ukraine?
A. * Lungs.
B. Genital organs.
C. Kidneys.
D. Bones and joints.
E. Eyes.
579. What percentage of MBT infected become ill with tuberculosis?
A. 1-2 %
B. 3-4 %
C. * 5-10 %
D. 15-25 %
E. 30-40 %
580. What percentage of the globe population is infected with tuberculosis?
A. 5 %
B. 10 %
C. 15 %
D. 30 %
E. * 50 %
581. What phase of tuberculosis is characteristic for progress of process?
A. Suction
B. * Sowing
C. Condensation
D. Scarring
E. Calcination
582. What phase of tuberculosis is not characteristic for healing process?
A. Calcination
B. Suction
C. * Sowing
D. Scarring
E. Condensation
583. What phases characterize the progress of tuberculosis?
A. * Infiltration, disintegration, semination.
B. Resorption, compression, scarring.
C. Encrustation, mineralization.
D. Hyperemia, exudation, resorption
E. Proliferation, metaplasia, degeneration.
584. What thesis is faithful?
A. * Miliary tuberculosis is one of the most unfavourable form of tuberculosis.
B. Miliary tuberculosis is a favourable form of tuberculosis.
C. Miliary tuberculosis is a торпідна form of tuberculosis.
D. Miliary tuberculosis is a subclinical form of tuberculosis.
E. Miliary tuberculosis is a form of tuberculosis without symptome.
585. Whatever category of patients is not distinguished in clinical classification of tuberculosis?
A. Patients with the first diagnosed tuberculosis without bacterioexcretion.
B. Patients with the first diagnosed tuberculosis with bacterioexcretion.
C. * Patients with the first diagnosed tuberculosis without bacterioexcretion on background of
concomitant pathology.
D. Patients with relapse of tuberculosis.
E. Patients with chronic tuberculosis.
586. Whatever changes of pulmonary tissue usually do not arise up as a result of the tuberculosis?
A. Pneumofibrosis.
B. Calcinations.
C. * Karnification of lungs.
D. Emphysema.
E. Bronchiectasis
587. Whatever complication is not characteristic for pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Pulmonary bleeding.
B. Spontaneous pneumothorax
C. * Bronchial asthma.
D. Secondary pulmonary hypertension.
E. Atelectasis.
588. Whatever concept doesn't have the pathogenetical and clinical filling?
A. Primary tuberculosis.
B. Secondary tuberculosis.
C. * Tertiary tuberculosis.
D. Chronic tuberculosis.
E. Relapse of tuberculosis.
589. Whatever information has no matter at formulation the diagnosis of tuberculosis?
A. Presence or absence of destruction.
B. Presence or absence of bacterioexcretion.
C. * The way of contamination.
D. Resistance of mycobacterium.
E. Data of exposure of disease.
590. ?When did Robert Koch discover the pathogene of tuberculosis?
A. 1865
B. * 1882
C. 1887
D. 1919
E. 1944
591. Which is the most typical percussion data during focal pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Dullness of percussion sound in upper parts.
B. Dullness of percussion sound near root.
C. Dullness of percussion sound in basal areas.
D. Tympanic percussion sound.
E. * No changes.
592. Which is the most typical radiological indications of old tuberculosis focus in the lungs?
A. Small or average intensity, nonccontrast borders, diameter up to 1 centimeter.
B. * Big intensity, clear borders, diameter up to 1 centimeter.
C. Small intensity, clear borders, diameter more than 1 centimeter.
D. Big intensity, nonccontrast borders, diameter more than 1 centimeter.
E. Average intensity, round shape, diameter 3-5 centimeters.
593. Which morphologic sort of tuberculoma is possible as result of focal tuberculosis?
A. Infiltrative-pneumonic.
B. Homogeneous.
C. Pseudotuberculoma.
D. * Conglomerate.
E. Like ball.
594. Which are the most typical radiological indications of new tuberculosis focus in the lungs?
A. * Small or average intensity, nonccontrast borders, diameter up to 1 centimeter.
B. Big intensity, clear borders, diameter up to 1 centimeter.
C. Small intensity, clear borders, diameter more than 1 centimeter.
D. Big intensity, nonccontrast borders, diameter more than 1 centimeter.
E. Average intensity, round shape, diameter 3-5 centimeters.
595. Which changes in the hemogram are typical for infiltrative tuberculosis?
A. Leukopenia, lymphocytosis, acceleration of ESR, anemia.
B. * Small leucocytosis, lymphopenia, enlarged ESR, anemia, small increase of stab neutrophils,
monocytosis.
C. High leukocytosis, significant accereratioun of ESR, acidophilia, lymphopenia.
D. High leukocytosis with significant increasing of stab neutrophils, lymphocytosis, normal ESR,
monocytopenia, absent eosinophiles.
E. Formula of white blood not changed. ESR more than 50 mm/Hr, full-blown anemia.
596. Which clinical course is typical for caseous pneumonia?
A. * Violent, acute progressive.
B. Initially chronic.
C. Near acute.
D. Without symptoms.
E. Forward with little symptoms.
597. Which clinical syndrome is the most often suitable for infilrative tuberculosis?
A. * Intoxicational.
B. Abdominal.
C. Meningeal.
D. Hyperthermic.
E. Painful.
598. Which combination of antituberculous medications is the most worthwhile for first diagnosed
infilatrative pulmonary tuberculosis with destruction?
A. * Isoniazid, streptomycin, rifampicin, pyrazinamide.
B. Kanamycin, ethambutol, isoniazid, rifampicin.
C. Isoniazid, pyrazinamide, amikacin, ofloxacin.
D. PAS(A)(para-aminosalicylic acid)-natrium, ethambutol, isoniazid, rifampicin.
E. Streptomycin, ethambutol, mycobutine, ethionamide.
599. Which complication practically absent at focal tuberculosis?
A. Escudative pleurisy.
B. Chronic bronchitis.
C. Polysegmental fibrosis.
D. * Profuse pulmonary hemorrhage
E. Hospital-acquired pneumonia.
600. Which criterion of effective treatment of infiltrative pulmonary tuberculosis in disintegration stage,
mycobacteriums tuberculosis+, is the most important?
A. Resolution of perifocal inflammatory reaction in pulmonary tissue?
B. Cicatrization of disintegration cavity
C. Fallout of intoxication occurrence.
D. Recovery of ability to work
E. * Elimination of bacterioexcretion
601. Which definition for caseous pneumonia is the most precise?
A. Caseos pneumonia is a clinical form of tuberculosis, which has many specific centers in the lungs:
initially disease has prevailed escudative-necrotic reacton with future evolving of productive
inflammation,
B. Caseos pneumonia is area of specific inflammation which has prevailed escudative nature, with size
more than 1 cm, with necessarily disintegration of pulmonary tissue and its semination.
C. * Caseos pneumonia is a clinical form of secondary form of tuberculosis with significant changes in
the lungs with acute progressive clinical course. At quick widening of caseous mass forming huge
cavities or big quantity of small caverns.
D. Caseous pneumonia is progressive evolution of expressed perifocal inflammation around fresh
tubercular appearences, which was formed due exogenous superinfection or endogenous
revivification.
E. Casous pneumonia is clinical form of initial tuberculosis, with grave condition of patient, significant
symptoms of intoxication, frequent catarrhal events in lungs, massive bacterioexcretion.
602. Which disease at first needs to be disambiguate from infiltration not homogeneous structure in the
upper part of right lung with “track” to root and focal shadows around?
A. Out-gospital necrotizing pneumonia.
B. Central pulmonary cancer.
C. * Infiltrative tuberculosis.
D. Eosinophylic infiltration.
E. Infarct-Pneumonia.
603. Which disease least advisable to be distinguish fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis from?
A. Chronic abscess.
B. Central cancer.
C. Cystic disease.
D. * Chronic bronchitis.
E. Multiple bronchiectasis.
604. Which disease needs to be distinguish fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis from?
A. Eosinophylic infiltration.
B. Chronic bronchitis.
C. * Chronic abscess.
D. Pleuropneumonia.
E. Lung infarction.
605. Which diseases need to disambiguate lobar caseous pneumonia with?
A. * Pleuropneumonia.
B. Infarct of lung.
C. Pneumonia complicated by an abscess.
D. Escudative pleurisy.
E. With central cancer.
606. Which factors are not important for initial stage and clinical course of infiltrative pulmonary
tuberculosis?
A. Morphological structure of infiltration.
B. Width of perifocal inflammation.
C. Size of area caseous necrosis.
D. Complications from side of bronchopulmonary system.
E. * Availability in anamnesis immunization by vaccine BCG (Calmette-Gurin bacillus).
607. Which factors are the most important (deciding factor) for diagnosis of infiltrative form of tuberculosis?
A. Mycobacteriums tuberculosis in the sputum or scourage of bronchus..
B. Hyperergic tuberculin sensitivity according Mantoux test with 2 TU PPD-L
C. * Availability of mycobacteriums tuberculosis and presence infiltration on the rontgenogram.
D. Availability shadow on the rontgenogram which allocated in 1,2 or 6 segments.
E. Complains concerning cough with sputum, pain in chest, sputum with blood, rise in temperature of
the body, general weakness, information about former tuberculosis.
608. Which factors is the most important at disambiguate diagnostic between infilrative tuberculosis and
pneumonia?
A. Level of bacterioexcretion.
B. Localization of process.
C. Presense disintegration cavity in pulmonary tissue.
D. Presense complications.
E. * Violent and progressive course of disease.
609. Which form of backward evolution of tuberculosis is impossible for focal tuberculosis?
A. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
B. Pulmonary tuberculoma.
C. * Miliary tuberculosis.
D. Impossible backware evoluion to focal tuberculosis from any other form of tuberculosis.
E. Disseminated pulmonary tuberculosis.
610. Which instrumental method is good enough at verify diagnose in a case when middle lung field has
round center up to 3 cm in diameter with contrast outlines?
A. Fluorography.
B. Bronchography.
C. * Transthoracal paracentetic biopsy.
D. Bronchoscopy.
E. Rontgenoscopy.
611. Which is the most typical auscultatory data during focal pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Diffused dry crepitations.
B. Dry crepitations in upper parts.
C. * No changes.
D. Dry and humid crepitations.
E. Diffused humid crepitations.
612. Which is the most typical combination of complains for caseous pneumonia patients?
A. * High temperature of the body, profuse sweat, paint in chest, shortness of breath, cough with
greenish sputum, quick growing of intoxication syndromes.
B. Worsening of appetite, hyperhidrosis, subfebrile temperature, petulance, weakening of memory.
C. Dry cough,general weakness, periodical sputum with blood, instable subfebrile state.
D. High temperature, headache, sputum, diarrhoea, chill.
E. Periodical pain in the side, subfebrile temperature changing to febrile, rare cough, pain in chest
gradually decreases, appears shortness of breath.
613. Which is the most accurate definition of infiltrative pulmonary tuberculosis as clinicorontgenological
form of specific process?
A. * Infiltrative tuberculosis is area of specific inflammation with mainly escudative nature, with size
more than 1 cm, with disposition to progress and disintegration, possible bronchogenic semination.
B. Infiltrative tuberculosis is focus of specific inflammation which necessarily accompaniment of
disintegration pulmonary tissue and semination of pulmonary tissue.
C. It is form of specific inflammation with availability in the lungs formed and stable by dimension
cavity with marked infiltrative and (sometime) fibrous changes in surrounding pulmonary tissue.
D. Infiltrative tuberculosis is area of specific inflammation with chronical torpid behavior, with size
more than 1 cm, with predisposition to spontaneous recovery.
E. Infiltrative tuberculosis has big quantity of specific centers in the lungs. At initial stage of disease
prevails escudative-necrotizing reaction with future evolution of productive inflammation.
614. Which is the most often reason for death of fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis patients?
A. Pulmonary atelectasis.
B. * Chronical cor pulmonale.
C. Pulmonary hemorrhage.
D. Renal amyloidosis.
E. Progressive tuberculosis.
615. Which is the most typical complains in focal pulmonary tuberculosis patients?
A. * Weakness, hyperhidrosis, rapid fatigability, minor increased temperature.
B. Fever.
C. Cough with big quantity of purulent spew.
D. Pulmonary hemorrhage.
E. Shortness of breath.
616. Which is the most typical localization of centers at focal pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. * 1-2 segments.
B. 3-4 segments.
C. 7-8 segments.
D. 9-10 segments.
E. Root of lung.
617. Which medications, except antituberculosis, are able to stop evolution of caseous pneumonia?
A. Disintoxication.
B. Vitaminous.
C. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory.
D. * Fluoroquinolones.
E. Immunomodulator.
618. Which most often not specific complication for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. * Chronical cor pulmonale.
B. Larynx tuberculosis.
C. Spontaneous pneumothorax.
D. Pulmonary atelectasis.
E. Internal amyloidosis.
619. Which most often specific complication for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. * Larynx tuberculosis.
B. Colorectal tuberculosis.
C. Tuberculous pleurisy.
D. Genitals tuberculous.
E. Renal tuberculosis.
620. Which of components does belong to etiological diagnostic of tuberculosis?
A. Revealing characteristic changes of blood
B. Revealing characteristic changes of immune status
C. * Revealing MBT in pathological material
D. Assessment clinical of manifestations of illness
E. Revealing infestation of tuberculosis
621. Which of the illnesses are the most frequently complicated with pulmonary haemorrhages?
A. * Aspergilloma
B. Lung cancer
C. Bronchus adenoma
D. Lung tuberculosis
E. Pneumonia
622. Which of those complications are specific?
A. * Larynx tuberculosis
B. Atelectasis
C. Pulmonary haemorrhage
D. Spontaneous pneumothorax
E. Chronic lung heart
623. Which pathogenic variant isn`t typical for evolution of lobular caseous pneumonia?
A. Result of aspiration pneumonia after hemorrhages and spew with blood.
B. Malignant variant of near acute disseminated tuberculosis.
C. Complications in terminal stages of chronical form of tuberculosis.
D. Distribution of caseous output in the bronchuses and lungs through fistula with lymph glands.
E. * In terminal stage of miliary tuberculosis.
624. Which pathomorphological changes prevail during focal pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Alternate inflammation.
B. * Productive inflammation.
C. Necrosis.
D. Escudative inflammation.
E. Pneumofibrosis.
625. Which result is expected at positive dynamic of caseous pneumonia.
A. * Transformation to massive pneumocirrhosis.
B. Full resorption of infiltration.
C. Limited pneumofibrosis.
D. Forming of tuberculoma.
E. Chronic disseminated tuberculosis.
626. Which rontgenologic indication is typical for caseous pneumonia?
A. * Homogeneous shadow is partially limited.
B. Shadow not homogeneous, possible to out from part.
C. Appear of clarifications due disintegration cavity.
D. Centers of bronchogenic dissemination in other part current or other lung.
E. Massive not uniform darkening of all part of a lung against a background possible individual more
solid centers.
627. Which rontgenologic syndrome accompanies pulmanary tuberculoma?
A. Syndrome of focal shadow.
B. * Syndrome of round shadow
C. Syndrome of limited darkening
D. Syndrome of ring-shaped brightening.
E. Syndrome of root of the lung pathology.
628. Which tuberculin test has the most informative meaning for defining the activity of the tuberculous
process:
A. Pirquet’s test
B. Mantoux test
C. * Koch test
D. Moro test
E. Pirquet’s graduated test.
629. Which tuberculin test needs to do for doubtful activity of focal tuberculosis?
A. Mantoux test with 2 TU.
B. Mantoux test, deluted,
C. Pirquet's test
D. * Koch’s test.
E. Mantoux test with 5 TU.
630. Which ways are the most probable for forming fresh centers of dissemination at infiltrative tuberculosis.
A. * Lympho-bronchogenic.
B. Only hematogenic.
C. Only sputogenic.
D. Hematogenic-lymphogenic.
E. Only lymphogenic.
631. Which what diseases do not need to do differential diagnosis for fibrous cavernous pulmonary
tuberculosis?
A. Chronic abscess.
B. Cancer in degradation stage.
C. Multiple bronchiectasis.
D. Pneumonia complicated by an abscess.
E. * Lung tuberculoma.
632. Which with mentioned below methods of examination (at suspicion about infiltrative tuberculosis) in
the adult not critical at diagnosis withs?
A. Visual rontgenography of thorax organs.
B. * Biochemical blood analysis.
C. Bronchoscopy.
D. Rontgenography of chest organs in lateral projection.
E. Bacterioscopy and bacteriological exploration of spew concerning mycobacterium tuberculosis.
633. Which X-ray syndrome is the most typical for infiltrative form of tuberculosis?
A. Syndrome of total darkening.
B. Syndrome of round shadow.
C. Syndrome of pathological changed root of the lung.
D. * Syndrome of limited darkening.
E. Syndrome of focal shadow.
634. Who of Ukrainian scientists discovered X-ray earlier than Roentgen?
A. O.A.Kysel
B. B.M.Khmelnytsky
C. F.G.Yanovsky
D. I.Ya.Horbachevsky
E. * I.P.Puluy
635. Who synthezided the streptomycin?
A. Fox
B. * Waksman
C. A. Calmette and K. Guerin
D. K. Forlanini
E. Abre
636. Who was the first to recommend artificial pneumothorax for treating tuberculosis patients?
A. R.Koch
B. R.Philip
C. * C.Forlanini
D. A.Calmette and Guerin
E. S.Waksman
637. Why chemical therapy for tuberculoma is low effective?
A. * Tuberculoma has no blood vessels.
B. It is secondary form of tuberculosis.
C. At tuberculoma always present polychemoresistivity.
D. At tuberculoma always disturbed passability of draining bronchus.
E. At tuberculoma present hyperergic sensitivity to tuberculine.
638. A focal shade is:
A. Dark patch in a diameter up to 0,2 sm.
B. Dark patch 0,2 - 0,4 sm in a diameter.
C. Dark patch 0,5 - 1,0 sm in a diameter.
D. Dark patch in a diameter to 1,0 sm.
E. * Dark patch from 1,0 to 2,0 sm in a diameter.
639. A cloud-like darkening of the upper part of the right lung with a lightening in the center, to the left
paracardially a group of small intensity nidi have been revealed during fluorographic examination of a
female patient, 30, suffering from a stomach ulcer. A preliminary diagnosis.
A. * Infiltrative tuberculosis.
B. Lung tuberculoma.
C. Fibrous cavernous tuberculosis.
D. Caseous pneumonia.
E. Disseminated tuberculosis.
640. A darkening of medium intensity with a lightening in the center and a path to the root has been revealed
to the right beneath the clavicle of a patient B., 40, during fluorographic examination. He feels well.
Formulate the preliminary diagnosis.
A. Primary tuberculous complex.
B. * Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Lung tuberculoma.
D. Fibrous cavernous tuberculosis.
E. Caseous pneumonia.
641. A group of shadows of small and medium intensity of 3-8 mm in diameter has been revealed in the
upper part of the right lung in a patient of 25 years old on a fluorogoram. The patient’s state is
satisfactory. Mantoux test with 2 TU – 16 mm infiltrate. What disease is the most probable one?
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Eosinophil infiltration
C. Nidus pneumonia
D. * Nidus lung tuberculosis
E. Peripheral lung cancer
642. A round shadow with wave-like outer contours was found in the 3-rd segment of the left lung of a man
of 60 during a fluorographic examination. There were single calcinates in the roots. ESR – 62 mm/hr.
What illness can be suspected?
A. * Periferal cancer.
B. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Disseminated tuberculosis.
D. Lung tuberculoma.
E. Focal tuberculosis.
643. About which duration of disease does the most often indicate patients during gathering of anamnesis?
A. 3-4 days.
B. 1-2 weeks.
C. Below 1 year.
D. * 1-2 months.
E. 4-5 years and more.
644. Amiloidosis is a system disease, it complicates the chronic purulent processes in the organism and is
characterized by the violations of:
A. Carbon metabolism.
B. * Albumen metabolism
C. Metabolism of fats
D. Vitamin exchange
E. Acid-alkaline equilibrium
645. An urgent aid at a valvate spontaneous pneumothorax.
A. Fibrobronchoscopy
B. Artificial lung ventilation
C. * Pleural cavity drainage
D. Respiratory gymnastics
E. Strict bed rest
646. At the absence of positive treatment dynamics during 2-4 months the patients with lungs tuberculosis
are prescribed for:
A. * Economical resection of a lung
B. Pneumonectomy
C. Decortication of a lesion of lung
D. Hormonotherapy
E. Antimycobacterial therapy up to 6-8 months
647. Fluorographic examination has been conducted for a patient 25, on the occasion of the complains of the
raising of body temperature and cough, as a result of which darkening of small intensity of 4,0-5,0 cm in
diameter with the destruction present has been revealed in the upper part of the right lung. MBT has been
revealed in sputum. What rales will be the most characteristic for such changes in lungs?
A. Disseminated rales
B. Diffused single rales
C. * Local rales
D. Moist and dry rales along lung lesion
E. Moist rales in lower parts of lungs
648. For a patient a "fork" symptom is determined. What do pathological changes we think about?
A. Primary tubercular complex
B. Spontaneous pneumothorax.
C. * Cirrhosis of lung.
D. Dry pleurisy.
E. Tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodus.
649. For how many criterias do we estimate the quality of technical implementation of survey sciagram?
A. 1.
B. * 2.
C. 3.
D. 4.
E. 5.
650. Formulating the clinical diagnosis of lung tuberculosis, first of all should be defined:
A. The process phase
B. The clinical form
C. Bacterial secretion
D. Localisation process
E. * Type of tuberculuos process
651. From how many parts does the root of lung consist of? (roentgenologicaly)
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. * 3.
D. 4.
E. 5.
652. From what age and in what terms is mass tuberculinization performed:
A. * From 12-months age, annually
B. From 12-months age, once in 2-3 years
C. At 7 and 14 years of age only
D. From 7 up to 14 years annually
E. From 7 and each 5 years up to 30-years old age
653. From wich clinic form of tuberculosis most often forms fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Tuberculoma.
B. Tuberculous primary complex
C. * Infiltrative form.
D. Focal form.
E. Cirrotic form.
654. Haemoptysis appeared in a day after hyperinsolation of a girl of 17. No pathologic changes were found
in the lungs of fluorography six months ago. Damp middle-blistered rales are heard beneath the right
clavicle, Mantoux test with 2 TU – 23 mm infiltrate. What changes in lungs can one think about?
A. Spontaneus pneumothorax.
B. Lung tuberculosis.
C. Multiple nidi.
D. Cirrhosis of a lung.
E. * Decay cavities.
655. How do tuberculosis patients explain the weight loss more frequently?
A. Appetite worsening
B. Taste distortion, disgusting to the separate types of meal
C. Economy on the meal
D. * They can not explain, because appetite and rhythm of feed are remained ordinary
E. Wishing to lose flesh
656. How many segments can be in left lung?
A. 8-11.
B. 8-12.
C. * 9-10.
D. 9-11.
E. 9-12.
657. How often does the second medicinal firmness of MBT develop to antimycobacterial medications in
patients with tuberculosis?
A. 1-5%.
B. 5-10%.
C. 10 - 20 %.
D. 20-40%.
E. * 50 - 60 %.
658. If there is the positive reaction on the tuberculin with 2 TU on the skin of antebrachium there can be
visible:
A. * Infiltrate by the size of 5 –16 mm
B. Infiltrate with a vesicle in the centre
C. Hyperemia more than 5 mm
D. Infiltrate by the size more than 16 mm
E. Infiltrate by the size of 2-4 mm
659. In how many times contact persons are more frequently ill , than uncontacts with tuberculosis?
A. 2-4.
B. * -10.
C. 15-20.
D. 25-30.
E. 31-35.
660. In order to lower the pressure in the system of the pulmonary artery, one should prescribe.
A. Penicyllin, camphorae, arphonad
B. * Atropin, euphilin, ganglioblockers
C. Isoniazidum, atropin, uterics
D. Oxygen, camphor, trombin
E. Dicinin, epsilon-aminocapronic acid, nitrosorbid
661. In patient with tuberculosis under a left shoulder-blade we can hear medium rales. What do such
changes testify about?
A. Focal changes in pulmonary tissue.
B. Bronchitis.
C. * Presence of cavities of disintegration.
D. Spontaneous pneumothorax.
E. Atelectasis
662. In progressing focal tuberculosis able proceed to other clinical forms of tuberculosis. In which form
focal tuberculosis usually not proceed directly?
A. Infiltrative pulmonary tuberculosis.
B. Disseminated pulmonary tuberculosis.
C. Pulmonary tuberculoma.
D. Caseous pneumonia.
E. * Fibrous cavernous tuberculosis.
663. In stomach and duodenal ulcer patient, who was prepared for operation, an active tuberculosis was
discovered.What is the best doctor’s tactic ?
A. Treatment of tuberculosis after an operation.
B. Operation is combined with beginning of tuberculosis treatment.
C. * Operation after stabilizing of specific process.
D. Operation is only in 2 years from the beginning of tuberculosis treatment.
E. Operation is absolutely contra-indicated.
664. In the patient 1 month after the completed treatment of infiltrative tuberculosis of upper particle of right
lung, appeared intermittent rise in temperature up to 37,1-37,2°C and coughing. It was made an
extraordinary roentgenological inspection - changes weren`t discovered in lungs. What roentgenological
method is expedient to use for visualization of the changes of bronchial tubes of upper particle of right
lung?
A. Sciagraphy.
B. * Bronchography.
C. Rentgenoscopy.
D. Tomography.
E. Spot-film sciagraphy.
665. In the patient of 20 years on the fluorography inspection in the apex-back segment of the left lung found
out area of dark patch small intensity with unclear contours up to 1sm in a diameter. To what
roentgenological syndrome does the founded out formation belong to?
A. clearing up syndrome.
B. round shade syndrome.
C. * focal shades syndrome.
D. the changed focal picture syndrome.
E. Desimination syndrome
666. ?In the patient of 35 years it was first found out infiltrative tuberculosis of the overhead particle of the
right lung with the presence of destructive changes. On the survey sciagram cavity of disintegration we
can see unclear. What does roentgenological method of research need to be applied for visualization of
cavity?
A. Bronchography.
B. Fluorography.
C. Lateral sciagraphy.
D. * Tomography
E. Radioxerography.
667. In what age of men tuberculosis disease is the most reliable?
A. * 20-29 years
B. 30-39 years
C. 50-59 years
D. 60-69 years
E. above 70 years
668. In what age of women tuberculosis disease is the most reliable?
A. 20-29 years
B. * 30-39 years
C. 40-49 years
D. 50-59 years
E. above 60 years
669. In what percentage of people tuberculosis is caused by M. bovis?
A. 1-2%.
B. * 3-5%.
C. 10-20%.
D. 25-30%.
E. 35-50%.
670. Indicate the incorrect formulation of clinical diagnosis of lung tuberculosis
A. FDTB (16.06.2003) of the lungs upper sections (disseminated), Destr +, (infiltration ), MBT +M+C+,
Resist -, Hist 0, Cat1 Coh2(2003).
B. CTB (12.01.2000) the upper section of the right lung (fibrous-cavernous), Destr +, (infiltration),
MBT +M-C+ Resist I (S, H) Hist0. Lung haemoptysis. RI II, Cat 4 Coh1(2000).
C. FDTB (20.03.2001) of the lower part of the right lung (tuberculoma), Destr +, MBT- M-C-, Hist 0,
Cat1 Coh1(2001).
D. * FDTB (20.09.2003), (nidus tuberculosis), (infiltration), MBT-M-C-, Hist 0, Cat3 Coh3(2003).
E. RTB (20.06.2003) of the upper part of the right lung (infiltrative), Destr -, MBT- M-C-, Hist 0, Cat2
Coh2(2003).
671. Infiltrative tuberculosis of the upper part of the right lung in decay phase has been revealed in a patient,
MBT (+). What breathily murmurs do you expect to hear above the area lesion?
A. Dry whistling rales
B. Crepitation
C. Murmur of pleural rub
D. Bronchial breathing
E. * Local moist rales
672. Is it possible to vaccinate a newborn child which borned |from a mother sick with tuberculosis?
A. Absolutely contra-indicated in any case.
B. * It is possible, if a child does not have contra-indications and was immediately isolated from |mother
after childbearing.
C. It is possible, but needed to do Mantaex test before vaccinate.
D. Contra-indicated, if mother is sick with destructive tuberculosis.
E. It is possible, if mother accepted antimycobacterial drugs during pregnancy.
673. Koch’s testing is used for:
A. Prophylaxis of tuberculosis
B. Early tuberculosis revealing
C. Determination of infection index of population with tuberculosis
D. * Differential diagnostics of infectious and postvaccinal allergy
E. Revealing the persons with the increased risk of tuberculosis illness
674. Maximum number of segments affected at nidus lung tuberculosis.
A. 1
B. * 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
675. Maximum size of shadows at nidus lung tuberculosis is:
A. 1 mm
B. 1,5 mm
C. 5 mm
D. * 10 mm
E. 25 mm
676. More frequently the spontaneous pneumothorax in patients with lungs tuberculosis appear:
A. At fibrobronchoscopy
B. During pleural puncture
C. At cavern wall rupture
D. * At subpleural emphysematous bubbles rupture
E. At pneumotachometria
677. Nidal shades of medium intensity with vague contours were revealed on the left apex of a 20-years old
youth during fluorographic examination. His general state is good. Mantoux test with 2 TU – 19 mm
infiltrate. Your preliminary diagnosis?
A. Primary tuberculous complex.
B. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Disseminated tuberculosis.
D. Lung tuberculoma.
E. * Focal tuberculosis.
678. On base of which infiltrative most often evolve lobar caseous pneumonia?
A. Round.
B. Lobular.
C. Periscysurite.
D. Like a cloud.
E. Lobitis.
679. On the background of what complications of lungs tuberculosis caseous pneumonia is the most
frequent?
A. Pulmonary haemoptysis
B. Spontaneous pneumothorax
C. Larynx tuberculosis
D. Amyloidosis of kidney
E. Atelectasis of particle lung
680. Percussion note with tympanic tinge, amphoric respiration at auscultative above the upper part of the
right lung in a tuberculosis patient. What should be changes in lungs thought about?
A. Infiltration of the lung tissue
B. Lung cirrhosis
C. Atelectasis
D. * Large cavern
E. Spontaneous pneumothorax
681. Plan a specific treatment to a patient with FDTB (03.03.2001) of the upper part of the right lung
(caseous pneumonia), Destr+, MBT+M+C+, Resist-, HIST0, Cat1 Coh1(2001). The patient is 45, weight
– 46 kg. His general condition is difficult. There is no accompanying pathology. Prescribe
antimycobacterial preparations.
A. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + streptomycini.
B. Isoniazidum + pyrazinamidum
C. * Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + streptomycini + pyrazinamidum .
D. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum.
E. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + ethambutolum.
682. Primary forms of tuberculosis comprise:
A. Nidus
B. Disseminated
C. * Tuberculosis intoxication
D. Caseous pneumonia
E. Infiltrative
683. Procoagulative action preparations.
A. Camphor
B. * Dicinon
C. Benzohexoniy
D. Amben
E. Atropin
684. Single nidal shades of small intensity with vague contours were revealed on the apex of both lungs of a
19-years old woman patient during the prophylactic fluorographyc examination. What is the clinical form
of tuberculosis?
A. Infiltrative
B. Lung tuberculoma
C. * Nidus
D. Caseous pneumonia
E. Disseminated
685. Small and average nidi of little intensity have been revealed on the apex of the right lung during
fluorographic examination of a man aged 30. During the last month he notes the decrease of the appetite,
perspiration, inconsiderable cough. Prescribe of antimicobacterial therapy on the 1-st stage.
A. * Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + pyrazinamidum
B. Isoniazidum + pyrazinamidum
C. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + streptomycini + pyrazinamidum + ethambutolum.
D. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum.
E. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + ethambutolum.
686. Specific complications comprise:
A. Haemophthisis
B. Chronic lung heart
C. Lung atelectasis
D. * Larynx tuberculosis
E. Amyloidosis disease
687. The characteristic phase of tuberculous process progression is:
A. Suction
B. * Sowing
C. Condensation
D. Scarring
E. Calcination
688. The frequency of lung haemorrage in lung tuberculosis patients.
A. 1-2 %
B. 3-5 %
C. * 6-19 %
D. 20-25 %
E. 30-35 %
689. The greatest importance for the confirmation of lung atelectasis diagnosis is:
A. USE
B. Pneumotachometry
C. Roentgenoscopy
D. Computer tomography
E. * Bronchoscopy
690. The most rational combination of antimycobacterial preparations at the initial stage in patients with lung
tuberculoma, MBT (-).
A. Isonoazidum + streptomycini + rifampycini
B. * Isonoazidum + rifampycini + pyrazinamidum
C. Isonoazidum + streptomycini + pyrazinamidum
D. Isonoazidum + pyrazinamidum + PASA
E. Rifampycini + ethionamidum + kanamycini
691. The most trustworthy criteria of nidal tuberculosis activity.
A. Intoxication syndrome
B. Changes in haemogram
C. * Revealing of micobacteria tuberculosis
D. Nidus shadow of medium intensity with distinct contours
E. Positive Mantoux testing of 2 TU
692. The predominant segmental localization of tuberculosis infiltration
A. I, II, III segments
B. I, III, V segments
C. I, IV, V segments
D. * I, II, VI segments
E. II, VI IX segments
693. The prognosis and course of which illness is not favourable at tuberculosis in combination with
diabetes|?
A. Always of tuberculosis.
B. Always of diabetes.
C. Of both diseases.
D. * That illness,| which arose up the first.
E. That illness,| which arose up the second.
694. The prophylactic photoroentgenographic examination of a 25-year-old patient showed in segments 1-2
of the left lung focal shadows of low intensity without distinct contours. Mantoux test with 2 TO – 7 mm
infiltrate. Blood analysis: leuk. – 9,9 x 109/l, ESR – 26 mm/hour. Which is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Nidus lung tuberculosis
B. Infiltrative lung tuberculosis
C. Nidus pneumonia
D. Lung cancer
E. Eosiniphil infiltration
695. The sensitivity of organism to tuberculin may be intensified with:
A. Senile age
B. Lymphogranulomatosis
C. Lymphosarcoma
D. Treatment with immunodepressants
E. * Bronchial asthma
696. To the primary forms of tuberculosis belong:
A. Disseminated
B. Nidus
C. Infiltrative
D. Tuberculoma
E. * Tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes
697. To which category relate patients of caseous pneumonia?
A. * To first.
B. To third.
C. To second.
D. To forth.
E. To fifth.
698. To which dispensary category does patient with first diagnosed infiltrative pulmonary tuberculosis in
disintegration stage and availability bacterioexcretion belong ?
A. * To first.
B. To third.
C. To second.
D. To fourth.
E. To fifth.
699. Under the mask of what diseases is tuberculosis infiltrate the most frequent?
A. Peripheral lung cancer
B. Retention cyst
C. * Pneumonia
D. Eosinophile infiltrate
E. Aspergiloma
700. What is the method of provocation of wheezes for patients with tuberculosis?
A. deep breathing
B. breathing through the mouth.
C. * deep inhalation after the easy coughing.
D. breathing through the nose.
E. quiet breathing
701. What types of MBT are the most pathogenic for a human being?
A. M. Africanum.
B. M Avium.
C. M. Bovinus.
D. * M.Tuberculosis.
E. Kansasii.
702. What |are the indications to fluorography of the patient with diabetes?
A. After carried hyperglycemic| and hypoglycemic comma.
B. After carried a flu or pneumonia.
C. After any operative interference .
D. At appearance of symptoms, which are characteristic for tuberculosis or hyperergy reaction.|
E. * All these sings.
703. What are the main principles of tuberculosis treatment during pregnancy?
A. To begin treatment only after childbearing.
B. * Treatment by generally accepted principles .
C. Obligatory breaking the pregnancy regardless of process.
D. The dynamic looking after the motion of process. At progressing - immediate treatment.
E. The treatment should be performed immediately after revealing active tuberculosis.
704. What are the most dangerous periods that contributing to aggravation, recurrence and progressing of old
tubercular hearths for pregnant ?
A. The second month of pregnancy.
B. The fifth month of pregnancy.
C. The last weeks before childbearing.
D. The first 6 months after childbearing.
E. * All marked periods are dangerous.
705. What are the most frequent segmental localization of the second forms of tuberculosis of lungs?
A. * I, II, III segments.
B. II, III, IV segments.
C. III, V, VI segments.
D. I, II, VI segments.
E. II, III, X segments.
706. What are the roentgenologic| signs of tuberculosis in diabetes patients?
A. Infiltrative tuberculosis, more frequent cloudsimilar infiltration, polysegmentation infiltration or lobit
||.
B. Bilateral infiltration | in lower particles of lung (caused by reactivation of| process in |intrathoracic
lymphatic nodes with lymphogenic| and |bronchogenic eruption).
C. Large tuberculoma with undistinct contours, perifocal inflammation, which is able to decay.
D. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis (with severe progressive course, can be complicated by caseous|
pneumonia).
E. * All these signs.
707. What are the terms of appearance of tuberculosis’s mycobacterium growth on hard nourishing
environments?
A. 2-3 days.
B. 7-14 days.
C. * 3-4 weeks.
D. 3-5 months.
E. 6 months.
708. What are typical complications for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Tuberculosis bronchus.
B. Bronchogenic dissemination.
C. Tuberculosis larynx.
D. Tuberculosis colitis.
E. * All with above.
709. What biochemical components of MBT cause their firmness to acids, alkalis and alcohols?.
A. Albumen
B. Hydrocarbon
C. * Lipids
D. Polysaccharide.
E. Mineral salts.
710. What character does temperature curve at tuberculosis carry usually?
A. Constant
B. One-day
C. Hectic
D. Three-day
E. * None of the above
711. What character of pain in a thorax at “fresh” uncomplicated lung tuberculosis is the most typical?
A. Attackable
B. * Constant
C. Sanestopathetic
D. Migrated
E. Phantomlike
712. What character of sputum at uncomplicated lung tuberculosis is most reliable?
A. * Slime, transparent
B. Bright-yellow
C. Green-yellow
D. Green with a sharp odour
E. Rusty
713. What character of sputum secretion at uncomplicated lung tuberculosis is most typical?
A. The sputum is secreted mainly in the morning after smoking in an amount of 10-15 ml
B. * The sputum is secretion during a day in an amount of 30-100 ml
C. Liquid waterly sputum is secreted constantly to 1,5-2,0 l for a day
D. A patient can tell, when thick stinking sputum was one-time secreted by “full mouth”
E. Viscous sputum is secreted after completion of asthma attacks only
714. What clinic symptoms are the most typical for tuberculoma?
A. * Sometime subfebrile state, minor cough, possible absent of complains.
B. Strong cough, pain in chest, shortness of breath.
C. High temperature, chill, pain in chest, purulent spew.
D. Cough, spew with unpleasant smell, hyperhidrosis, spew with blood.
E. Pain in chest. Spew with blood, Shortness of breath.
715. What clinical course is typical for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. * Wavy, with remission and exacerbation.
B. Acute, progressive.
C. Near acute.
D. Without symptoms or with few symptoms.
E. Quick feedback.
716. What clinical form of tuberculosis is tuberculoma formed from most frequently?
A. Disseminated
B. Fibrous-cavernous
C. Cirrhotic
D. Nidus
E. * Infiltrative
717. What clinical presentation is the most typical for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Long remissions.
B. * Chronic clinical course.
C. Absent any remissions.
D. Periods of remissions alternate with acute conditions.
E. Permanent progress of process.
718. What clinical presentation is typical for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. No complaints or cough with minor spew. Sometime local humid wheeze.
B. * Cough with spew, breathlessness, sometime spew with blood. Time to time high temperature,
hyperhidrosis. Local humid wheeze. During remission – good state of health.
C. Cough, spew with objectionable odor. During worsening – high temperature, hyperhidrosis,
sometime spew with blood. Humid and dry wheeze. “Drumsticks”.
D. Pain in thorax, often sputum with blood, breathlessness, diminished breath sounds, sometime humid
or dry local wheeze.
E. No complaints.Time to time dry cough. Temperature is normal (inflammation is able to raise
temperature). Auscultatory data are small.
719. What combination of antituberculosis medicines is the most suitable at first revealed small
tuberculoma?
A. * Isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide.
B. Streptomycin, isoniazid, rifampicin.
C. Streptomycin, rifampicin, ethambutol.
D. Amikacin, kanamycin, pyrazinamide,
E. Rifampicin, ofloxacin, pyrazinamide.
720. What components of lungs tissue are not visible on a sciagram?
A. Roots of lungs.
B. Dig vascular barrels.
C. The walls of bronchial tubes.
D. * Teeth ridges.
E. Interstice of lungs.
721. What constituent combinations of MBT are the basic transmitters of antigens’ characteristic features?
A. * Albumen
B. Hydrocarbon
C. Lipids
D. Polysaccharide.
E. Mineral salts.
722. What contraindication to surgery for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis patient?
A. * Wide distribution of the focus of disease.
B. Bronchiectasis is present.
C. Bleeding in lungs.
D. Resistivity to 2 antituberculous medications.
E. Wide bacterioexcretion.
723. What course is the most typical for tuberculoma?
A. Gradual progressive worsening.
B. * Few symptoms or without symptoms.
C. Acute start. Quick worsening.
D. Near acute. Like influenza or pneumonia.
E. Acute start. Quick reverse evolution due chemical medications.
724. What course is typical for tuberculosis which arises at first time after the childbearing?
A. Rapid reversed development.
B. * Rapid progressing with expressed clinical symptomatic|.
C. Slow reversed development.
D. Poor symptomatic |motion.
E. Initially chronic motion.
725. What disease anamnesis is the most characteristic for lung tuberculosis?
A. A patient felt ill acute three day ago, nowadays the state is some improved
B. * A patient considers himself to be ill a few months
C. A patient considers himself to be ill “all life”, repeatedly inspected without a result
D. A patient notes the state worsening every fourth day
E. A patient notes the state worsening at reduction of light day every year
726. What disease can a "fork" symptom be determined at?
A. Miliary tuberculosis.
B. Tuberculoma
C. Dry pleurisy.
D. * Cirrotic tuberculosis .
E. Silicotuberculosis.
727. What disease can assist development of tuberculosis?
A. Essential hypertension.
B. Infectious mononucleosis|.
C. * Ulcer of the stomach and duodenum.
D. All marked disease.
E. Nothing of transferred.
728. ?What do patients with the unfolded clinical picture of tuberculosis, regardless to the localization of the
process complain of?
A. * Weakness, excessive perspiration, loss of weight, promoted temperature of body
B. Attacks of stuffiness at the change of weather
C. Disturbance of sensitiveness, “creeping of ants” in extremities
D. Consciousness blank
E. Headache, pain in abdomen without clear localization
729. What does cause the pain at “fresh” uncomplicated tuberculosis?
A. Lung tissue decay
B. Expressed exudation in a lung tissue
C. Bronch`s lesion
D. * Pleura`s lesion
E. Prevailing productive reaction
730. What feature is typical for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis in our time?
A. * Complications by not specific inflammatory processes.
B. Frequent evolution of of internal amyloidosis.
C. Profuse bleeding in lungs.
D. Frequent aspergillosis.
E. Evolution of tuberculous meningoencephalitis.
731. What form do normal roots of lungs have?
A. Optus corner opened aside pulmonary field.
B. Triangle, by the apex turned to middle shade.
C. * Sector of a circle.
D. Rectangle.
E. Complex polycyclic figure.
732. What forms of tuberculosis prevail for stomach and duodenal ulcer patients after the resection of
stomach?
A. Primary tuberculous complex.
B. Out of lungs tuberculous processes.
C. * Infiltrative and exsudative forms of tuberculosis with propensity to progress, formation of plural
destructions and bronchogenic dissemination.
D. Chronic forms of tuberculosis.
E. Tuberculous mesadenitis.
733. What from transferred is characteristic for a tuberculous process on the late stages of HIV-infection|?
A. The expressed durable intoxication with negative Mantaex test.
B. Diffuse infiltrates| in upper, middle and lower lung sections.
C. Mainly |out of lungs defeats, enlargement of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes, lymphadenopathia
D. In the halves of patients – MBT absence from the sputum||.
E. * All transferred .
734. What illness is the most expedient to differentiate tuberculoma with?
A. * Aspergilloma
B. An air-cyst
C. Central cancer
D. Eosinophilic infiltrate
E. Chronic abscess
735. What information is the most important at questioning of patient with suspicion on tuberculosis?
A. Family status of patient.
B. Profession.
C. Material well-being .
D. * Contact with a patient with tuberculosis.
E. Presence of cattle in the housekeeping (cows).
736. What is a definition for tuberculoma?
A. * Tuberculoma is limited by capsule from conjunctive tissue focus of caseous with size more that 1
cm with chronic and torpid course.
B. Tuberculoma is center of specific pneumonia with size up to 1 cm which localized in border of 1-2
segments.
C. Tuberculoma is area of specific inflammation with prevailed escudative character with size more 1
cm, with disposition to spontaneous recovery.
D. Tuberculoma is area of specific inflammation with prevailed escudative character with size more 1
cm, with disposition to progress and disintegration.
E. Tuberculoma is accretion of rough conjunctive tissue in the lung as a result of involution of different
forms of tuberculosis.
737. What is clinic category for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis patient with long term?
A. * Fourth.
B. First.
C. Second.
D. Third.
E. Fifth
738. What is primary medical firmness of MBT?
A. * MBT firmness of the patients which had not been yet treated by antimycobacterial medications.
B. MBT firmness of patients with the primary form of tuberculosis.
C. MBT firmness of patients with the chronic forms of tuberculosis.
D. MBT firmness of patients with the relapses of tuberculosis.
E. MBT firmness of patients with the small forms of tuberculosis.
739. What is the “range” of tuberculin reactions?
A. Transition of negative reaction to tuberculin to a positive one after BCG vaccination
B. Transition of negative reaction to tuberculin to a positive one after BCG revaccination
C. * Sensitivity change to tuberculin due to the primary infection with tuberculosis mycobacteria
D. Appearance of hyperergy reaction to tuberculin in patients infected with tuberculosis
E. Negative reaction to tuberculin in seriously ill tuberculosis patients
740. What is the aim of mass tuberculinization:
A. For prophylaxis of MBT infection
B. For prophylaxis of tuberculosis illness
C. * For early tuberculosis revealing among children
D. For early tuberculosis revealing among adults
E. For revealing the persons with the increased risk of tuberculosis illness
741. What is the basic method of the discovering tuberculosis among people using masssurveys ?
A. Rentgenoscopy.
B. Computerized tomography .
C. Bronchography.
D. * Fluorography
E. Spot-film sciagraphy.
742. What is the criteria of optimum inflexibility of sciagram?
A. * On the sciagram evidently seen the first three-four pectoral vertebrae.
B. On the sciagram evidently contours of shoulder-blades.
C. On the sciagram evidently seen first six-eight pectoral vertebrae.
D. On the sciagram evidently seen ribs.
E. On the sciagram evidently seen breastbone.
743. What is the frequency of primary medicinal firmness of MBT in patients with tuberculosis?
A. 0,5-1%.
B. 2 - 5 %.
C. * 1-14%.
D. 15-20%.
E. 25 - 30 %.
744. What is the high bound of the norm of a lungs root width?
A. 1,0 sm
B. * 2,5 sm
C. 3,5 sm
D. 5 sm
E. 7,5 sm
745. What is the main characteristic of fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Disposition to forming acinar, acinar-nodose and lobular centers.
B. Disposition for creation infiltrations and caverns.
C. * Old fibrous cavity and fibrosis in abutting pulmonary tissue.
D. Polychemoresistance.
E. Periodical or permanent bacterioexcretion.
746. ?What is the major diagnostic sign of joining tuberculosis in patient with pneumoconiosis|?
A. Positive result of Mantaex testing of 2 TU PPD-L.
B. * Revealing MBT in sputum.||
C. Presence of symptoms of tubercular intoxication.
D. Information about the tuberculosis carried in the past.
E. Presence of nidus shadows on a roentgenogram.
747. What is the most frequent immediate causes of death at pulmonary haemorrage in pulmonary
tuberculosis patients?
A. Anemia
B. Aspirational pneumonia
C. * Asphyxia
D. Atelectasis
E. Tuberculosis progressing
748. What is the most informative phenomenon at auscultation of tuberculosis patient?
A. Dispersed dry rales
B. Inconstant dry and moist rales in the area by the root
C. * Moist local rales on the lung apexes
D. Pleura friction murmur
E. “Mute” lung
749. ?What is the most substantial morphological sign determines weight of the tubercular process?
A. Dystrophy.
B. Plethora.
C. * Destruction.
D. Hypostasis.
E. Metaplasia.
750. What is the reason of origin of primary medicinal firmness of MBT?
A. Untimely exposure of tuberculosis.
B. Late exposure of tuberculosis.
C. Nonregularly taking of antimycobacterial medications.
D. Treatment by chemicals of understated doses.
E. * Infection by stable cultures of MBT.
751. What is the therapeutic approach at first revealed tuberculoma with size 3-4 cm?
A. Urgent surgery.
B. * Medical treatment start with prescription of antituberculosis medicine, after this – surgery.
C. Just specific conservative treatment.
D. Case monitoring.
E. Tuberculin therapy.
752. What is understood under a cohort at formulation the diagnosis of tuberculosis?
A. Group of patients with the identical clinical form of disease.
B. Group of patients, homogeneous on age, sex.
C. * Group of patients which found out during one quarter.
D. Group of patients with identical concomitant pathology.
E. Group of patients with east motion of disease.
753. What kind is the sensitiveness to tuberculin after the Mantaex test of 2 TU PPD-L at silicotuberculosis|?
A. Negative.
B. Doubtful.
C. Poorly positive.
D. * Hyperergy|.
E. Vesicule-necrotic.
754. What kind of sputum is characteristic for patients with pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. * Mucus-purulent, odourless, 10-50 milliliters per days.
B. Purulent with a strong unpleasant smell, ferruginous color, to 500 milliliters.
C. Purulent, odourless, to 300 milliliters.
D. Mucus-watery, 50-100 milliliters.
E. Purulent -containing soom blood with an unpleasant smell, 100-150 milliliters per days.
755. What kind of symptoms (complaints) can testify the complication of silicosis by tuberculosis?
A. * Intoxication.
B. The pant.
C. The cough.
D. Pain in thorax.
E. All these symptoms.
756. What kinds of mycobacterial cause mycobacterioz?
A. L-forms mycobacterium.
B. M. tuberculosis.
C. Acid-proof saprophytes.
D. * Atypical mycobacterium.
E. MBT, firm to antimycobacterial medications.
757. What method does allow to determinate mycobacterium sensitivity to antimycobacterial preparations?
A. Bacterioscopy
B. * Bacteriological
C. PCR
D. IEA
E. Biological
758. What method does allow to perform tipuvannya mіkobakterіy?
A. Direct microscopy
B. * Culturally examination
C. Biological testing
D. PCR
E. IEA
759. What method gives the detailed information about a structure and homogeneity of shade in lungs?
A. Tomography
B. * Computerized tomography.
C. Spot-film sciagraphy.
D. Rentgenoscopy.
E. Bronchography.
760. What method is most effective for clarification of localization of shade in a pulmonary tissue mass and
its correlation with surrounding tissues? (by ribs, spine, and others like that)?
A. Sciagraphy.
B. * Computerized tomography.
C. Fluorography.
D. Rentgenoscopy.
E. Bronchography.
761. What method more expedient to apply for control of dynamics to efficiency of treatment of patients
with tuberculosis ?
A. * Sciagraphy.
B. Roentgenokymography.
C. Fluorography.
D. Roentgenoscopy.
E. Bronchography .
762. What method of revealing MBT is most economic?
A. * Direct microscopy
B. Culturally examination
C. Biological testing
D. PCR
E. IEA
763. What method of revealing MBT is most sensitive and specific?
A. Direct microscopy
B. * Culturally examination
C. Biological testing
D. PCR
E. IEA
764. What method of study of bacterioexcretion is not used in formulation of diagnosis according to modern
classification?
A. Microscopical.
B. Cultural.
C. Investigation of resistance to preparations of the I row.
D. Investigation of resistance to preparations of the II row.
E. * Biological.
765. What mycobacteriosis pathogenic is most typical?
A. M. marinum
B. * M. avium-intracellulare
C. M. smegmaticus
D. M. tuberculosis
E. M. leprae
766. What number of MBT in 1 ml of pathological material does bacteriological examination a positive
result give at?
A. 2-10
B. * 20-100
C. 200-1000
D. 2000-10000
E. 20000-100000
767. What number of MBT in 1 ml of pathological material, if looked over 100 eye shots does microscopic
examination a positive result give at?
A. 5-10
B. 50-100
C. * 50000-100000
D. 5000-10000
E. 500-1000
768. What organs are more frequently strucked by tuberculosis in Ukraine?
A. * Lungs.
B. Genital organs.
C. Kidneys.
D. Bones and joints.
E. Eyes.
769. What percentage of MBT infected become ill with tuberculosis?
A. 1-2 %
B. 3-4 %
C. * 5-10 %
D. 15-25 %
E. 30-40 %
770. What percentage of the globe population is infected with tuberculosis?
A. 5 %
B. 10 %
C. 15 %
D. 30 %
E. * 50 %
771. What phase of tuberculosis is characteristic for progress of process?
A. Suction
B. * Sowing
C. Condensation
D. Scarring
E. Calcination
772. What phase of tuberculosis is not characteristic for healing process?
A. Calcination
B. Suction
C. * Sowing
D. Scarring
E. Condensation
773. What phases characterize the progress of tuberculosis?
A. * Infiltration, disintegration, semination.
B. Resorption, compression, scarring.
C. Encrustation, mineralization.
D. Hyperemia, exudation, resorption
E. Proliferation, metaplasia, degeneration.
774. What thesis is faithful?
A. * Miliary tuberculosis is one of the most unfavourable form of tuberculosis.
B. Miliary tuberculosis is a favourable form of tuberculosis.
C. Miliary tuberculosis is a торпідна form of tuberculosis.
D. Miliary tuberculosis is a subclinical form of tuberculosis.
E. Miliary tuberculosis is a form of tuberculosis without symptome.
775. Whatever category of patients is not distinguished in clinical classification of tuberculosis?
A. Patients with the first diagnosed tuberculosis without bacterioexcretion.
B. Patients with the first diagnosed tuberculosis with bacterioexcretion.
C. * Patients with the first diagnosed tuberculosis without bacterioexcretion on background of
concomitant pathology.
D. Patients with relapse of tuberculosis.
E. Patients with chronic tuberculosis.
776. Whatever changes of pulmonary tissue usually do not arise up as a result of the tuberculosis?
A. Pneumofibrosis.
B. Calcinations.
C. * Karnification of lungs.
D. Emphysema.
E. Bronchiectasis
777. Whatever complication is not characteristic for pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Pulmonary bleeding.
B. Spontaneous pneumothorax
C. * Bronchial asthma.
D. Secondary pulmonary hypertension.
E. Atelectasis.
778. Whatever concept doesn't have the pathogenetical and clinical filling?
A. Primary tuberculosis.
B. Secondary tuberculosis.
C. * Tertiary tuberculosis.
D. Chronic tuberculosis.
E. Relapse of tuberculosis.
779. Whatever information has no matter at formulation the diagnosis of tuberculosis?
A. Presence or absence of destruction.
B. Presence or absence of bacterioexcretion.
C. * The way of contamination.
D. Resistance of mycobacterium.
E. Data of exposure of disease.
780. ?When did Robert Koch discover the pathogene of tuberculosis?
A. 1865
B. * 1882
C. 1887
D. 1919
E. 1944
781. Which is the most typical percussion data during focal pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Dullness of percussion sound in upper parts.
B. Dullness of percussion sound near root.
C. Dullness of percussion sound in basal areas.
D. Tympanic percussion sound.
E. * No changes.
782. Which is the most typical radiological indications of old tuberculosis focus in the lungs?
A. Small or average intensity, nonccontrast borders, diameter up to 1 centimeter.
B. * Big intensity, clear borders, diameter up to 1 centimeter.
C. Small intensity, clear borders, diameter more than 1 centimeter.
D. Big intensity, nonccontrast borders, diameter more than 1 centimeter.
E. Average intensity, round shape, diameter 3-5 centimeters.
783. Which morphologic sort of tuberculoma is possible as result of focal tuberculosis?
A. Infiltrative-pneumonic.
B. Homogeneous.
C. Pseudotuberculoma.
D. * Conglomerate.
E. Like ball.
784. Which are the most typical radiological indications of new tuberculosis focus in the lungs?
A. * Small or average intensity, nonccontrast borders, diameter up to 1 centimeter.
B. Big intensity, clear borders, diameter up to 1 centimeter.
C. Small intensity, clear borders, diameter more than 1 centimeter.
D. Big intensity, nonccontrast borders, diameter more than 1 centimeter.
E. Average intensity, round shape, diameter 3-5 centimeters.
785. Which changes in the hemogram are typical for infiltrative tuberculosis?
A. Leukopenia, lymphocytosis, acceleration of ESR, anemia.
B. * Small leucocytosis, lymphopenia, enlarged ESR, anemia, small increase of stab neutrophils,
monocytosis.
C. High leukocytosis, significant accereratioun of ESR, acidophilia, lymphopenia.
D. High leukocytosis with significant increasing of stab neutrophils, lymphocytosis, normal ESR,
monocytopenia, absent eosinophiles.
E. Formula of white blood not changed. ESR more than 50 mm/Hr, full-blown anemia.
786. Which clinical course is typical for caseous pneumonia?
A. * Violent, acute progressive.
B. Initially chronic.
C. Near acute.
D. Without symptoms.
E. Forward with little symptoms.
787. Which clinical syndrome is the most often suitable for infilrative tuberculosis?
A. * Intoxicational.
B. Abdominal.
C. Meningeal.
D. Hyperthermic.
E. Painful.
788. Which combination of antituberculous medications is the most worthwhile for first diagnosed
infilatrative pulmonary tuberculosis with destruction?
A. * Isoniazid, streptomycin, rifampicin, pyrazinamide.
B. Kanamycin, ethambutol, isoniazid, rifampicin.
C. Isoniazid, pyrazinamide, amikacin, ofloxacin.
D. PAS(A)(para-aminosalicylic acid)-natrium, ethambutol, isoniazid, rifampicin.
E. Streptomycin, ethambutol, mycobutine, ethionamide.
789. Which complication practically absent at focal tuberculosis?
A. Escudative pleurisy.
B. Chronic bronchitis.
C. Polysegmental fibrosis.
D. * Profuse pulmonary hemorrhage
E. Hospital-acquired pneumonia.
790. Which criterion of effective treatment of infiltrative pulmonary tuberculosis in disintegration stage,
mycobacteriums tuberculosis+, is the most important?
A. Resolution of perifocal inflammatory reaction in pulmonary tissue?
B. Cicatrization of disintegration cavity
C. Fallout of intoxication occurrence.
D. Recovery of ability to work
E. * Elimination of bacterioexcretion
791. Which definition for caseous pneumonia is the most precise?
A. Caseos pneumonia is a clinical form of tuberculosis, which has many specific centers in the lungs:
initially disease has prevailed escudative-necrotic reacton with future evolving of productive
inflammation,
B. Caseos pneumonia is area of specific inflammation which has prevailed escudative nature, with size
more than 1 cm, with necessarily disintegration of pulmonary tissue and its semination.
C. * Caseos pneumonia is a clinical form of secondary form of tuberculosis with significant changes in
the lungs with acute progressive clinical course. At quick widening of caseous mass forming huge
cavities or big quantity of small caverns.
D. Caseous pneumonia is progressive evolution of expressed perifocal inflammation around fresh
tubercular appearences, which was formed due exogenous superinfection or endogenous
revivification.
E. Casous pneumonia is clinical form of initial tuberculosis, with grave condition of patient, significant
symptoms of intoxication, frequent catarrhal events in lungs, massive bacterioexcretion.
792. Which disease at first needs to be disambiguate from infiltration not homogeneous structure in the
upper part of right lung with “track” to root and focal shadows around?
A. Out-gospital necrotizing pneumonia.
B. Central pulmonary cancer.
C. * Infiltrative tuberculosis.
D. Eosinophylic infiltration.
E. Infarct-Pneumonia.
793. Which disease least advisable to be distinguish fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis from?
A. Chronic abscess.
B. Central cancer.
C. Cystic disease.
D. * Chronic bronchitis.
E. Multiple bronchiectasis.
794. Which disease needs to be distinguish fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis from?
A. Eosinophylic infiltration.
B. Chronic bronchitis.
C. * Chronic abscess.
D. Pleuropneumonia.
E. Lung infarction.
795. Which diseases need to disambiguate lobar caseous pneumonia with?
A. * Pleuropneumonia.
B. Infarct of lung.
C. Pneumonia complicated by an abscess.
D. Escudative pleurisy.
E. With central cancer.
796. Which factors are not important for initial stage and clinical course of infiltrative pulmonary
tuberculosis?
A. Morphological structure of infiltration.
B. Width of perifocal inflammation.
C. Size of area caseous necrosis.
D. Complications from side of bronchopulmonary system.
E. * Availability in anamnesis immunization by vaccine BCG (Calmette-Gurin bacillus).
797. Which factors are the most important (deciding factor) for diagnosis of infiltrative form of tuberculosis?
A. Mycobacteriums tuberculosis in the sputum or scourage of bronchus..
B. Hyperergic tuberculin sensitivity according Mantoux test with 2 TU PPD-L
C. * Availability of mycobacteriums tuberculosis and presence infiltration on the rontgenogram.
D. Availability shadow on the rontgenogram which allocated in 1,2 or 6 segments.
E. Complains concerning cough with sputum, pain in chest, sputum with blood, rise in temperature of
the body, general weakness, information about former tuberculosis.
798. Which factors is the most important at disambiguate diagnostic between infilrative tuberculosis and
pneumonia?
A. Level of bacterioexcretion.
B. Localization of process.
C. Presense disintegration cavity in pulmonary tissue.
D. Presense complications.
E. * Violent and progressive course of disease.
799. Which form of backward evolution of tuberculosis is impossible for focal tuberculosis?
A. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
B. Pulmonary tuberculoma.
C. * Miliary tuberculosis.
D. Impossible backware evoluion to focal tuberculosis from any other form of tuberculosis.
E. Disseminated pulmonary tuberculosis.
800. Which instrumental method is good enough at verify diagnose in a case when middle lung field has
round center up to 3 cm in diameter with contrast outlines?
A. Fluorography.
B. Bronchography.
C. * Transthoracal paracentetic biopsy.
D. Bronchoscopy.
E. Rontgenoscopy.
801. Which is the most typical auscultatory data during focal pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Diffused dry crepitations.
B. Dry crepitations in upper parts.
C. * No changes.
D. Dry and humid crepitations.
E. Diffused humid crepitations.
802. Which is the most typical combination of complains for caseous pneumonia patients?
A. * High temperature of the body, profuse sweat, paint in chest, shortness of breath, cough with
greenish sputum, quick growing of intoxication syndromes.
B. Worsening of appetite, hyperhidrosis, subfebrile temperature, petulance, weakening of memory.
C. Dry cough,general weakness, periodical sputum with blood, instable subfebrile state.
D. High temperature, headache, sputum, diarrhoea, chill.
E. Periodical pain in the side, subfebrile temperature changing to febrile, rare cough, pain in chest
gradually decreases, appears shortness of breath.
803. Which is the most accurate definition of infiltrative pulmonary tuberculosis as clinicorontgenological
form of specific process?
A. * Infiltrative tuberculosis is area of specific inflammation with mainly escudative nature, with size
more than 1 cm, with disposition to progress and disintegration, possible bronchogenic semination.
B. Infiltrative tuberculosis is focus of specific inflammation which necessarily accompaniment of
disintegration pulmonary tissue and semination of pulmonary tissue.
C. It is form of specific inflammation with availability in the lungs formed and stable by dimension
cavity with marked infiltrative and (sometime) fibrous changes in surrounding pulmonary tissue.
D. Infiltrative tuberculosis is area of specific inflammation with chronical torpid behavior, with size
more than 1 cm, with predisposition to spontaneous recovery.
E. Infiltrative tuberculosis has big quantity of specific centers in the lungs. At initial stage of disease
prevails escudative-necrotizing reaction with future evolution of productive inflammation.
804. Which is the most often reason for death of fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis patients?
A. Pulmonary atelectasis.
B. * Chronical cor pulmonale.
C. Pulmonary hemorrhage.
D. Renal amyloidosis.
E. Progressive tuberculosis.
805. Which is the most typical complains in focal pulmonary tuberculosis patients?
A. * Weakness, hyperhidrosis, rapid fatigability, minor increased temperature.
B. Fever.
C. Cough with big quantity of purulent spew.
D. Pulmonary hemorrhage.
E. Shortness of breath.
806. Which is the most typical localization of centers at focal pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. * 1-2 segments.
B. 3-4 segments.
C. 7-8 segments.
D. 9-10 segments.
E. Root of lung.
807. Which medications, except antituberculosis, are able to stop evolution of caseous pneumonia?
A. Disintoxication.
B. Vitaminous.
C. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory.
D. * Fluoroquinolones.
E. Immunomodulator.
808. Which most often not specific complication for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. * Chronical cor pulmonale.
B. Larynx tuberculosis.
C. Spontaneous pneumothorax.
D. Pulmonary atelectasis.
E. Internal amyloidosis.
809. Which most often specific complication for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. * Larynx tuberculosis.
B. Colorectal tuberculosis.
C. Tuberculous pleurisy.
D. Genitals tuberculous.
E. Renal tuberculosis.
810. Which of components does belong to etiological diagnostic of tuberculosis?
A. Revealing characteristic changes of blood
B. Revealing characteristic changes of immune status
C. * Revealing MBT in pathological material
D. Assessment clinical of manifestations of illness
E. Revealing infestation of tuberculosis
811. Which of the illnesses are the most frequently complicated with pulmonary haemorrhages?
A. * Aspergilloma
B. Lung cancer
C. Bronchus adenoma
D. Lung tuberculosis
E. Pneumonia
812. Which of those complications are specific?
A. * Larynx tuberculosis
B. Atelectasis
C. Pulmonary haemorrhage
D. Spontaneous pneumothorax
E. Chronic lung heart
813. Which pathogenic variant isn`t typical for evolution of lobular caseous pneumonia?
A. Result of aspiration pneumonia after hemorrhages and spew with blood.
B. Malignant variant of near acute disseminated tuberculosis.
C. Complications in terminal stages of chronical form of tuberculosis.
D. Distribution of caseous output in the bronchuses and lungs through fistula with lymph glands.
E. * In terminal stage of miliary tuberculosis.
814. Which pathomorphological changes prevail during focal pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Alternate inflammation.
B. * Productive inflammation.
C. Necrosis.
D. Escudative inflammation.
E. Pneumofibrosis.
815. Which result is expected at positive dynamic of caseous pneumonia.
A. * Transformation to massive pneumocirrhosis.
B. Full resorption of infiltration.
C. Limited pneumofibrosis.
D. Forming of tuberculoma.
E. Chronic disseminated tuberculosis.
816. Which rontgenologic indication is typical for caseous pneumonia?
A. * Homogeneous shadow is partially limited.
B. Shadow not homogeneous, possible to out from part.
C. Appear of clarifications due disintegration cavity.
D. Centers of bronchogenic dissemination in other part current or other lung.
E. Massive not uniform darkening of all part of a lung against a background possible individual more
solid centers.
817. Which rontgenologic syndrome accompanies pulmanary tuberculoma?
A. Syndrome of focal shadow.
B. * Syndrome of round shadow
C. Syndrome of limited darkening
D. Syndrome of ring-shaped brightening.
E. Syndrome of root of the lung pathology.
818. Which tuberculin test has the most informative meaning for defining the activity of the tuberculous
process:
A. Pirquet’s test
B. Mantoux test
C. * Koch test
D. Moro test
E. Pirquet’s graduated test.
819. Which tuberculin test needs to do for doubtful activity of focal tuberculosis?
A. Mantoux test with 2 TU.
B. Mantoux test, deluted,
C. Pirquet's test
D. * Koch’s test.
E. Mantoux test with 5 TU.
820. Which ways are the most probable for forming fresh centers of dissemination at infiltrative tuberculosis.
A. * Lympho-bronchogenic.
B. Only hematogenic.
C. Only sputogenic.
D. Hematogenic-lymphogenic.
E. Only lymphogenic.
821. Which what diseases do not need to do differential diagnosis for fibrous cavernous pulmonary
tuberculosis?
A. Chronic abscess.
B. Cancer in degradation stage.
C. Multiple bronchiectasis.
D. Pneumonia complicated by an abscess.
E. * Lung tuberculoma.
822. Which with mentioned below methods of examination (at suspicion about infiltrative tuberculosis) in
the adult not critical at diagnosis withs?
A. Visual rontgenography of thorax organs.
B. * Biochemical blood analysis.
C. Bronchoscopy.
D. Rontgenography of chest organs in lateral projection.
E. Bacterioscopy and bacteriological exploration of spew concerning mycobacterium tuberculosis.
823. Which X-ray syndrome is the most typical for infiltrative form of tuberculosis?
A. Syndrome of total darkening.
B. Syndrome of round shadow.
C. Syndrome of pathological changed root of the lung.
D. * Syndrome of limited darkening.
E. Syndrome of focal shadow.
824. Who of Ukrainian scientists discovered X-ray earlier than Roentgen?
A. O.A.Kysel
B. B.M.Khmelnytsky
C. F.G.Yanovsky
D. I.Ya.Horbachevsky
E. * I.P.Puluy
825. Who synthezided the streptomycin?
A. Fox
B. * Waksman
C. A. Calmette and K. Guerin
D. K. Forlanini
E. Abre
826. Who was the first to recommend artificial pneumothorax for treating tuberculosis patients?
A. R.Koch
B. R.Philip
C. * C.Forlanini
D. A.Calmette and Guerin
E. S.Waksman
827. Why chemical therapy for tuberculoma is low effective?
A. * Tuberculoma has no blood vessels.
B. It is secondary form of tuberculosis.
C. At tuberculoma always present polychemoresistivity.
D. At tuberculoma always disturbed passability of draining bronchus.
E. At tuberculoma present hyperergic sensitivity to tuberculine.
828. A focal shade is:
A. Dark patch in a diameter up to 0,2 sm.
B. Dark patch 0,2 - 0,4 sm in a diameter.
C. Dark patch 0,5 - 1,0 sm in a diameter.
D. Dark patch in a diameter to 1,0 sm.
E. * Dark patch from 1,0 to 2,0 sm in a diameter.
829. A cloud-like darkening of the upper part of the right lung with a lightening in the center, to the left
paracardially a group of small intensity nidi have been revealed during fluorographic examination of a
female patient, 30, suffering from a stomach ulcer. A preliminary diagnosis.
A. * Infiltrative tuberculosis.
B. Lung tuberculoma.
C. Fibrous cavernous tuberculosis.
D. Caseous pneumonia.
E. Disseminated tuberculosis.
830. A cloud-like darkening of the upper part of the right lung with a lightening in the center, to the left
paracardially a group of small intensity nidi have been revealed during fluorographic examination of a
female patient, 30, suffering from a stomach ulcer. A preliminary diagnosis.
A. * Infiltrative tuberculosis.
B. Lung tuberculoma.
C. Fibrous cavernous tuberculosis.
D. Caseous pneumonia.
E. Disseminated tuberculosis.
831. A darkening of medium intensity with a lightening in the center and a path to the root has been revealed
to the right beneath the clavicle of a patient B., 40, during fluorographic examination. He feels well.
Formulate the preliminary diagnosis.
A. Primary tuberculous complex.
B. * Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Lung tuberculoma.
D. Fibrous cavernous tuberculosis.
E. Caseous pneumonia.
832. A darkening of medium intensity with a lightening in the center and a path to the root has been revealed
to the right beneath the clavicle of a patient B., 40, during fluorographic examination. He feels well.
Formulate the preliminary diagnosis.
A. Primary tuberculous complex.
B. * Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Lung tuberculoma.
D. Fibrous cavernous tuberculosis.
E. Caseous pneumonia.
833. A group of shadows of small and medium intensity of 3-8 mm in diameter has been revealed in the
upper part of the right lung in a patient of 25 years old on a fluorogoram. The patient’s state is
satisfactory. Mantoux test with 2 TU – 16 mm infiltrate. What disease is the most probable one?
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Eosinophil infiltration
C. Nidus pneumonia
D. * Nidus lung tuberculosis
E. Peripheral lung cancer
834. A group of shadows of small and medium intensity of 3-8 mm in diameter has been revealed in the
upper part of the right lung in a patient of 25 years old on a fluorogoram. The patient’s state is
satisfactory. Mantoux test with 2 TU – 16 mm infiltrate. What disease is the most probable one?
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Eosinophil infiltration
C. Nidus pneumonia
D. * Nidus lung tuberculosis
E. Peripheral lung cancer
835. A round shadow with wave-like outer contours was found in the 3-rd segment of the left lung of a man
of 60 during a fluorographic examination. There were single calcinates in the roots. ESR – 62 mm/hr.
What illness can be suspected?
A. * Periferal cancer.
B. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Disseminated tuberculosis.
D. Lung tuberculoma.
E. Focal tuberculosis.
836. A round shadow with wave-like outer contours was found in the 3-rd segment of the left lung of a man
of 60 during a fluorographic examination. There were single calcinates in the roots. ESR – 62 mm/hr.
What illness can be suspected?
A. * Periferal cancer.
B. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Disseminated tuberculosis.
D. Lung tuberculoma.
E. Focal tuberculosis.
837. About which duration of disease does the most often indicate patients during gathering of anamnesis?
A. 3-4 days.
B. 1-2 weeks.
C. Below 1 year.
D. * 1-2 months.
E. 4-5 years and more.
838. About which duration of disease does the most often indicate patients during gathering of anamnesis?
A. 3-4 days.
B. 1-2 weeks.
C. Below 1 year.
D. * 1-2 months.
E. 4-5 years and more.
839. Amiloidosis is a system disease, it complicates the chronic purulent processes in the organism and is
characterized by the violations of:
A. Carbon metabolism.
B. * Albumen metabolism
C. Metabolism of fats
D. Vitamin exchange
E. Acid-alkaline equilibrium
840. Amiloidosis is a system disease, it complicates the chronic purulent processes in the organism and is
characterized by the violations of:
A. Carbon metabolism.
B. * Albumen metabolism
C. Metabolism of fats
D. Vitamin exchange
E. Acid-alkaline equilibrium
841. An urgent aid at a valvate spontaneous pneumothorax.
A. Fibrobronchoscopy
B. Artificial lung ventilation
C. * Pleural cavity drainage
D. Respiratory gymnastics
E. Strict bed rest
842. An urgent aid at a valvate spontaneous pneumothorax.
A. Fibrobronchoscopy
B. Artificial lung ventilation
C. * Pleural cavity drainage
D. Respiratory gymnastics
E. Strict bed rest
843. At the absence of positive treatment dynamics during 2-4 months the patients with lungs tuberculosis
are prescribed for:
A. * Economical resection of a lung
B. Pneumonectomy
C. Decortication of a lesion of lung
D. Hormonotherapy
E. Antimycobacterial therapy up to 6-8 months
844. At the absence of positive treatment dynamics during 2-4 months the patients with lungs tuberculosis
are prescribed for:
A. * Economical resection of a lung
B. Pneumonectomy
C. Decortication of a lesion of lung
D. Hormonotherapy
E. Antimycobacterial therapy up to 6-8 months
845. At what type of exsudate is a small amount of free liquid in a pleural cavity , an exsudate is organized
quickly?
A. Purulent.
B. Serous.
C. * Fibrinous.
D. Fibrinous and serous-fibrinous.
E. Haemorrhagic and serous-haemorrhagic.
846. By what method does selection of bacteria| usually appear at miliary tuberculosis?
A. Bakterioskopy.
B. Bakterioskopy after the using method of flotation.
C. Bacteriological.
D. Biological.
E. * Usually doesn’t appear by any method.
847. Complication of what form of tuberculosis can be an allergic pleurisy?
A. Lung infiltrative tuberculosis.
B. Nidus lung tuberculosis.
C. Subacute disseminated lung tuberculosis.
D. Lung tuberculoma.
E. * Tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes.
848. Complication of what form of tuberculosis can be development of perifocal pleurisy?
A. Fibrous-cavernous lung tuberculosis.
B. Lung infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Subacute disseminated lung tuberculosis.
D. Chronic disseminated lung tuberculosis.
E. * All noted forms.
849. Fluorographic examination has been conducted for a patient 25, on the occasion of the complains of the
raising of body temperature and cough, as a result of which darkening of small intensity of 4,0-5,0 cm in
diameter with the destruction present has been revealed in the upper part of the right lung. MBT has been
revealed in sputum. What rales will be the most characteristic for such changes in lungs?
A. Disseminated rales
B. Diffused single rales
C. * Local rales
D. Moist and dry rales along lung lesion
E. Moist rales in lower parts of lungs
850. For a patient a "fork" symptom is determined. What do pathological changes we think about?
A. Primary tubercular complex
B. Spontaneous pneumothorax.
C. * Cirrhosis of lung.
D. Dry pleurisy.
E. Tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodus.
851. For how many criterias do we estimate the quality of technical implementation of survey sciagram?
A. 1.
B. * 2.
C. 3.
D. 4.
E. 5.
852. For what disease or state transudate into pleural cavity is not typical?
A. Myxedema.
B. Cirrhosis of liver.
C. * Tuberculosis.
D. Stagnant cardiac insufficiency.
E. Nefrotic syndrome.
853. Formulating the clinical diagnosis of lung tuberculosis, first of all should be defined:
A. The process phase
B. The clinical form
C. Bacterial secretion
D. Localisation process
E. * Type of tuberculuos process
854. From how many parts does the root of lung consist of? (roentgenologicaly)
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. * 3.
D. 4.
E. 5.
855. From what age and in what terms is mass tuberculinization performed:
A. * From 12-months age, annually
B. From 12-months age, once in 2-3 years
C. At 7 and 14 years of age only
D. From 7 up to 14 years annually
E. From 7 and each 5 years up to 30-years old age
856. From wich clinic form of tuberculosis most often forms fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Tuberculoma.
B. Tuberculous primary complex
C. * Infiltrative form.
D. Focal form.
E. Cirrotic form.
857. From wich clinic form of tuberculosis most often forms fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Tuberculoma.
B. Tuberculous primary complex
C. * Infiltrative form.
D. Focal form.
E. Cirrotic form.
858. Haemoptysis appeared in a day after hyperinsolation of a girl of 17. No pathologic changes were found
in the lungs of fluorography six months ago. Damp middle-blistered rales are heard beneath the right
clavicle, Mantoux test with 2 TU – 23 mm infiltrate. What changes in lungs can one think about?
A. Spontaneus pneumothorax.
B. Lung tuberculosis.
C. Multiple nidi.
D. Cirrhosis of a lung.
E. * Decay cavities.
859. Haemoptysis appeared in a day after hyperinsolation of a girl of 17. No pathologic changes were found
in the lungs of fluorography six months ago. Damp middle-blistered rales are heard beneath the right
clavicle, Mantoux test with 2 TU – 23 mm infiltrate. What changes in lungs can one think about?
A. Spontaneus pneumothorax.
B. Lung tuberculosis.
C. Multiple nidi.
D. Cirrhosis of a lung.
E. * Decay cavities.
860. How do tuberculosis patients explain the weight loss more frequently?
A. Appetite worsening
B. Taste distortion, disgusting to the separate types of meal
C. Economy on the meal
D. * They can not explain, because appetite and rhythm of feed are remained ordinary
E. Wishing to lose flesh
861. How does usually miliary tuberculosis finish without treatment?
A. Spontaneous curing.
B. * By death in 4-5 weeks.
C. By death in 5-7 months.
D. Passing to infiltration tuberculosis.
E. Passing to chronic tuberculosis.
862. ?How is tuberculous etiology of pleurisy confirmed?
A. By the presence of tuberculous changes in lungs or other organs.
B. Finding of MBT in a pleural exudate or in sputum.
C. Mantaex test reaction is positive or recent tuberculin intensifier.
D. Puncture biopsy of pleura.
E. * All indicated assertions are faithful.
863. How many segments can be in left lung?
A. 8-11.
B. 8-12.
C. * 9-10.
D. 9-11.
E. 9-12.
864. How many stages of amyloidosis of kidneys are discriminated.
A. 2
B. 3
C. * 4
D. 5
E. 6
865. How many versions of tuberculomas are distinguished regarding pathomorphologic structure?
A. 1
B. 2
C. * 3
D. 4
E. 5
866. How many versions of tuberculomas clinical progress do you know?
A. 1
B. 2
C. * 3
D. 4
E. 5
867. How often does the second medicinal firmness of MBT develop to antimycobacterial medications in
patients with tuberculosis?
A. 1-5%.
B. 5-10%.
C. 10 - 20 %.
D. 20-40%.
E. * 50 - 60 %.
868. If there is the positive reaction on the tuberculin with 2 TU on the skin of antebrachium there can be
visible:
A. * Infiltrate by the size of 5 –16 mm
B. Infiltrate with a vesicle in the centre
C. Hyperemia more than 5 mm
D. Infiltrate by the size more than 16 mm
E. Infiltrate by the size of 2-4 mm
869. In how many times contact persons are more frequently ill , than uncontacts with tuberculosis?
A. 2-4.
B. * -10.
C. 15-20.
D. 25-30.
E. 31-35.
870. In order to lower the pressure in the system of the pulmonary artery, one should prescribe.
A. Penicyllin, camphorae, arphonad
B. * Atropin, euphilin, ganglioblockers
C. Isoniazidum, atropin, uterics
D. Oxygen, camphor, trombin
E. Dicinin, epsilon-aminocapronic acid, nitrosorbid
871. In order to lower the pressure in the system of the pulmonary artery, one should prescribe.
A. Penicyllin, camphorae, arphonad
B. * Atropin, euphilin, ganglioblockers
C. Isoniazidum, atropin, uterics
D. Oxygen, camphor, trombin
E. Dicinin, epsilon-aminocapronic acid, nitrosorbid
872. In patient with tuberculosis under a left shoulder-blade we can hear medium rales. What do such
changes testify about?
A. Focal changes in pulmonary tissue.
B. Bronchitis.
C. * Presence of cavities of disintegration.
D. Spontaneous pneumothorax.
E. Atelectasis
873. In progressing focal tuberculosis able proceed to other clinical forms of tuberculosis. In which form
focal tuberculosis usually not proceed directly?
A. Infiltrative pulmonary tuberculosis.
B. Disseminated pulmonary tuberculosis.
C. Pulmonary tuberculoma.
D. Caseous pneumonia.
E. * Fibrous cavernous tuberculosis.
874. In progressing focal tuberculosis able proceed to other clinical forms of tuberculosis. In which form
focal tuberculosis usually not proceed directly?
A. Infiltrative pulmonary tuberculosis.
B. Disseminated pulmonary tuberculosis.
C. Pulmonary tuberculoma.
D. Caseous pneumonia.
E. * Fibrous cavernous tuberculosis.
875. In stomach and duodenal ulcer patient, who was prepared for operation, an active tuberculosis was
discovered.What is the best doctor’s tactic ?
A. Treatment of tuberculosis after an operation.
B. Operation is combined with beginning of tuberculosis treatment.
C. * Operation after stabilizing of specific process.
D. Operation is only in 2 years from the beginning of tuberculosis treatment.
E. Operation is absolutely contra-indicated.
876. In the patient 1 month after the completed treatment of infiltrative tuberculosis of upper particle of right
lung, appeared intermittent rise in temperature up to 37,1-37,2°C and coughing. It was made an
extraordinary roentgenological inspection - changes weren`t discovered in lungs. What roentgenological
method is expedient to use for visualization of the changes of bronchial tubes of upper particle of right
lung?
A. Sciagraphy.
B. * Bronchography.
C. Rentgenoscopy.
D. Tomography.
E. Spot-film sciagraphy.
877. In the patient of 20 years on the fluorography inspection in the apex-back segment of the left lung found
out area of dark patch small intensity with unclear contours up to 1sm in a diameter. To what
roentgenological syndrome does the founded out formation belong to?
A. clearing up syndrome.
B. round shade syndrome.
C. * focal shades syndrome.
D. the changed focal picture syndrome.
E. Desimination syndrome
878. ?In the patient of 35 years it was first found out infiltrative tuberculosis of the overhead particle of the
right lung with the presence of destructive changes. On the survey sciagram cavity of disintegration we
can see unclear. What does roentgenological method of research need to be applied for visualization of
cavity?
A. Bronchography.
B. Fluorography.
C. Lateral sciagraphy.
D. * Tomography
E. Radioxerography.
879. In what term from the beginning of illness does the typical rentgenological picture of miliary
tuberculosis appear ?
A. On the first days
B. * On 7th days
C. Through 3-4 weeks
D. Through 2-3 months
E. Through 5-6 months.
880. In what age of men tuberculosis disease is the most reliable?
A. * 20-29 years
B. 30-39 years
C. 50-59 years
D. 60-69 years
E. above 70 years
881. In what age of women tuberculosis disease is the most reliable?
A. 20-29 years
B. * 30-39 years
C. 40-49 years
D. 50-59 years
E. above 60 years
882. In what percentage of people tuberculosis is caused by M. bovis?
A. 1-2%.
B. * 3-5%.
C. 10-20%.
D. 25-30%.
E. 35-50%.
883. In which case surgery is appropriate at tuberculoma?
A. Stationary course.
B. * Disintegration and bacterioexcretion.
C. Small size of tuberculoma (up to 2 cm).
D. Regressive course of tuberculoma.
E. Declining years.
884. In which morphological sort of tuberculoma possible to evolve due long course?
A. Infiltrative-pneumonic.
B. Homogeneous.
C. Pseudotuberculoma.
D. Conglomerate.
E. * Like ball.
885. In which way does the most often become apparent bacterioexcretion at focal pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Practically always by use bacterioscopy.
B. Never.
C. Often by use bacterioscopy.
D. * Sometimes by bacterioscopy.
E. Always by use bacterioscopy.
886. In which way hemogram will be changed at caseous pneumonia?
A. * Hypochromic anemia, leucocytosis 13.0-20.0 х109/L, eosinopenia, lymphopenia, ESR-acceleration
up to 50-70 mm/Hr.
B. Red blood in normal state, leucocytosis 20.0-40.0 х109/L, ESR-acceleration up to 35-55 mm/Hr,
lymphopenia, monocytopenia.
C. Monocytosis, lymphocytosis, normal ESR, leukopenia, hypochromic anemia.
D. Hypochromic anemia, leucocytosis 10.0-12.0 х109/L, еозинопенія, lymphopenia, stub shift up to 815%, ESR-acceleration up to 20-25 mm/Hr.
E. Expressed hypochromic anemia, normal state of white blood, ESR acceleration up to 50-70 mm/Hr.
887. In which way the most often reveals focal tuberculosis?
A. At clinical examination.
B. * At prophylactic photofluorographic examination.
C. At bacterioscopy analysis of spew.
D. At bronchoscopic examination.
E. At immunological examination.
888. Indicate the incorrect formulation of clinical diagnosis of lung tuberculosis
A. FDTB (16.06.2003) of the lungs upper sections (disseminated), Destr +, (infiltration ), MBT +M+C+,
Resist -, Hist 0, Cat1 Coh2(2003).
B. CTB (12.01.2000) the upper section of the right lung (fibrous-cavernous), Destr +, (infiltration),
MBT +M-C+ Resist I (S, H) Hist0. Lung haemoptysis. RI II, Cat 4 Coh1(2000).
C. FDTB (20.03.2001) of the lower part of the right lung (tuberculoma), Destr +, MBT- M-C-, Hist 0,
Cat1 Coh1(2001).
D. * FDTB (20.09.2003), (nidus tuberculosis), (infiltration), MBT-M-C-, Hist 0, Cat3 Coh3(2003).
E. RTB (20.06.2003) of the upper part of the right lung (infiltrative), Destr -, MBT- M-C-, Hist 0, Cat2
Coh2(2003).
889. Infiltrative tuberculosis of the upper part of the right lung in decay phase has been revealed in a patient,
MBT (+). What breathily murmurs do you expect to hear above the area lesion?
A. Dry whistling rales
B. Crepitation
C. Murmur of pleural rub
D. Bronchial breathing
E. * Local moist rales
890. Is it possible to vaccinate a newborn child which borned |from a mother sick with tuberculosis?
A. Absolutely contra-indicated in any case.
B. * It is possible, if a child does not have contra-indications and was immediately isolated from |mother
after childbearing.
C. It is possible, but needed to do Mantaex test before vaccinate.
D. Contra-indicated, if mother is sick with destructive tuberculosis.
E. It is possible, if mother accepted antimycobacterial drugs during pregnancy.
891. Koch’s testing is used for:
A. Prophylaxis of tuberculosis
B. Early tuberculosis revealing
C. Determination of infection index of population with tuberculosis
D. * Differential diagnostics of infectious and postvaccinal allergy
E. Revealing the persons with the increased risk of tuberculosis illness
892. Maximum number of segments affected at nidus lung tuberculosis.
A. 1
B. * 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
893. Maximum number of segments affected at nidus lung tuberculosis.
A. 1
B. * 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
894. Maximum size of shadows at nidus lung tuberculosis is:
A. 1 mm
B. 1,5 mm
C. 5 mm
D. * 10 mm
E. 25 mm
895. Maximum size of shadows at nidus lung tuberculosis is:
A. 1 mm
B. 1,5 mm
C. 5 mm
D. * 10 mm
E. 25 mm
896. More frequently the spontaneous pneumothorax in patients with lungs tuberculosis appear:
A. At fibrobronchoscopy
B. During pleural puncture
C. At cavern wall rupture
D. * At subpleural emphysematous bubbles rupture
E. At pneumotachometria
897. More frequently the spontaneous pneumothorax in patients with lungs tuberculosis appear:
A. At fibrobronchoscopy
B. During pleural puncture
C. At cavern wall rupture
D. * At subpleural emphysematous bubbles rupture
E. At pneumotachometria
898. Nidal shades of medium intensity with vague contours were revealed on the left apex of a 20-years old
youth during fluorographic examination. His general state is good. Mantoux test with 2 TU – 19 mm
infiltrate. Your preliminary diagnosis?
A. Primary tuberculous complex.
B. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Disseminated tuberculosis.
D. Lung tuberculoma.
E. * Focal tuberculosis.
899. Nidal shades of medium intensity with vague contours were revealed on the left apex of a 20-years old
youth during fluorographic examination. His general state is good. Mantoux test with 2 TU – 19 mm
infiltrate. Your preliminary diagnosis?
A. Primary tuberculous complex.
B. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Disseminated tuberculosis.
D. Lung tuberculoma.
E. * Focal tuberculosis.
900. On base of which infiltrative most often evolve lobar caseous pneumonia?
A. Round.
B. Lobular.
C. Periscysurite.
D. Like a cloud.
E. Lobitis.
901. On base of which infiltrative most often evolve lobar caseous pneumonia?
A. Round.
B. Lobular.
C. Periscysurite.
D. Like a cloud.
E. Lobitis.
902. On the background of what complications of lungs tuberculosis caseous pneumonia is the most
frequent?
A. Pulmonary haemoptysis
B. Spontaneous pneumothorax
C. Larynx tuberculosis
D. Amyloidosis of kidney
E. Atelectasis of particle lung
903. On the background of what complications of lungs tuberculosis caseous pneumonia is the most
frequent?
A. Pulmonary haemoptysis
B. Spontaneous pneumothorax
C. Larynx tuberculosis
D. Amyloidosis of kidney
E. Atelectasis of particle lung
904. Percussion note with tympanic tinge, amphoric respiration at auscultative above the upper part of the
right lung in a tuberculosis patient. What should be changes in lungs thought about?
A. Infiltration of the lung tissue
B. Lung cirrhosis
C. Atelectasis
D. * Large cavern
E. Spontaneous pneumothorax
905. Plan a specific treatment to a patient with FDTB (03.03.2001) of the upper part of the right lung
(caseous pneumonia), Destr+, MBT+M+C+, Resist-, HIST0, Cat1 Coh1(2001). The patient is 45, weight
– 46 kg. His general condition is difficult. There is no accompanying pathology. Prescribe
antimycobacterial preparations.
A. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + streptomycini.
B. Isoniazidum + pyrazinamidum
C. * Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + streptomycini + pyrazinamidum .
D. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum.
E. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + ethambutolum.
906. Plan a specific treatment to a patient with FDTB (03.03.2001) of the upper part of the right lung
(caseous pneumonia), Destr+, MBT+M+C+, Resist-, HIST0, Cat1 Coh1(2001). The patient is 45, weight
– 46 kg. His general condition is difficult. There is no accompanying pathology. Prescribe
antimycobacterial preparations.
A. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + streptomycini.
B. Isoniazidum + pyrazinamidum
C. * Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + streptomycini + pyrazinamidum .
D. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum.
E. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + ethambutolum.
907. Primary forms of tuberculosis comprise:
A. Nidus
B. Disseminated
C. * Tuberculosis intoxication
D. Caseous pneumonia
E. Infiltrative
908. Procoagulative action preparations.
A. Camphor
B. * Dicinon
C. Benzohexoniy
D. Amben
E. Atropin
909. Procoagulative action preparations.
A. Camphor
B. * Dicinon
C. Benzohexoniy
D. Amben
E. Atropin
910. Single nidal shades of small intensity with vague contours were revealed on the apex of both lungs of a
19-years old woman patient during the prophylactic fluorographyc examination. What is the clinical form
of tuberculosis?
A. Infiltrative
B. Lung tuberculoma
C. * Nidus
D. Caseous pneumonia
E. Disseminated
911. Small and average nidi of little intensity have been revealed on the apex of the right lung during
fluorographic examination of a man aged 30. During the last month he notes the decrease of the appetite,
perspiration, inconsiderable cough. Prescribe of antimicobacterial therapy on the 1-st stage.
A. * Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + pyrazinamidum
B. Isoniazidum + pyrazinamidum
C. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + streptomycini + pyrazinamidum + ethambutolum.
D. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum.
E. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + ethambutolum.
912. Small and average nidi of little intensity have been revealed on the apex of the right lung during
fluorographic examination of a man aged 30. During the last month he notes the decrease of the appetite,
perspiration, inconsiderable cough. Prescribe of antimicobacterial therapy on the 1-st stage.
A. * Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + pyrazinamidum
B. Isoniazidum + pyrazinamidum
C. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + streptomycini + pyrazinamidum + ethambutolum.
D. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum.
E. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + ethambutolum.
913. Specific complications comprise:
A. Haemophthisis
B. Chronic lung heart
C. Lung atelectasis
D. * Larynx tuberculosis
E. Amyloidosis disease
914. The characteristic phase of tuberculous process progression is:
A. Suction
B. * Sowing
C. Condensation
D. Scarring
E. Calcination
915. The frequency of lung haemorrage in lung tuberculosis patients.
A. 1-2 %
B. 3-5 %
C. * 6-19 %
D. 20-25 %
E. 30-35 %
916. The frequency of lung haemorrage in lung tuberculosis patients.
A. 1-2 %
B. 3-5 %
C. * 6-19 %
D. 20-25 %
E. 30-35 %
917. The greatest importance for the confirmation of lung atelectasis diagnosis is:
A. USE
B. Pneumotachometry
C. Roentgenoscopy
D. Computer tomography
E. * Bronchoscopy
918. The greatest importance for the confirmation of lung atelectasis diagnosis is:
A. USE
B. Pneumotachometry
C. Roentgenoscopy
D. Computer tomography
E. * Bronchoscopy
919. The illness, with which differential diagnostics of caseous pneumonia should be made most frequent:
A. * Staphylococcal pneumonia
B. Central cancer
C. Eosinophilic pneumonia
D. Nidal pneumonia
E. Bronchoectasia
920. The main method of chronic lung heart diagnostics
A. Elecrocardiography
B. Phonocardiography
C. Balistocardiography
D. * Echocardiography
E. Roentgenoscopy
921. The main reason of the profuse pulmonary bleeding in patients with tuberculosis.
A. * Blood vessel rapture
B. Pulmonary artery thrombosis
C. Varicose of blood pulmonary vessels
D. Activation of fibrinolysis
E. Violations in blood coagulation system
922. ?The method of the definition of a kind of spontaneous pneumothorax.
A. Roentgenologic
B. On the basis of the clinic data.
C. * The pressure measurement in the pleural cavity (manometry)
D. Computer tomography
E. USE
923. The most characteristic blood analysis in patients with the infiltrative lung tuberculosis.
A. Leuc. – 25,0?10/l; е – 3, p – 6, s – 51, l – 23, m – 7 %; ESR – 6 mm/hour.
B. * Leuc. - 9,8?10/l; е – 5, p – 6, s – 65, l – 13, m – 11 %; ESR – 36 mm/hour.
C. Leuc. - 4,0?10/l; е – 2, p – 2, s – 60, l – 26, m – 9 %; ESR – 6 mm/hour.
D. Leuc. – 16,5?10/l; е – 10, p – 10, s – 64, l – 14, m – 2 %; ESR – 21 mm/hour.
E. Leuc. – 6,0?10/l; е – 4, p – 3, s – 60, l – 26, m– 6 %; ESR – 7 mm/hour.
924. The most effective fibrinolysis inhibitor.
A. Trasilol
B. Contrycal
C. * Epsilon-aminocapronic acid (EACA)
D. Amben
E. Albumin
925. The most rational combination of antimycobacterial preparations at the initial stage in patients with lung
tuberculoma, MBT (-).
A. Isonoazidum + streptomycini + rifampycini
B. * Isonoazidum + rifampycini + pyrazinamidum
C. Isonoazidum + streptomycini + pyrazinamidum
D. Isonoazidum + pyrazinamidum + PASA
E. Rifampycini + ethionamidum + kanamycini
926. The most rational combination of antimycobacterial preparations at the initial stage in patients with lung
tuberculoma, MBT (-).
A. Isonoazidum + streptomycini + rifampycini
B. * Isonoazidum + rifampycini + pyrazinamidum
C. Isonoazidum + streptomycini + pyrazinamidum
D. Isonoazidum + pyrazinamidum + PASA
E. Rifampycini + ethionamidum + kanamycini
927. The most trustworthy criteria of nidal tuberculosis activity.
A. Intoxication syndrome
B. Changes in haemogram
C. * Revealing of micobacteria tuberculosis
D. Nidus shadow of medium intensity with distinct contours
E. Positive Mantoux testing of 2 TU
928. The most trustworthy criteria of nidal tuberculosis activity.
A. Intoxication syndrome
B. Changes in haemogram
C. * Revealing of micobacteria tuberculosis
D. Nidus shadow of medium intensity with distinct contours
E. Positive Mantoux testing of 2 TU
929. The predominant segmental localization of tuberculosis infiltration
A. I, II, III segments
B. I, III, V segments
C. I, IV, V segments
D. * I, II, VI segments
E. II, VI IX segments
930. The predominant segmental localization of tuberculosis infiltration
A. I, II, III segments
B. I, III, V segments
C. I, IV, V segments
D. * I, II, VI segments
E. II, VI IX segments
931. The prognosis and course of which illness is not favourable at tuberculosis in combination with
diabetes|?
A. Always of tuberculosis.
B. Always of diabetes.
C. Of both diseases.
D. * That illness,| which arose up the first.
E. That illness,| which arose up the second.
932. The prophylactic photoroentgenographic examination of a 25-year-old patient showed in segments 1-2
of the left lung focal shadows of low intensity without distinct contours. Mantoux test with 2 TO – 7 mm
infiltrate. Blood analysis: leuk. – 9,9 x 109/l, ESR – 26 mm/hour. Which is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Nidus lung tuberculosis
B. Infiltrative lung tuberculosis
C. Nidus pneumonia
D. Lung cancer
E. Eosiniphil infiltration
933. The prophylactic photoroentgenographic examination of a 25-year-old patient showed in segments 1-2
of the left lung focal shadows of low intensity without distinct contours. Mantoux test with 2 TO – 7 mm
infiltrate. Blood analysis: leuk. – 9,9 x 109/l, ESR – 26 mm/hour. Which is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Nidus lung tuberculosis
B. Infiltrative lung tuberculosis
C. Nidus pneumonia
D. Lung cancer
E. Eosiniphil infiltration
934. The sensitivity of organism to tuberculin may be intensified with:
A. Senile age
B. Lymphogranulomatosis
C. Lymphosarcoma
D. Treatment with immunodepressants
E. * Bronchial asthma
935. To the primary forms of tuberculosis belong:
A. Disseminated
B. Nidus
C. Infiltrative
D. Tuberculoma
E. * Tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes
936. To which category relate patients of caseous pneumonia?
A. * To first.
B. To third.
C. To second.
D. To forth.
E. To fifth.
937. To which category relate patients of caseous pneumonia?
A. * To first.
B. To third.
C. To second.
D. To forth.
E. To fifth.
938. To which dispensary category does patient with first diagnosed infiltrative pulmonary tuberculosis in
disintegration stage and availability bacterioexcretion belong ?
A. * To first.
B. To third.
C. To second.
D. To fourth.
E. To fifth.
939. To which dispensary category does patient with first diagnosed infiltrative pulmonary tuberculosis in
disintegration stage and availability bacterioexcretion belong ?
A. * To first.
B. To third.
C. To second.
D. To fourth.
E. To fifth.
940. Under the mask of what diseases is tuberculosis infiltrate the most frequent?
A. Peripheral lung cancer
B. Retention cyst
C. * Pneumonia
D. Eosinophile infiltrate
E. Aspergiloma
941. Under the mask of what diseases is tuberculosis infiltrate the most frequent?
A. Peripheral lung cancer
B. Retention cyst
C. * Pneumonia
D. Eosinophile infiltrate
E. Aspergiloma
942. What is the method of provocation of wheezes for patients with tuberculosis?
A. deep breathing
B. breathing through the mouth.
C. * deep inhalation after the easy coughing.
D. breathing through the nose.
E. quiet breathing
943. What kind of rentgenological| picture is most typical for miliary tuberculosis?
A. "Flakes of snow".
B. "Snow-storm".
C. "Weeping willow".
D. "Bat’s wings".
E. * "Looks like millet" dissemination.
944. What types of MBT are the most pathogenic for a human being?
A. M. Africanum.
B. M Avium.
C. M. Bovinus.
D. * M.Tuberculosis.
E. Kansasii.
945. What |are the indications to fluorography of the patient with diabetes?
A. After carried hyperglycemic| and hypoglycemic comma.
B. After carried a flu or pneumonia.
C. After any operative interference .
D. At appearance of symptoms, which are characteristic for tuberculosis or hyperergy reaction.|
E. * All these sings.
946. What are the main principles of tuberculosis treatment during pregnancy?
A. To begin treatment only after childbearing.
B. * Treatment by generally accepted principles .
C. Obligatory breaking the pregnancy regardless of process.
D. The dynamic looking after the motion of process. At progressing - immediate treatment.
E. The treatment should be performed immediately after revealing active tuberculosis.
947. What are the most dangerous periods that contributing to aggravation, recurrence and progressing of old
tubercular hearths for pregnant ?
A. The second month of pregnancy.
B. The fifth month of pregnancy.
C. The last weeks before childbearing.
D. The first 6 months after childbearing.
E. * All marked periods are dangerous.
948. What are the most frequent segmental localization of the second forms of tuberculosis of lungs?
A. * I, II, III segments.
B. II, III, IV segments.
C. III, V, VI segments.
D. I, II, VI segments.
E. II, III, X segments.
949. What are the roentgenologic| signs of tuberculosis in diabetes patients?
A. Infiltrative tuberculosis, more frequent cloudsimilar infiltration, polysegmentation infiltration or lobit
||.
B. Bilateral infiltration | in lower particles of lung (caused by reactivation of| process in |intrathoracic
lymphatic nodes with lymphogenic| and |bronchogenic eruption).
C. Large tuberculoma with undistinct contours, perifocal inflammation, which is able to decay.
D. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis (with severe progressive course, can be complicated by caseous|
pneumonia).
E. * All these signs.
950. What are the terms of appearance of tuberculosis’s mycobacterium growth on hard nourishing
environments?
A. 2-3 days.
B. 7-14 days.
C. * 3-4 weeks.
D. 3-5 months.
E. 6 months.
951. What are typical complications for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Tuberculosis bronchus.
B. Bronchogenic dissemination.
C. Tuberculosis larynx.
D. Tuberculosis colitis.
E. * All with above.
952. What are typical complications for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Tuberculosis bronchus.
B. Bronchogenic dissemination.
C. Tuberculosis larynx.
D. Tuberculosis colitis.
E. * All with above.
953. What biochemical components of MBT cause their firmness to acids, alkalis and alcohols?.
A. Albumen
B. Hydrocarbon
C. * Lipids
D. Polysaccharide.
E. Mineral salts.
954. What character does temperature curve at tuberculosis carry usually?
A. Constant
B. One-day
C. Hectic
D. Three-day
E. * None of the above
955. What character of pain in a thorax at “fresh” uncomplicated lung tuberculosis is the most typical?
A. Attackable
B. * Constant
C. Sanestopathetic
D. Migrated
E. Phantomlike
956. What character of sputum at uncomplicated lung tuberculosis is most reliable?
A. * Slime, transparent
B. Bright-yellow
C. Green-yellow
D. Green with a sharp odour
E. Rusty
957. What character of sputum secretion at uncomplicated lung tuberculosis is most typical?
A. The sputum is secreted mainly in the morning after smoking in an amount of 10-15 ml
B. * The sputum is secretion during a day in an amount of 30-100 ml
C. Liquid waterly sputum is secreted constantly to 1,5-2,0 l for a day
D. A patient can tell, when thick stinking sputum was one-time secreted by “full mouth”
E. Viscous sputum is secreted after completion of asthma attacks only
958. What character usually has temperature reaction for a patient on miliary tuberculosis?
A. Subfebrility| during the first 3-5 days of illness.
B. Protracted inconstant subfebrility.
C. Fever during the first 3-5 days of illness.
D. * The Wrong fever
E. Normal temperature.
959. What clinic symptoms are the most typical for tuberculoma?
A. * Sometime subfebrile state, minor cough, possible absent of complains.
B. Strong cough, pain in chest, shortness of breath.
C. High temperature, chill, pain in chest, purulent spew.
D. Cough, spew with unpleasant smell, hyperhidrosis, spew with blood.
E. Pain in chest. Spew with blood, Shortness of breath.
960. What clinic symptoms are the most typical for tuberculoma?
A. * Sometime subfebrile state, minor cough, possible absent of complains.
B. Strong cough, pain in chest, shortness of breath.
C. High temperature, chill, pain in chest, purulent spew.
D. Cough, spew with unpleasant smell, hyperhidrosis, spew with blood.
E. Pain in chest. Spew with blood, Shortness of breath.
961. What clinical course is typical for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. * Wavy, with remission and exacerbation.
B. Acute, progressive.
C. Near acute.
D. Without symptoms or with few symptoms.
E. Quick feedback.
962. What clinical course is typical for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. * Wavy, with remission and exacerbation.
B. Acute, progressive.
C. Near acute.
D. Without symptoms or with few symptoms.
E. Quick feedback.
963. What clinical form of tuberculosis is tuberculoma formed from most frequently?
A. Disseminated
B. Fibrous-cavernous
C. Cirrhotic
D. Nidus
E. * Infiltrative
964. What clinical form of tuberculosis is tuberculoma formed from most frequently?
A. Disseminated
B. Fibrous-cavernous
C. Cirrhotic
D. Nidus
E. * Infiltrative
965. What clinical presentation is the most typical for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Long remissions.
B. * Chronic clinical course.
C. Absent any remissions.
D. Periods of remissions alternate with acute conditions.
E. Permanent progress of process.
966. What clinical presentation is the most typical for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Long remissions.
B. * Chronic clinical course.
C. Absent any remissions.
D. Periods of remissions alternate with acute conditions.
E. Permanent progress of process.
967. What clinical presentation is typical for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. No complaints or cough with minor spew. Sometime local humid wheeze.
B. * Cough with spew, breathlessness, sometime spew with blood. Time to time high temperature,
hyperhidrosis. Local humid wheeze. During remission – good state of health.
C. Cough, spew with objectionable odor. During worsening – high temperature, hyperhidrosis,
sometime spew with blood. Humid and dry wheeze. “Drumsticks”.
D. Pain in thorax, often sputum with blood, breathlessness, diminished breath sounds, sometime humid
or dry local wheeze.
E. No complaints.Time to time dry cough. Temperature is normal (inflammation is able to raise
temperature). Auscultatory data are small.
968. What clinical presentation is typical for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. No complaints or cough with minor spew. Sometime local humid wheeze.
B. * Cough with spew, breathlessness, sometime spew with blood. Time to time high temperature,
hyperhidrosis. Local humid wheeze. During remission – good state of health.
C. Cough, spew with objectionable odor. During worsening – high temperature, hyperhidrosis,
sometime spew with blood. Humid and dry wheeze. “Drumsticks”.
D. Pain in thorax, often sputum with blood, breathlessness, diminished breath sounds, sometime humid
or dry local wheeze.
E. No complaints.Time to time dry cough. Temperature is normal (inflammation is able to raise
temperature). Auscultatory data are small.
969. What combination of antituberculosis medicines is the most suitable at first revealed small
tuberculoma?
A. * Isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide.
B. Streptomycin, isoniazid, rifampicin.
C. Streptomycin, rifampicin, ethambutol.
D. Amikacin, kanamycin, pyrazinamide,
E. Rifampicin, ofloxacin, pyrazinamide.
970. What combination of antituberculosis medicines is the most suitable at first revealed small
tuberculoma?
A. * Isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide.
B. Streptomycin, isoniazid, rifampicin.
C. Streptomycin, rifampicin, ethambutol.
D. Amikacin, kanamycin, pyrazinamide,
E. Rifampicin, ofloxacin, pyrazinamide.
971. What complication is not typical |for miliary tuberculosis?
A. Sharp insufficiency of kidney.
B. Cerebral comma.
C. Sharp hepatic insufficiency.
D. * Amyloidosis.
E. Endotoxicosis.
972. What complications can accompany a tuberculous empyema?.
A. Broncho-pleural fistula.
B. Toracic fistula.
C. Amyloidosis of internal organs.
D. Pneumopleurisy.
E. * All marked.
973. What components of lungs tissue are not visible on a sciagram?
A. Roots of lungs.
B. Dig vascular barrels.
C. The walls of bronchial tubes.
D. * Teeth ridges.
E. Interstice of lungs.
974. What composition of pleural liquid is typical for an exsudate?
A. * Relative density - 1025, protein content- 45 g/l, protein (in effusion/ in the serum of blood)-0,8,
activity of LDG -2,1 mmol/(l/hour), content of cells -2,1?109/l.
B. Relative density - 1010, protein content - 20 g/l, protein (in effusion/ in the serum of blood)-0,2,
activity of LDG - 1,1 mmol/(l/hour), content of cells- 0,8?109/l.
C. Relative density - 1005, protein content- 15 g/l, protein (in effusion/ in the serum of blood)-0,3,
activity of LDG -0,9 mmol/(l/hour), content of cells -0,5?109/l.
D. Relative density - 1000, protein content- 10 g/l, protein (in effusion/ in the serum of blood)-0,4,
activity of LDG -1,3 mmol/(l/hour), content of cells -0,6?109/l.
E. All indicated is an exsudate.
975. What constituent combinations of MBT are the basic transmitters of antigens’ characteristic features?
A. * Albumen
B. Hydrocarbon
C. Lipids
D. Polysaccharide.
E. Mineral salts.
976. What contraindication to surgery for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis patient?
A. * Wide distribution of the focus of disease.
B. Bronchiectasis is present.
C. Bleeding in lungs.
D. Resistivity to 2 antituberculous medications.
E. Wide bacterioexcretion.
977. What contraindication to surgery for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis patient?
A. * Wide distribution of the focus of disease.
B. Bronchiectasis is present.
C. Bleeding in lungs.
D. Resistivity to 2 antituberculous medications.
E. Wide bacterioexcretion.
978. What course is the most typical for tuberculoma?
A. Gradual progressive worsening.
B. * Few symptoms or without symptoms.
C. Acute start. Quick worsening.
D. Near acute. Like influenza or pneumonia.
E. Acute start. Quick reverse evolution due chemical medications.
979. What course is the most typical for tuberculoma?
A. Gradual progressive worsening.
B. * Few symptoms or without symptoms.
C. Acute start. Quick worsening.
D. Near acute. Like influenza or pneumonia.
E. Acute start. Quick reverse evolution due chemical medications.
980. What course is typical for tuberculosis which arises at first time after the childbearing?
A. Rapid reversed development.
B. * Rapid progressing with expressed clinical symptomatic|.
C. Slow reversed development.
D. Poor symptomatic |motion.
E. Initially chronic motion.
981. What disease anamnesis is the most characteristic for lung tuberculosis?
A. A patient felt ill acute three day ago, nowadays the state is some improved
B. * A patient considers himself to be ill a few months
C. A patient considers himself to be ill “all life”, repeatedly inspected without a result
D. A patient notes the state worsening every fourth day
E. A patient notes the state worsening at reduction of light day every year
982. What disease can a "fork" symptom be determined at?
A. Miliary tuberculosis.
B. Tuberculoma
C. Dry pleurisy.
D. * Cirrotic tuberculosis .
E. Silicotuberculosis.
983. What disease can assist development of tuberculosis?
A. Essential hypertension.
B. Infectious mononucleosis|.
C. * Ulcer of the stomach and duodenum.
D. All marked disease.
E. Nothing of transferred.
984. ?What do patients with the unfolded clinical picture of tuberculosis, regardless to the localization of the
process complain of?
A. * Weakness, excessive perspiration, loss of weight, promoted temperature of body
B. Attacks of stuffiness at the change of weather
C. Disturbance of sensitiveness, “creeping of ants” in extremities
D. Consciousness blank
E. Headache, pain in abdomen without clear localization
985. What does cause the pain at “fresh” uncomplicated tuberculosis?
A. Lung tissue decay
B. Expressed exudation in a lung tissue
C. Bronch`s lesion
D. * Pleura`s lesion
E. Prevailing productive reaction
986. What feature is typical for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis in our time?
A. * Complications by not specific inflammatory processes.
B. Frequent evolution of of internal amyloidosis.
C. Profuse bleeding in lungs.
D. Frequent aspergillosis.
E. Evolution of tuberculous meningoencephalitis.
987. What feature is typical for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis in our time?
A. * Complications by not specific inflammatory processes.
B. Frequent evolution of of internal amyloidosis.
C. Profuse bleeding in lungs.
D. Frequent aspergillosis.
E. Evolution of tuberculous meningoencephalitis.
988. What form do normal roots of lungs have?
A. Optus corner opened aside pulmonary field.
B. Triangle, by the apex turned to middle shade.
C. * Sector of a circle.
D. Rectangle.
E. Complex polycyclic figure.
989. What form have cavities of disintegration at miliary tuberculosis?
A. Bilateral symmetric thin-walled cavities.
B. Bilateral asymmetric thick-walled cavities.
C. One-sided plural cavities of different form.
D. One thick-walled cavity and plural thin-walled "daughters's" cavities .
E. * There aren’t cavities.
990. What forms of tuberculosis prevail for stomach and duodenal ulcer patients after the resection of
stomach?
A. Primary tuberculous complex.
B. Out of lungs tuberculous processes.
C. * Infiltrative and exsudative forms of tuberculosis with propensity to progress, formation of plural
destructions and bronchogenic dissemination.
D. Chronic forms of tuberculosis.
E. Tuberculous mesadenitis.
991. What from transferred is characteristic for a tuberculous process on the late stages of HIV-infection|?
A. The expressed durable intoxication with negative Mantaex test.
B. Diffuse infiltrates| in upper, middle and lower lung sections.
C. Mainly |out of lungs defeats, enlargement of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes, lymphadenopathia
D. In the halves of patients – MBT absence from the sputum||.
E. * All transferred .
992. What illness is the most expedient to differentiate tuberculoma with?
A. * Aspergilloma
B. An air-cyst
C. Central cancer
D. Eosinophilic infiltrate
E. Chronic abscess
993. What illness is the most expedient to differentiate tuberculoma with?
A. * Aspergilloma
B. An air-cyst
C. Central cancer
D. Eosinophilic infiltrate
E. Chronic abscess
994. What information is the most important at questioning of patient with suspicion on tuberculosis?
A. Family status of patient.
B. Profession.
C. Material well-being .
D. * Contact with a patient with tuberculosis.
E. Presence of cattle in the housekeeping (cows).
995. What is a definition for tuberculoma?
A. * Tuberculoma is limited by capsule from conjunctive tissue focus of caseous with size more that 1
cm with chronic and torpid course.
B. Tuberculoma is center of specific pneumonia with size up to 1 cm which localized in border of 1-2
segments.
C. Tuberculoma is area of specific inflammation with prevailed escudative character with size more 1
cm, with disposition to spontaneous recovery.
D. Tuberculoma is area of specific inflammation with prevailed escudative character with size more 1
cm, with disposition to progress and disintegration.
E. Tuberculoma is accretion of rough conjunctive tissue in the lung as a result of involution of different
forms of tuberculosis.
996. What is a definition for tuberculoma?
A. * Tuberculoma is limited by capsule from conjunctive tissue focus of caseous with size more that 1
cm with chronic and torpid course.
B. Tuberculoma is center of specific pneumonia with size up to 1 cm which localized in border of 1-2
segments.
C. Tuberculoma is area of specific inflammation with prevailed escudative character with size more 1
cm, with disposition to spontaneous recovery.
D. Tuberculoma is area of specific inflammation with prevailed escudative character with size more 1
cm, with disposition to progress and disintegration.
E. Tuberculoma is accretion of rough conjunctive tissue in the lung as a result of involution of different
forms of tuberculosis.
997. What is clinic category for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis patient with long term?
A. * Fourth.
B. First.
C. Second.
D. Third.
E. Fifth
998. What is clinic category for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis patient with long term?
A. * Fourth.
B. First.
C. Second.
D. Third.
E. Fifth
999. What is correct continuation of suggestion? Miliary tuberculosis....
A. Is the most frequent form of tuberculosis.
B. Takes the second place (after the infiltration tuberculosis) in the structure of morbidity on secondary
tuberculosis.
C. Takes the second place (after the tuberculosis of intrathoracic nodes) in the structure of morbidity on
primary tuberculosis.
D. * Nowadays meets rarely.
E. Nowadays meets in casuistic cases.
1000. What is primary medical firmness of MBT?
A. * MBT firmness of the patients which had not been yet treated by antimycobacterial medications.
B. MBT firmness of patients with the primary form of tuberculosis.
C. MBT firmness of patients with the chronic forms of tuberculosis.
D. MBT firmness of patients with the relapses of tuberculosis.
E. MBT firmness of patients with the small forms of tuberculosis.
1001. What is the “range” of tuberculin reactions?
A. Transition of negative reaction to tuberculin to a positive one after BCG vaccination
B. Transition of negative reaction to tuberculin to a positive one after BCG revaccination
C. * Sensitivity change to tuberculin due to the primary infection with tuberculosis mycobacteria
D. Appearance of hyperergy reaction to tuberculin in patients infected with tuberculosis
E. Negative reaction to tuberculin in seriously ill tuberculosis patients
1002. What is the aim of mass tuberculinization:
A. For prophylaxis of MBT infection
B. For prophylaxis of tuberculosis illness
C. * For early tuberculosis revealing among children
D. For early tuberculosis revealing among adults
E. For revealing the persons with the increased risk of tuberculosis illness
1003. What is the basic method of the discovering tuberculosis among people using masssurveys ?
A. Rentgenoscopy.
B. Computerized tomography .
C. Bronchography.
D. * Fluorography
E. Spot-film sciagraphy.
1004. What is the character of exsudate at the tuberculous empyema ?
A. Serous-fibrinous and fibrinous.
B. * Serous-purulent and purulent.
C. Haemorrhagic.
D. Serous-haemorrhagic.
E. Chillous.
1005. What is the criteria of optimum inflexibility of sciagram?
A. * On the sciagram evidently seen the first three-four pectoral vertebrae.
B. On the sciagram evidently contours of shoulder-blades.
C. On the sciagram evidently seen first six-eight pectoral vertebrae.
D. On the sciagram evidently seen ribs.
E. On the sciagram evidently seen breastbone.
1006. What is the exsudate at tuberculous pleurisy?
A. * Mainly lymphocytic.
B. Mainly neutrophilic.
C. Chillous.
D. Monocytic.
E. Macrophagic.
1007. What is the frequency of primary medicinal firmness of MBT in patients with tuberculosis?
A. 0,5-1%.
B. 2 - 5 %.
C. * 1-14%.
D. 15-20%.
E. 25 - 30 %.
1008. What is the high bound of the norm of a lungs root width?
A. 1,0 sm
B. * 2,5 sm
C. 3,5 sm
D. 5 sm
E. 7,5 sm
1009. What is the main characteristic of fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Disposition to forming acinar, acinar-nodose and lobular centers.
B. Disposition for creation infiltrations and caverns.
C. * Old fibrous cavity and fibrosis in abutting pulmonary tissue.
D. Polychemoresistance.
E. Periodical or permanent bacterioexcretion.
1010. What is the main characteristic of fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Disposition to forming acinar, acinar-nodose and lobular centers.
B. Disposition for creation infiltrations and caverns.
C. * Old fibrous cavity and fibrosis in abutting pulmonary tissue.
D. Polychemoresistance.
E. Periodical or permanent bacterioexcretion.
1011. ?What is the major diagnostic sign of joining tuberculosis in patient with pneumoconiosis|?
A. Positive result of Mantaex testing of 2 TU PPD-L.
B. * Revealing MBT in sputum.||
C. Presence of symptoms of tubercular intoxication.
D. Information about the tuberculosis carried in the past.
E. Presence of nidus shadows on a roentgenogram.
1012. What is the mechanism of development of pleural inflammation by MBT?
A. Only lymphogenic.
B. * Lympho-hematogenic.
C. Sputogenic.
D. Bronchogenic.
E. Only hematogenic.
1013. What is the most characteristic investigation, if miliary tuberculosis does not end with death of
patient?
A. * Convalescence with development of diffuse pneumofibrosis.
B. Convalescence with forming the hearths of Gon.
C. Passing into subsharp disseminated tuberculosis.
D. Passing into fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis.
E. Development the cirrhosis of lungs.
1014. What is the most frequent immediate causes of death at pulmonary haemorrage in pulmonary
tuberculosis patients?
A. Anemia
B. Aspirational pneumonia
C. * Asphyxia
D. Atelectasis
E. Tuberculosis progressing
1015. What is the most frequent immediate causes of death at pulmonary haemorrage in pulmonary
tuberculosis patients?
A. Anemia
B. Aspirational pneumonia
C. * Asphyxia
D. Atelectasis
E. Tuberculosis progressing
1016. What is the most informative phenomenon at auscultation of tuberculosis patient?
A. Dispersed dry rales
B. Inconstant dry and moist rales in the area by the root
C. * Moist local rales on the lung apexes
D. Pleura friction murmur
E. “Mute” lung
1017. What is the reason of appearance of exsudate in a pleural cavity at different clinical forms of
tuberculosis?
A. The anatomic and functional connection between the sheets of pleura, lymphatic nodes and lymphatic
system of lungs.
B. The inflammation of pleura that caused by MBT, that penetrate into pleura by lymphogenic way from
the hearths or infiltrations in lungs.
C. The inflammation of pleura that caused by MBT, that penetrate into pleura because of bacteriemia.
D. Pleura hypersensibilization by MBT decay products.
E. * All indicated assertions are faithful.
1018. What is the reason of origin of primary medicinal firmness of MBT?
A. Untimely exposure of tuberculosis.
B. Late exposure of tuberculosis.
C. Nonregularly taking of antimycobacterial medications.
D. Treatment by chemicals of understated doses.
E. * Infection by stable cultures of MBT.
1019. What is the therapeutic approach at first revealed tuberculoma with size 3-4 cm?
A. Urgent surgery.
B. * Medical treatment start with prescription of antituberculosis medicine, after this – surgery.
C. Just specific conservative treatment.
D. Case monitoring.
E. Tuberculin therapy.
1020. What kind is the sensitiveness to tuberculin after the Mantaex test of 2 TU PPD-L at
silicotuberculosis|?
A. Negative.
B. Doubtful.
C. Poorly positive.
D. * Hyperergy|.
E. Vesicule-necrotic.
1021. What kind of sputum is characteristic for patients with pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. * Mucus-purulent, odourless, 10-50 milliliters per days.
B. Purulent with a strong unpleasant smell, ferruginous color, to 500 milliliters.
C. Purulent, odourless, to 300 milliliters.
D. Mucus-watery, 50-100 milliliters.
E. Purulent -containing soom blood with an unpleasant smell, 100-150 milliliters per days.
1022. What kind of symptoms (complaints) can testify the complication of silicosis by tuberculosis?
A. * Intoxication.
B. The pant.
C. The cough.
D. Pain in thorax.
E. All these symptoms.
1023. What kinds of mycobacterial cause mycobacterioz?
A. L-forms mycobacterium.
B. M. tuberculosis.
C. Acid-proof saprophytes.
D. * Atypical mycobacterium.
E. MBT, firm to antimycobacterial medications.
1024. What method gives the detailed information about a structure and homogeneity of shade in lungs?
A. Tomography
B. * Computerized tomography.
C. Spot-film sciagraphy.
D. Rentgenoscopy.
E. Bronchography.
1025. What method is most effective for clarification of localization of shade in a pulmonary tissue mass and
its correlation with surrounding tissues? (by ribs, spine, and others like that)?
A. Sciagraphy.
B. * Computerized tomography.
C. Fluorography.
D. Rentgenoscopy.
E. Bronchography.
1026. What method more expedient to apply for control of dynamics to efficiency of treatment of patients
with tuberculosis ?
A. * Sciagraphy.
B. Roentgenokymography.
C. Fluorography.
D. Rentgenoscopy.
E. Bronchography.
1027. After realized BCG vaccine inoculation some not used vaccine remained. What is to be done with it?
A. * In 2-3 hours after dilution the not used vaccine has to be destroyed by boiling
B. In 24 hours the not used vaccine has to be destroyed
C. To preserve 2-3 days. Then to destroy
D. To preserve during one week in a refrigerator
E. To preserve during one year in a refrigerator
1028. A 1 year old child has been vaccinated with BCG SSI at birth. On the area of the injection a 6mm scar
is noted. This scar indicates
A. * Vaccination has been conducted successfully.
B. Complication of vaccination-keloid scars.
C. Severe reaction to vaccine.
D. Proper technique was not followed during vaccination.
E. Absence of antituberculosis immunity.
1029. A 3 months old child has been vaccinated with BCG vaccine at birth. General state of the infant is
satisfactory. A complication from the vaccine is observed- post-vaccination lymphadenitis ( in left
axillary area increased lymphatic nodes and abscess is noted) What local treatment should be done?
A. Puncture the lymphatic node and remove the abscess.
B. Inject 5% solution in lymphatic node.
C. Rifampicin compresses, diluted in dimexide.
D. Injection of hydrocortisone around the lymphatic node.
E. * Puncture of lymphatic node with removal of its content, introduction of 5% solution of Saluzide
into the lymphatic node, Rifampicin compress, dissolved in dimexide.
1030. A 3 months old child has been vaccinated with BCG vaccine at birth. In left axilla increased lymphatic
node by 2cm, painless, no changes in skin. General state of the child is good, general blood analysis is
within norm. What is the most probable diagnosis ?
A. Local reaction to vaccination.
B. * Complication of BCG SSI vaccination
C. Non-specific lymphadenitis
D. Tuberculosis of peripheral lymphatic nodes.
E. Generalization of tuberculosis infection.
1031. A 3 months old child has been vaccinated with BCG vaccine at birth. In left axilla increased lymphatic
node by 2cm,elastic, painless, no changes in skin. General state of the child is good, temperature 36.5oC.
General blood analysis is within norm. The child has
A. Unspecific lymphadenitis;
B. Tuberculosis of the peripheral lymphatic node;
C. Generalized infective tuberculosis;
D. Normal reaction to vaccination;
E. * Post-vaccination lymphadenitis (complication).
1032. A 3 months old child has been vaccinated with BCG vaccine at birth. General state of the infant is
satisfactory. A complication from the vaccine is observed- post-vaccination lymphadenitis ( in left
axillary area increased lymphatic nodes and abscess is noted) What local treatment should be done?
A. Treatment with Isoniazid + local.
B. * Treatment with Isoniazid + Rifampicin + local.
C. Treatment with Isoniazid + Rifampicin.
D. Treatment with Rifampicin + local.
E. Treatment with Isoniazid + Rifampici + local n.
1033. A 39 year old patient has been suffering from fibro-cavernous lung tuberculosis. During 5 years MBT
was positive in sputum. On x-ray upper right part of the lung is destroyed. Sensitivity of MBT to
antituberculosis preparations is preserved. What treatment should be prescribed to patient in the acute
phase of the disease ?
A. * Resection of the upper right part of the lung + antimycobacterial therapy
B. Antimycobacterial therapy
C. Antimycobacterial therapy + immune stimulators
D. Antimycobacterial therapy + glucocorticoids
E. Resection of the upper part of the lung
1034. A 40 year old patient is undergoing treatment at the local tuberculosis hospital due to tuberculosis
(15.02.2005) of the upper lobe of the left lung ( infiltrative, destructive phase), Destr.+, MBT+ М+К+
Resist-,Histo 0, Cat 1 Cog 1 (2005). After 3 months of treatment patient has been discharged to an
outpatient based treatment. During 2.5 months patient did not take any antimycobacterial drugs. He is
now admitted again due to progressive tuberculosis. What treatment is indicated for patient?
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pasque Acre + Ethambutol
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Ethambutol + Ethionamide
C. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Ofloxacin
D. * Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Kanamycin
1035. A 6 months old child was not vaccinated at birth due to acute viral respiratory infection. At present
patient is well and needs to be vaccinated. What investigation should be done in order to vaccinate
patient?
A. * Mantoux test 2 ТО PPD.
B. General blood analysis.
C. Biochemical blood analysis.
D. X-ray.
E. Immunologic blood analysis.
1036. A 7 year old child was revaccinated at school with BCG vaccine. At the age of 8 post-vaccination scar
has disappeared. At what age it is mandatory for this child to be revaccinated ?
A. * 14 years
B. 9 years
C. 12 years
D. 15 years
E. 8 years.
1037. A cloud-like darkening of the upper part of the right lung with a lightening in the center, to the left
paracardially a group of small intensity nidi have been revealed during fluorographic examination of a
female patient, 30, suffering from a stomach ulcer. A preliminary diagnosis.
A. * Infiltrative tuberculosis.
B. Lung tuberculoma.
C. Fibrous cavernous tuberculosis.
D. Caseous pneumonia.
E. Disseminated tuberculosis.
1038. A darkening of medium intensity with a lightening in the center and a path to the root has been
revealed to the right beneath the clavicle of a patient B., 40, during fluorographic examination. He feels
well. Formulate the preliminary diagnosis.
A. Primary tuberculous complex.
B. * Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Lung tuberculoma.
D. Fibrous cavernous tuberculosis.
E. Caseous pneumonia.
1039. A group of shadows of small and medium intensity of 3-8 mm in diameter has been revealed in the
upper part of the right lung in a patient of 25 years old on a fluorogoram. The patient’s state is
satisfactory. Mantoux test with 2 TU – 16 mm infiltrate. What disease is the most probable one?
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Eosinophil infiltration
C. Nidus pneumonia
D. * Nidus lung tuberculosis
E. Peripheral lung cancer
1040. A healthy child was born weighing 3200 g. On what day after the birth is the BCG vaccination done?
A. 1-2
B. * 3-5
C. 7-11
D. 13-15
E. 25-30
1041. A round shadow with wave-like outer contours was found in the 3-rd segment of the left lung of a man
of 60 during a fluorographic examination. There were single calcinates in the roots. ESR – 62 mm/hr.
What illness can be suspected?
A. * Periferal cancer.
B. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Disseminated tuberculosis.
D. Lung tuberculoma.
E. Focal tuberculosis.
1042. About which duration of disease does the most often indicate patients during gathering of anamnesis?
A. 3-4 days.
B. 1-2 weeks.
C. Below 1 year.
D. * 1-2 months.
E. 4-5 years and more.
1043. Amiloidosis is a system disease, it complicates the chronic purulent processes in the organism and is
characterized by the violations of:
A. Carbon metabolism.
B. * Albumen metabolism
C. Metabolism of fats
D. Vitamin exchange
E. Acid-alkaline equilibrium
1044. An urgent aid at a valvate spontaneous pneumothorax.
A. Fibrobronchoscopy
B. Artificial lung ventilation
C. * Pleural cavity drainage
D. Respiratory gymnastics
E. Strict bed rest
1045. At the absence of positive treatment dynamics during 2-4 months the patients with lungs tuberculosis
are prescribed for:
A. * Economical resection of a lung
B. Pneumonectomy
C. Decortication of a lesion of lung
D. Hormonotherapy
E. Antimycobacterial therapy up to 6-8 months
1046. At what type of exsudate is a small amount of free liquid in a pleural cavity , an exsudate is organized
quickly?
A. Purulent.
B. Serous.
C. * Fibrinous.
D. Fibrinous and serous-fibrinous.
E. Haemorrhagic and serous-haemorrhagic.
1047. By what method does selection of bacteria| usually appear at miliary tuberculosis?
A. Bakterioskopy.
B. Bakterioskopy after the using method of flotation.
C. Bacteriological.
D. Biological.
E. * Usually doesn’t appear by any method.
1048. Complication of what form of tuberculosis can be an allergic pleurisy?
A. Lung infiltrative tuberculosis.
B. Nidus lung tuberculosis.
C. Subacute disseminated lung tuberculosis.
D. Lung tuberculoma.
E. * Tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes.
1049. Complication of what form of tuberculosis can be development of perifocal pleurisy?
A. Fibrous-cavernous lung tuberculosis.
B. Lung infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Subacute disseminated lung tuberculosis.
D. Chronic disseminated lung tuberculosis.
E. * All noted forms.
1050. For what disease or state transudate into pleural cavity is not typical?
A. Myxedema.
B. Cirrhosis of liver.
C. * Tuberculosis.
D. Stagnant cardiac insufficiency.
E. Nefrotic syndrome.
1051. From what age is fluorographic examination performed?
A. * A. 5 years
B. 7 years
C. 14 years
D. 15 years
E. 17 years
1052. From wich clinic form of tuberculosis most often forms fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Tuberculoma.
B. Tuberculous primary complex
C. * Infiltrative form.
D. Focal form.
E. Cirrotic form.
1053. Haemoptysis appeared in a day after hyperinsolation of a girl of 17. No pathologic changes were found
in the lungs of fluorography six months ago. Damp middle-blistered rales are heard beneath the right
clavicle, Mantoux test with 2 TU – 23 mm infiltrate. What changes in lungs can one think about?
A. Spontaneus pneumothorax.
B. Lung tuberculosis.
C. Multiple nidi.
D. Cirrhosis of a lung.
E. * Decay cavities.
1054. How does usually miliary tuberculosis finish without treatment?
A. Spontaneous curing.
B. * By death in 4-5 weeks.
C. By death in 5-7 months.
D. Passing to infiltration tuberculosis.
E. Passing to chronic tuberculosis.
1055. ?How is tuberculous etiology of pleurisy confirmed?
A. By the presence of tuberculous changes in lungs or other organs.
B. Finding of MBT in a pleural exudate or in sputum.
C. Mantaex test reaction is positive or recent tuberculin intensifier.
D. Puncture biopsy of pleura.
E. * All indicated assertions are faithful.
1056. How many stages of amyloidosis of kidneys are discriminated.
A. 2
B. 3
C. * 4
D. 5
E. 6
1057. How many versions of tuberculomas are distinguished regarding pathomorphologic structure?
A. 1
B. 2
C. * 3
D. 4
E. 5
1058. How many versions of tuberculomas clinical progress do you know?
A. 1
B. 2
C. * 3
D. 4
E. 5
1059. In a seven-years-old girl in 5 months after the revaccination, in the place of vaccine injection of BCG a
swelling with cyanotic touch of skin appeared, at palpation – fluctuation. What is the postvaccinal
complication?
A. Lymphodenit
B. Cyst
C. Keloid seam
D. Ulcer
E. * Cold abscesse
1060. In order to lower the pressure in the system of the pulmonary artery, one should prescribe.
A. Penicyllin, camphorae, arphonad
B. * Atropin, euphilin, ganglioblockers
C. Isoniazidum, atropin, uterics
D. Oxygen, camphor, trombin
E. Dicinin, epsilon-aminocapronic acid, nitrosorbid
1061. In progressing focal tuberculosis able proceed to other clinical forms of tuberculosis. In which form
focal tuberculosis usually not proceed directly?
A. Infiltrative pulmonary tuberculosis.
B. Disseminated pulmonary tuberculosis.
C. Pulmonary tuberculoma.
D. Caseous pneumonia.
E. * Fibrous cavernous tuberculosis.
1062. In what term from the beginning of illness does the typical rentgenological picture of miliary
tuberculosis appear ?
A. On the first days
B. * On 7th days
C. Through 3-4 weeks
D. Through 2-3 months
E. Through 5-6 months.
1063. In what cases is revaccination with BCG vaccine done?
A. To infestated persons
B. * To noninfected persons
C. To contractual persons with doubtful reaction on Mantoux test with 2 TU
D. To tuberculosis patients
E. To persons who had previously been ill with tuberculosis
1064. In what time after BCG-vaccination does the immunity develop?
A. In 6-8 days
B. * In 6-8 weeks
C. In 6-8 months
D. In 9-12 months
E. In 5-7 years
1065. In which case surgery is appropriate at tuberculoma?
A. Stationary course.
B. * Disintegration and bacterioexcretion.
C. Small size of tuberculoma (up to 2 cm).
D. Regressive course of tuberculoma.
E. Declining years.
1066. In which morphological sort of tuberculoma possible to evolve due long course?
A. Infiltrative-pneumonic.
B. Homogeneous.
C. Pseudotuberculoma.
D. Conglomerate.
E. * Like ball.
1067. In which way does the most often become apparent bacterioexcretion at focal pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Practically always by use bacterioscopy.
B. Never.
C. Often by use bacterioscopy.
D. * Sometimes by bacterioscopy.
E. Always by use bacterioscopy.
1068. In which way hemogram will be changed at caseous pneumonia?
A. * Hypochromic anemia, leucocytosis 13.0-20.0 х109/L, eosinopenia, lymphopenia, ESR-acceleration
up to 50-70 mm/Hr.
B. Red blood in normal state, leucocytosis 20.0-40.0 х109/L, ESR-acceleration up to 35-55 mm/Hr,
lymphopenia, monocytopenia.
C. Monocytosis, lymphocytosis, normal ESR, leukopenia, hypochromic anemia.
D. Hypochromic anemia, leucocytosis 10.0-12.0 х109/L, еозинопенія, lymphopenia, stub shift up to 815%, ESR-acceleration up to 20-25 mm/Hr.
E. Expressed hypochromic anemia, normal state of white blood, ESR acceleration up to 50-70 mm/Hr.
1069. In which way the most often reveals focal tuberculosis?
A. At clinical examination.
B. * At prophylactic photofluorographic examination.
C. At bacterioscopy analysis of spew.
D. At bronchoscopic examination.
E. At immunological examination.
1070. Maximum number of segments affected at nidus lung tuberculosis.
A. 1
B. * 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
1071. Maximum size of shadows at nidus lung tuberculosis is:
A. 1 mm
B. 1,5 mm
C. 5 mm
D. * 10 mm
E. 25 mm
1072. More frequently the spontaneous pneumothorax in patients with lungs tuberculosis appear:
A. At fibrobronchoscopy
B. During pleural puncture
C. At cavern wall rupture
D. * At subpleural emphysematous bubbles rupture
E. At pneumotachometria
1073. Nidal shades of medium intensity with vague contours were revealed on the left apex of a 20-years old
youth during fluorographic examination. His general state is good. Mantoux test with 2 TU – 19 mm
infiltrate. Your preliminary diagnosis?
A. Primary tuberculous complex.
B. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Disseminated tuberculosis.
D. Lung tuberculoma.
E. * Focal tuberculosis.
1074. On base of which infiltrative most often evolve lobar caseous pneumonia?
A. Round.
B. Lobular.
C. Periscysurite.
D. Like a cloud.
E. Lobitis.
1075. On the background of what complications of lungs tuberculosis caseous pneumonia is the most
frequent?
A. Pulmonary haemoptysis
B. Spontaneous pneumothorax
C. Larynx tuberculosis
D. Amyloidosis of kidney
E. Atelectasis of particle lung
1076. Particularly risk for the human comes from ill with tuberculosis:
A. * Cows
B. Horses
C. Hens
D. Goats
E. Dogs
1077. Patient K., 25, died from lung fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis, MBT (+). For how long must members
of his family be observed at antitubercular dispensary?
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 12 months
D. * 2 years
E. 5 years
1078. ?Patients with firstly diagnosed tuberculosis of lungs may receive sick leaves with the term up to:
A. 1 month
B. 4 months
C. 6 months
D. * 10 months
E. 14 months
1079. Permanent invalidity is established for males and females consequently at the age of:
A. 45 and 35 years
B. 50 and 40 years
C. * 55 and 45 years
D. 60 and 55 years
E. 65 and 60 years
1080. Plan a specific treatment to a patient with FDTB (03.03.2001) of the upper part of the right lung
(caseous pneumonia), Destr+, MBT+M+C+, Resist-, HIST0, Cat1 Coh1(2001). The patient is 45, weight
– 46 kg. His general condition is difficult. There is no accompanying pathology. Prescribe
antimycobacterial preparations.
A. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + streptomycini.
B. Isoniazidum + pyrazinamidum
C. * Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + streptomycini + pyrazinamidum .
D. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum.
E. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + ethambutolum.
1081. ?Principal method of revealing tuberculosis among children.
A. Bacterioscopy of sputum
B. Fluorography
C. * Tuberculinodiagnostics (Mantoux test with 2 TU)
D. Bronhoscopy
E. Tomography on bifurcation level
1082. Procoagulative action preparations.
A. Camphor
B. * Dicinon
C. Benzohexoniy
D. Amben
E. Atropin
1083. Prophylactic fluorographic examinations rate of “obligatory contingents”:
A. Once in 6 months
B. Once in 9 months
C. * Once a year
D. Once in 2 years
E. Once in 3 years
1084. Small and average nidi of little intensity have been revealed on the apex of the right lung during
fluorographic examination of a man aged 30. During the last month he notes the decrease of the appetite,
perspiration, inconsiderable cough. Prescribe of antimicobacterial therapy on the 1-st stage.
A. * Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + pyrazinamidum
B. Isoniazidum + pyrazinamidum
C. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + streptomycini + pyrazinamidum + ethambutolum.
D. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum.
E. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + ethambutolum.
1085. The chemoprophylaxis is performed during:
A. 3 days
B. 3 weeks
C. * 3 months
D. 6 months
E. 9 months
1086. The complete fluorographic examination of the population beginning with 18 years of age is
performed.
A. Once in 6 months
B. * Once a year
C. Once in 2 years
D. Once in 3 years
E. Once in 5 years
1087. The frequency of lung haemorrage in lung tuberculosis patients.
A. 1-2 %
B. 3-5 %
C. * 6-19 %
D. 20-25 %
E. 30-35 %
1088. The greatest importance for the confirmation of lung atelectasis diagnosis is:
A. USE
B. Pneumotachometry
C. Roentgenoscopy
D. Computer tomography
E. * Bronchoscopy
1089. The group with the increased risk of catching tuberculosis includes patients with:
A. Chronic tonsillitis
B. Diabetes
C. Inguinal hernia
D. * Hypertonic disease
E. Ascaridosis
1090. The illness, with which differential diagnostics of caseous pneumonia should be made most frequent:
A. * Staphylococcal pneumonia
B. Central cancer
C. Eosinophilic pneumonia
D. Nidal pneumonia
E. Bronchoectasia
1091. The main method of chronic lung heart diagnostics
A. Elecrocardiography
B. Phonocardiography
C. Balistocardiography
D. * Echocardiography
E. Roentgenoscopy
1092. The main reason of the profuse pulmonary bleeding in patients with tuberculosis.
A. * Blood vessel rapture
B. Pulmonary artery thrombosis
C. Varicose of blood pulmonary vessels
D. Activation of fibrinolysis
E. Violations in blood coagulation system
1093. ?The method of the definition of a kind of spontaneous pneumothorax.
A. Roentgenologic
B. On the basis of the clinic data.
C. * The pressure measurement in the pleural cavity (manometry)
D. Computer tomography
E. USE
1094. The most characteristic blood analysis in patients with the infiltrative lung tuberculosis.
A. Leuc. – 25,0?10/l; е – 3, p – 6, s – 51, l – 23, m – 7 %; ESR – 6 mm/hour.
B. * Leuc. - 9,8?10/l; е – 5, p – 6, s – 65, l – 13, m – 11 %; ESR – 36 mm/hour.
C. Leuc. - 4,0?10/l; е – 2, p – 2, s – 60, l – 26, m – 9 %; ESR – 6 mm/hour.
D. Leuc. – 16,5?10/l; е – 10, p – 10, s – 64, l – 14, m – 2 %; ESR – 21 mm/hour.
E. Leuc. – 6,0?10/l; е – 4, p – 3, s – 60, l – 26, m– 6 %; ESR – 7 mm/hour.
1095. The most effective fibrinolysis inhibitor.
A. Trasilol
B. Contrycal
C. * Epsilon-aminocapronic acid (EACA)
D. Amben
E. Albumin
1096. The most rational combination of antimycobacterial preparations at the initial stage in patients with
lung tuberculoma, MBT (-).
A. Isonoazidum + streptomycini + rifampycini
B. * Isonoazidum + rifampycini + pyrazinamidum
C. Isonoazidum + streptomycini + pyrazinamidum
D. Isonoazidum + pyrazinamidum + PASA
E. Rifampycini + ethionamidum + kanamycini
1097. The most trustworthy criteria of nidal tuberculosis activity.
A. Intoxication syndrome
B. Changes in haemogram
C. * Revealing of micobacteria tuberculosis
D. Nidus shadow of medium intensity with distinct contours
E. Positive Mantoux testing of 2 TU
1098. The patient, 34 years old, 8 years ago was treated because of the infiltrative tuberculosis of lung. Her
state became much better. During the last 6 years the X-ray picture was stable (on the right side under the
clavicle there was the region of pneumosclerosis and two calcinates). To what group of dispensary
observation does she belong?
A. 5.1
B. 5.2
C. 5.3
D. * 5.4
E. 5.5
1099. The predominant segmental localization of tuberculosis infiltration
A. I, II, III segments
B. I, III, V segments
C. I, IV, V segments
D. * I, II, VI segments
E. II, VI IX segments
1100. The prophylactic photoroentgenographic examination of a 25-year-old patient showed in segments 1-2
of the left lung focal shadows of low intensity without distinct contours. Mantoux test with 2 TO – 7 mm
infiltrate. Blood analysis: leuk. – 9,9 x 109/l, ESR – 26 mm/hour. Which is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Nidus lung tuberculosis
B. Infiltrative lung tuberculosis
C. Nidus pneumonia
D. Lung cancer
E. Eosiniphil infiltration
1101. The teacher O., 28 years old, was treated during 10 months because FDTB (05.05.2003) of the upper
part of the right lung (infiltration ), Destr+, MBT+M-C+, Resist-, HIST0, Cat1 Coh2(2003). The state
became much better (the absence of MBT, the closing of the cavity of decay). What is the tactics for the
employment?
A. To be let to the previous work
B. To continue the list of uncapacity to work up to 12 months and then to be let to work
C. * To direct to the MSEC to indicate the III invalid group
D. To direct to the MSEC to indicate the II invalid group
E. To propose another job
1102. The terms of BCG revaccination performance in Ukraine.
A. On 3-5th day after birth
B. On 3-5th week after birth
C. At 3, 5 years of age
D. * At 7,14 years of age
E. At 17, 30 years of age
1103. To lately revealed lung tuberculosis belong:
A. Lung tuberculoma, MBT (+)
B. * Tuberculosis pleurisy
C. Miliary tuberculosis, MBT (+)
D. Infiltrative lung tuberculosis, ph. decay, MBT (-)
E. Lung fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis, MBT (+)
1104. To timely revealed of tuberculosis belong:
A. * Primary tuberculosis complex, ph. decay, MBT (+)
B. Nidus lung tuberculosis, ph. infiltration, MBT (-)
C. Lung cirrhotic tuberculosis, MBT (-)
D. Infiltrative lung tuberculosis, ph. decay, MBT (-)
E. Disseminated lung tuberculosis, ph. decay, MBT (-)
1105. To which category relate patients of caseous pneumonia?
A. * To first.
B. To third.
C. To second.
D. To forth.
E. To fifth.
1106. To which dispensary category does patient with first diagnosed infiltrative pulmonary tuberculosis in
disintegration stage and availability bacterioexcretion belong ?
A. * To first.
B. To third.
C. To second.
D. To fourth.
E. To fifth.
1107. Under the mask of what diseases is tuberculosis infiltrate the most frequent?
A. Peripheral lung cancer
B. Retention cyst
C. * Pneumonia
D. Eosinophile infiltrate
E. Aspergiloma
1108. Vaccination and revaccination with BCG vaccine is done:
A. Cutaneously
B. * Intracutaneously
C. Subcutaneously
D. Intramuscularly
E. Perorally
1109. What kind of rentgenological| picture is most typical for miliary tuberculosis?
A. "Flakes of snow".
B. "Snow-storm".
C. "Weeping willow".
D. "Bat’s wings".
E. * "Looks like millet" dissemination.
1110. What antimycobacterial preparation is prevalently used to make the chemoprophylaxis?
A. Streptomycinum
B. Rifampicinum
C. Pyrazinamidum
D. * Isoniazidum
E. Ethambutolum
1111. What are typical complications for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Tuberculosis bronchus.
B. Bronchogenic dissemination.
C. Tuberculosis larynx.
D. Tuberculosis colitis.
E. * All with above.
1112. What character usually has temperature reaction for a patient on miliary tuberculosis?
A. Subfebrility| during the first 3-5 days of illness.
B. Protracted inconstant subfebrility.
C. Fever during the first 3-5 days of illness.
D. * The Wrong fever
E. Normal temperature.
1113. What clinic symptoms are the most typical for tuberculoma?
A. * Sometime subfebrile state, minor cough, possible absent of complains.
B. Strong cough, pain in chest, shortness of breath.
C. High temperature, chill, pain in chest, purulent spew.
D. Cough, spew with unpleasant smell, hyperhidrosis, spew with blood.
E. Pain in chest. Spew with blood, Shortness of breath.
1114. What clinical course is typical for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. * Wavy, with remission and exacerbation.
B. Acute, progressive.
C. Near acute.
D. Without symptoms or with few symptoms.
E. Quick feedback.
1115. What clinical form of tuberculosis is tuberculoma formed from most frequently?
A. Disseminated
B. Fibrous-cavernous
C. Cirrhotic
D. Nidus
E. * Infiltrative
1116. What clinical presentation is the most typical for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Long remissions.
B. * Chronic clinical course.
C. Absent any remissions.
D. Periods of remissions alternate with acute conditions.
E. Permanent progress of process.
1117. What clinical presentation is typical for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. No complaints or cough with minor spew. Sometime local humid wheeze.
B. * Cough with spew, breathlessness, sometime spew with blood. Time to time high temperature,
hyperhidrosis. Local humid wheeze. During remission – good state of health.
C. Cough, spew with objectionable odor. During worsening – high temperature, hyperhidrosis,
sometime spew with blood. Humid and dry wheeze. “Drumsticks”.
D. Pain in thorax, often sputum with blood, breathlessness, diminished breath sounds, sometime humid
or dry local wheeze.
E. No complaints.Time to time dry cough. Temperature is normal (inflammation is able to raise
temperature). Auscultatory data are small.
1118. What combination of antituberculosis medicines is the most suitable at first revealed small
tuberculoma?
A. * Isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide.
B. Streptomycin, isoniazid, rifampicin.
C. Streptomycin, rifampicin, ethambutol.
D. Amikacin, kanamycin, pyrazinamide,
E. Rifampicin, ofloxacin, pyrazinamide.
1119. What combination of preparations does it follow to appoint a patient with found out reactivation of
tuberculosis before the receipt of results of sensitiveness of MBT to antimycobacterial drugs?
A. Isoniazidum, Streptomycini, Kanamycini, Etambutolum, Ethionamidum.
B. * Isoniazidum, Rifampicinum, Pyrazinamidum, Streptomycini, Etambutolum.
C. Rifampicinum, Isoniazidum, Streptomycini, Amoxycylini , Pyrazinamidum.
D. Isoniazidum, Rifampicinum, Ethionamidum, PASA is Natrum, Etambutolum.
E. Rifampicinum, Streptomycini, Viomycini, Florimycini, Kanamycini.
1120. What combination of preparations must we appoint to a patient with the first first diagnosed infiltrative
tuberculosis in the phase of disintegration?
A. Isoniazidum, Streptomycini|, Kanamycini|, Etambutolum.
B. Rifampicinum, Streptomycini|, Amoxycylini|, Pyrazinamidum.
C. * Isoniazidum, Rifampicinum|, Pyrazinamidum|, Streptomycini.
D. Isoniazidum, Ethionamidum|, PASA is Natrum|, Etambutolum.
E. Streptomycini, Viomycini|, Florimycini|, Kanamycini.
1121. What combination of preparations must we appoint to a patient with the first diagnosed Nidus lung
tuberculosis?
A. Isoniazidum, Streptomycini, Kanamycini.
B. Rifampicinuum, Streptomycini, Amoxycylini.
C. * Isoniazidum, Rifampicinum, Pyrazinamidum.
D. Isoniazidum, Ethionamidum, PASA is Natrum.
E. Streptomitsin, Viomycini, Florimycini.
1122. What complication is not typical |for miliary tuberculosis?
A. Sharp insufficiency of kidney.
B. Cerebral comma.
C. Sharp hepatic insufficiency.
D. * Amyloidosis.
E. Endotoxicosis.
1123. What complications can accompany a tuberculous empyema?.
A. Broncho-pleural fistula.
B. Toracic fistula.
C. Amyloidosis of internal organs.
D. Pneumopleurisy.
E. * All marked.
1124. What composition of pleural liquid is typical for an exsudate?
A. * Relative density - 1025, protein content- 45 g/l, protein (in effusion/ in the serum of blood)-0,8,
activity of LDG -2,1 mmol/(l/hour), content of cells -2,1?109/l.
B. Relative density - 1010, protein content - 20 g/l, protein (in effusion/ in the serum of blood)-0,2,
activity of LDG - 1,1 mmol/(l/hour), content of cells- 0,8?109/l.
C. Relative density - 1005, protein content- 15 g/l, protein (in effusion/ in the serum of blood)-0,3,
activity of LDG -0,9 mmol/(l/hour), content of cells -0,5?109/l.
D. Relative density - 1000, protein content- 10 g/l, protein (in effusion/ in the serum of blood)-0,4,
activity of LDG -1,3 mmol/(l/hour), content of cells -0,6?109/l.
E. All indicated is an exsudate.
1125. What contraindication to surgery for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis patient?
A. * Wide distribution of the focus of disease.
B. Bronchiectasis is present.
C. Bleeding in lungs.
D. Resistivity to 2 antituberculous medications.
E. Wide bacterioexcretion.
1126. What course is the most typical for tuberculoma?
A. Gradual progressive worsening.
B. * Few symptoms or without symptoms.
C. Acute start. Quick worsening.
D. Near acute. Like influenza or pneumonia.
E. Acute start. Quick reverse evolution due chemical medications.
1127. What disease does aggravate the bearableness of Pyrazinamidum?
A. Chronic bronchitis.
B. * Chronic hepatitis.
C. Chronic colitis.
D. Chronic cholecystitis.
E. Ischemic heart trouble.
1128. What disease is contra-indication for setting of Isoniazidum?
A. Chronic obstructive bronchitis.
B. Rheumatoid arthritis.
C. * Epilepsy.
D. Chronic pancreatitis.
E. Ulcerous illness.
1129. What disease is contra-indication to setting of Etambutolum?
A. Acute conjunctivitis.
B. Chronic keratitis.
C. Chalazion.
D. * Degeneration of nipple of visual nerve.
E. Cataract.
1130. What disease is contra-indication to setting of Streptomycini?
A. Chronic hepatitis.
B. Alcoholism.
C. Acute sinuitis.
D. * Ischemic heart trouble.
E. Psoriasis.
1131. What dispensary registration category will the patient with FDTB (22.02.2202) of the upper part of the
left lung (infiltration), Destr+, MBT+M+C+, Resit+ (S, R), HIST0 be observed in?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. * 4
E. 5
1132. What does a 5 mm seam formed in 4 months after BCG vaccination testify?
A. To high reaction of vaccine
B. To complication - keloid seam
C. To violation of vaccine injection techniques
D. To the lack of antituberculous immunity
E. * To the presence of postvaccinal immunity
1133. What feature is typical for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis in our time?
A. * Complications by not specific inflammatory processes.
B. Frequent evolution of of internal amyloidosis.
C. Profuse bleeding in lungs.
D. Frequent aspergillosis.
E. Evolution of tuberculous meningoencephalitis.
1134. What form have cavities of disintegration at miliary tuberculosis?
A. Bilateral symmetric thin-walled cavities.
B. Bilateral asymmetric thick-walled cavities.
C. One-sided plural cavities of different form.
D. One thick-walled cavity and plural thin-walled "daughters's" cavities .
E. * There aren’t cavities.
1135. What from the drugs can cause polyneuropathy?
A. * Isoniazidum.
B. Etambutolum.
C. Pyrazinamidum.
D. Rifampicinum.
E. Streptomycini.
1136. What from the drugs does operate only on extracellularly distributed MBT?
A. Isoniazidum.
B. Etambutolum.
C. Pyrazinamidum.
D. * Streptomycini.
E. Rifampicinum.
1137. What from these preparations does not have antimicobacterial action?
A. Isoniazidum.
B. Rifampicinum.
C. * Ceftriaxon.
D. Pyrazinamidum.
E. Etambutolum.
1138. ?What from these preparations has antimicobacterial action?
A. Nitroxolin.
B. * Cyprofloxacin.
C. Kotrimaxazol.
D. Amoxycylin.
E. Doxicylin.
1139. What from these preparations is not used for empiric therapy for patients with first found out
tuberculosis?
A. Isoniazidum.
B. * Natrii paraaminosalicylatis (PASA is Natrum)
C. Etambutolum.
D. Pyrazinamidum.
E. Streptomycini
1140. What illness is the most expedient to differentiate tuberculoma with?
A. * Aspergilloma
B. An air-cyst
C. Central cancer
D. Eosinophilic infiltrate
E. Chronic abscess
1141. What is a definition for tuberculoma?
A. * Tuberculoma is limited by capsule from conjunctive tissue focus of caseous with size more that 1
cm with chronic and torpid course.
B. Tuberculoma is center of specific pneumonia with size up to 1 cm which localized in border of 1-2
segments.
C. Tuberculoma is area of specific inflammation with prevailed escudative character with size more 1
cm, with disposition to spontaneous recovery.
D. Tuberculoma is area of specific inflammation with prevailed escudative character with size more 1
cm, with disposition to progress and disintegration.
E. Tuberculoma is accretion of rough conjunctive tissue in the lung as a result of involution of different
forms of tuberculosis.
1142. What is BCG and BCG-M vaccine?
A. Killed mycobacteria culture
B. Mycobacteria vital activity products
C. * Mycobacteria live weakened culture
D. Compound of purified tuberculin and killed mycobacteria
E. Insufficient by purified dry tuberculin
1143. What is clinic category for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis patient with long term?
A. * Fourth.
B. First.
C. Second.
D. Third.
E. Fifth
1144. What is correct continuation of suggestion? Miliary tuberculosis....
A. Is the most frequent form of tuberculosis.
B. Takes the second place (after the infiltration tuberculosis) in the structure of morbidity on secondary
tuberculosis.
C. Takes the second place (after the tuberculosis of intrathoracic nodes) in the structure of morbidity on
primary tuberculosis.
D. * Nowadays meets rarely.
E. Nowadays meets in casuistic cases.
1145. What is recommended duration of treatment patient with the first discovered tuberculosis?
A. 10 days.
B. 2 months.
C. * 6 months.
D. 9 months.
E. 2 years.
1146. What is the character of exsudate at the tuberculous empyema ?
A. Serous-fibrinous and fibrinous.
B. * Serous-purulent and purulent.
C. Haemorrhagic.
D. Serous-haemorrhagic.
E. Chillous.
1147. What is the exsudate at tuberculous pleurisy?
A. * Mainly lymphocytic.
B. Mainly neutrophilic.
C. Chillous.
D. Monocytic.
E. Macrophagic.
1148. What is the main characteristic of fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Disposition to forming acinar, acinar-nodose and lobular centers.
B. Disposition for creation infiltrations and caverns.
C. * Old fibrous cavity and fibrosis in abutting pulmonary tissue.
D. Polychemoresistance.
E. Periodical or permanent bacterioexcretion.
1149. What is the mechanism of development of pleural inflammation by MBT?
A. Only lymphogenic.
B. * Lympho-hematogenic.
C. Sputogenic.
D. Bronchogenic.
E. Only hematogenic.
1150. What is the most characteristic investigation, if miliary tuberculosis does not end with death of
patient?
A. * Convalescence with development of diffuse pneumofibrosis.
B. Convalescence with forming the hearths of Gon.
C. Passing into subsharp disseminated tuberculosis.
D. Passing into fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis.
E. Development the cirrhosis of lungs.
1151. What is the most frequent immediate causes of death at pulmonary haemorrage in pulmonary
tuberculosis patients?
A. Anemia
B. Aspirational pneumonia
C. * Asphyxia
D. Atelectasis
E. Tuberculosis progressing
1152. What is the reason of appearance of exsudate in a pleural cavity at different clinical forms of
tuberculosis?
A. The anatomic and functional connection between the sheets of pleura, lymphatic nodes and lymphatic
system of lungs.
B. The inflammation of pleura that caused by MBT, that penetrate into pleura by lymphogenic way from
the hearths or infiltrations in lungs.
C. The inflammation of pleura that caused by MBT, that penetrate into pleura because of bacteriemia.
D. Pleura hypersensibilization by MBT decay products.
E. * All indicated assertions are faithful.
1153. What is the value of BCG vaccine?
A. Tuberculosis lighter course
B. Prevents infestation
C. Guarantee from an illness
D. * Less chance of catching tuberculosis
E. Prevents tuberculosis relapse
1154. What medical preparations are advisable for the usage for a trial treatment of a patient with the aim of
differential diagnosis of the local tuberculosis and pneumonia?
A. Streptomycini and sulfaleni
B. Streptomycini and isoniazidum
C. * Penicillini and sulfaleni
D. Penicillini and rifampicimun
E. Penicillini and streptomycini
1155. What medications suitable for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis patiens in addition to classic
antituberculosis medications?
A. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug, (NSAID).
B. Glucocorticoid.
C. * Fluoroquinolone.
D. Cephalosporin.
E. Sulfanilamide
1156. What morphological changes evolve in the lungs in fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis patiens?
A. Bronchogenic dissemination.
B. Pneumosclerosis.
C. Emphysema.
D. Bronchiectasis.
E. * All above.
1157. What need take into account for prescription of medicine for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary
tuberculosis patient?
A. Symptoms of intoxication.
B. Attendant pathology.
C. * Sensitivity to anti-tuberculosis medications.
D. Bronchial-lung syndrome.
E. Quantity and size of caverns.
1158. What quantity of medications with anti-tuberculosis action need to appoint to caseous pneumonia
patients in intensive stage.
A. 2-3.
B. 6-7.
C. 3-4.
D. 4-5.
E. * 5-6.
1159. ?What reason for evolving of cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Resistance to antimicrobial medication.
B. Not timely process definition.
C. Medical mistakes.
D. Injurious clinical course.
E. * Any with above possible to be a reason for evolution of cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis.
1160. What result of Mantoux test with 2 TU PPD-L is the most typical at extended clinical presentation of
caseous pneumonia?
A. Papule with diameter 21 mm and more.
B. * Negative reaction.
C. Papule with diameter 10-15 mm.
D. Papule with diameter 16-21 mm.
E. Papule with diameter 5-10 mm.
1161. What roentgenologic signs convincingly testify about the activity of focal tuberculosis?
A. * Focuses of medial intensity with distinct exterior contours.
B. Group of focuses, different in size, of high intensity.
C. Focuses of low intensity with illegible contours.
D. Gohn’s focus.
E. Focuses of medium intensity on the background of limited pneumosclerosis.
1162. What rontgenologic picture is typical for tuberculoma?
A. Intensive shadow with diffused outlines, with brightening in the center and horizontal liquid level.
B. Round homogeneous shadow with contrast outlines, more often in deep layers of the lung,
neighbouring lung tissue is not changed.
C. * Round and intensive shadow in I, II, VI segments with contrast outlines, sometime with sickleshaped brightening or with including of the lime.
D. Homogenous shadow with humpbacked outlines, tension bars in the form of “rays”, sometime
increased lymph nodes in the root.
E. Round homogenous shadow with contrast outlines, sometimes with including of the lime.
Neighbouring lung tissue is not changed.
1163. What rontgenological changes describe availability of fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. One insulated or plural thin-walled cavern . Pulmonary tissue is a little bit changed. Focal shadows
are absent.
B. Cavity with coiled internal contour, irregular walls, knotty external contour, more frequent in front
segments.
C. Cavity with wide sides and fluid level, more frequent in the inferior segments on lungs. Around –
fibrosis. Focal shadows are absent.
D. * Cavity with thick walls, more frequent in the upper segments of lungs. Around – fibrosis.
Sometimes mediastinal displacement. Below – focal bronchogenic dissemination.
E. Insulated cavity without perifocal seepage, without fibrosis, without bronchogenic dissemination.
1164. What segments are tuberculomas the most often localized in?
A. I, II, III
B. * I, II, VI
C. I, VI, X
D. I, II, VIII
E. II, IV, V
1165. What sensitively to tuberculine according Mantoux test with 2 TU PPD-L is typical to tuberculoama?
A. Negative.
B. Papule 5-10 cm.
C. * Often hyperergic.
D. Present hyperemia without papule creation.
E. Papule 5-10 cm.
1166. What tests need to do when available cavity dissociation for potentially tuberculosis patient?
A. Multiphase exploration spew concerning mycobacteriums tuberculosis.
B. Tomography of the thorax organs.
C. Bronchoscopy with take a samples for cytodiagnosis and histologic study.
D. Bronchography.
E. * Need to complete all above explorations.
1167. What therapeutic approach is the most effective at pulmonary tuberculoma.
A. * Resectable surgery against a background of chemotherapy.
B. Chemotherapy + common strengthening therapy.
C. Chemotherapy in conjunction with absorbable therapy.
D. Physiotherapy against a background of chemotherapy.
E. Chemotherapy in conjunction with hormonal therapy.
1168. What type of breathing is auscultating at tuberculoma?
A. * Vesicular.
B. Bronchial.
C. Amphoric.
D. Stenotic.
E. Mixed.
1169. What variant of clinical course is typical for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Limited and relatively stable.
B. Slowly progressive.
C. Quickly progressive.
D. Course with complications.
E. * All above variants are possible.
1170. Which enumerated complications practically always accompany infiltrative form of tubercular process
with?
A. Atelectasis of appropriate part of lung.
B. Pulmonary hemorrhage.
C. Amyloidosis of inner organs.
D. Spontaneous pneumothorax.
E. * Tuberculosis of draining bronchus.
1171. Which is a characteristic property of tissue reaction at infiltrative tuberculosis?
A. Limited distribution of specific inflammation, marked peculiarity to its encapsulation.
B. * Peculiarity to quick caseous necrosis.
C. Peculiarity to spontaneous resorption of infiltration.
D. Infiltrations quick dissipate, in other parts of lungs possible to appear new infiltrations (short-term).
E. Typical diffusive growing of conjunction tissue, sclerotic changes in lymphatic vessels and glands,
thickening of the pleura.
1172. Which is the most typical percussion data during focal pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Dullness of percussion sound in upper parts.
B. Dullness of percussion sound near root.
C. Dullness of percussion sound in basal areas.
D. Tympanic percussion sound.
E. * No changes.
1173. Which is the most typical radiological indications of old tuberculosis focus in the lungs?
A. Small or average intensity, nonccontrast borders, diameter up to 1 centimeter.
B. * Big intensity, clear borders, diameter up to 1 centimeter.
C. Small intensity, clear borders, diameter more than 1 centimeter.
D. Big intensity, nonccontrast borders, diameter more than 1 centimeter.
E. Average intensity, round shape, diameter 3-5 centimeters.
1174. Which morphologic sort of tuberculoma is possible as result of focal tuberculosis?
A. Infiltrative-pneumonic.
B. Homogeneous.
C. Pseudotuberculoma.
D. * Conglomerate.
E. Like ball.
1175. Which are the most typical radiological indications of new tuberculosis focus in the lungs?
A. * Small or average intensity, nonccontrast borders, diameter up to 1 centimeter.
B. Big intensity, clear borders, diameter up to 1 centimeter.
C. Small intensity, clear borders, diameter more than 1 centimeter.
D. Big intensity, nonccontrast borders, diameter more than 1 centimeter.
E. Average intensity, round shape, diameter 3-5 centimeters.
1176. Which changes in the hemogram are typical for infiltrative tuberculosis?
A. Leukopenia, lymphocytosis, acceleration of ESR, anemia.
B. * Small leucocytosis, lymphopenia, enlarged ESR, anemia, small increase of stab neutrophils,
monocytosis.
C. High leukocytosis, significant accereratioun of ESR, acidophilia, lymphopenia.
D. High leukocytosis with significant increasing of stab neutrophils, lymphocytosis, normal ESR,
monocytopenia, absent eosinophiles.
E. Formula of white blood not changed. ESR more than 50 mm/Hr, full-blown anemia.
1177. Which clinical course is typical for caseous pneumonia?
A. * Violent, acute progressive.
B. Initially chronic.
C. Near acute.
D. Without symptoms.
E. Forward with little symptoms.
1178. Which clinical syndrome is the most often suitable for infilrative tuberculosis?
A. * Intoxicational.
B. Abdominal.
C. Meningeal.
D. Hyperthermic.
E. Painful.
1179. Which combination of antituberculous medications is the most worthwhile for first diagnosed
infilatrative pulmonary tuberculosis with destruction?
A. * Isoniazid, streptomycin, rifampicin, pyrazinamide.
B. Kanamycin, ethambutol, isoniazid, rifampicin.
C. Isoniazid, pyrazinamide, amikacin, ofloxacin.
D. PAS(A)(para-aminosalicylic acid)-natrium, ethambutol, isoniazid, rifampicin.
E. Streptomycin, ethambutol, mycobutine, ethionamide.
1180. Which complication practically absent at focal tuberculosis?
A. Escudative pleurisy.
B. Chronic bronchitis.
C. Polysegmental fibrosis.
D. * Profuse pulmonary hemorrhage
E. Hospital-acquired pneumonia.
1181. Which criterion of effective treatment of infiltrative pulmonary tuberculosis in disintegration stage,
mycobacteriums tuberculosis+, is the most important?
A. Resolution of perifocal inflammatory reaction in pulmonary tissue?
B. Cicatrization of disintegration cavity
C. Fallout of intoxication occurrence.
D. Recovery of ability to work
E. * Elimination of bacterioexcretion
1182. Which definition for caseous pneumonia is the most precise?
A. Caseos pneumonia is a clinical form of tuberculosis, which has many specific centers in the lungs:
initially disease has prevailed escudative-necrotic reacton with future evolving of productive
inflammation,
B. Caseos pneumonia is area of specific inflammation which has prevailed escudative nature, with size
more than 1 cm, with necessarily disintegration of pulmonary tissue and its semination.
C. * Caseos pneumonia is a clinical form of secondary form of tuberculosis with significant changes in
the lungs with acute progressive clinical course. At quick widening of caseous mass forming huge
cavities or big quantity of small caverns.
D. Caseous pneumonia is progressive evolution of expressed perifocal inflammation around fresh
tubercular appearences, which was formed due exogenous superinfection or endogenous
revivification.
E. Casous pneumonia is clinical form of initial tuberculosis, with grave condition of patient, significant
symptoms of intoxication, frequent catarrhal events in lungs, massive bacterioexcretion.
1183. Which disease at first needs to be disambiguate from infiltration not homogeneous structure in the
upper part of right lung with “track” to root and focal shadows around?
A. Out-gospital necrotizing pneumonia.
B. Central pulmonary cancer.
C. * Infiltrative tuberculosis.
D. Eosinophylic infiltration.
E. Infarct-Pneumonia.
1184. Which disease least advisable to be distinguish fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis from?
A. Chronic abscess.
B. Central cancer.
C. Cystic disease.
D. * Chronic bronchitis.
E. Multiple bronchiectasis.
1185. Which disease needs to be distinguish fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis from?
A. Eosinophylic infiltration.
B. Chronic bronchitis.
C. * Chronic abscess.
D. Pleuropneumonia.
E. Lung infarction.
1186. Which diseases need to disambiguate lobar caseous pneumonia with?
A. * Pleuropneumonia.
B. Infarct of lung.
C. Pneumonia complicated by an abscess.
D. Escudative pleurisy.
E. With central cancer.
1187. Which factors are not important for initial stage and clinical course of infiltrative pulmonary
tuberculosis?
A. Morphological structure of infiltration.
B. Width of perifocal inflammation.
C. Size of area caseous necrosis.
D. Complications from side of bronchopulmonary system.
E. * Availability in anamnesis immunization by vaccine BCG (Calmette-Gurin bacillus).
1188. Which factors are the most important (deciding factor) for diagnosis of infiltrative form of
tuberculosis?
A. Mycobacteriums tuberculosis in the sputum or scourage of bronchus..
B. Hyperergic tuberculin sensitivity according Mantoux test with 2 TU PPD-L
C. * Availability of mycobacteriums tuberculosis and presence infiltration on the rontgenogram.
D. Availability shadow on the rontgenogram which allocated in 1,2 or 6 segments.
E. Complains concerning cough with sputum, pain in chest, sputum with blood, rise in temperature of
the body, general weakness, information about former tuberculosis.
1189. Which factors is the most important at disambiguate diagnostic between infilrative tuberculosis and
pneumonia?
A. Level of bacterioexcretion.
B. Localization of process.
C. Presense disintegration cavity in pulmonary tissue.
D. Presense complications.
E. * Violent and progressive course of disease.
1190. Which form of backward evolution of tuberculosis is impossible for focal tuberculosis?
A. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
B. Pulmonary tuberculoma.
C. * Miliary tuberculosis.
D. Impossible backware evoluion to focal tuberculosis from any other form of tuberculosis.
E. Disseminated pulmonary tuberculosis.
1191. Which instrumental method is good enough at verify diagnose in a case when middle lung field has
round center up to 3 cm in diameter with contrast outlines?
A. Fluorography.
B. Bronchography.
C. * Transthoracal paracentetic biopsy.
D. Bronchoscopy.
E. Rontgenoscopy.
1192. Which is the most typical auscultatory data during focal pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Diffused dry crepitations.
B. Dry crepitations in upper parts.
C. * No changes.
D. Dry and humid crepitations.
E. Diffused humid crepitations.
1193. Which is the most typical combination of complains for caseous pneumonia patients?
A. * High temperature of the body, profuse sweat, paint in chest, shortness of breath, cough with
greenish sputum, quick growing of intoxication syndromes.
B. Worsening of appetite, hyperhidrosis, subfebrile temperature, petulance, weakening of memory.
C. Dry cough,general weakness, periodical sputum with blood, instable subfebrile state.
D. High temperature, headache, sputum, diarrhoea, chill.
E. Periodical pain in the side, subfebrile temperature changing to febrile, rare cough, pain in chest
gradually decreases, appears shortness of breath.
1194. Which is the most accurate definition of infiltrative pulmonary tuberculosis as clinicorontgenological
form of specific process?
A. * Infiltrative tuberculosis is area of specific inflammation with mainly escudative nature, with size
more than 1 cm, with disposition to progress and disintegration, possible bronchogenic semination.
B. Infiltrative tuberculosis is focus of specific inflammation which necessarily accompaniment of
disintegration pulmonary tissue and semination of pulmonary tissue.
C. It is form of specific inflammation with availability in the lungs formed and stable by dimension
cavity with marked infiltrative and (sometime) fibrous changes in surrounding pulmonary tissue.
D. Infiltrative tuberculosis is area of specific inflammation with chronical torpid behavior, with size
more than 1 cm, with predisposition to spontaneous recovery.
E. Infiltrative tuberculosis has big quantity of specific centers in the lungs. At initial stage of disease
prevails escudative-necrotizing reaction with future evolution of productive inflammation.
1195. Which is the most often reason for death of fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis patients?
A. Pulmonary atelectasis.
B. * Chronical cor pulmonale.
C. Pulmonary hemorrhage.
D. Renal amyloidosis.
E. Progressive tuberculosis.
1196. Which is the most typical complains in focal pulmonary tuberculosis patients?
A. * Weakness, hyperhidrosis, rapid fatigability, minor increased temperature.
B. Fever.
C. Cough with big quantity of purulent spew.
D. Pulmonary hemorrhage.
E. Shortness of breath.
1197. Which is the most typical localization of centers at focal pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. * 1-2 segments.
B. 3-4 segments.
C. 7-8 segments.
D. 9-10 segments.
E. Root of lung.
1198. Which medications, except antituberculosis, are able to stop evolution of caseous pneumonia?
A. Disintoxication.
B. Vitaminous.
C. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory.
D. * Fluoroquinolones.
E. Immunomodulator.
1199. Which most often not specific complication for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. * Chronical cor pulmonale.
B. Larynx tuberculosis.
C. Spontaneous pneumothorax.
D. Pulmonary atelectasis.
E. Internal amyloidosis.
1200. Which most often specific complication for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. * Larynx tuberculosis.
B. Colorectal tuberculosis.
C. Tuberculous pleurisy.
D. Genitals tuberculous.
E. Renal tuberculosis.
1201. Which of the illnesses are the most frequently complicated with pulmonary haemorrhages?
A. * Aspergilloma
B. Lung cancer
C. Bronchus adenoma
D. Lung tuberculosis
E. Pneumonia
1202. Which of those complications are specific?
A. * Larynx tuberculosis
B. Atelectasis
C. Pulmonary haemorrhage
D. Spontaneous pneumothorax
E. Chronic lung heart
1203. Which pathogenic variant isn`t typical for evolution of lobular caseous pneumonia?
A. Result of aspiration pneumonia after hemorrhages and spew with blood.
B. Malignant variant of near acute disseminated tuberculosis.
C. Complications in terminal stages of chronical form of tuberculosis.
D. Distribution of caseous output in the bronchuses and lungs through fistula with lymph glands.
E. * In terminal stage of miliary tuberculosis.
1204. Which pathomorphological changes prevail during focal pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Alternate inflammation.
B. * Productive inflammation.
C. Necrosis.
D. Escudative inflammation.
E. Pneumofibrosis.
1205. Which result is expected at positive dynamic of caseous pneumonia.
A. * Transformation to massive pneumocirrhosis.
B. Full resorption of infiltration.
C. Limited pneumofibrosis.
D. Forming of tuberculoma.
E. Chronic disseminated tuberculosis.
1206. Which rontgenologic indication is typical for caseous pneumonia?
A. * Homogeneous shadow is partially limited.
B. Shadow not homogeneous, possible to out from part.
C. Appear of clarifications due disintegration cavity.
D. Centers of bronchogenic dissemination in other part current or other lung.
E. Massive not uniform darkening of all part of a lung against a background possible individual more
solid centers.
1207. Which rontgenologic syndrome accompanies pulmanary tuberculoma?
A. Syndrome of focal shadow.
B. * Syndrome of round shadow
C. Syndrome of limited darkening
D. Syndrome of ring-shaped brightening.
E. Syndrome of root of the lung pathology.
1208. Which tuberculin test has the most informative meaning for defining the activity of the tuberculous
process:
A. Pirquet’s test
B. Mantoux test
C. * Koch test
D. Moro test
E. Pirquet’s graduated test.
1209. Which tuberculin test needs to do for doubtful activity of focal tuberculosis?
A. Mantoux test with 2 TU.
B. Mantoux test, deluted,
C. Pirquet's test
D. * Koch’s test.
E. Mantoux test with 5 TU.
1210. Which ways are the most probable for forming fresh centers of dissemination at infiltrative
tuberculosis.
A. * Lympho-bronchogenic.
B. Only hematogenic.
C. Only sputogenic.
D. Hematogenic-lymphogenic.
E. Only lymphogenic.
1211. Which what diseases do not need to do differential diagnosis for fibrous cavernous pulmonary
tuberculosis?
A. Chronic abscess.
B. Cancer in degradation stage.
C. Multiple bronchiectasis.
D. Pneumonia complicated by an abscess.
E. * Lung tuberculoma.
1212. Which with mentioned below methods of examination (at suspicion about infiltrative tuberculosis) in
the adult not critical at diagnosis withs?
A. Visual rontgenography of thorax organs.
B. * Biochemical blood analysis.
C. Bronchoscopy.
D. Rontgenography of chest organs in lateral projection.
E. Bacterioscopy and bacteriological exploration of spew concerning mycobacterium tuberculosis.
1213. Which X-ray syndrome is the most typical for infiltrative form of tuberculosis?
A. Syndrome of total darkening.
B. Syndrome of round shadow.
C. Syndrome of pathological changed root of the lung.
D. * Syndrome of limited darkening.
E. Syndrome of focal shadow.
1214. Why chemical therapy for tuberculoma is low effective?
A. * Tuberculoma has no blood vessels.
B. It is secondary form of tuberculosis.
C. At tuberculoma always present polychemoresistivity.
D. At tuberculoma always disturbed passability of draining bronchus.
E. At tuberculoma present hyperergic sensitivity to tuberculine.
1215. After realized BCG vaccine inoculation some not used vaccine remained. What is to be done with it?
A. * In 2-3 hours after dilution the not used vaccine has to be destroyed by boiling
B. In 24 hours the not used vaccine has to be destroyed
C. To preserve 2-3 days. Then to destroy
D. To preserve during one week in a refrigerator
E. To preserve during one year in a refrigerator
1216. A 1 year old child has been vaccinated with BCG SSI at birth. On the area of the injection a 6mm scar
is noted. This scar indicates
A. * Vaccination has been conducted successfully.
B. Complication of vaccination-keloid scars.
C. Severe reaction to vaccine.
D. Proper technique was not followed during vaccination.
E. Absence of antituberculosis immunity.
1217. A 23 year old patient is diagnosed with tuberculosive meningitis. In the lungs lymphatic knots are
observed. MBT is absent in cerebrospinal fluid. Which treatment should be prescribed to patient in acute
phase?
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Streptomycin
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
C. * Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol + Streptomycin
D. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol + Ofloxacin
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Ethambutol + Streptomycin
1218. A 26 years old patient has been diagnosed for the first time with caseous pneumonia of the right lung.
MBT positive numerous times in sputum, sensitivity to all antituberculosis drugs is preserved. What
treatment should be prescribed to patient in acute phase?
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Streptomycin
C. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Ethambutol + Streptomycin
D. * Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol + Streptomycin
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol+ Ofloxacin
1219. A 28 year old patient has been admitted with complaints of weakness, increased temperature up to 38
С, productive cough, decreased body weight. On x-ray\: in the upper part of the right lung infiltrative
changes are noted with destructive changes. MBT present in sputum. What treatment should be
prescribed in acute phase?
A. * Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin
C. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
D. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Ethambutol + Ethionamide
1220. A 3 months old child has been vaccinated with BCG vaccine at birth. In left axilla increased lymphatic
node by 2cm, painless, no changes in skin. General state of the child is good, general blood analysis is
within norm. What is the most probable diagnosis ?
A. Local reaction to vaccination.
B. * Complication of BCG SSI vaccination
C. Non-specific lymphadenitis
D. Tuberculosis of peripheral lymphatic nodes.
E. Generalization of tuberculosis infection.
1221. A 3 months old child has been vaccinated with BCG vaccine at birth. General state of the infant is
satisfactory. A complication from the vaccine is observed- post-vaccination lymphadenitis ( in left
axillary area increased lymphatic nodes and abscess is noted) What local treatment should be done?
A. Puncture the lymphatic node and remove the abscess.
B. Inject 5% solution in lymphatic node.
C. Rifampicin compresses, diluted in dimexide.
D. Injection of hydrocortisone around the lymphatic node.
E. * Puncture of lymphatic node with removal of its content, introduction of 5% solution of Saluzide
into the lymphatic node, Rifampicin compress, dissolved in dimexide.
1222. A 32 year old patient has been admitted to tuberculosis hospital with complaints of periodic increased
body temperature up to 37,0'С, weakness. After x-ray and laboratory analysis the patient was diagnosed
with tuberculosis(15.02.2005)of the upper right lung(acute infiltrative stage), Destr.-, MBT- М-КResist-,Histo 0, Cat3 Cog 4 (2005). What should be the treatment plan for the patient?
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Kanamycin
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin
C. * Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide
D. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Ethambutol
1223. A 39 years old patient has been suffering from fibro-cavernous lung tuberculosis for the past 6 years.
Treatment with ethiotropic drugs is ineffective. Surgical treatment is contraindicated. He complains of
high fever, weakness, productive cough, bloody sputum. MBT is present in sputum and resistant to
streptomycin. What treatment should be prescribed to patient?
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Kanamycin
C. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethionamide
D. * Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol + Ofloxacin
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Ethambutol + Kanamycin
1224. A 40 year old patient is undergoing treatment at the local tuberculosis hospital due to tuberculosis
(15.02.2005) of the upper lobe of the left lung ( infiltrative, destructive phase), Destr.+, MBT+ М+К+
Resist-,Histo 0, Cat 1 Cog 1 (2005). After 3 months of treatment patient has been discharged to an
outpatient based treatment. During 2.5 months patient did not take any antimycobacterial drugs. He is
now admitted again due to progressive tuberculosis. What treatment is indicated for patient?
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pasque Acre + Ethambutol
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Ethambutol + Ethionamide
C. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Ofloxacin
D. * Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Kanamycin
1225. A boy of 6 complains for cough, poor appetite, sweating, temperature rise up to 37,5°C.
Roentgenogram – on the left: enlarged bronchopulmonary lymph nodes with illegible exterior contours.
Mantoux test with 2 TO – 15 mm infiltrate. Blood analysis: leuk. – 9,0 x 109/l, ESR – 30 mm/hour. The
most probable diagnosis.
A. Unspecific pneumonia
B. Central cancer
C. Sarcoidosis
D. * Tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes
E. Lymphosarcoma
1226. A cloud-like darkening of the upper part of the right lung with a lightening in the center, to the left
paracardially a group of small intensity nidi have been revealed during fluorographic examination of a
female patient, 30, suffering from a stomach ulcer. A preliminary diagnosis.
A. * Infiltrative tuberculosis.
B. Lung tuberculoma.
C. Fibrous cavernous tuberculosis.
D. Caseous pneumonia.
E. Disseminated tuberculosis.
1227. A darkening of medium intensity with a lightening in the center and a path to the root has been
revealed to the right beneath the clavicle of a patient B., 40, during fluorographic examination. He feels
well. Formulate the preliminary diagnosis.
A. Primary tuberculous complex.
B. * Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Lung tuberculoma.
D. Fibrous cavernous tuberculosis.
E. Caseous pneumonia.
1228. A girl of 7 years old, 2 months ago suffered from “influenza”, after which coughing, general
weakness, decreased appetite, sweating appeared, the body temperature rose up to 37,5? C. At the
percussion and auscultation pathological changes are not found. On the X-ray: the enlarged
tracheobronchial and bronchopulmonal lymphatic nodes on the left side. Blood: leuc. 9,0 x 109/l, ESR –
22 mm/hour. Mantoux test with 2 TU – infiltrate of 17 mm. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Lymphogranulomatosis
C. Lymphosarcoma
D. * Tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes
E. Central cancer
1229. A group of shadows of small and medium intensity of 3-8 mm in diameter has been revealed in the
upper part of the right lung in a patient of 25 years old on a fluorogoram. The patient’s state is
satisfactory. Mantoux test with 2 TU – 16 mm infiltrate. What disease is the most probable one?
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Eosinophil infiltration
C. Nidus pneumonia
D. * Nidus lung tuberculosis
E. Peripheral lung cancer
1230. A healthy child was born weighing 3200 g. On what day after the birth is the BCG vaccination done?
A. 1-2
B. * 3-5
C. 7-11
D. 13-15
E. 25-30
1231. A round shadow with wave-like outer contours was found in the 3-rd segment of the left lung of a man
of 60 during a fluorographic examination. There were single calcinates in the roots. ESR – 62 mm/hr.
What illness can be suspected?
A. * Periferal cancer.
B. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Disseminated tuberculosis.
D. Lung tuberculoma.
E. Focal tuberculosis.
1232. About which duration of disease does the most often indicate patients during gathering of anamnesis?
A. 3-4 days.
B. 1-2 weeks.
C. Below 1 year.
D. * 1-2 months.
E. 4-5 years and more.
1233. Amiloidosis is a system disease, it complicates the chronic purulent processes in the organism and is
characterized by the violations of:
A. Carbon metabolism.
B. * Albumen metabolism
C. Metabolism of fats
D. Vitamin exchange
E. Acid-alkaline equilibrium
1234. An urgent aid at a valvate spontaneous pneumothorax.
A. Fibrobronchoscopy
B. Artificial lung ventilation
C. * Pleural cavity drainage
D. Respiratory gymnastics
E. Strict bed rest
1235. At the 5 years old boy, who suffers from the tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes suddenly
appeared coughing, pain behind the stern, shortness of breath, mild cyanosis of lip mucose. Body
temperature is 38,4? C. Upon the upper part of the right lung there is the dulling of the percussion note,
in the same place there is the weakened breathing. The most probable complication of the tuberculosis of
intrathoracic lymphatic nodes.
A. Exudative pleurisy
B. Spontaneous pneumothorax
C. * Atelectasis
D. Tuberculosis of bronchi
E. Pleural empyema
1236. At the absence of positive treatment dynamics during 2-4 months the patients with lungs tuberculosis
are prescribed for:
A. * Economical resection of a lung
B. Pneumonectomy
C. Decortication of a lesion of lung
D. Hormonotherapy
E. Antimycobacterial therapy up to 6-8 months
1237. At what type of exsudate is a small amount of free liquid in a pleural cavity , an exsudate is organized
quickly?
A. Purulent.
B. Serous.
C. * Fibrinous.
D. Fibrinous and serous-fibrinous.
E. Haemorrhagic and serous-haemorrhagic.
1238. By what method does selection of bacteria| usually appear at miliary tuberculosis?
A. Bakterioskopy.
B. Bakterioskopy after the using method of flotation.
C. Bacteriological.
D. Biological.
E. * Usually doesn’t appear by any method.
1239. Complication of what form of tuberculosis can be an allergic pleurisy?
A. Lung infiltrative tuberculosis.
B. Nidus lung tuberculosis.
C. Subacute disseminated lung tuberculosis.
D. Lung tuberculoma.
E. * Tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes.
1240. Complication of what form of tuberculosis can be development of perifocal pleurisy?
A. Fibrous-cavernous lung tuberculosis.
B. Lung infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Subacute disseminated lung tuberculosis.
D. Chronic disseminated lung tuberculosis.
E. * All noted forms.
1241. For what disease or state transudate into pleural cavity is not typical?
A. Myxedema.
B. Cirrhosis of liver.
C. * Tuberculosis.
D. Stagnant cardiac insufficiency.
E. Nefrotic syndrome.
1242. From what age is fluorographic examination performed?
A. * A. 5 years
B. 7 years
C. 14 years
D. 15 years
E. 17 years
1243. From wich clinic form of tuberculosis most often forms fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Tuberculoma.
B. Tuberculous primary complex
C. * Infiltrative form.
D. Focal form.
E. Cirrotic form.
1244. Haemoptysis appeared in a day after hyperinsolation of a girl of 17. No pathologic changes were found
in the lungs of fluorography six months ago. Damp middle-blistered rales are heard beneath the right
clavicle, Mantoux test with 2 TU – 23 mm infiltrate. What changes in lungs can one think about?
A. Spontaneus pneumothorax.
B. Lung tuberculosis.
C. Multiple nidi.
D. Cirrhosis of a lung.
E. * Decay cavities.
1245. How does usually miliary tuberculosis finish without treatment?
A. Spontaneous curing.
B. * By death in 4-5 weeks.
C. By death in 5-7 months.
D. Passing to infiltration tuberculosis.
E. Passing to chronic tuberculosis.
1246. ?How is tuberculous etiology of pleurisy confirmed?
A. By the presence of tuberculous changes in lungs or other organs.
B. Finding of MBT in a pleural exudate or in sputum.
C. Mantaex test reaction is positive or recent tuberculin intensifier.
D. Puncture biopsy of pleura.
E. * All indicated assertions are faithful.
1247. How many stages of amyloidosis of kidneys are discriminated.
A. 2
B. 3
C. * 4
D. 5
E. 6
1248. How many versions of tuberculomas are distinguished regarding pathomorphologic structure?
A. 1
B. 2
C. * 3
D. 4
E. 5
1249. How many versions of tuberculomas clinical progress do you know?
A. 1
B. 2
C. * 3
D. 4
E. 5
1250. In a seven-years-old girl in 5 months after the revaccination, in the place of vaccine injection of BCG a
swelling with cyanotic touch of skin appeared, at palpation – fluctuation. What is the postvaccinal
complication?
A. Lymphodenit
B. Cyst
C. Keloid seam
D. Ulcer
E. * Cold abscesse
1251. In order to lower the pressure in the system of the pulmonary artery, one should prescribe.
A. Penicyllin, camphorae, arphonad
B. * Atropin, euphilin, ganglioblockers
C. Isoniazidum, atropin, uterics
D. Oxygen, camphor, trombin
E. Dicinin, epsilon-aminocapronic acid, nitrosorbid
1252. In progressing focal tuberculosis able proceed to other clinical forms of tuberculosis. In which form
focal tuberculosis usually not proceed directly?
A. Infiltrative pulmonary tuberculosis.
B. Disseminated pulmonary tuberculosis.
C. Pulmonary tuberculoma.
D. Caseous pneumonia.
E. * Fibrous cavernous tuberculosis.
1253. In what term from the beginning of illness does the typical rentgenological picture of miliary
tuberculosis appear ?
A. On the first days
B. * On 7th days
C. Through 3-4 weeks
D. Through 2-3 months
E. Through 5-6 months.
1254. In what cases is revaccination with BCG vaccine done?
A. To infestated persons
B. * To noninfected persons
C. To contractual persons with doubtful reaction on Mantoux test with 2 TU
D. To tuberculosis patients
E. To persons who had previously been ill with tuberculosis
1255. In what time after BCG-vaccination does the immunity develop?
A. In 6-8 days
B. * In 6-8 weeks
C. In 6-8 months
D. In 9-12 months
E. In 5-7 years
1256. In which case surgery is appropriate at tuberculoma?
A. Stationary course.
B. * Disintegration and bacterioexcretion.
C. Small size of tuberculoma (up to 2 cm).
D. Regressive course of tuberculoma.
E. Declining years.
1257. In which morphological sort of tuberculoma possible to evolve due long course?
A. Infiltrative-pneumonic.
B. Homogeneous.
C. Pseudotuberculoma.
D. Conglomerate.
E. * Like ball.
1258. In which way does the most often become apparent bacterioexcretion at focal pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Practically always by use bacterioscopy.
B. Never.
C. Often by use bacterioscopy.
D. * Sometimes by bacterioscopy.
E. Always by use bacterioscopy.
1259. In which way hemogram will be changed at caseous pneumonia?
A. * Hypochromic anemia, leucocytosis 13.0-20.0 х109/L, eosinopenia, lymphopenia, ESR-acceleration
up to 50-70 mm/Hr.
B. Red blood in normal state, leucocytosis 20.0-40.0 х109/L, ESR-acceleration up to 35-55 mm/Hr,
lymphopenia, monocytopenia.
C. Monocytosis, lymphocytosis, normal ESR, leukopenia, hypochromic anemia.
D. Hypochromic anemia, leucocytosis 10.0-12.0 х109/L, еозинопенія, lymphopenia, stub shift up to 815%, ESR-acceleration up to 20-25 mm/Hr.
E. Expressed hypochromic anemia, normal state of white blood, ESR acceleration up to 50-70 mm/Hr.
1260. In which way the most often reveals focal tuberculosis?
A. At clinical examination.
B. * At prophylactic photofluorographic examination.
C. At bacterioscopy analysis of spew.
D. At bronchoscopic examination.
E. At immunological examination.
1261. Maximum number of segments affected at nidus lung tuberculosis.
A. 1
B. * 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
1262. Maximum size of shadows at nidus lung tuberculosis is:
A. 1 mm
B. 1,5 mm
C. 5 mm
D. * 10 mm
E. 25 mm
1263. More frequently the spontaneous pneumothorax in patients with lungs tuberculosis appear:
A. At fibrobronchoscopy
B. During pleural puncture
C. At cavern wall rupture
D. * At subpleural emphysematous bubbles rupture
E. At pneumotachometria
1264. Nidal shades of medium intensity with vague contours were revealed on the left apex of a 20-years old
youth during fluorographic examination. His general state is good. Mantoux test with 2 TU – 19 mm
infiltrate. Your preliminary diagnosis?
A. Primary tuberculous complex.
B. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Disseminated tuberculosis.
D. Lung tuberculoma.
E. * Focal tuberculosis.
1265. On base of which infiltrative most often evolve lobar caseous pneumonia?
A. Round.
B. Lobular.
C. Periscysurite.
D. Like a cloud.
E. Lobitis.
1266. On the background of what complications of lungs tuberculosis caseous pneumonia is the most
frequent?
A. Pulmonary haemoptysis
B. Spontaneous pneumothorax
C. Larynx tuberculosis
D. Amyloidosis of kidney
E. Atelectasis of particle lung
1267. Paraspecific manifestations of primary tuberculosis:
A. * Micropolyadenitis, nodual erythema, phlyctenuar keratoconjunctivitis
B. Tuberculosis of skin and tonsils
C. Amiloidosis of internal organs, pleural empyema
D. Tuberculosis pleurisy and pericarditis
E. Tuberculous peritonitis and tuberculosis of intestine
1268. Particularly risk for the human comes from ill with tuberculosis:
A. * Cows
B. Horses
C. Hens
D. Goats
E. Dogs
1269. Patient K., 25, died from lung fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis, MBT (+). For how long must members
of his family be observed at antitubercular dispensary?
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 12 months
D. * 2 years
E. 5 years
1270. ?Patients with firstly diagnosed tuberculosis of lungs may receive sick leaves with the term up to:
A. 1 month
B. 4 months
C. 6 months
D. * 10 months
E. 14 months
1271. Permanent invalidity is established for males and females consequently at the age of:
A. 45 and 35 years
B. 50 and 40 years
C. * 55 and 45 years
D. 60 and 55 years
E. 65 and 60 years
1272. Phtisiologist tactics to a 7-year-old child with a diagnosis of tuberculous intoxication.
A. To observe in a tuberculous dispensary for 2 years.
B. * To undergo treatment with 3 antimycobacterial preparations within 4-6 months assuming the follow
of sanatoric-hygiene regime.
C. To observe in a children’s out-patient department up to the age of 14.
D. To make chemioprophylaxis with isoniazide within 3 months.
E. To improve the health in a recreation camp.
1273. Plan a specific treatment to a patient with FDTB (03.03.2001) of the upper part of the right lung
(caseous pneumonia), Destr+, MBT+M+C+, Resist-, HIST0, Cat1 Coh1(2001). The patient is 45, weight
– 46 kg. His general condition is difficult. There is no accompanying pathology. Prescribe
antimycobacterial preparations.
A. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + streptomycini.
B. Isoniazidum + pyrazinamidum
C. * Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + streptomycini + pyrazinamidum .
D. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum.
E. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + ethambutolum.
1274. ?Principal method of revealing tuberculosis among children.
A. Bacterioscopy of sputum
B. Fluorography
C. * Tuberculinodiagnostics (Mantoux test with 2 TU)
D. Bronhoscopy
E. Tomography on bifurcation level
1275. Procoagulative action preparations.
A. Camphor
B. * Dicinon
C. Benzohexoniy
D. Amben
E. Atropin
1276. Prophylactic examination of a 17-year-old boy revealed bilateral enlargement of bronchopulmonary
lymph nodes. General condition – satisfactory, no complaints. No pathologic alterations were found at
physiacal examination. Mantoux test with 2 TO – negative. General blood analysis – without any
pathologic deviations. The most probable diagnosis.
A. Lymphogranulomatosis
B. Unspecific adenopathy
C. * Sarcoidosis
D. Tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes
E. Lympholeucosis
1277. Prophylactic fluorographic examinations rate of “obligatory contingents”:
A. Once in 6 months
B. Once in 9 months
C. * Once a year
D. Once in 2 years
E. Once in 3 years
1278. Small and average nidi of little intensity have been revealed on the apex of the right lung during
fluorographic examination of a man aged 30. During the last month he notes the decrease of the appetite,
perspiration, inconsiderable cough. Prescribe of antimicobacterial therapy on the 1-st stage.
A. * Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + pyrazinamidum
B. Isoniazidum + pyrazinamidum
C. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + streptomycini + pyrazinamidum + ethambutolum.
D. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum.
E. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + ethambutolum.
1279. The chemoprophylaxis is performed during:
A. 3 days
B. 3 weeks
C. * 3 months
D. 6 months
E. 9 months
1280. The complete fluorographic examination of the population beginning with 18 years of age is
performed.
A. Once in 6 months
B. * Once a year
C. Once in 2 years
D. Once in 3 years
E. Once in 5 years
1281. The frequency of lung haemorrage in lung tuberculosis patients.
A. 1-2 %
B. 3-5 %
C. * 6-19 %
D. 20-25 %
E. 30-35 %
1282. The greatest importance for the confirmation of lung atelectasis diagnosis is:
A. USE
B. Pneumotachometry
C. Roentgenoscopy
D. Computer tomography
E. * Bronchoscopy
1283. The group with the increased risk of catching tuberculosis includes patients with:
A. Chronic tonsillitis
B. Diabetes
C. Inguinal hernia
D. * Hypertonic disease
E. Ascaridosis
1284. The illness, with which differential diagnostics of caseous pneumonia should be made most frequent:
A. * Staphylococcal pneumonia
B. Central cancer
C. Eosinophilic pneumonia
D. Nidal pneumonia
E. Bronchoectasia
1285. The main method of chronic lung heart diagnostics
A. Elecrocardiography
B. Phonocardiography
C. Balistocardiography
D. * Echocardiography
E. Roentgenoscopy
1286. The main reason of the profuse pulmonary bleeding in patients with tuberculosis.
A. * Blood vessel rapture
B. Pulmonary artery thrombosis
C. Varicose of blood pulmonary vessels
D. Activation of fibrinolysis
E. Violations in blood coagulation system
1287. ?The method of the definition of a kind of spontaneous pneumothorax.
A. Roentgenologic
B. On the basis of the clinic data.
C. * The pressure measurement in the pleural cavity (manometry)
D. Computer tomography
E. USE
1288. The most characteristic blood analysis in patients with the infiltrative lung tuberculosis.
A. Leuc. – 25,0?10/l; е – 3, p – 6, s – 51, l – 23, m – 7 %; ESR – 6 mm/hour.
B. * Leuc. - 9,8?10/l; е – 5, p – 6, s – 65, l – 13, m – 11 %; ESR – 36 mm/hour.
C. Leuc. - 4,0?10/l; е – 2, p – 2, s – 60, l – 26, m – 9 %; ESR – 6 mm/hour.
D. Leuc. – 16,5?10/l; е – 10, p – 10, s – 64, l – 14, m – 2 %; ESR – 21 mm/hour.
E. Leuc. – 6,0?10/l; е – 4, p – 3, s – 60, l – 26, m– 6 %; ESR – 7 mm/hour.
1289. The most common complication for the primary tuberculous complex.
A. Chronic lung tuberculosis
B. Lung haemophtisis
C. Spontaneous pneumothorax
D. * Pleurisy
E. Amiloidosis of intestinal organs
1290. The most effective fibrinolysis inhibitor.
A. Trasilol
B. Contrycal
C. * Epsilon-aminocapronic acid (EACA)
D. Amben
E. Albumin
1291. The most frequent segmental localization of the primary lung affect:
A. I, II, III, IV segments
B. I, II, IV, VII segments
C. * II, III, VIII, IX segments
D. I, II, IV, VI segments
E. I, II, VI, VII segments
1292. ?The most informative method of roentgenologic examination at the diagnostics of a small form of
tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes:
A. A target roentgenogram
B. A fluorogram
C. * A tomogram on the level of trachea bifurcation
D. Observation roentgenogram of the thoracic cage
E. Bronchogram
1293. The most rational combination of antimycobacterial preparations at the initial stage in patients with
lung tuberculoma, MBT (-).
A. Isonoazidum + streptomycini + rifampycini
B. * Isonoazidum + rifampycini + pyrazinamidum
C. Isonoazidum + streptomycini + pyrazinamidum
D. Isonoazidum + pyrazinamidum + PASA
E. Rifampycini + ethionamidum + kanamycini
1294. The most trustworthy criteria of nidal tuberculosis activity.
A. Intoxication syndrome
B. Changes in haemogram
C. * Revealing of micobacteria tuberculosis
D. Nidus shadow of medium intensity with distinct contours
E. Positive Mantoux testing of 2 TU
1295. The patient, 34 years old, 8 years ago was treated because of the infiltrative tuberculosis of lung. Her
state became much better. During the last 6 years the X-ray picture was stable (on the right side under the
clavicle there was the region of pneumosclerosis and two calcinates). To what group of dispensary
observation does she belong?
A. 5.1
B. 5.2
C. 5.3
D. * 5.4
E. 5.5
1296. The predominant segmental localization of tuberculosis infiltration
A. I, II, III segments
B. I, III, V segments
C. I, IV, V segments
D. * I, II, VI segments
E. II, VI IX segments
1297. The prophylactic photoroentgenographic examination of a 25-year-old patient showed in segments 1-2
of the left lung focal shadows of low intensity without distinct contours. Mantoux test with 2 TO – 7 mm
infiltrate. Blood analysis: leuk. – 9,9 x 109/l, ESR – 26 mm/hour. Which is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Nidus lung tuberculosis
B. Infiltrative lung tuberculosis
C. Nidus pneumonia
D. Lung cancer
E. Eosiniphil infiltration
1298. The teacher O., 28 years old, was treated during 10 months because FDTB (05.05.2003) of the upper
part of the right lung (infiltration ), Destr+, MBT+M-C+, Resist-, HIST0, Cat1 Coh2(2003). The state
became much better (the absence of MBT, the closing of the cavity of decay). What is the tactics for the
employment?
A. To be let to the previous work
B. To continue the list of uncapacity to work up to 12 months and then to be let to work
C. * To direct to the MSEC to indicate the III invalid group
D. To direct to the MSEC to indicate the II invalid group
E. To propose another job
1299. The terms of BCG revaccination performance in Ukraine.
A. On 3-5th day after birth
B. On 3-5th week after birth
C. At 3, 5 years of age
D. * At 7,14 years of age
E. At 17, 30 years of age
1300. To detect the “small” form of tuberculous bronchoadenitis, it’s necessary to perform:
A. Inspection roentgenography
B. Target roentgenography
C. Fibrobronchoscopy
D. * Tomography on bifurcation trachea
E. USE
1301. To lately revealed lung tuberculosis belong:
A. Lung tuberculoma, MBT (+)
B. * Tuberculosis pleurisy
C. Miliary tuberculosis, MBT (+)
D. Infiltrative lung tuberculosis, ph. decay, MBT (-)
E. Lung fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis, MBT (+)
1302. To timely revealed of tuberculosis belong:
A. * Primary tuberculosis complex, ph. decay, MBT (+)
B. Nidus lung tuberculosis, ph. infiltration, MBT (-)
C. Lung cirrhotic tuberculosis, MBT (-)
D. Infiltrative lung tuberculosis, ph. decay, MBT (-)
E. Disseminated lung tuberculosis, ph. decay, MBT (-)
1303. To which category relate patients of caseous pneumonia?
A. * To first.
B. To third.
C. To second.
D. To forth.
E. To fifth.
1304. To which dispensary category does patient with first diagnosed infiltrative pulmonary tuberculosis in
disintegration stage and availability bacterioexcretion belong ?
A. * To first.
B. To third.
C. To second.
D. To fourth.
E. To fifth.
1305. Under the mask of what diseases is tuberculosis infiltrate the most frequent?
A. Peripheral lung cancer
B. Retention cyst
C. * Pneumonia
D. Eosinophile infiltrate
E. Aspergiloma
1306. Vaccination and revaccination with BCG vaccine is done:
A. Cutaneously
B. * Intracutaneously
C. Subcutaneously
D. Intramuscularly
E. Perorally
1307. What kind of rentgenological| picture is most typical for miliary tuberculosis?
A. "Flakes of snow".
B. "Snow-storm".
C. "Weeping willow".
D. "Bat’s wings".
E. * "Looks like millet" dissemination.
1308. What antimycobacterial preparation is prevalently used to make the chemoprophylaxis?
A. Streptomycinum
B. Rifampicinum
C. Pyrazinamidum
D. * Isoniazidum
E. Ethambutolum
1309. What are typical complications for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Tuberculosis bronchus.
B. Bronchogenic dissemination.
C. Tuberculosis larynx.
D. Tuberculosis colitis.
E. * All with above.
1310. What character usually has temperature reaction for a patient on miliary tuberculosis?
A. Subfebrility| during the first 3-5 days of illness.
B. Protracted inconstant subfebrility.
C. Fever during the first 3-5 days of illness.
D. * The Wrong fever
E. Normal temperature.
1311. What clinic symptoms are the most typical for tuberculoma?
A. * Sometime subfebrile state, minor cough, possible absent of complains.
B. Strong cough, pain in chest, shortness of breath.
C. High temperature, chill, pain in chest, purulent spew.
D. Cough, spew with unpleasant smell, hyperhidrosis, spew with blood.
E. Pain in chest. Spew with blood, Shortness of breath.
1312. What clinical course is typical for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. * Wavy, with remission and exacerbation.
B. Acute, progressive.
C. Near acute.
D. Without symptoms or with few symptoms.
E. Quick feedback.
1313. What clinical form of tuberculosis is tuberculoma formed from most frequently?
A. Disseminated
B. Fibrous-cavernous
C. Cirrhotic
D. Nidus
E. * Infiltrative
1314. What clinical presentation is the most typical for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Long remissions.
B. * Chronic clinical course.
C. Absent any remissions.
D. Periods of remissions alternate with acute conditions.
E. Permanent progress of process.
1315. What clinical presentation is typical for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. No complaints or cough with minor spew. Sometime local humid wheeze.
B. * Cough with spew, breathlessness, sometime spew with blood. Time to time high temperature,
hyperhidrosis. Local humid wheeze. During remission – good state of health.
C. Cough, spew with objectionable odor. During worsening – high temperature, hyperhidrosis,
sometime spew with blood. Humid and dry wheeze. “Drumsticks”.
D. Pain in thorax, often sputum with blood, breathlessness, diminished breath sounds, sometime humid
or dry local wheeze.
E. No complaints.Time to time dry cough. Temperature is normal (inflammation is able to raise
temperature). Auscultatory data are small.
1316. What combination of antituberculosis medicines is the most suitable at first revealed small
tuberculoma?
A. * Isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide.
B. Streptomycin, isoniazid, rifampicin.
C. Streptomycin, rifampicin, ethambutol.
D. Amikacin, kanamycin, pyrazinamide,
E. Rifampicin, ofloxacin, pyrazinamide.
1317. What combination of preparations does it follow to appoint a patient with found out reactivation of
tuberculosis before the receipt of results of sensitiveness of MBT to antimycobacterial drugs?
A. Isoniazidum, Streptomycini, Kanamycini, Etambutolum, Ethionamidum.
B. * Isoniazidum, Rifampicinum, Pyrazinamidum, Streptomycini, Etambutolum.
C. Rifampicinum, Isoniazidum, Streptomycini, Amoxycylini , Pyrazinamidum.
D. Isoniazidum, Rifampicinum, Ethionamidum, PASA is Natrum, Etambutolum.
E. Rifampicinum, Streptomycini, Viomycini, Florimycini, Kanamycini.
1318. What combination of preparations must we appoint to a patient with the first first diagnosed infiltrative
tuberculosis in the phase of disintegration?
A. Isoniazidum, Streptomycini|, Kanamycini|, Etambutolum.
B. Rifampicinum, Streptomycini|, Amoxycylini|, Pyrazinamidum.
C. * Isoniazidum, Rifampicinum|, Pyrazinamidum|, Streptomycini.
D. Isoniazidum, Ethionamidum|, PASA is Natrum|, Etambutolum.
E. Streptomycini, Viomycini|, Florimycini|, Kanamycini.
1319. What combination of preparations must we appoint to a patient with the first diagnosed Nidus lung
tuberculosis?
A. Isoniazidum, Streptomycini, Kanamycini.
B. Rifampicinuum, Streptomycini, Amoxycylini.
C. * Isoniazidum, Rifampicinum, Pyrazinamidum.
D. Isoniazidum, Ethionamidum, PASA is Natrum.
E. Streptomitsin, Viomycini, Florimycini.
1320. What complication is not typical |for miliary tuberculosis?
A. Sharp insufficiency of kidney.
B. Cerebral comma.
C. Sharp hepatic insufficiency.
D. * Amyloidosis.
E. Endotoxicosis.
1321. What complications can accompany a tuberculous empyema?.
A. Broncho-pleural fistula.
B. Toracic fistula.
C. Amyloidosis of internal organs.
D. Pneumopleurisy.
E. * All marked.
1322. What composition of pleural liquid is typical for an exsudate?
A. * Relative density - 1025, protein content- 45 g/l, protein (in effusion/ in the serum of blood)-0,8,
activity of LDG -2,1 mmol/(l/hour), content of cells -2,1?109/l.
B. Relative density - 1010, protein content - 20 g/l, protein (in effusion/ in the serum of blood)-0,2,
activity of LDG - 1,1 mmol/(l/hour), content of cells- 0,8?109/l.
C. Relative density - 1005, protein content- 15 g/l, protein (in effusion/ in the serum of blood)-0,3,
activity of LDG -0,9 mmol/(l/hour), content of cells -0,5?109/l.
D. Relative density - 1000, protein content- 10 g/l, protein (in effusion/ in the serum of blood)-0,4,
activity of LDG -1,3 mmol/(l/hour), content of cells -0,6?109/l.
E. All indicated is an exsudate.
1323. What contraindication to surgery for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis patient?
A. * Wide distribution of the focus of disease.
B. Bronchiectasis is present.
C. Bleeding in lungs.
D. Resistivity to 2 antituberculous medications.
E. Wide bacterioexcretion.
1324. What course is the most typical for tuberculoma?
A. Gradual progressive worsening.
B. * Few symptoms or without symptoms.
C. Acute start. Quick worsening.
D. Near acute. Like influenza or pneumonia.
E. Acute start. Quick reverse evolution due chemical medications.
1325. What disease does aggravate the bearableness of Pyrazinamidum?
A. Chronic bronchitis.
B. * Chronic hepatitis.
C. Chronic colitis.
D. Chronic cholecystitis.
E. Ischemic heart trouble.
1326. What disease is contra-indication for setting of Isoniazidum?
A. Chronic obstructive bronchitis.
B. Rheumatoid arthritis.
C. * Epilepsy.
D. Chronic pancreatitis.
E. Ulcerous illness.
1327. What disease is contra-indication to setting of Etambutolum?
A. Acute conjunctivitis.
B. Chronic keratitis.
C. Chalazion.
D. * Degeneration of nipple of visual nerve.
E. Cataract.
1328. What disease is contra-indication to setting of Streptomycini?
A. Chronic hepatitis.
B. Alcoholism.
C. Acute sinuitis.
D. * Ischemic heart trouble.
E. Psoriasis.
1329. What dispensary registration category will the patient with FDTB (22.02.2202) of the upper part of the
left lung (infiltration), Destr+, MBT+M+C+, Resit+ (S, R), HIST0 be observed in?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. * 4
E. 5
1330. What does a 5 mm seam formed in 4 months after BCG vaccination testify?
A. To high reaction of vaccine
B. To complication - keloid seam
C. To violation of vaccine injection techniques
D. To the lack of antituberculous immunity
E. * To the presence of postvaccinal immunity
1331. What feature is typical for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis in our time?
A. * Complications by not specific inflammatory processes.
B. Frequent evolution of of internal amyloidosis.
C. Profuse bleeding in lungs.
D. Frequent aspergillosis.
E. Evolution of tuberculous meningoencephalitis.
1332. What form have cavities of disintegration at miliary tuberculosis?
A. Bilateral symmetric thin-walled cavities.
B. Bilateral asymmetric thick-walled cavities.
C. One-sided plural cavities of different form.
D. One thick-walled cavity and plural thin-walled "daughters's" cavities .
E. * There aren’t cavities.
1333. What from the drugs can cause polyneuropathy?
A. * Isoniazidum.
B. Etambutolum.
C. Pyrazinamidum.
D. Rifampicinum.
E. Streptomycini.
1334. What from the drugs does operate only on extracellularly distributed MBT?
A. Isoniazidum.
B. Etambutolum.
C. Pyrazinamidum.
D. * Streptomycini.
E. Rifampicinum.
1335. What from these preparations does not have antimicobacterial action?
A. Isoniazidum.
B. Rifampicinum.
C. * Ceftriaxon.
D. Pyrazinamidum.
E. Etambutolum.
1336. ?What from these preparations has antimicobacterial action?
A. Nitroxolin.
B. * Cyprofloxacin.
C. Kotrimaxazol.
D. Amoxycylin.
E. Doxicylin.
1337. What from these preparations is not used for empiric therapy for patients with first found out
tuberculosis?
A. Isoniazidum.
B. * Natrii paraaminosalicylatis (PASA is Natrum)
C. Etambutolum.
D. Pyrazinamidum.
E. Streptomycini
1338. What illness is the most expedient to differentiate tuberculoma with?
A. * Aspergilloma
B. An air-cyst
C. Central cancer
D. Eosinophilic infiltrate
E. Chronic abscess
1339. What is a definition for tuberculoma?
A. * Tuberculoma is limited by capsule from conjunctive tissue focus of caseous with size more that 1
cm with chronic and torpid course.
B. Tuberculoma is center of specific pneumonia with size up to 1 cm which localized in border of 1-2
segments.
C. Tuberculoma is area of specific inflammation with prevailed escudative character with size more 1
cm, with disposition to spontaneous recovery.
D. Tuberculoma is area of specific inflammation with prevailed escudative character with size more 1
cm, with disposition to progress and disintegration.
E. Tuberculoma is accretion of rough conjunctive tissue in the lung as a result of involution of different
forms of tuberculosis.
1340. What is BCG and BCG-M vaccine?
A. Killed mycobacteria culture
B. Mycobacteria vital activity products
C. * Mycobacteria live weakened culture
D. Compound of purified tuberculin and killed mycobacteria
E. Insufficient by purified dry tuberculin
1341. What is clinic category for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis patient with long term?
A. * Fourth.
B. First.
C. Second.
D. Third.
E. Fifth
1342. What is correct continuation of suggestion? Miliary tuberculosis....
A. Is the most frequent form of tuberculosis.
B. Takes the second place (after the infiltration tuberculosis) in the structure of morbidity on secondary
tuberculosis.
C. Takes the second place (after the tuberculosis of intrathoracic nodes) in the structure of morbidity on
primary tuberculosis.
D. * Nowadays meets rarely.
E. Nowadays meets in casuistic cases.
1343. What is meant by the diagnosis “tuberculous intoxication in children”?
A. * A symptom complex of functional and objective signs of intoxication as a result of primary
infestation with tuberculosis mycobacteria with unestablished localization.
B. An intoxication syndrome at a small form of tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes.
C. An intoxication syndrome at a primary tuberculous complex.
D. An intoxication syndrome at a primary tuberculous complex of ileocecal section of intestine.
E. Subfebrile body temperature, perspiration appeared, cough, voice hoarseness.
1344. What is recommended duration of treatment patient with the first discovered tuberculosis?
A. 10 days.
B. 2 months.
C. * 6 months.
D. 9 months.
E. 2 years.
1345. What is the character of exsudate at the tuberculous empyema ?
A. Serous-fibrinous and fibrinous.
B. * Serous-purulent and purulent.
C. Haemorrhagic.
D. Serous-haemorrhagic.
E. Chillous.
1346. What is the exsudate at tuberculous pleurisy?
A. * Mainly lymphocytic.
B. Mainly neutrophilic.
C. Chillous.
D. Monocytic.
E. Macrophagic.
1347. What is the main characteristic of fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Disposition to forming acinar, acinar-nodose and lobular centers.
B. Disposition for creation infiltrations and caverns.
C. * Old fibrous cavity and fibrosis in abutting pulmonary tissue.
D. Polychemoresistance.
E. Periodical or permanent bacterioexcretion.
1348. What is the mechanism of development of pleural inflammation by MBT?
A. Only lymphogenic.
B. * Lympho-hematogenic.
C. Sputogenic.
D. Bronchogenic.
E. Only hematogenic.
1349. What is the most characteristic investigation, if miliary tuberculosis does not end with death of
patient?
A. * Convalescence with development of diffuse pneumofibrosis.
B. Convalescence with forming the hearths of Gon.
C. Passing into subsharp disseminated tuberculosis.
D. Passing into fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis.
E. Development the cirrhosis of lungs.
1350. What is the most frequent immediate causes of death at pulmonary haemorrage in pulmonary
tuberculosis patients?
A. Anemia
B. Aspirational pneumonia
C. * Asphyxia
D. Atelectasis
E. Tuberculosis progressing
1351. What is the primary tuberculosis?
A. First diagnosed tuberculosis
B. * Tuberculosis that develops in firstly infected persons.
C. Tuberculosis what has developed after the primary tuberculous complex.
D. Tuberculosis revealed during the prophylactic examination.
E. Tuberculosis caused by mycobacteria of beef type.
1352. What is the reason of appearance of exsudate in a pleural cavity at different clinical forms of
tuberculosis?
A. The anatomic and functional connection between the sheets of pleura, lymphatic nodes and lymphatic
system of lungs.
B. The inflammation of pleura that caused by MBT, that penetrate into pleura by lymphogenic way from
the hearths or infiltrations in lungs.
C. The inflammation of pleura that caused by MBT, that penetrate into pleura because of bacteriemia.
D. Pleura hypersensibilization by MBT decay products.
E. * All indicated assertions are faithful.
1353. What is the therapeutic approach at first revealed tuberculoma with size 3-4 cm?
A. Urgent surgery.
B. * Medical treatment start with prescription of antituberculosis medicine, after this – surgery.
C. Just specific conservative treatment.
D. Case monitoring.
E. Tuberculin therapy.
1354. What is the value of BCG vaccine?
A. Tuberculosis lighter course
B. Prevents infestation
C. Guarantee from an illness
D. * Less chance of catching tuberculosis
E. Prevents tuberculosis relapse
1355. What is usually a sputum for a patient with miliary tuberculosis?
A. Mucous.
B. Mucous and purulent.
C. Purulent.
D. Mucous with bloodstreaks.
E. * Sputum is absent.
1356. What kind are the hearths at miliary tuberculosis?
A. * They are small, exsudative, without a tendency to confluence and disintegration.
B. They are large exsudative with a tendency to confluence and disintegration.
C. They are small, productive, compact and calcinated.
D. They are polymorphic.
E. They are large calcinates.
1357. What measures are the most important in treatment at the purulent (exudative) tuberculous pleurisy?
A. To increase the amount of antimycobacterial drugs.
B. * Repeated aspirations of exsudate with creation of negative pressure in a pleural cavity.
C. Setting of corticosteroids.
D. Desintoxication therapy.
E. All marked.
1358. What medical preparations are advisable for the usage for a trial treatment of a patient with the aim of
differential diagnosis of the local tuberculosis and pneumonia?
A. Streptomycini and sulfaleni
B. Streptomycini and isoniazidum
C. * Penicillini and sulfaleni
D. Penicillini and rifampicimun
E. Penicillini and streptomycini
1359. What medications suitable for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis patiens in addition to classic
antituberculosis medications?
A. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug, (NSAID).
B. Glucocorticoid.
C. * Fluoroquinolone.
D. Cephalosporin.
E. Sulfanilamide
1360. What method help to find MBT in pleural liquid at an allergic tubercular pleurisy?
A. * It is impossible to find .
B. By an ordinary bacterioscopy.
C. By flotation method.
D. By cultural method.
E. By luminescent microscopy.
1361. What method more frequent will be used to exposure the destruction of lungs tissue?
A. Sciagraphy.
B. * Computerized tomography .
C. Spot-film sciagraphy.
D. Rentgenoscopy.
E. Bronchography.
1362. What method of research is decisive in diagnostics of pleurisy of any etiology?
A. Roentgenologic examination.
B. Ultrasound examination.
C. Clinic and information of physical methods.
D. * Pleural puncture.
E. Tuberculin tests.
1363. What method of research is executed for confirmation of presence of liquid in a pleural cavity?
A. Fluorography.
B. Tomography.
C. Bronchography.
D. * Laterography.
E. Spot-film sciagraphy.
1364. What method of research should be conducted for confirmation the small forms of tuberculosis of
intrathorax glands?
A. Spot-film sciagraphy.
B. * Computerized tomography .
C. Tomography.
D. Sciagraphy in a lateral proection.
E. Fluorography on inhalation and exhalation.
1365. What methods of research of breathing organs transferring are roentgenological?
A. Sciagraphy.
B. Computerized tomography.
C. Rentgenoscopy.
D. Bronchography
E. * Bronchoscopy.
1366. What morphological changes evolve in the lungs in fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis patiens?
A. Bronchogenic dissemination.
B. Pneumosclerosis.
C. Emphysema.
D. Bronchiectasis.
E. * All above.
1367. What mycobacterium are called L-form?
A. Vaccine’s culture of MBT.
B. Avisual forms of MBT.
C. Atypical forms of MBT.
D. * MBT, which has partly lost a cellular wall.
E. Filtering forms of MBT.
1368. What need take into account for prescription of medicine for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary
tuberculosis patient?
A. Symptoms of intoxication.
B. Attendant pathology.
C. * Sensitivity to anti-tuberculosis medications.
D. Bronchial-lung syndrome.
E. Quantity and size of caverns.
1369. What of tubercular pleurisy is the most widespread ?
A. * Exudative (serous or serous-haemorrhagic liquid).
B. Armourclad.
C. Chillous.
D. Haemorrhagic.
E. Purulent.
1370. ?What organs are more frequent struck at miliary tuberculosis?
A. * Lungs.
B. Kidneys.
C. Brain-tunics.
D. Overhead respiratory tracts.
E. Lymphatic nodes.
1371. What percent of patients with tuberculosis in Ukraine are detected at mass fluorographycal inspection?
A. 5 %.
B. 15%.
C. 25%.
D. 35%.
E. * 50%.
1372. What quantity of medications with anti-tuberculosis action need to appoint to caseous pneumonia
patients in intensive stage.
A. 2-3.
B. 6-7.
C. 3-4.
D. 4-5.
E. * 5-6.
1373. ?What reason for evolving of cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Resistance to antimicrobial medication.
B. Not timely process definition.
C. Medical mistakes.
D. Injurious clinical course.
E. * Any with above possible to be a reason for evolution of cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis.
1374. What research method we have to use to confirm the presence of bronchiectasis?
A. Spot-film sciagraphy.
B. Survey sciagraphy.
C. Fіstulography.
D. Tomography.
E. * Bronchography.
1375. What result of Mantoux test with 2 TU PPD-L is the most typical at extended clinical presentation of
caseous pneumonia?
A. Papule with diameter 21 mm and more.
B. * Negative reaction.
C. Papule with diameter 10-15 mm.
D. Papule with diameter 16-21 mm.
E. Papule with diameter 5-10 mm.
1376. What result of test of Mantu is typical for clinical picture of miliary tuberculosis?
A. * Negative
B. Doubtful
C. Positive
D. Giperergichniy
E. Results are different
1377. What roentgenologic signs convincingly testify about the activity of focal tuberculosis?
A. * Focuses of medial intensity with distinct exterior contours.
B. Group of focuses, different in size, of high intensity.
C. Focuses of low intensity with illegible contours.
D. Gohn’s focus.
E. Focuses of medium intensity on the background of limited pneumosclerosis.
1378. ?What roentgenological method is used for skrining survey of population with the purpose of exposure
tuberculosis of breathing organs?
A. Sciagraphy.
B. Computerized tomography.
C. * Fluorography.
D. Rentgenoscopy.
E. Bronchography.
1379. What rontgenologic picture is typical for tuberculoma?
A. Intensive shadow with diffused outlines, with brightening in the center and horizontal liquid level.
B. Round homogeneous shadow with contrast outlines, more often in deep layers of the lung,
neighbouring lung tissue is not changed.
C. * Round and intensive shadow in I, II, VI segments with contrast outlines, sometime with sickleshaped brightening or with including of the lime.
D. Homogenous shadow with humpbacked outlines, tension bars in the form of “rays”, sometime
increased lymph nodes in the root.
E. Round homogenous shadow with contrast outlines, sometimes with including of the lime.
Neighbouring lung tissue is not changed.
1380. What rontgenological changes describe availability of fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. One insulated or plural thin-walled cavern . Pulmonary tissue is a little bit changed. Focal shadows
are absent.
B. Cavity with coiled internal contour, irregular walls, knotty external contour, more frequent in front
segments.
C. Cavity with wide sides and fluid level, more frequent in the inferior segments on lungs. Around –
fibrosis. Focal shadows are absent.
D. * Cavity with thick walls, more frequent in the upper segments of lungs. Around – fibrosis.
Sometimes mediastinal displacement. Below – focal bronchogenic dissemination.
E. Insulated cavity without perifocal seepage, without fibrosis, without bronchogenic dissemination.
1381. What segments are tuberculomas the most often localized in?
A. I, II, III
B. * I, II, VI
C. I, VI, X
D. I, II, VIII
E. II, IV, V
1382. What sensitively to tuberculine according Mantoux test with 2 TU PPD-L is typical to tuberculoama?
A. Negative.
B. Papule 5-10 cm.
C. * Often hyperergic.
D. Present hyperemia without papule creation.
E. Papule 5-10 cm.
1383. What symptoms do belong to the "pectoral" symptoms of tuberculosis?
A. low grade fever, cough, head pain, lack of breath, general weakness.
B. * hemoptysis, lack of breath, chest pain, cough, excretion of sputum
C. heart pain, low grade fever, cough, hemoptysis lack of breath.
D. hepatic colic, lack of breath, cough, hemoptysis low grade fever
E. Vomit, hoarse voice, cough, lack of breath, excretion of sputum
1384. What tests need to do when available cavity dissociation for potentially tuberculosis patient?
A. Multiphase exploration spew concerning mycobacteriums tuberculosis.
B. Tomography of the thorax organs.
C. Bronchoscopy with take a samples for cytodiagnosis and histologic study.
D. Bronchography.
E. * Need to complete all above explorations.
1385. What therapeutic approach is the most effective at pulmonary tuberculoma.
A. * Resectable surgery against a background of chemotherapy.
B. Chemotherapy + common strengthening therapy.
C. Chemotherapy in conjunction with absorbable therapy.
D. Physiotherapy against a background of chemotherapy.
E. Chemotherapy in conjunction with hormonal therapy.
1386. What thesis is faithful?
A. Miliary tuberculosis is a local form of tuberculosis.
B. * Miliary tuberculosis is a general |form of tuberculosis.
C. Miliary tuberculosis is characterized by migrant defeats of different organs.
D. Only the lungs are struck at miliary tuberculosis .
E. The defeat takes place in 1-2 parenchymal |organs at miliary tuberculosis.
1387. What thorax form in a tuberculosis patients is the most typical?
A. Hypersthenes
B. * Paralytic
C. Rachitic
D. Scoliotic
E. Emphysematic
1388. ?What tuberculin and at dose is used at mass tuberculinization?
A. 100 % Koch alt tuberculin
B. * PPD-L in standard dilution in 2TU dose
C. PPD-L in standard dilution in 5TU dose
D. PPD-L in standard dilution in 10TU dose
E. 25 % dilution of purified dry tuberculin
1389. What type of breathing in the projection of defeat at infiltrating tuberculosis is characteristic?
A. vesicular respiration
B. amphoric breath sounds
C. * Mixed breathing.
D. bronchial respiration
E. interrupted breathing
1390. What type of breathing is auscultating at tuberculoma?
A. * Vesicular.
B. Bronchial.
C. Amphoric.
D. Stenotic.
E. Mixed.
1391. What type of exciter, after Runyon classification, is considered to be atypical mycobacterium?
A. M. BOVIS.
B. M.africanum
C. Filtrate’s forms.
D. * M. avium.
E. M tuberculosis.
1392. What variant of clinical course is typical for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Limited and relatively stable.
B. Slowly progressive.
C. Quickly progressive.
D. Course with complications.
E. * All above variants are possible.
1393. When does the disposition of perspiration appear at tuberculosis?
A. At physical tension
B. At psychic-emotional tension
C. * At night
D. At becoming overheated
E. In the day-time
1394. When were the X-rays discovered?
A. In 1882 year.
B. In 1895 year.
C. In 1944 year.
D. * In 1951 year.
E. In 1965 year.
1395. Which enumerated complications practically always accompany infiltrative form of tubercular process
with?
A. Atelectasis of appropriate part of lung.
B. Pulmonary hemorrhage.
C. Amyloidosis of inner organs.
D. Spontaneous pneumothorax.
E. * Tuberculosis of draining bronchus.
1396. Which is a characteristic property of tissue reaction at infiltrative tuberculosis?
A. Limited distribution of specific inflammation, marked peculiarity to its encapsulation.
B. * Peculiarity to quick caseous necrosis.
C. Peculiarity to spontaneous resorption of infiltration.
D. Infiltrations quick dissipate, in other parts of lungs possible to appear new infiltrations (short-term).
E. Typical diffusive growing of conjunction tissue, sclerotic changes in lymphatic vessels and glands,
thickening of the pleura.
1397. Which of diseases in anamnesis increase the risk of tuberculosis disease?
A. Ischemic heart disease
B. Neurodermitis
C. * Stomach ulcer
D. Deforming arthrosis
E. Appendicitis
1398. Which of the cited data of life anamnesis is the risk factor of tuberculosis disease?
A. Vaccination against hepatitis B
B. Being in the countries of Western Europe 3 years less ago
C. * Illegal working migration
D. A change of profession on more skilled
E. Retirement
1399. Which one from the mentioned diseases can decrease the sensibility of an organism to tuberculin?
A. Cataral otitis
B. Allergic rhinitis
C. Bronchial asthma
D. Hypertonic disease
E. * Measles
1400. While carrying out the differential diagnostics between infectious postvaccinal reactions on the
tuberculin is not taken into account:
A. The contact with the tuberculosis patients
B. The intensiveness of the reaction on the Mantoux test of previous years
C. A presence of postvaccinal scar
D. The time of the carrying out of the vaccibation BCG
E. * The poisoning by the carbon oxide some yars ago
1401. With the purpose of MBT chromosome revelation sowing sputum was done on hard environment.
What does the appearance of colony mean on a third day from sowing?
A. Mycobacterium’s growth, which are propagating quickly.
B. Growth of highly virulent mycobacterium.
C. Growth of atypical mycobacterium.
D. * Growth of unspecific microflora.
E. Growth of L-form mycobacterium.
1402. With what roentgenological method is more expedient to begin additional inspection, if at prophylactic
fluorography inspection in the first and second segments of lungs focal shades are discovered?
A. * From survey sciagraphy.
B. From computerized tomography.
C. From spot-film sciagraphy.
D. From rentgenoscopy.
E. From bronchography.
1403. A focal shade is:
A. Dark patch in a diameter up to 0,2 sm.
B. Dark patch 0,2 - 0,4 sm in a diameter.
C. Dark patch 0,5 - 1,0 sm in a diameter.
D. Dark patch in a diameter to 1,0 sm.
E. * Dark patch from 1,0 to 2,0 sm in a diameter.
1404. A cloud-like darkening of the upper part of the right lung with a lightening in the center, to the left
paracardially a group of small intensity nidi have been revealed during fluorographic examination of a
female patient, 30, suffering from a stomach ulcer. A preliminary diagnosis.
A. * Infiltrative tuberculosis.
B. Lung tuberculoma.
C. Fibrous cavernous tuberculosis.
D. Caseous pneumonia.
E. Disseminated tuberculosis.
1405. A cloud-like darkening of the upper part of the right lung with a lightening in the center, to the left
paracardially a group of small intensity nidi have been revealed during fluorographic examination of a
female patient, 30, suffering from a stomach ulcer. A preliminary diagnosis.
A. * Infiltrative tuberculosis.
B. Lung tuberculoma.
C. Fibrous cavernous tuberculosis.
D. Caseous pneumonia.
E. Disseminated tuberculosis.
1406. A darkening of medium intensity with a lightening in the center and a path to the root has been
revealed to the right beneath the clavicle of a patient B., 40, during fluorographic examination. He feels
well. Formulate the preliminary diagnosis.
A. Primary tuberculous complex.
B. * Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Lung tuberculoma.
D. Fibrous cavernous tuberculosis.
E. Caseous pneumonia.
1407. A darkening of medium intensity with a lightening in the center and a path to the root has been
revealed to the right beneath the clavicle of a patient B., 40, during fluorographic examination. He feels
well. Formulate the preliminary diagnosis.
A. Primary tuberculous complex.
B. * Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Lung tuberculoma.
D. Fibrous cavernous tuberculosis.
E. Caseous pneumonia.
1408. A group of shadows of small and medium intensity of 3-8 mm in diameter has been revealed in the
upper part of the right lung in a patient of 25 years old on a fluorogoram. The patient’s state is
satisfactory. Mantoux test with 2 TU – 16 mm infiltrate. What disease is the most probable one?
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Eosinophil infiltration
C. Nidus pneumonia
D. * Nidus lung tuberculosis
E. Peripheral lung cancer
1409. A group of shadows of small and medium intensity of 3-8 mm in diameter has been revealed in the
upper part of the right lung in a patient of 25 years old on a fluorogoram. The patient’s state is
satisfactory. Mantoux test with 2 TU – 16 mm infiltrate. What disease is the most probable one?
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Eosinophil infiltration
C. Nidus pneumonia
D. * Nidus lung tuberculosis
E. Peripheral lung cancer
1410. A round shadow with wave-like outer contours was found in the 3-rd segment of the left lung of a man
of 60 during a fluorographic examination. There were single calcinates in the roots. ESR – 62 mm/hr.
What illness can be suspected?
A. * Periferal cancer.
B. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Disseminated tuberculosis.
D. Lung tuberculoma.
E. Focal tuberculosis.
1411. A round shadow with wave-like outer contours was found in the 3-rd segment of the left lung of a man
of 60 during a fluorographic examination. There were single calcinates in the roots. ESR – 62 mm/hr.
What illness can be suspected?
A. * Periferal cancer.
B. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Disseminated tuberculosis.
D. Lung tuberculoma.
E. Focal tuberculosis.
1412. About which duration of disease does the most often indicate patients during gathering of anamnesis?
A. 3-4 days.
B. 1-2 weeks.
C. Below 1 year.
D. * 1-2 months.
E. 4-5 years and more.
1413. About which duration of disease does the most often indicate patients during gathering of anamnesis?
A. 3-4 days.
B. 1-2 weeks.
C. Below 1 year.
D. * 1-2 months.
E. 4-5 years and more.
1414. Amiloidosis is a system disease, it complicates the chronic purulent processes in the organism and is
characterized by the violations of:
A. Carbon metabolism.
B. * Albumen metabolism
C. Metabolism of fats
D. Vitamin exchange
E. Acid-alkaline equilibrium
1415. Amiloidosis is a system disease, it complicates the chronic purulent processes in the organism and is
characterized by the violations of:
A. Carbon metabolism.
B. * Albumen metabolism
C. Metabolism of fats
D. Vitamin exchange
E. Acid-alkaline equilibrium
1416. An urgent aid at a valvate spontaneous pneumothorax.
A. Fibrobronchoscopy
B. Artificial lung ventilation
C. * Pleural cavity drainage
D. Respiratory gymnastics
E. Strict bed rest
1417. An urgent aid at a valvate spontaneous pneumothorax.
A. Fibrobronchoscopy
B. Artificial lung ventilation
C. * Pleural cavity drainage
D. Respiratory gymnastics
E. Strict bed rest
1418. At the absence of positive treatment dynamics during 2-4 months the patients with lungs tuberculosis
are prescribed for:
A. * Economical resection of a lung
B. Pneumonectomy
C. Decortication of a lesion of lung
D. Hormonotherapy
E. Antimycobacterial therapy up to 6-8 months
1419. At the absence of positive treatment dynamics during 2-4 months the patients with lungs tuberculosis
are prescribed for:
A. * Economical resection of a lung
B. Pneumonectomy
C. Decortication of a lesion of lung
D. Hormonotherapy
E. Antimycobacterial therapy up to 6-8 months
1420. At what type of exsudate is a small amount of free liquid in a pleural cavity , an exsudate is organized
quickly?
A. Purulent.
B. Serous.
C. * Fibrinous.
D. Fibrinous and serous-fibrinous.
E. Haemorrhagic and serous-haemorrhagic.
1421. By what method does selection of bacteria| usually appear at miliary tuberculosis?
A. Bakterioskopy.
B. Bakterioskopy after the using method of flotation.
C. Bacteriological.
D. Biological.
E. * Usually doesn’t appear by any method.
1422. Complication of what form of tuberculosis can be an allergic pleurisy?
A. Lung infiltrative tuberculosis.
B. Nidus lung tuberculosis.
C. Subacute disseminated lung tuberculosis.
D. Lung tuberculoma.
E. * Tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes.
1423. Complication of what form of tuberculosis can be development of perifocal pleurisy?
A. Fibrous-cavernous lung tuberculosis.
B. Lung infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Subacute disseminated lung tuberculosis.
D. Chronic disseminated lung tuberculosis.
E. * All noted forms.
1424. Fluorographic examination has been conducted for a patient 25, on the occasion of the complains of
the raising of body temperature and cough, as a result of which darkening of small intensity of 4,0-5,0 cm
in diameter with the destruction present has been revealed in the upper part of the right lung. MBT has
been revealed in sputum. What rales will be the most characteristic for such changes in lungs?
A. Disseminated rales
B. Diffused single rales
C. * Local rales
D. Moist and dry rales along lung lesion
E. Moist rales in lower parts of lungs
1425. For a patient a "fork" symptom is determined. What do pathological changes we think about?
A. Primary tubercular complex
B. Spontaneous pneumothorax.
C. * Cirrhosis of lung.
D. Dry pleurisy.
E. Tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodus.
1426. For how many criterias do we estimate the quality of technical implementation of survey sciagram?
A. 1.
B. * 2.
C. 3.
D. 4.
E. 5.
1427. For what disease or state transudate into pleural cavity is not typical?
A. Myxedema.
B. Cirrhosis of liver.
C. * Tuberculosis.
D. Stagnant cardiac insufficiency.
E. Nefrotic syndrome.
1428. Formulating the clinical diagnosis of lung tuberculosis, first of all should be defined:
A. The process phase
B. The clinical form
C. Bacterial secretion
D. Localisation process
E. * Type of tuberculuos process
1429. From how many parts does the root of lung consist of? (roentgenologicaly)
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. * 3.
D. 4.
E. 5.
1430. From what age and in what terms is mass tuberculinization performed:
A. * From 12-months age, annually
B. From 12-months age, once in 2-3 years
C. At 7 and 14 years of age only
D. From 7 up to 14 years annually
E. From 7 and each 5 years up to 30-years old age
1431. From wich clinic form of tuberculosis most often forms fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Tuberculoma.
B. Tuberculous primary complex
C. * Infiltrative form.
D. Focal form.
E. Cirrotic form.
1432. From wich clinic form of tuberculosis most often forms fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Tuberculoma.
B. Tuberculous primary complex
C. * Infiltrative form.
D. Focal form.
E. Cirrotic form.
1433. Haemoptysis appeared in a day after hyperinsolation of a girl of 17. No pathologic changes were found
in the lungs of fluorography six months ago. Damp middle-blistered rales are heard beneath the right
clavicle, Mantoux test with 2 TU – 23 mm infiltrate. What changes in lungs can one think about?
A. Spontaneus pneumothorax.
B. Lung tuberculosis.
C. Multiple nidi.
D. Cirrhosis of a lung.
E. * Decay cavities.
1434. Haemoptysis appeared in a day after hyperinsolation of a girl of 17. No pathologic changes were found
in the lungs of fluorography six months ago. Damp middle-blistered rales are heard beneath the right
clavicle, Mantoux test with 2 TU – 23 mm infiltrate. What changes in lungs can one think about?
A. Spontaneus pneumothorax.
B. Lung tuberculosis.
C. Multiple nidi.
D. Cirrhosis of a lung.
E. * Decay cavities.
1435. How do tuberculosis patients explain the weight loss more frequently?
A. Appetite worsening
B. Taste distortion, disgusting to the separate types of meal
C. Economy on the meal
D. * They can not explain, because appetite and rhythm of feed are remained ordinary
E. Wishing to lose flesh
1436. How does usually miliary tuberculosis finish without treatment?
A. Spontaneous curing.
B. * By death in 4-5 weeks.
C. By death in 5-7 months.
D. Passing to infiltration tuberculosis.
E. Passing to chronic tuberculosis.
1437. ?How is tuberculous etiology of pleurisy confirmed?
A. By the presence of tuberculous changes in lungs or other organs.
B. Finding of MBT in a pleural exudate or in sputum.
C. Mantaex test reaction is positive or recent tuberculin intensifier.
D. Puncture biopsy of pleura.
E. * All indicated assertions are faithful.
1438. How many segments can be in left lung?
A. 8-11.
B. 8-12.
C. * 9-10.
D. 9-11.
E. 9-12.
1439. How many stages of amyloidosis of kidneys are discriminated.
A. 2
B. 3
C. * 4
D. 5
E. 6
1440. How many versions of tuberculomas are distinguished regarding pathomorphologic structure?
A. 1
B. 2
C. * 3
D. 4
E. 5
1441. How many versions of tuberculomas clinical progress do you know?
A. 1
B. 2
C. * 3
D. 4
E. 5
1442. How often does the second medicinal firmness of MBT develop to antimycobacterial medications in
patients with tuberculosis?
A. 1-5%.
B. 5-10%.
C. 10 - 20 %.
D. 20-40%.
E. * 50 - 60 %.
1443. If there is the positive reaction on the tuberculin with 2 TU on the skin of antebrachium there can be
visible:
A. * Infiltrate by the size of 5 –16 mm
B. Infiltrate with a vesicle in the centre
C. Hyperemia more than 5 mm
D. Infiltrate by the size more than 16 mm
E. Infiltrate by the size of 2-4 mm
1444. In how many times contact persons are more frequently ill , than uncontacts with tuberculosis?
A. 2-4.
B. * -10.
C. 15-20.
D. 25-30.
E. 31-35.
1445. In order to lower the pressure in the system of the pulmonary artery, one should prescribe.
A. Penicyllin, camphorae, arphonad
B. * Atropin, euphilin, ganglioblockers
C. Isoniazidum, atropin, uterics
D. Oxygen, camphor, trombin
E. Dicinin, epsilon-aminocapronic acid, nitrosorbid
1446. In order to lower the pressure in the system of the pulmonary artery, one should prescribe.
A. Penicyllin, camphorae, arphonad
B. * Atropin, euphilin, ganglioblockers
C. Isoniazidum, atropin, uterics
D. Oxygen, camphor, trombin
E. Dicinin, epsilon-aminocapronic acid, nitrosorbid
1447. In patient with tuberculosis under a left shoulder-blade we can hear medium rales. What do such
changes testify about?
A. Focal changes in pulmonary tissue.
B. Bronchitis.
C. * Presence of cavities of disintegration.
D. Spontaneous pneumothorax.
E. Atelectasis
1448. In progressing focal tuberculosis able proceed to other clinical forms of tuberculosis. In which form
focal tuberculosis usually not proceed directly?
A. Infiltrative pulmonary tuberculosis.
B. Disseminated pulmonary tuberculosis.
C. Pulmonary tuberculoma.
D. Caseous pneumonia.
E. * Fibrous cavernous tuberculosis.
1449. In progressing focal tuberculosis able proceed to other clinical forms of tuberculosis. In which form
focal tuberculosis usually not proceed directly?
A. Infiltrative pulmonary tuberculosis.
B. Disseminated pulmonary tuberculosis.
C. Pulmonary tuberculoma.
D. Caseous pneumonia.
E. * Fibrous cavernous tuberculosis.
1450. In stomach and duodenal ulcer patient, who was prepared for operation, an active tuberculosis was
discovered.What is the best doctor’s tactic ?
A. Treatment of tuberculosis after an operation.
B. Operation is combined with beginning of tuberculosis treatment.
C. * Operation after stabilizing of specific process.
D. Operation is only in 2 years from the beginning of tuberculosis treatment.
E. Operation is absolutely contra-indicated.
1451. In the patient 1 month after the completed treatment of infiltrative tuberculosis of upper particle of
right lung, appeared intermittent rise in temperature up to 37,1-37,2°C and coughing. It was made an
extraordinary roentgenological inspection - changes weren`t discovered in lungs. What roentgenological
method is expedient to use for visualization of the changes of bronchial tubes of upper particle of right
lung?
A. Sciagraphy.
B. * Bronchography.
C. Rentgenoscopy.
D. Tomography.
E. Spot-film sciagraphy.
1452. In the patient of 20 years on the fluorography inspection in the apex-back segment of the left lung
found out area of dark patch small intensity with unclear contours up to 1sm in a diameter. To what
roentgenological syndrome does the founded out formation belong to?
A. clearing up syndrome.
B. round shade syndrome.
C. * focal shades syndrome.
D. the changed focal picture syndrome.
E. Desimination syndrome
1453. ?In the patient of 35 years it was first found out infiltrative tuberculosis of the overhead particle of the
right lung with the presence of destructive changes. On the survey sciagram cavity of disintegration we
can see unclear. What does roentgenological method of research need to be applied for visualization of
cavity?
A. Bronchography.
B. Fluorography.
C. Lateral sciagraphy.
D. * Tomography
E. Radioxerography.
1454. In what term from the beginning of illness does the typical rentgenological picture of miliary
tuberculosis appear ?
A. On the first days
B. * On 7th days
C. Through 3-4 weeks
D. Through 2-3 months
E. Through 5-6 months.
1455. In what age of men tuberculosis disease is the most reliable?
A. * 20-29 years
B. 30-39 years
C. 50-59 years
D. 60-69 years
E. above 70 years
1456. In what age of women tuberculosis disease is the most reliable?
A. 20-29 years
B. * 30-39 years
C. 40-49 years
D. 50-59 years
E. above 60 years
1457. In what percentage of people tuberculosis is caused by M. bovis?
A. 1-2%.
B. * 3-5%.
C. 10-20%.
D. 25-30%.
E. 35-50%.
1458. In which case surgery is appropriate at tuberculoma?
A. Stationary course.
B. * Disintegration and bacterioexcretion.
C. Small size of tuberculoma (up to 2 cm).
D. Regressive course of tuberculoma.
E. Declining years.
1459. In which morphological sort of tuberculoma possible to evolve due long course?
A. Infiltrative-pneumonic.
B. Homogeneous.
C. Pseudotuberculoma.
D. Conglomerate.
E. * Like ball.
1460. In which way does the most often become apparent bacterioexcretion at focal pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Practically always by use bacterioscopy.
B. Never.
C. Often by use bacterioscopy.
D. * Sometimes by bacterioscopy.
E. Always by use bacterioscopy.
1461. In which way hemogram will be changed at caseous pneumonia?
A. * Hypochromic anemia, leucocytosis 13.0-20.0 х109/L, eosinopenia, lymphopenia, ESR-acceleration
up to 50-70 mm/Hr.
B. Red blood in normal state, leucocytosis 20.0-40.0 х109/L, ESR-acceleration up to 35-55 mm/Hr,
lymphopenia, monocytopenia.
C. Monocytosis, lymphocytosis, normal ESR, leukopenia, hypochromic anemia.
D. Hypochromic anemia, leucocytosis 10.0-12.0 х109/L, еозинопенія, lymphopenia, stub shift up to 815%, ESR-acceleration up to 20-25 mm/Hr.
E. Expressed hypochromic anemia, normal state of white blood, ESR acceleration up to 50-70 mm/Hr.
1462. In which way the most often reveals focal tuberculosis?
A. At clinical examination.
B. * At prophylactic photofluorographic examination.
C. At bacterioscopy analysis of spew.
D. At bronchoscopic examination.
E. At immunological examination.
1463. Indicate the incorrect formulation of clinical diagnosis of lung tuberculosis
A. FDTB (16.06.2003) of the lungs upper sections (disseminated), Destr +, (infiltration ), MBT +M+C+,
Resist -, Hist 0, Cat1 Coh2(2003).
B. CTB (12.01.2000) the upper section of the right lung (fibrous-cavernous), Destr +, (infiltration),
MBT +M-C+ Resist I (S, H) Hist0. Lung haemoptysis. RI II, Cat 4 Coh1(2000).
C. FDTB (20.03.2001) of the lower part of the right lung (tuberculoma), Destr +, MBT- M-C-, Hist 0,
Cat1 Coh1(2001).
D. * FDTB (20.09.2003), (nidus tuberculosis), (infiltration), MBT-M-C-, Hist 0, Cat3 Coh3(2003).
E. RTB (20.06.2003) of the upper part of the right lung (infiltrative), Destr -, MBT- M-C-, Hist 0, Cat2
Coh2(2003).
1464. Infiltrative tuberculosis of the upper part of the right lung in decay phase has been revealed in a
patient, MBT (+). What breathily murmurs do you expect to hear above the area lesion?
A. Dry whistling rales
B. Crepitation
C. Murmur of pleural rub
D. Bronchial breathing
E. * Local moist rales
1465. Is it possible to vaccinate a newborn child which borned |from a mother sick with tuberculosis?
A. Absolutely contra-indicated in any case.
B. * It is possible, if a child does not have contra-indications and was immediately isolated from |mother
after childbearing.
C. It is possible, but needed to do Mantaex test before vaccinate.
D. Contra-indicated, if mother is sick with destructive tuberculosis.
E. It is possible, if mother accepted antimycobacterial drugs during pregnancy.
1466. Koch’s testing is used for:
A. Prophylaxis of tuberculosis
B. Early tuberculosis revealing
C. Determination of infection index of population with tuberculosis
D. * Differential diagnostics of infectious and postvaccinal allergy
E. Revealing the persons with the increased risk of tuberculosis illness
1467. Maximum number of segments affected at nidus lung tuberculosis.
A. 1
B. * 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
1468. Maximum number of segments affected at nidus lung tuberculosis.
A. 1
B. * 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
1469. Maximum size of shadows at nidus lung tuberculosis is:
A. 1 mm
B. 1,5 mm
C. 5 mm
D. * 10 mm
E. 25 mm
1470. Maximum size of shadows at nidus lung tuberculosis is:
A. 1 mm
B. 1,5 mm
C. 5 mm
D. * 10 mm
E. 25 mm
1471. More frequently the spontaneous pneumothorax in patients with lungs tuberculosis appear:
A. At fibrobronchoscopy
B. During pleural puncture
C. At cavern wall rupture
D. * At subpleural emphysematous bubbles rupture
E. At pneumotachometria
1472. More frequently the spontaneous pneumothorax in patients with lungs tuberculosis appear:
A. At fibrobronchoscopy
B. During pleural puncture
C. At cavern wall rupture
D. * At subpleural emphysematous bubbles rupture
E. At pneumotachometria
1473. Nidal shades of medium intensity with vague contours were revealed on the left apex of a 20-years old
youth during fluorographic examination. His general state is good. Mantoux test with 2 TU – 19 mm
infiltrate. Your preliminary diagnosis?
A. Primary tuberculous complex.
B. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Disseminated tuberculosis.
D. Lung tuberculoma.
E. * Focal tuberculosis.
1474. Nidal shades of medium intensity with vague contours were revealed on the left apex of a 20-years old
youth during fluorographic examination. His general state is good. Mantoux test with 2 TU – 19 mm
infiltrate. Your preliminary diagnosis?
A. Primary tuberculous complex.
B. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Disseminated tuberculosis.
D. Lung tuberculoma.
E. * Focal tuberculosis.
1475. On base of which infiltrative most often evolve lobar caseous pneumonia?
A. Round.
B. Lobular.
C. Periscysurite.
D. Like a cloud.
E. Lobitis.
1476. On base of which infiltrative most often evolve lobar caseous pneumonia?
A. Round.
B. Lobular.
C. Periscysurite.
D. Like a cloud.
E. Lobitis.
1477. On the background of what complications of lungs tuberculosis caseous pneumonia is the most
frequent?
A. Pulmonary haemoptysis
B. Spontaneous pneumothorax
C. Larynx tuberculosis
D. Amyloidosis of kidney
E. Atelectasis of particle lung
1478. On the background of what complications of lungs tuberculosis caseous pneumonia is the most
frequent?
A. Pulmonary haemoptysis
B. Spontaneous pneumothorax
C. Larynx tuberculosis
D. Amyloidosis of kidney
E. Atelectasis of particle lung
1479. Percussion note with tympanic tinge, amphoric respiration at auscultative above the upper part of the
right lung in a tuberculosis patient. What should be changes in lungs thought about?
A. Infiltration of the lung tissue
B. Lung cirrhosis
C. Atelectasis
D. * Large cavern
E. Spontaneous pneumothorax
1480. Plan a specific treatment to a patient with FDTB (03.03.2001) of the upper part of the right lung
(caseous pneumonia), Destr+, MBT+M+C+, Resist-, HIST0, Cat1 Coh1(2001). The patient is 45, weight
– 46 kg. His general condition is difficult. There is no accompanying pathology. Prescribe
antimycobacterial preparations.
A. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + streptomycini.
B. Isoniazidum + pyrazinamidum
C. * Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + streptomycini + pyrazinamidum .
D. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum.
E. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + ethambutolum.
1481. Plan a specific treatment to a patient with FDTB (03.03.2001) of the upper part of the right lung
(caseous pneumonia), Destr+, MBT+M+C+, Resist-, HIST0, Cat1 Coh1(2001). The patient is 45, weight
– 46 kg. His general condition is difficult. There is no accompanying pathology. Prescribe
antimycobacterial preparations.
A. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + streptomycini.
B. Isoniazidum + pyrazinamidum
C. * Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + streptomycini + pyrazinamidum .
D. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum.
E. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + ethambutolum.
1482. Primary forms of tuberculosis comprise:
A. Nidus
B. Disseminated
C. * Tuberculosis intoxication
D. Caseous pneumonia
E. Infiltrative
1483. Procoagulative action preparations.
A. Camphor
B. * Dicinon
C. Benzohexoniy
D. Amben
E. Atropin
1484. Procoagulative action preparations.
A. Camphor
B. * Dicinon
C. Benzohexoniy
D. Amben
E. Atropin
1485. Single nidal shades of small intensity with vague contours were revealed on the apex of both lungs of a
19-years old woman patient during the prophylactic fluorographyc examination. What is the clinical form
of tuberculosis?
A. Infiltrative
B. Lung tuberculoma
C. * Nidus
D. Caseous pneumonia
E. Disseminated
1486. Small and average nidi of little intensity have been revealed on the apex of the right lung during
fluorographic examination of a man aged 30. During the last month he notes the decrease of the appetite,
perspiration, inconsiderable cough. Prescribe of antimicobacterial therapy on the 1-st stage.
A. * Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + pyrazinamidum
B. Isoniazidum + pyrazinamidum
C. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + streptomycini + pyrazinamidum + ethambutolum.
D. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum.
E. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + ethambutolum.
1487. Small and average nidi of little intensity have been revealed on the apex of the right lung during
fluorographic examination of a man aged 30. During the last month he notes the decrease of the appetite,
perspiration, inconsiderable cough. Prescribe of antimicobacterial therapy on the 1-st stage.
A. * Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + pyrazinamidum
B. Isoniazidum + pyrazinamidum
C. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + streptomycini + pyrazinamidum + ethambutolum.
D. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum.
E. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + ethambutolum.
1488. Specific complications comprise:
A. Haemophthisis
B. Chronic lung heart
C. Lung atelectasis
D. * Larynx tuberculosis
E. Amyloidosis disease
1489. The characteristic phase of tuberculous process progression is:
A. Suction
B. * Sowing
C. Condensation
D. Scarring
E. Calcination
1490. The frequency of lung haemorrage in lung tuberculosis patients.
A. 1-2 %
B. 3-5 %
C. * 6-19 %
D. 20-25 %
E. 30-35 %
1491. The frequency of lung haemorrage in lung tuberculosis patients.
A. 1-2 %
B. 3-5 %
C. * 6-19 %
D. 20-25 %
E. 30-35 %
1492. The greatest importance for the confirmation of lung atelectasis diagnosis is:
A. USE
B. Pneumotachometry
C. Roentgenoscopy
D. Computer tomography
E. * Bronchoscopy
1493. The greatest importance for the confirmation of lung atelectasis diagnosis is:
A. USE
B. Pneumotachometry
C. Roentgenoscopy
D. Computer tomography
E. * Bronchoscopy
1494. The illness, with which differential diagnostics of caseous pneumonia should be made most frequent:
A. * Staphylococcal pneumonia
B. Central cancer
C. Eosinophilic pneumonia
D. Nidal pneumonia
E. Bronchoectasia
1495. The main method of chronic lung heart diagnostics
A. Elecrocardiography
B. Phonocardiography
C. Balistocardiography
D. * Echocardiography
E. Roentgenoscopy
1496. The main reason of the profuse pulmonary bleeding in patients with tuberculosis.
A. * Blood vessel rapture
B. Pulmonary artery thrombosis
C. Varicose of blood pulmonary vessels
D. Activation of fibrinolysis
E. Violations in blood coagulation system
1497. ?The method of the definition of a kind of spontaneous pneumothorax.
A. Roentgenologic
B. On the basis of the clinic data.
C. * The pressure measurement in the pleural cavity (manometry)
D. Computer tomography
E. USE
1498. The most characteristic blood analysis in patients with the infiltrative lung tuberculosis.
A. Leuc. – 25,0?10/l; е – 3, p – 6, s – 51, l – 23, m – 7 %; ESR – 6 mm/hour.
B. * Leuc. - 9,8?10/l; е – 5, p – 6, s – 65, l – 13, m – 11 %; ESR – 36 mm/hour.
C. Leuc. - 4,0?10/l; е – 2, p – 2, s – 60, l – 26, m – 9 %; ESR – 6 mm/hour.
D. Leuc. – 16,5?10/l; е – 10, p – 10, s – 64, l – 14, m – 2 %; ESR – 21 mm/hour.
E. Leuc. – 6,0?10/l; е – 4, p – 3, s – 60, l – 26, m– 6 %; ESR – 7 mm/hour.
1499. The most effective fibrinolysis inhibitor.
A. Trasilol
B. Contrycal
C. * Epsilon-aminocapronic acid (EACA)
D. Amben
E. Albumin
1500. The most rational combination of antimycobacterial preparations at the initial stage in patients with
lung tuberculoma, MBT (-).
A. Isonoazidum + streptomycini + rifampycini
B. * Isonoazidum + rifampycini + pyrazinamidum
C. Isonoazidum + streptomycini + pyrazinamidum
D. Isonoazidum + pyrazinamidum + PASA
E. Rifampycini + ethionamidum + kanamycini
1501. The most rational combination of antimycobacterial preparations at the initial stage in patients with
lung tuberculoma, MBT (-).
A. Isonoazidum + streptomycini + rifampycini
B. * Isonoazidum + rifampycini + pyrazinamidum
C. Isonoazidum + streptomycini + pyrazinamidum
D. Isonoazidum + pyrazinamidum + PASA
E. Rifampycini + ethionamidum + kanamycini
1502. The most trustworthy criteria of nidal tuberculosis activity.
A. Intoxication syndrome
B. Changes in haemogram
C. * Revealing of micobacteria tuberculosis
D. Nidus shadow of medium intensity with distinct contours
E. Positive Mantoux testing of 2 TU
1503. The most trustworthy criteria of nidal tuberculosis activity.
A. Intoxication syndrome
B. Changes in haemogram
C. * Revealing of micobacteria tuberculosis
D. Nidus shadow of medium intensity with distinct contours
E. Positive Mantoux testing of 2 TU
1504. The predominant segmental localization of tuberculosis infiltration
A. I, II, III segments
B. I, III, V segments
C. I, IV, V segments
D. * I, II, VI segments
E. II, VI IX segments
1505. The predominant segmental localization of tuberculosis infiltration
A. I, II, III segments
B. I, III, V segments
C. I, IV, V segments
D. * I, II, VI segments
E. II, VI IX segments
1506. The prognosis and course of which illness is not favourable at tuberculosis in combination with
diabetes|?
A. Always of tuberculosis.
B. Always of diabetes.
C. Of both diseases.
D. * That illness,| which arose up the first.
E. That illness,| which arose up the second.
1507. The prophylactic photoroentgenographic examination of a 25-year-old patient showed in segments 1-2
of the left lung focal shadows of low intensity without distinct contours. Mantoux test with 2 TO – 7 mm
infiltrate. Blood analysis: leuk. – 9,9 x 109/l, ESR – 26 mm/hour. Which is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Nidus lung tuberculosis
B. Infiltrative lung tuberculosis
C. Nidus pneumonia
D. Lung cancer
E. Eosiniphil infiltration
1508. The prophylactic photoroentgenographic examination of a 25-year-old patient showed in segments 1-2
of the left lung focal shadows of low intensity without distinct contours. Mantoux test with 2 TO – 7 mm
infiltrate. Blood analysis: leuk. – 9,9 x 109/l, ESR – 26 mm/hour. Which is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Nidus lung tuberculosis
B. Infiltrative lung tuberculosis
C. Nidus pneumonia
D. Lung cancer
E. Eosiniphil infiltration
1509. The sensitivity of organism to tuberculin may be intensified with:
A. Senile age
B. Lymphogranulomatosis
C. Lymphosarcoma
D. Treatment with immunodepressants
E. * Bronchial asthma
1510. To the primary forms of tuberculosis belong:
A. Disseminated
B. Nidus
C. Infiltrative
D. Tuberculoma
E. * Tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes
1511. To which category relate patients of caseous pneumonia?
A. * To first.
B. To third.
C. To second.
D. To forth.
E. To fifth.
1512. To which category relate patients of caseous pneumonia?
A. * To first.
B. To third.
C. To second.
D. To forth.
E. To fifth.
1513. To which dispensary category does patient with first diagnosed infiltrative pulmonary tuberculosis in
disintegration stage and availability bacterioexcretion belong ?
A. * To first.
B. To third.
C. To second.
D. To fourth.
E. To fifth.
1514. To which dispensary category does patient with first diagnosed infiltrative pulmonary tuberculosis in
disintegration stage and availability bacterioexcretion belong ?
A. * To first.
B. To third.
C. To second.
D. To fourth.
E. To fifth.
1515. Under the mask of what diseases is tuberculosis infiltrate the most frequent?
A. Peripheral lung cancer
B. Retention cyst
C. * Pneumonia
D. Eosinophile infiltrate
E. Aspergiloma
1516. Under the mask of what diseases is tuberculosis infiltrate the most frequent?
A. Peripheral lung cancer
B. Retention cyst
C. * Pneumonia
D. Eosinophile infiltrate
E. Aspergiloma
1517. What is the method of provocation of wheezes for patients with tuberculosis?
A. deep breathing
B. breathing through the mouth.
C. * deep inhalation after the easy coughing.
D. breathing through the nose.
E. quiet breathing
1518. What kind of rentgenological| picture is most typical for miliary tuberculosis?
A. "Flakes of snow".
B. "Snow-storm".
C. "Weeping willow".
D. "Bat’s wings".
E. * "Looks like millet" dissemination.
1519. What types of MBT are the most pathogenic for a human being?
A. M. Africanum.
B. M Avium.
C. M. Bovinus.
D. * M.Tuberculosis.
E. Kansasii.
1520. What |are the indications to fluorography of the patient with diabetes?
A. After carried hyperglycemic| and hypoglycemic comma.
B. After carried a flu or pneumonia.
C. After any operative interference .
D. At appearance of symptoms, which are characteristic for tuberculosis or hyperergy reaction.|
E. * All these sings.
1521. What are the main principles of tuberculosis treatment during pregnancy?
A. To begin treatment only after childbearing.
B. * Treatment by generally accepted principles .
C. Obligatory breaking the pregnancy regardless of process.
D. The dynamic looking after the motion of process. At progressing - immediate treatment.
E. The treatment should be performed immediately after revealing active tuberculosis.
1522. What are the most dangerous periods that contributing to aggravation, recurrence and progressing of
old tubercular hearths for pregnant ?
A. The second month of pregnancy.
B. The fifth month of pregnancy.
C. The last weeks before childbearing.
D. The first 6 months after childbearing.
E. * All marked periods are dangerous.
1523. What are the most frequent segmental localization of the second forms of tuberculosis of lungs?
A. * I, II, III segments.
B. II, III, IV segments.
C. III, V, VI segments.
D. I, II, VI segments.
E. II, III, X segments.
1524. What are the roentgenologic| signs of tuberculosis in diabetes patients?
A. Infiltrative tuberculosis, more frequent cloudsimilar infiltration, polysegmentation infiltration or lobit
||.
B. Bilateral infiltration | in lower particles of lung (caused by reactivation of| process in |intrathoracic
lymphatic nodes with lymphogenic| and |bronchogenic eruption).
C. Large tuberculoma with undistinct contours, perifocal inflammation, which is able to decay.
D. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis (with severe progressive course, can be complicated by caseous|
pneumonia).
E. * All these signs.
1525. What are the terms of appearance of tuberculosis’s mycobacterium growth on hard nourishing
environments?
A. 2-3 days.
B. 7-14 days.
C. * 3-4 weeks.
D. 3-5 months.
E. 6 months.
1526. What are typical complications for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Tuberculosis bronchus.
B. Bronchogenic dissemination.
C. Tuberculosis larynx.
D. Tuberculosis colitis.
E. * All with above.
1527. What are typical complications for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Tuberculosis bronchus.
B. Bronchogenic dissemination.
C. Tuberculosis larynx.
D. Tuberculosis colitis.
E. * All with above.
1528. What biochemical components of MBT cause their firmness to acids, alkalis and alcohols?.
A. Albumen
B. Hydrocarbon
C. * Lipids
D. Polysaccharide.
E. Mineral salts.
1529. What character does temperature curve at tuberculosis carry usually?
A. Constant
B. One-day
C. Hectic
D. Three-day
E. * None of the above
1530. What character of pain in a thorax at “fresh” uncomplicated lung tuberculosis is the most typical?
A. Attackable
B. * Constant
C. Sanestopathetic
D. Migrated
E. Phantomlike
1531. What character of sputum at uncomplicated lung tuberculosis is most reliable?
A. * Slime, transparent
B. Bright-yellow
C. Green-yellow
D. Green with a sharp odour
E. Rusty
1532. What character of sputum secretion at uncomplicated lung tuberculosis is most typical?
A. The sputum is secreted mainly in the morning after smoking in an amount of 10-15 ml
B. * The sputum is secretion during a day in an amount of 30-100 ml
C. Liquid waterly sputum is secreted constantly to 1,5-2,0 l for a day
D. A patient can tell, when thick stinking sputum was one-time secreted by “full mouth”
E. Viscous sputum is secreted after completion of asthma attacks only
1533. What character usually has temperature reaction for a patient on miliary tuberculosis?
A. Subfebrility| during the first 3-5 days of illness.
B. Protracted inconstant subfebrility.
C. Fever during the first 3-5 days of illness.
D. * The Wrong fever
E. Normal temperature.
1534. What clinic symptoms are the most typical for tuberculoma?
A. * Sometime subfebrile state, minor cough, possible absent of complains.
B. Strong cough, pain in chest, shortness of breath.
C. High temperature, chill, pain in chest, purulent spew.
D. Cough, spew with unpleasant smell, hyperhidrosis, spew with blood.
E. Pain in chest. Spew with blood, Shortness of breath.
1535. What clinic symptoms are the most typical for tuberculoma?
A. * Sometime subfebrile state, minor cough, possible absent of complains.
B. Strong cough, pain in chest, shortness of breath.
C. High temperature, chill, pain in chest, purulent spew.
D. Cough, spew with unpleasant smell, hyperhidrosis, spew with blood.
E. Pain in chest. Spew with blood, Shortness of breath.
1536. What clinical course is typical for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. * Wavy, with remission and exacerbation.
B. Acute, progressive.
C. Near acute.
D. Without symptoms or with few symptoms.
E. Quick feedback.
1537. What clinical course is typical for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. * Wavy, with remission and exacerbation.
B. Acute, progressive.
C. Near acute.
D. Without symptoms or with few symptoms.
E. Quick feedback.
1538. What clinical form of tuberculosis is tuberculoma formed from most frequently?
A. Disseminated
B. Fibrous-cavernous
C. Cirrhotic
D. Nidus
E. * Infiltrative
1539. What clinical form of tuberculosis is tuberculoma formed from most frequently?
A. Disseminated
B. Fibrous-cavernous
C. Cirrhotic
D. Nidus
E. * Infiltrative
1540. What clinical presentation is the most typical for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Long remissions.
B. * Chronic clinical course.
C. Absent any remissions.
D. Periods of remissions alternate with acute conditions.
E. Permanent progress of process.
1541. What clinical presentation is the most typical for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Long remissions.
B. * Chronic clinical course.
C. Absent any remissions.
D. Periods of remissions alternate with acute conditions.
E. Permanent progress of process.
1542. What clinical presentation is typical for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. No complaints or cough with minor spew. Sometime local humid wheeze.
B. * Cough with spew, breathlessness, sometime spew with blood. Time to time high temperature,
hyperhidrosis. Local humid wheeze. During remission – good state of health.
C. Cough, spew with objectionable odor. During worsening – high temperature, hyperhidrosis,
sometime spew with blood. Humid and dry wheeze. “Drumsticks”.
D. Pain in thorax, often sputum with blood, breathlessness, diminished breath sounds, sometime humid
or dry local wheeze.
E. No complaints.Time to time dry cough. Temperature is normal (inflammation is able to raise
temperature). Auscultatory data are small.
1543. What clinical presentation is typical for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. No complaints or cough with minor spew. Sometime local humid wheeze.
B. * Cough with spew, breathlessness, sometime spew with blood. Time to time high temperature,
hyperhidrosis. Local humid wheeze. During remission – good state of health.
C. Cough, spew with objectionable odor. During worsening – high temperature, hyperhidrosis,
sometime spew with blood. Humid and dry wheeze. “Drumsticks”.
D. Pain in thorax, often sputum with blood, breathlessness, diminished breath sounds, sometime humid
or dry local wheeze.
E. No complaints.Time to time dry cough. Temperature is normal (inflammation is able to raise
temperature). Auscultatory data are small.
1544. What combination of antituberculosis medicines is the most suitable at first revealed small
tuberculoma?
A. * Isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide.
B. Streptomycin, isoniazid, rifampicin.
C. Streptomycin, rifampicin, ethambutol.
D. Amikacin, kanamycin, pyrazinamide,
E. Rifampicin, ofloxacin, pyrazinamide.
1545. What combination of antituberculosis medicines is the most suitable at first revealed small
tuberculoma?
A. * Isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide.
B. Streptomycin, isoniazid, rifampicin.
C. Streptomycin, rifampicin, ethambutol.
D. Amikacin, kanamycin, pyrazinamide,
E. Rifampicin, ofloxacin, pyrazinamide.
1546. What complication is not typical |for miliary tuberculosis?
A. Sharp insufficiency of kidney.
B. Cerebral comma.
C. Sharp hepatic insufficiency.
D. * Amyloidosis.
E. Endotoxicosis.
1547. What complications can accompany a tuberculous empyema?.
A. Broncho-pleural fistula.
B. Toracic fistula.
C. Amyloidosis of internal organs.
D. Pneumopleurisy.
E. * All marked.
1548. What components of lungs tissue are not visible on a sciagram?
A. Roots of lungs.
B. Dig vascular barrels.
C. The walls of bronchial tubes.
D. * Teeth ridges.
E. Interstice of lungs.
1549. What composition of pleural liquid is typical for an exsudate?
A. * Relative density - 1025, protein content- 45 g/l, protein (in effusion/ in the serum of blood)-0,8,
activity of LDG -2,1 mmol/(l/hour), content of cells -2,1?109/l.
B. Relative density - 1010, protein content - 20 g/l, protein (in effusion/ in the serum of blood)-0,2,
activity of LDG - 1,1 mmol/(l/hour), content of cells- 0,8?109/l.
C. Relative density - 1005, protein content- 15 g/l, protein (in effusion/ in the serum of blood)-0,3,
activity of LDG -0,9 mmol/(l/hour), content of cells -0,5?109/l.
D. Relative density - 1000, protein content- 10 g/l, protein (in effusion/ in the serum of blood)-0,4,
activity of LDG -1,3 mmol/(l/hour), content of cells -0,6?109/l.
E. All indicated is an exsudate.
1550. What constituent combinations of MBT are the basic transmitters of antigens’ characteristic features?
A. * Albumen
B. Hydrocarbon
C. Lipids
D. Polysaccharide.
E. Mineral salts.
1551. What contraindication to surgery for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis patient?
A. * Wide distribution of the focus of disease.
B. Bronchiectasis is present.
C. Bleeding in lungs.
D. Resistivity to 2 antituberculous medications.
E. Wide bacterioexcretion.
1552. What contraindication to surgery for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis patient?
A. * Wide distribution of the focus of disease.
B. Bronchiectasis is present.
C. Bleeding in lungs.
D. Resistivity to 2 antituberculous medications.
E. Wide bacterioexcretion.
1553. What course is the most typical for tuberculoma?
A. Gradual progressive worsening.
B. * Few symptoms or without symptoms.
C. Acute start. Quick worsening.
D. Near acute. Like influenza or pneumonia.
E. Acute start. Quick reverse evolution due chemical medications.
1554. What course is the most typical for tuberculoma?
A. Gradual progressive worsening.
B. * Few symptoms or without symptoms.
C. Acute start. Quick worsening.
D. Near acute. Like influenza or pneumonia.
E. Acute start. Quick reverse evolution due chemical medications.
1555. What course is typical for tuberculosis which arises at first time after the childbearing?
A. Rapid reversed development.
B. * Rapid progressing with expressed clinical symptomatic|.
C. Slow reversed development.
D. Poor symptomatic |motion.
E. Initially chronic motion.
1556. What disease anamnesis is the most characteristic for lung tuberculosis?
A. A patient felt ill acute three day ago, nowadays the state is some improved
B. * A patient considers himself to be ill a few months
C. A patient considers himself to be ill “all life”, repeatedly inspected without a result
D. A patient notes the state worsening every fourth day
E. A patient notes the state worsening at reduction of light day every year
1557. What disease can a "fork" symptom be determined at?
A. Miliary tuberculosis.
B. Tuberculoma
C. Dry pleurisy.
D. * Cirrotic tuberculosis .
E. Silicotuberculosis.
1558. What disease can assist development of tuberculosis?
A. Essential hypertension.
B. Infectious mononucleosis|.
C. * Ulcer of the stomach and duodenum.
D. All marked disease.
E. Nothing of transferred.
1559. ?What do patients with the unfolded clinical picture of tuberculosis, regardless to the localization of
the process complain of?
A. * Weakness, excessive perspiration, loss of weight, promoted temperature of body
B. Attacks of stuffiness at the change of weather
C. Disturbance of sensitiveness, “creeping of ants” in extremities
D. Consciousness blank
E. Headache, pain in abdomen without clear localization
1560. What does cause the pain at “fresh” uncomplicated tuberculosis?
A. Lung tissue decay
B. Expressed exudation in a lung tissue
C. Bronch`s lesion
D. * Pleura`s lesion
E. Prevailing productive reaction
1561. What feature is typical for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis in our time?
A. * Complications by not specific inflammatory processes.
B. Frequent evolution of of internal amyloidosis.
C. Profuse bleeding in lungs.
D. Frequent aspergillosis.
E. Evolution of tuberculous meningoencephalitis.
1562. What feature is typical for fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis in our time?
A. * Complications by not specific inflammatory processes.
B. Frequent evolution of of internal amyloidosis.
C. Profuse bleeding in lungs.
D. Frequent aspergillosis.
E. Evolution of tuberculous meningoencephalitis.
1563. What form do normal roots of lungs have?
A. Optus corner opened aside pulmonary field.
B. Triangle, by the apex turned to middle shade.
C. * Sector of a circle.
D. Rectangle.
E. Complex polycyclic figure.
1564. What form have cavities of disintegration at miliary tuberculosis?
A. Bilateral symmetric thin-walled cavities.
B. Bilateral asymmetric thick-walled cavities.
C. One-sided plural cavities of different form.
D. One thick-walled cavity and plural thin-walled "daughters's" cavities .
E. * There aren’t cavities.
1565. What forms of tuberculosis prevail for stomach and duodenal ulcer patients after the resection of
stomach?
A. Primary tuberculous complex.
B. Out of lungs tuberculous processes.
C. * Infiltrative and exsudative forms of tuberculosis with propensity to progress, formation of plural
destructions and bronchogenic dissemination.
D. Chronic forms of tuberculosis.
E. Tuberculous mesadenitis.
1566. What from transferred is characteristic for a tuberculous process on the late stages of HIV-infection|?
A. The expressed durable intoxication with negative Mantaex test.
B. Diffuse infiltrates| in upper, middle and lower lung sections.
C. Mainly |out of lungs defeats, enlargement of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes, lymphadenopathia
D. In the halves of patients – MBT absence from the sputum||.
E. * All transferred .
1567. What illness is the most expedient to differentiate tuberculoma with?
A. * Aspergilloma
B. An air-cyst
C. Central cancer
D. Eosinophilic infiltrate
E. Chronic abscess
1568. What illness is the most expedient to differentiate tuberculoma with?
A. * Aspergilloma
B. An air-cyst
C. Central cancer
D. Eosinophilic infiltrate
E. Chronic abscess
1569. What information is the most important at questioning of patient with suspicion on tuberculosis?
A. Family status of patient.
B. Profession.
C. Material well-being .
D. * Contact with a patient with tuberculosis.
E. Presence of cattle in the housekeeping (cows).
1570. What is a definition for tuberculoma?
A. * Tuberculoma is limited by capsule from conjunctive tissue focus of caseous with size more that 1
cm with chronic and torpid course.
B. Tuberculoma is center of specific pneumonia with size up to 1 cm which localized in border of 1-2
segments.
C. Tuberculoma is area of specific inflammation with prevailed escudative character with size more 1
cm, with disposition to spontaneous recovery.
D. Tuberculoma is area of specific inflammation with prevailed escudative character with size more 1
cm, with disposition to progress and disintegration.
E. Tuberculoma is accretion of rough conjunctive tissue in the lung as a result of involution of different
forms of tuberculosis.
1571. What is a definition for tuberculoma?
A. * Tuberculoma is limited by capsule from conjunctive tissue focus of caseous with size more that 1
cm with chronic and torpid course.
B. Tuberculoma is center of specific pneumonia with size up to 1 cm which localized in border of 1-2
segments.
C. Tuberculoma is area of specific inflammation with prevailed escudative character with size more 1
cm, with disposition to spontaneous recovery.
D. Tuberculoma is area of specific inflammation with prevailed escudative character with size more 1
cm, with disposition to progress and disintegration.
E. Tuberculoma is accretion of rough conjunctive tissue in the lung as a result of involution of different
forms of tuberculosis.
1572. What is clinic category for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis patient with long term?
A. * Fourth.
B. First.
C. Second.
D. Third.
E. Fifth
1573. What is clinic category for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis patient with long term?
A. * Fourth.
B. First.
C. Second.
D. Third.
E. Fifth
1574. What is correct continuation of suggestion? Miliary tuberculosis....
A. Is the most frequent form of tuberculosis.
B. Takes the second place (after the infiltration tuberculosis) in the structure of morbidity on secondary
tuberculosis.
C. Takes the second place (after the tuberculosis of intrathoracic nodes) in the structure of morbidity on
primary tuberculosis.
D. * Nowadays meets rarely.
E. Nowadays meets in casuistic cases.
1575. What is primary medical firmness of MBT?
A. * MBT firmness of the patients which had not been yet treated by antimycobacterial medications.
B. MBT firmness of patients with the primary form of tuberculosis.
C. MBT firmness of patients with the chronic forms of tuberculosis.
D. MBT firmness of patients with the relapses of tuberculosis.
E. MBT firmness of patients with the small forms of tuberculosis.
1576. What is the “range” of tuberculin reactions?
A. Transition of negative reaction to tuberculin to a positive one after BCG vaccination
B. Transition of negative reaction to tuberculin to a positive one after BCG revaccination
C. * Sensitivity change to tuberculin due to the primary infection with tuberculosis mycobacteria
D. Appearance of hyperergy reaction to tuberculin in patients infected with tuberculosis
E. Negative reaction to tuberculin in seriously ill tuberculosis patients
1577. What is the aim of mass tuberculinization:
A. For prophylaxis of MBT infection
B. For prophylaxis of tuberculosis illness
C. * For early tuberculosis revealing among children
D. For early tuberculosis revealing among adults
E. For revealing the persons with the increased risk of tuberculosis illness
1578. What is the basic method of the discovering tuberculosis among people using masssurveys ?
A. Rentgenoscopy.
B. Computerized tomography .
C. Bronchography.
D. * Fluorography
E. Spot-film sciagraphy.
1579. What is the character of exsudate at the tuberculous empyema ?
A. Serous-fibrinous and fibrinous.
B. * Serous-purulent and purulent.
C. Haemorrhagic.
D. Serous-haemorrhagic.
E. Chillous.
1580. What is the criteria of optimum inflexibility of sciagram?
A. * On the sciagram evidently seen the first three-four pectoral vertebrae.
B. On the sciagram evidently contours of shoulder-blades.
C. On the sciagram evidently seen first six-eight pectoral vertebrae.
D. On the sciagram evidently seen ribs.
E. On the sciagram evidently seen breastbone.
1581. What is the exsudate at tuberculous pleurisy?
A. * Mainly lymphocytic.
B. Mainly neutrophilic.
C. Chillous.
D. Monocytic.
E. Macrophagic.
1582. What is the frequency of primary medicinal firmness of MBT in patients with tuberculosis?
A. 0,5-1%.
B. 2 - 5 %.
C. * 1-14%.
D. 15-20%.
E. 25 - 30 %.
1583. What is the high bound of the norm of a lungs root width?
A. 1,0 sm
B. * 2,5 sm
C. 3,5 sm
D. 5 sm
E. 7,5 sm
1584. What is the main characteristic of fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Disposition to forming acinar, acinar-nodose and lobular centers.
B. Disposition for creation infiltrations and caverns.
C. * Old fibrous cavity and fibrosis in abutting pulmonary tissue.
D. Polychemoresistance.
E. Periodical or permanent bacterioexcretion.
1585. What is the main characteristic of fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Disposition to forming acinar, acinar-nodose and lobular centers.
B. Disposition for creation infiltrations and caverns.
C. * Old fibrous cavity and fibrosis in abutting pulmonary tissue.
D. Polychemoresistance.
E. Periodical or permanent bacterioexcretion.
1586. ?What is the major diagnostic sign of joining tuberculosis in patient with pneumoconiosis|?
A. Positive result of Mantaex testing of 2 TU PPD-L.
B. * Revealing MBT in sputum.||
C. Presence of symptoms of tubercular intoxication.
D. Information about the tuberculosis carried in the past.
E. Presence of nidus shadows on a roentgenogram.
1587. What is the mechanism of development of pleural inflammation by MBT?
A. Only lymphogenic.
B. * Lympho-hematogenic.
C. Sputogenic.
D. Bronchogenic.
E. Only hematogenic.
1588. What is the most characteristic investigation, if miliary tuberculosis does not end with death of
patient?
A. * Convalescence with development of diffuse pneumofibrosis.
B. Convalescence with forming the hearths of Gon.
C. Passing into subsharp disseminated tuberculosis.
D. Passing into fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis.
E. Development the cirrhosis of lungs.
1589. What is the most frequent immediate causes of death at pulmonary haemorrage in pulmonary
tuberculosis patients?
A. Anemia
B. Aspirational pneumonia
C. * Asphyxia
D. Atelectasis
E. Tuberculosis progressing
1590. What is the most frequent immediate causes of death at pulmonary haemorrage in pulmonary
tuberculosis patients?
A. Anemia
B. Aspirational pneumonia
C. * Asphyxia
D. Atelectasis
E. Tuberculosis progressing
1591. What is the most informative phenomenon at auscultation of tuberculosis patient?
A. Dispersed dry rales
B. Inconstant dry and moist rales in the area by the root
C. * Moist local rales on the lung apexes
D. Pleura friction murmur
E. “Mute” lung
1592. What is the reason of appearance of exsudate in a pleural cavity at different clinical forms of
tuberculosis?
A. The anatomic and functional connection between the sheets of pleura, lymphatic nodes and lymphatic
system of lungs.
B. The inflammation of pleura that caused by MBT, that penetrate into pleura by lymphogenic way from
the hearths or infiltrations in lungs.
C. The inflammation of pleura that caused by MBT, that penetrate into pleura because of bacteriemia.
D. Pleura hypersensibilization by MBT decay products.
E. * All indicated assertions are faithful.
1593. What is the reason of origin of primary medicinal firmness of MBT?
A. Untimely exposure of tuberculosis.
B. Late exposure of tuberculosis.
C. Nonregularly taking of antimycobacterial medications.
D. Treatment by chemicals of understated doses.
E. * Infection by stable cultures of MBT.
1594. What is the therapeutic approach at first revealed tuberculoma with size 3-4 cm?
A. Urgent surgery.
B. * Medical treatment start with prescription of antituberculosis medicine, after this – surgery.
C. Just specific conservative treatment.
D. Case monitoring.
E. Tuberculin therapy.
1595. What kind is the sensitiveness to tuberculin after the Mantaex test of 2 TU PPD-L at
silicotuberculosis|?
A. Negative.
B. Doubtful.
C. Poorly positive.
D. * Hyperergy|.
E. Vesicule-necrotic.
1596. What kind of sputum is characteristic for patients with pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. * Mucus-purulent, odourless, 10-50 milliliters per days.
B. Purulent with a strong unpleasant smell, ferruginous color, to 500 milliliters.
C. Purulent, odourless, to 300 milliliters.
D. Mucus-watery, 50-100 milliliters.
E. Purulent -containing soom blood with an unpleasant smell, 100-150 milliliters per days.
1597. What kind of symptoms (complaints) can testify the complication of silicosis by tuberculosis?
A. * Intoxication.
B. The pant.
C. The cough.
D. Pain in thorax.
E. All these symptoms.
1598. What kinds of mycobacterial cause mycobacterioz?
A. L-forms mycobacterium.
B. M. tuberculosis.
C. Acid-proof saprophytes.
D. * Atypical mycobacterium.
E. MBT, firm to antimycobacterial medications.
1599. What method gives the detailed information about a structure and homogeneity of shade in lungs?
A. Tomography
B. * Computerized tomography.
C. Spot-film sciagraphy.
D. Rentgenoscopy.
E. Bronchography.
1600. What method is most effective for clarification of localization of shade in a pulmonary tissue mass and
its correlation with surrounding tissues? (by ribs, spine, and others like that)?
A. Sciagraphy.
B. * Computerized tomography.
C. Fluorography.
D. Rentgenoscopy.
E. Bronchography.
1601. What method more expedient to apply for control of dynamics to efficiency of treatment of patients
with tuberculosis ?
A. * Sciagraphy.
B. Roentgenokymography.
C. Fluorography.
D. Roentgenoscopy.
E. Bronchography .
Situational tasks
1. The infiltrative tuberculosis (nebulous type), MBC- revealed in the obstetric nurse during the preventive
examinations .Can the nurse be returned to the previous place of employment after the effective primary
chemotherapy? Choose the correct answer
A. can be allowed to work on the translation of patient in clinical records (group 5.1 )
B. can not be allowed to work in any case
C. may be allowed to work after finishing primary chemotherapy
D. in a state of the process that allows the transfering in a group 5.1 and shaping of minimal residual
changes in the form of limited metatuberculous pneumosclerosis
E. may be admitted to the previous place of employment by the registrar on the translation group in 5.1
in case of achievement calcification of residual foci
2. Set the proper diagnosis to the patient K. The upper right lung lobe reduced in volume with decreasing it’s
transparency, but retaining airiness. The expressed interstitial changes are increasing toward to the root
of the lung and to the large, irregular shapes, not intense focal shadows without clear contours . Right
root increased in volume, with a clear polycyclic nonstructural outer loop
A. The central lung cancer
B. right-sided pneumonia
C. infiltrative tuberculosis of upper lobe right lung
D. focal tuberculosis
E. disseminated tuberculosis
3. The patient O. has right-sided spontaneous pneumothorax. The outer contour of the lung that decreased
projects on a region of the root of the lungs. What is the approximate degree of decreasing lungs?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 90%
E. 55%
4. In the patient R., with the bilateral fibro-cavernous tuberculosis revealed: proteinuria (1.32 g / l),
erythrocyte uriya (07-05-10 at n / s), leucocyturia (06-08-12 at n / s). Which are the leading causes of
these changes?
A. chronic pulmonary heart
B. amyloidosis of the internal organs
C. TB intoxication
D. Tuberculosis of kidney
E. accompanying pyelonephritis
5. The patient 22 years old are treated in a tuberculosis hospital with the infiltrative tuberculosis upper left
lobe of the lung. From the age of 11 suffers from diabetes (type2), complicated by diabetic retinopathy.
During the last 3 months he marks the reduction of daily insulin requirements from 40 to 35 units. On the
background of anti-tuberculosis therapy, edema of the lower extremities appears in the patient. Which of
the following tests can determine the cause of edema with the highest probability?
A. test Zymnytskoho;
B. the definition of protein spectrum of blood;
C. urinalysis;
D. determine the level of blood creatinine
E. total blood
6. The patient is observed in the group of 5.1 strokes keeping with a diagnosis of "dense foci and fibrosis of
the upper right lobe of the lung," entered the hospital with such complaints as fever (38C) and dry
cough. The beginning of disease was subacute,the patient connects symptoms with hypothermia.
Radiological findings the homogeneous notintense eclipse without clear contours in the projection of C2,
3 case. Objectively-the percussion tone of the upper divisions of the right lung are blunting, wheezing
isn’t listened clearly. What doctor’s tactic is the most appropriate to the patient?
A. treatment within 2 weeks with antimicrobial drugs of a wide spectrum followed by X-ray control
B. trial of over 1.5-2 months. TB drugs that do not affect the nonspecific microflora
C. a course of intensive anti-tuberculosis therapy within 1.5-2 months
D. Observation
E. chemoprophylaxis
7. The patient 20 year old has shortness of breath, pain in the right half of the chest, dry cough, fever to 38C,
sweating, weakness. He has been sick about a month and noted a gradual increase of intoxication, and
then pains and shortness of breath appeared. Previously, he considered himself healthy. Physicaly in the
lower right chest was noted shortening of pulmonary tone, diminished bronhofoniya, voice trembling and
breathing. For what disease this complaints and physical data are tipical?
A. inflammation of lower zone of left lung
B. atelectasis
C. exudative pleurisy
D. adhesive pleurisy
E. selective spontaneous pneumothorax
8. The patient 23 years old with no complaints . On physical examination pathology was undetected.
Hemogram within normal limits. Radiography and tomography: in the third segment of the right lung in
the basal zone not intense formation measuring 1.5 x 2.5 cm irregular configuration in a retort shape is
defined , the CT density (5 HU). A possible diagnosis:
A. lung cancer
B. benign tumor
C. tuberkuloma
D. retention cysts
E. infiltrative pulmonary tuberculosis
9. Patient '45 observed in the group 5.1 strokes keeping with a diagnosis of "dense fibrosis and foci of a
share of both upper lung, bullous emphysema." He suffers from the concomitant mitral stenosis of
rheumatic etiology. Suddenly the collapse developed, there was a sharp pain behind the breastbone, and
then in the left side, tachycardia, cyanosis. Auscultatory against the background of hard vesicular
breathing is defined pleural rub over the lower regions of the chest left on l. Scapularis. The EKG - atrial
fibrillation, the electrical axis deviation to the right, expressed Q in the third prong standard leads, right
bundle branch block bundle. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. myocardial infarction
B. spontaneous pneumothorax
C. intercostal neuralgia
D. pulmonary infarction
E. dry pleurisy
10. The patient 53 year old entered the examination on the fibrous changes in a C6 right lung, the
background is determined by the cavity from infiltrated walls. From history we know that about six
months ago after cranial trauma with loss of consciousness shivering emerged , body temperature
increased sharply, dry cough appeared. Body temperature is kept at 38-39,50 C level for a week.
Improvements came after one-time discharge of a large amount of foul-smelling sputum, but full
normalization condition hasn’t occurred. Coughing with purulent sputum and periodic subfebrile are still
hurting the patient. What is the correct diagnosis in this patient?
A. fibro-cavernous tuberculosis
B. chronic lung abscess
C. purulent cyst
D. chronic pneumonia
E. cirrhosis segment VI of right lung
11. The patient 54 years old complains on a dry cough with little phlegm mucus, periodic subfebrile.
Objectively - low power. Auscultation observed weakening of breathing over the left half of the chest.
Radiologically increased pulmonary picture on the left, some narrowing of the left lung field, a slight
shift to the left median shade. What resulted from the research can verify the diagnosis?
A. analysis of sputum of atypical cells
B. bronchoscopy
C. ECG
D. median tomography
E. complete blood count
12. The patient of '30 complains on a shortness of breath, pain in a right side, which increases during
breathing, increased body temperature.He illed acutely before admission to a hospital. There were fever
with chills, cough and then cough with the release of small quantities of rusty sputum . At objective
examination observed blunting percussion sound over the basal divisions of the right lung, ibid
auscultated bronchial breathing. What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. infiltrative tuberculosis
B. spontaneous pneumothorax
C. pleural effusion
D. lobar pneumonia
E. lung cancer
13. The patient N. of '34 complains with a slight shortness of breath on exertion, cough with the release of
small quantities of mucous sputum. Suffering from her childhood. The disease runs with periodic
exacerbations, during which symptoms of intoxication, increased cough, increased sputum quantity,
which acquires a purulent character. The general condition is moderate, diffuse cyanosis. Nail phalanges
have the form of drum sticks, nails - watch glasses. lung There is relaxed breathing above the upper
divisions of the right . Radiological deformation of the pulmonary picture is determined in the upper
right of lobe , the background is determined by multiple thin-walled cavity. What is the most likely
diagnosis in this patient?
A. fibro-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis
B. cystic hypoplasia
C. bullous emphysema
D. bronchiectasis
E. progressive degeneration of the lungs
14. In the pleural aspirate of the patient C. revealed erythrocytes 5-6 in the field of view, neytrofils - 80%
limfotsyts - 20%,also mezothelian cells. Completely possible – it is:
A. TB
B. plevropneumonia
C. heart insufficiency
D. malignant process
E. sarkoidosis
15. In bioptate of lymphatic node was found a large number of neytrofils. - Completely possible it is:
A. TB
B. non specific inflammation
C. lymphogranulomatosis
D. sarcoidosis
E. fungal lesions
16. Which disease means the following picture: acute onset, fever - 39, weakness, chills, pain in the chest,
cough with little phlegm, wheezing, a high white blood cell count, erythrocyte sedimentation rate:
A. pneumonia
B. abscess
C. infiltrative tuberculosis
D. Cancer
E. sarcoidosis
17. Patient C.,30 years old, worried about dyspnea, pain in the right side, which amplifies during breathing,
fever, blunting percussion sound over the basal segment, where is also bronchial breath.
Completely possible – it is:
A. pulmonary infarction
B. pneumonia
C. pleuritis
D. lung cancer
E. sarkoidosis
18. Patient of 39 years. Cough with phlegm, subfibrylitet, pain in the chest, food reduced. The weakening
of breathing over the left half of the chest. On the x-ray – strengthening of the pulmonary picture,
restriction of the left lung field, a shift to the left median shade. What method of examination is the most
significant?
A. sputum of atypical cells
B. bronchoscopy
C. Tomography
D. respiratory function
E. ultrasound
19. The patient A.,with destructive tuberculosis, during the development of drug stability MBC to the most
effective chemotherapy, the optimal method of treatment is:
A. use chemotherapy drugs reserves + isoniazyd
B. Reserve use of preparations
C. Early treatment with intravenous introduction of isoniazidi
D. Early treatment in combination with the intensive treatment - drugs of II line
E. imposition an artificial pneumothoraxis
20. In the patient B.,during the chemotherapy appeared: sleep disorders, depression,polyneuritis. This is
due to admission:
A. ryfampitsine
B. pуrazinamide
C. etionamid
D. streptomitsyn
E. izoniazyd
21. A patient B. with tuberculosis, during the chemotherapy, appeared complaints of reduced vision, the
presence of the nets before the eyes. Ophthalmologist found in violation of color feeling, idecrease of
visual acuity. This is due to admission
A. izoniazyd
B. ethambutol
C. streptomitsyn
D. pirazynamid
E. ryfampitsyn
22. In the patient C. with first discovered infiltrative tuberculosis of upper lobe of right lung in phase of
decayin,was detected by microscopy MBC in sputum. Choose the most rationally combination of
chemotherapy for the first two months of treatment:
A. izoniazyd + streptomitsyn +ryfampitsyn
B. izoniazyd +ryfampitsyn + pirazynamid +streptomitsyn
C. izoniazyd + ryfampitsyn +pirazynamid
D. izoniazyd+ ryfampitsyn + pirazynamid+ streptomitsyn + ethambutol
E. izoniazyd+ ryfampitsyn + ethambutol + streptomitsyn
23. The patient F.,against chemotherapy disappeared appetite , which drug should be excluded from the
treatment plan:
A. streptomytsyn
B. protyonamid
C. rifampicin
D. izoniazid
E. kanamycin
24. The patient D. with tuberculosis of the third category of intensive phase is always necessary to assign
combination of:
A. izoniazyd +ryfampitsyn
B. izoniazyd + + ryfampitsyn+ streptomitsyn
C. izoniazyd + streptomitsyn +pirazynamid
D. izoniazyd+ ryfampitsyn + ethambutol +pirazynamid
E. izoniazyd +ryfampitsyn + ethambutol
25. After the main course of chemotherapy about tuberculosis intoxication, from the 3 category children and
teenagers are translated:
A. in 5.4
B. in 5.2
C. in 5.5
D. in 5.1
E. to 5.3
26. Patient B.,60 years old, arrived with complaints of weakness, growing dyspnea, subfibrylitet, pain in
the upper chest, slight cough, hemoptysis. The disease began gradually. Leuk. - 9 * 10 ^ 9, ESR 42 mm / hr. Tuberculin test is negative.There is not MBC in the sputum . On the X-ray in a case of C3large cavity irregularly rounded with thick, irregular wallthickness, internal contours are like bay. The
most possible diagnosis isA. abscessed pneumonia
B. cheesy pneumonia
C. Cancer, which decays
D. Acute abscess
E. Circular infiltrate in the collapse phase
27. Patient C.,49 years old,notes grueling
dry cough, chest pain, hemoptysis,subfibrylity, catarrhal phenomena in the lungs is not listened. ESR - 48
mm / hr., Blood parameters are not changed, in the sputum the MBC was found only once. Radiological
findings: in the case of C3,subpluevral, observed the formation of circular d.of 3.5 cm with
clear but unevencontours, heterogeneous structure and a little enlightenment at
the medial edge. Diagnosis:
A. Tuberkuloma
B. Circular infiltration
C. Peripheral cancer
D. eosinophilic infiltration
E. Asperhiloma
28. Patient B.,53 years old,general condition is severe, pronounsed dry cough, chest pain, dyspnea,
hemoptysis . In the lungs -dry scattered wheezing. ESR - 46 mm / hr., Leuk. - 9.8 x 10 ^ 9,Hb - 96 g / l,
lymphocytes - 14%, Mantou test is negative. Radiological findings: the background of
lymphangoitis ,more in mid-medial and inferior parts of the lungs, determined by multiple round
shape and different size, with clear contours external pockets (a symptom of "small change").Diagnosis:
A. disseminated tuberculosis
B. Systemic lupus erythematosus
C. metastatic cancer
D. exogenous allergic alveolitis
E. Silicosis
29. Patient S., 45 years old. During X-ray examination about right-sided lower lobe pneumonia was
found single, low-intensity fire to 1 cm in diameter in the C2 of the left lung . After cure of
pneumonia due to focal tuberculosis of doubtful activity 3 months of chemotherapy was
conducted. Dynamics of the process is not seen. The diagnosis of tuberculosis has been
removed. After 2.5 years patient was examined again. The general condition is
satisfactory, no complaints.On the X-ray in the
left C2 observed rounded homogeneous shadow focus, medium intensity to 1.5 cm in diameter, small
size of banky contours and surrounding tissue intact. The most possible diagnosis isA. focal pulmonary tuberculosis (fibroznovohnyschevyy)
B. Tuberkuloma of lung
C. Peripheral cancer
D. Benign tumor (hamartohondroma)
E. Metabolic retykuloz (lipidoz)
30. Which diseases in patients E. corresponds to the following X-ray picture? Mainly in corticalregions
of the upper segment of the right lung determined by multiple focal shadows different size
and intensity, irregular shape, without clear contours. Around
them locally pulmonary picture moderately excessive and distorted by the reticulated type
A. focal pulmonary tuberculosis
B. focal pneumonia
C. Peripheral cancer
D. Sarcoidosis of lung
E. Aspergillosis
31. A “range” of tuberculin reaction is established in a 18-years old patient, Mantaex test with 2 TU PPD-L –
a papule of 16mm in diameter. He complains of the general weakness, subfebrile temperature, promoted
perspiration. The blood analysis\: L -9,2? 10 /l, ESR-26 mm/hr. No pathological changes in lungs is been
revealed at roentgenological examination. What diagnosis is most reliable?
A. Primary tuberculous complex
B. Tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes
C. Nidus lung tuberculosis
D. Tuberculous intoxication
E. Infiltrative tuberculosis
32. A patient 23, has fallen ill acutely. He complains of the headache, dry cough, shortness of breath, the
body temperature rising up to 39,0?C. Objectively\: his general state is difficult, cyanosis of lips, rales
are not heard. The blood analysis\: L -12,6? 10 /l, ESR-16 mm/hr. Multiple small nidal shades of weak
intensity are observed throughout the whole lung length on the inspection roentgenogram. Mantaex test
with 2 TU PPD-L –a papule of 5mm in diameter. What clinical form of lung tuberculosis is found in a
patient?
A. Nidus
B. Infiltrative
C. Disseminated
D. Miliary tuberculosis
E. Caseous pneumonia
33. A patient aged 43. FDT (21.01.2004) of the upper particle of the right lung (infiltrative), Destr +, MBT+
M- K+ Resist- HIST0, Cat1Cog1(2004), as to clinico-roentgenologicalal data was established. What
phase is answered by abbreviation of Destr +?
A. infiltration
B. sowing
C. condensation
D. decay
E. suction
34. A patient is 50-ty.He is on treatment in antitubercular dispensary with a diagnosis\: CT (15.02.2000) of
upper particles of both lungs(fibrous-cavernous, phase of infiltration and sowing), Destr+,MBT+ M+ K+
Resist- ResistІІ0 HIST0, Cat4 cog1(2000). Roentgenologically decay cavities (in upper particles of
lungs), multiple fresh nidi in both lungs, fibrous deformation of lung picture has been established in a
patient. What phase of tubercular process is answered by the presence of multiple fresh nidi?
A. Phase of decay
B. Phase of condensation
C. Phase of calcination
D. Phase of sowing
E. Phase of infiltration
35. A patient, 36th. She was hospitalized into an antitubercular dispensary in connection with infiltrative
changes with destruction in the upper particle of the right lung presence, which have been found on
roentgenogram. Complains on weakness, subfebrile temperature of body, cough with sputum
expectoration. No pathological changes from the respiratory organs have been revealed at physical
examination. MBT+ have been in sputum analysis (bacteriologically). The diagnosis of lung tuberculosis
has been established in a patient. What diagnosis formulation correct is?
A. FDT (15.11.2004) (nidus), Destr+, MBT- M- K- HIST0, Cat3 cog4(2003).
B. FDT (15.11.2004) of lungs (disseminated, the phase of infiltration), Destr-, MBT- K- HIST0, Cat3
cog4(2004).
C. FDT (15.11.2004) of the middle particle of the right lung (infiltrative) Destr+, MBT- K+ HIST0,
Cat3 cog4(2004).
D. CT (3.12.1999) of the upper particle of the right lung (cirrhotic) Destr-, MBT- K- HIST0, Cat3
cog4(2003)
E. FDT (15.11.2004) of the upper particle of the right lung (infiltrative) Destr+, MBT+ M- K+ Resist0
ResistІІ0 HIST0, Cat3 cog4(2004).
36. A patient, 44. She complains of a cough with sputum expectoration, weakness, raising of body
temperature. No changes from respiratory organs have been revealed at physical examination.
Roentgenologically decay cavity with perifocal inflammation of lung tissue and nidi of sowing in both
lungs has been found in S1,2 of the right lung. MBT are revealed in sputum. A diagnosis\: FDT
(15.01.2004) of the upper particle of the right lung (infiltrative), Destr +, MBT+ M+ K+ Resist0
ResistІІ0 HIST0,Cat1cog1 (2004) has been established in a patient. What method of revealing
tuberculosis mycobacterium is the answer to the abbreviation of M+?
A. bacteriological
B. biological
C. culturally
D. bacterioscopy
E. method of sowing
37. A rink-like shadow of 6 cm in diameter with thick walls in the upper part of the left lung, around which
there are fibrous traces and nidal shadows at roentgenological examination in a 53-years old patient.
MBT have been found in sputum. What form of lung tuberculosis is most reliable?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Cirrhotic
Infiltrative
Disseminated
Tuberculoma
Fibrous-cavernous
38. 38. Each one tuberculosis patient can infect annually:
A. 1-5 persons
B. 10-15 persons
C. 25-30 persons
D. 35-40 persons
E. 45-50 persons
39. What term it should be expect results of culturally examination with a view to reveal MBT at using of
hard eggs mediums?
A. 2-5 days
B. 10-14 days
C. 2-2.5 months
D. 4-6 hours
E. 20-30 days
40. H was synthesized in the laboratory of:
A. S.Waksman
B. Fox
C. R.Koch
D. R.Roentgen
E. R.Philip
41. Multiple focal shades of weak and medium intensity in the upper and middle parts of lungs have been
found at roentgenological examination in a 19-years old patient. MBT have been found in sputum. The
blood analysis\: ESR-38 mm/hr. What diagnosis is most reliable?
A. Lung infiltrative tuberculosis
B. Nidus lung tuberculosis
C. Disseminated lung tuberculosis
D. Caseous pneumonia
E. Fibrous-cavernous lung tuberculosis
42. In the exposure of what changes in biopsy material is based histological confirmation of tubercular
character of inflammation?
A. Pirogov-Langerhans cells , caseous necrosis.
B. Cells of foreign bodies, fibroblasts.
C. A big amount of neutrophiles, colicvation necrosis.
D. Proliferation of lymphocytes.
E. Proliferation of poorly differentiated cells.
43. Patient 37-ty, complains of the shortness of breath at walking, pain is in the area of heart. He is ill
tuberculosis during 15 years. An intensive shade in the upper part of the left lung on inspection
roentgenogram. The left root dislocation upwards, a shade of mediastinum is dislocated to the left. MBT
have been found in sputum analysis. What clinical form of tuberculosis for a patient is marked?
A. Fibrous-cavernous
B. Infiltrative
C. Caseous pneumonia
D. Cirrhotic
E. Tuberculoma
44. Patient 33-th years. He complains of the body temperature rising up to 37,2?C, weakness, promoted
perspiration, cough with sputum expectoration. Roentgenologically infiltrative shade with decay cavity in
S1,2,3 of the right lung and nidi of sowing in S6 of healthy lung. Tuberculosis mycobacterium was
found in sputum. The clinical diagnosis of tuberculosis was established in a patient. What diagnosis
should be answered classification fully?
A. FDT (12.01.2005) of the upper part of the right lung (infiltrative) Destr+, MBT+ M+ K+ HIST0,
Cat1cog1(2005).
B. FDT (12.01.2005) of the upper part of the right lung (infiltrative) Destr+, MBT+ M+ K+ Resist0
ResistІІ0 HIST0, Cat1cog1(2005).
C. FDT (12.01.2005) (infiltrative), MBT+ M+ K+ HIST0, Cat1Cog1 (2005).
D. FDT (12.01.2005) of the upper part of the right lung (infiltrative) MBT+ M+ K+ Resist+ ResistІІ0
HIST0, Cat1cog1 (2005).
E. FDT (12.01.2005) of the upper part of the right lung (infiltrative) Destr+,Resist0 ResistІІ0 HIST0.
45. Patient 34th years. She is on treatment into an antitubercular dispensary. FDT (12.11.2004) of lungs
(disseminated, the phase of infiltration and decay) Destr+, MBT+ M+ K+ Resist- ResistІІ0, Cat1
cog4(2004) has been established in a patient at hospitalization.. Roentgenologically multiple nidi in all
pulmonary fields with decay cavities presence have been revealed in S1-2 of the left lung. MBT+ have
been in sputum analysis. After the performed course of treatment during 4th months nidi in both lungs
have resolved partly, bacteria excretion and sizes of caverns have decreased. How to estimate efficiency
of treatment?
A. Cessation of bacterial excretion
B. Recovery
C. Prolongation treatment
D. Ineffective treatment
E. Completed treatment
46. Patient age 41 years. He is sick by fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis of the upper part of the
right lung during 8 years. Mycobacteriums tuberculosis+. He feels good during last 2 year. Radiographic
data: the upper part of the right lung available thick cavern with fibrosis and perifocal inflammation. The
upper part is narrow due fibrosis. Both lungs have focuses of semination. Shadow of mediastinum shifted
right. What radiographic data are typical for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis of the lungs?
A. Caverns presence, well-defined fibrosis, focuses of semination.
B. Caverns presence, perifocal inflammation.
C. Perifocal inflammation, bronchogenic dissemination.
D. Organs on mediastinum are shifted in the side of lesion.
E. Intense dark patch, narrowed lung field.
47. Patient aged 26. He complains of a weakness, subfebrile temperature, insignificant cough with sputum
expectoration. FDT (16.12.2004) of lungs (disseminated, the phase of infiltration), Destr +, MBT+ MK+ Resist- ResistІІ0 HIST0, Cog4 (2004), as to clinico-roentgenologicalal and laboratory data was
established. What category does it follow to deliver a patient to?
A. Cat 5
B. Cat 4
C. Cat 1
D. Cat 2
E. Cat 3
48. Patient of 35 years. He was hospitalized into an antitubercular dispensary in connection with changes
which have been found in fluorography\: a shade about 1 cm in diameter of small intensity with vague
contours has been revealed in S1 of the right lung. On tomogrami destruction is determined in the center
of shade. MBT+ have been in sputum analysis (bacteriologically). A diagnosis of nidus lung tuberculosis
has been established in a patient. What phases of nidus lung tuberculosis are representing changes which
have been revealed on roentgenogram?
A. Infiltration and sowing
B. Infiltration and decay
C. Suction and scarring
D. Decay and sowing
E. Condensation and suction
49. Patient of 32, was on treatment in an antitubercular dispensary with a diagnosis\: FDT (16.06.2003) S1-2
of the left lung(infiltrative), Destr +, MBT+ M+ K+ Resist- ResistІІ0 HIST0, VNII Cat1cog2(2003).
During 6 months a course of antimycobacterial therapy was performed in hospital. Then next 2 months
he was treated ambulatory. At the present time excretion of bacteria has ceased in a patient, a cavern has
scarred. How to define efficiency of treatment of this patient?
A. completed treatment
B. ineffective treatment
C. Interrupted treatment
D. Left
E. recovery
50. Patient of 31 years. At prophylactic examination nidal shade of small intensity with vague contours has
been found in lateral zone of the under clavicle area of the right lung. What segment of lung should be
noted in a clinical diagnosis?
A. SІІІ
B. SX
C. SІV
D. SVI
E. S11
51. Single focal of small intensity with vague contours have been revealed in apexes segments of both lungs
at prophylactic fluorographic examination in a 19-years old patient. What form of tuberculosis such
changes are characteristic for?
A. Infiltrative tuberculosis
B. Tuberculoma
C. Nidus lung tuberculosis
D. Caseous pneumonia
E. Disseminated lung tuberculosis
52. The vaccine BCG was produced by:
A. R.Koch
B. S.Waksman
C. A.Calmette and Guerin
D. F. Seibert
E. M.Linnykova
53. The all number of tuberculosis patients in the world is:
A. 3-5 mln
B. 10-15 mln
C. 20-30 mln
D. 40-45 mln
E. 50-60 mln
54. The first antituberculosis dispansery world was founded by\:{
A. R.Koch
B. R.Phylip
C. A.Calmette and Guerin
D. Abre
E. F.G.Yanovsky
55. Treatment of what state is most perspective and important from the epidemiological point of view?
A. At first diagnosed tuberculosis without destruction.
B. At first diagnosed tuberculosis with destruction.
C. Relapse.
D. Chronic tuberculosis.
E. Primary tuberculosis.
56. What changes in the number of leucocytes at the uncomplicated tuberculosis are the most typical?
A. Expressed leucocytosis with a considerable bacillarnuclear shift, leukemia reaction
B. Changes are not characteristic
C. Moderate leucocytosis with an unsignificant bacillarnuclear shift
D. Leucopenia
E. Both leucopenia and leucocytosis is possible
57. What changes of ESR at the uncomplicated tuberculosis are most characteristic?
A. Accelerated up more than 60 mm on hour
B. Changes are absent
C. Reduction
D. Accelerated up to 30 mm on hour
E. Accelerated only in woman
58. What changes of the urine at a lung tuberculosis which courses with expressed phenomena of
intoxication are most characteristic?
A. Moderate proteinuria, moderate leucocyturia, total macrohaematuria
B. Moderate leucocyturia, single erythrocytes
C. Significant proteinuria without changes in the number of leucocytes, initial macrohaematuria
D. Pyuria, cylindruria, microhaematuria
E. Total macrohaematuria with a pain syndrome
59. What color is used for the revealing MBT?
A. According to Gram
B. According to Tsil-Nilsen
C. According to Romanovskij-Gimza
D. By fuxyne
E. By methylene-blue
60. What complication does specific belong to?
A. Haemophthisis
B. Chronic lung heart
C. Atelectasis
D. Larynx tuberculosis
E. Amyloidosis
61. What data clinical diagnosis formulation begin from?
A. The process phase
B. Clinical form
C. Bacterial excretion
D. Localization of process
E. Type of tuberculous process
62. What definition does atypical mycobacterium characterize most correct?
A. There are unpathogenic mycobacteria for a human being
B. They cause tuberculosis with atypical course
C. They cause an illness, similar to tuberculosis, for persons with lowered immunity
D. There are pathogenes of leprae
E. There are changed mycobacteria under act of chemotherapy
63. What definition of role of clinical blood examination in tuberculosis patients is most correct?
A. It allows to define an etiologic diagnosis
B. It has no importance
C. It allows to evaluate expressiveness of inflammatory and intoxication changes in an organism
D. It form the basis of differential diagnostics
E. It form the basis of working capacity examination
64. What form of tuberculosis does primary belong to?
A. Nodus
B. Disseminated
C. Tuberculosis of the unstated localization.
D. Caseous pneumonia
E. Infiltrative
65. What form of tuberculosis is referring to primary?
A. Disseminated
B. Nidus
C. Infiltrative
D. Tuberculoma
E. Tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes
66. What formulation of clinical diagnosis of lung tuberculosis is not correct?
A. FDT (16.06.2003) of the upper parts of both lungs (disseminated, the phase of infiltration), Destr+,
MBT+ M+ K+ Resist0, HIST0, Cat1 cog2(2003).
B. CT (12.02.2000) of the upper part of the right lung (fibrous-cavernous), Destr+, MBT+ K+ M+
Resist+(8,K), HIST0, haemophthisis, CLH, HI ІІA degree, Cat4 cog1(2000).
C. TR (20.11.2003) of the lower part of the right lung (tuberculoma), Destr+, MBT- M- K-, HIST0, RI
1st degree, Cat2cog4(2003). Diabetes, І type, severe form.
D. FDT (20.09.2003) (nidus, the phase of infiltration), MBT- M- K0, HIST0, Cat3 cog3(2003)
E. State after the lobectomy of the upper part of the right lung (20.06.2003) on the occasion of
tuberculoma of the upper part of the right lung in the decay phase, MBT(+).
67. What information must not contain the classification of any illness according to the IKD-10?
A. Clinical form of disease.
B. Localisation of affection.
C. Prognosis.
D. Accompanimental diseases.
E. Complication.
68. What is the definition of primary tuberculosis?
A. At first diagnosed tuberculosis.
B. Initial signs of tuberculosis.
C. Nondestructive tuberculosis.
D. Tuberculosis which arose up just after infection.
E. Tuberculosis with an affection of only one organ or system.
69. What is the definition of secondary tuberculosis?
A. Relapse of tuberculosis.
B. Destructive tuberculosis.
C. Tuberculosis which arose up long after an infection.
D. Tuberculosis with the unfolded clinical picture.
E. Generalized tuberculosis.
70. What is the most probable distance at the infectioning by MBT by the aerogenic way?
A. To 1,5 m
B. To 3,5 m
C. To 4,5 m
D. To 6 m
E. To 10 m
71. The “range” of tuberculin reaction was discovered in girl B. aged 9. Clinico-roentgenological and
laboratory examinations revealed no pathological changes. Your tactics regarding with the girl.{
A. To repeat Mantoux test with 2 TU in a year
B. To hospitalize to an antituberculous hospital
C. To perform chemoprophylaxis with isoniazidum and vitamin B6 within 3 months
D. The observation in an antituberculous dispensary for 1-2 years
E. To consider the girl healthy and not to take any prophylactic measures
72. The 11-year-old patient M. is diagnosed with tuberculin “turn”, Mantoux test with 2 TO – 16 mm
infiltrate. Complaints for general asthenia, increased sweating. Blood analysis\: leuk. – 9,2x109/l, ESR –
26 mm/hour. Roentgenogram examination did not reveal pathologic alterations in the lungs. What
diagnosis is the most probable one?{
A. Primary tuberculous complex
B. Tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes
C. Nidus lung tuberculosis
D. Tuberculosis intoxication
E. Infiltrative lung tuberculosis
73. A 3-years old child reaction to Mantoux test with 2 TU – 7 mm infiltration, at the age of 4 – 3 mm.
Postvaccinal seam of 4 mm. Define the character of tuberculin reaction.{
A. Infectious allergy
B. A “range” of tuberculin testing
C. The child is ill with tuberculosis
D. Postvaccinal allergy
E. Doubtful Mantoux reaction
74. A 22-year-old patient fell ill acutely. Complaints for headache, dry cough, dyspnea, temperature rise up
to 39,0? C. Objectively\: general condition is grave, lips cyanosis, rales are not heard. Blood analysis\:
leuk. – 12x109/l, ESR – 16 mm/hour. Roengenogram\: the whole length of both lungs is full with
multiple, small focal shadows of low intensity. Mantoux test – 5mm infiltrate. What clinical form of
lungs tuberculosis does this patient have?{
A. Nidus
B. Infiltrative
C. Disseminated
D. Miliary tuberculosis
E. Caseous pneumonia
75. A 5 years old boy K., had a “range” of tuberculin reaction. What examinations should be done?{
A. General clinical examination, inspection roentgenogram of the thoracic cage organs, general blood
and urine test
B. Koch’s testing, general blood and urine test
C. Fluorography, general blood and urine test
D. Tomography, smear examination from pharynx for MBT
E. Fibrobronchoscopy, examination of contents from bronchi for MBT
76. A patient 34, complains of the cough with sputum, weakness, raising of body temperature to 37,52?C,
during 3 weeks, appetite loss, indisposition. No changes have been revealed at objective examination.
What should be found out in a patient in the life anamnesis?{
A. Smoking
B. Following the routine of work and rest
C. Present the contact with tuberculosis patient
D. Sport occupation
E. Present the emotional labiality
77. A patient 36, appeal to the doctor with complains of the weakness, cough with sputum, raising of body
temperature to 37,2?C. Lung infiltrative tuberculosis was revealed in antitubercular dispensary after
finish examination. It is known from anamnesis, that a patient was ill with arthritis, infectious hepatitis,
tyreotoxicosis. Diabetes two years ago and glomerulonephrytis. What somatic disease is the risk factor of
tuberculosis occurring?{
A. Glomerulonephritis
B. Diabetes
C. Thyreotoxicosis
D. Infectious hepatitis
E. Gaimoritis
78. A patient 34, complains of the raising of body temperature to 37,5?C, appetite loss, indisposition,
weakness, cough with sputum excretion up to 50 ml per day of slime character. The state of patient has
worsened gradually, during a month. What disease in a patient can one suspect?{
A. Pneumonia
B. Lung tuberculosis
C. Lung abscess
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Chronic bronchitis
79. A patient 31, complains of the weakness, insignificant cough with sputum. An inhomogeneous limited
darkening sized more than 5cm. in the 81, 2 of the right lung has been revealed at roentgenologic
examination. Lung infiltrative tuberculosis of the upper part of the right lung has been suspected. What
most reliable auscultative data characterize will be observed above the lesion lungs section of mentioned
localization?{
A. Moist rales
B. Dry disseminated rales
C. Vesicular breathing
D. Amphoric respiration
E. Absence of breathing
80. A patient 43, is directed to antitubercular dispensary for finish examination and lung tuberculosis
diagnosis confirmation. A patient complains of the raising of body temperature to 37,5?C, weakness,
disposition to perspire, cough with sputum. What sputum characterized lung tuberculosis?{
A. Purulent with a stinking odor
B. Slime
C. Frothy
D. Slime sputum of canary color
E. Rusty
81. A patient 44, complains of the weakness, periodical raising of body temperature to 37,7?C, cough with
sputum expectoration more than 3 weeks. There are tuberculosis patients in a family. In what thorax
areas can one reveal auscultative changes at objective examination of the patient most frequently? {
A. In the space between scapular
B. In the lower third of lungs
C. In the area under scapular
D. In the area under clavicle
E. In the axillary’s region
82. A patient 53, is ill with tuberculosis during 3 month, complains of the cough with sputum excretion,
raising of body temperature, weakness, shortness of breathe at physical tension. Amphoric respiration is
heard above the right lung, in the area under clavicle at auscultation. What changes in lungs do such
auscultative phenomenon at tuberculosis condition?{
A. Exudates
B. A big cavern
C. Lung atelectasis
D. A small cavern
E. Cirrhotic changes
83. A patient of 43 is on treatment in tuberculosis dispensary with a diagnosis\: FDT (15.01.2004) of right
lung’s upper part (focal) Destr-, Mbt - m- k- ,gist o, Cat 3 Cog1(2004). Roentgenological\: in S1,2 of
right lung darkening was determined 1 centimeter in the diameter of weak intensity. What blood test is
typical for patients with a tuberculosis? {
A. RBC.- 4,6х1012, НЬ - 134 г/л, WBC - 28х109, E-17%, п- 3%, с -60%, Li-15%, Mo-5%, ESR - ЗО
mm/hr.
B. RBC.- 3,6х10, НЬ - 128 г/л, WBC - 15х109, п- 7%, с -53%, Li - 30%. Mo - 10%, ESR - 70 mm/hr.
C. RBC.- 4,6х1012, НЬ - 136 г/л, WBC - 2,5х109, п- 1%, с -60%, Li - 29%, Mo - 10%, ESR - 40
mm/hr.
D. RBC.- 4,2х1012, НЬ - 130 г/л, WBC - 9,5х109, п- 5%, с -67%, Li - 20%, Mo - 5%, ESR - 20 mm/hr.
E. RBC.- 3,2х1012, НЬ - 120 г/л, WBC - 4,5х109, е- 20, п- 1% , с -49% , Li - 25%, Mo -5%, Blood
sedimentation test-2 mm/hr
84. A patient 5-year-old boy with primary tubercular complex, above the lower department of thorax in right
side auscultate pleural friction rub. What do pathological changes we think about?{
A. Spontaneous pneumothorax.
B. Dry pleurisy.
C. Ecsudatical pleurisy.
D. Pleuropneumonia.
E. Pleural empyema.
85. Patient 37, has been delivered on treatment into an antitubercular dispensary on the occasion of firstly
diagnosed infiltrative tuberculosis of the upper part of the right lung. The intoxication syndrome is
expressed. Which of cited complaints do intoxication syndrome at tuberculosis refer to?{
A. Haemophthisis, weakness, chest pain, cold, shortness of breathe
B. Cough, sputum excretion, hectic temperature, chest pain
C. Nausea, vomit, cough, pain in joints, indisposition
D. Subfebrile temperature, weakness, appetite and weight loss, disposition to perspire
E. Cough, sputum excretion, broken-sleep, headache, hoarseness of voice
86. Patient 31, has been delivered on treatment into an antitubercular dispensary on the occasion of relapse
of tuberculosis process. The presence of bronchi-lung-pleura syndrome has been determined in a patient
at examination. What are characterized symptoms for this syndrome?{
A. The raising of body temperature, weakness, appetite loss, weight loss, disposition to perspire
B. Cough, weakness, broken-sleep, headache, hoarseness of voice
C. Cough, sputum presence, chest pain, haemophthisis, shortness of breathe
D. Cough, weakness, hoarseness of voice, dry rales, shortening of percussion note
E. Shortness of breathe, broken-sleep, moist rales, increasing voice tremor, indisposition
87. Patient 39, is on treatment into an antitubercular dispensary on the occasion of firstly diagnosed
infiltrative tuberculosis of the upper part of the left lung in decay phase (lobit).No changes have been
revealed at physical examination. How should patient breath right to improve informing of the
auscultative method?{
A. To breathe frequently
B. To breathe deeply
C. To cough strongly
D. To cough slightly and to do a deep breathe
E. To breathe by opened mouth
88. Patient R., 53. Roentgenologic examination showed in the upper segment of the left lung a ringlike
shadow with a diameter of 5cm with thick walls and fibrous heaviness and focusness. Sputum contains
MBT. What clinical picture is the most probable one?{
A. Lung cirrhotic tuberculosis
B. Infiltrative lung tuberculosis
C. Disseminated lung tuberculosis
D. Lung tuberculoma
E. Lung fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
89. Patient L., 24. Roentgenologic examination showed multiple focal shadows in upper and medial lungs
segments of low and medium intensity. Sputum contains MBT. Blood analysis\: ESR – 38 mm/hour.
What diagnosis is the most probable one?{
A. Infiltrative lung tuberculosis
B. Nidus lung tuberculosis
C. Disseminated lung tuberculosis
D. Caseous pneumonia
E. Lung fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
90. Patient of 21 went to tuberculosis dispensary with complaints about a weakness, indisposition, cough
with sputum. On a survey rontgenography were discovered infiltrative changes on the upper part of right
lung with the presence of cavity of disintegration. Using bacterioscopic method MBT were found in
sputum.What amount of MBT should be found in 1 ml of sputum (at a revision 300 eyeshots)?{
A. 500.
B. 5000.
C. 1000.
D. 100.
E. 100000.
91. Patient of 24 is on treatment in tuberculosis dispensary with a diagnosis\: FDT (2.02.2004) of right
lung’s upper part (infiltrative, phase of disintegration and semination), Destr- mbt+ m- k+ Resist+ (N,R)
resist O, GIST O, Cat4 Cog1(2004). The patient was appointed proper treatment\: N, R, S, Z. In two
months during conducting roentgenological control positive dynamics was not seen. As a result of
determination of MBT sensitiveness to untuberculosis preparations was got in 2 months after patient’s
receipt .What is the principal reason of treatment’s ineffectiveness?{
A. Existence of MBT’s resistance to unmycobacterial medications.
B. Smoking.
C. Periodic using of alcohol.
D. Protracted reception of chemo medication.
E. In the absence of fifth preparation.
92. Patient of 28 years on a roentgenological inspection found out in the right lung under a collar-bone dark
patch in a diameter to 1sm, small intensity with unclear contours. What type of pathological shade is
certain in the woman?{
A. focal
B. Infiltrative .
C. focal-infiltrative .
D. Annular.
E. Linear.
93. Patient of 38 at a reception to tuberculosis dispensary complains about a weakness, promoted sweating,
cough with sputum of mucus character. Roentgenological\: in S1,2 of left lung darkening of weak
intensity with unclear contours was found. What kind of research should be done to confirm diagnosis
tuberculosis?{
A. General blood test.
B. Biochemical blood test.
C. Sputum’s test on MBT.
D. Immunological research of blood.
E. Sputum’s test on the second flora.
94. Patient of 31 is on treatment in tuberculosis dispensary with a diagnosis\: FDT (23.11.1997) of right
lung’s upper part (Fibrosis - cavernous, phase of infiltration and semination), Mbt+ ,m- ,K+ resist+
(R,E) resist O, GIST O, Cat4 Cog4(2004).What kind of research should be primarily done to a patient?{
A. Histological
B. Luminescent microscopy.
C. Determine sensitiveness of MBT to chemo medication of the II row.
D. Immunological research.
E. Biological research.
95. Patient of 37 went to the stationary section of tuberculosis dispensary with complaints about cough with
sputum, weakness, temperature - 38,0°C, severe headache, nausea and vomit that does not bring a
facilitation. A disease has begun gradually. Patient went to the therapeutist and then X-ray examination
was made. As a result of examination small (1-2 mm in diameter) multiply nonintencive shades with
unclear contours along lungs were determined. Patient was diagnosed\: a FDT (3.12.2003) of lungs
(miliary in a phase of infiltration and disintegration), Destr+, Mbt+m-k+ rezist-rezistpo, GIST O
Kat1kog4(2003). What kind of research will reliably confirm possibility tubercular meningitis’
development?{
A. Bacterial analysis of sputum.
B. Immunologic research.
C. Encephalography.
D. Bacterioscopy of spinal liquid.
E. Biochemical analysis of composition of spinal liquid.
96. Patient of 41 grumbles about weakness, bad appetite and sleep, decline of body’s mass.
Roentgenlogical\: in S1 infiltrative darkening was found out in a right lung. General analysis of blood\:
Er.- 4,8х1012, Нb - 146 г/л, L - 8,5х109, E-3%, P-7%, s-66%, l-20%,m-4%, ESR - 22 mm/hr. What
research should be done to a patient with the purpose to exposure MBT?{
A. Taking of washing liquid of bronchial tubes.
B. Tomography.
C. To take a Manta’s sample from 2 PPD-L.
D. To explore sputum.
E. To make immunological research.
97. Patient of 44 complains about weakness, bad appetite, decline of body’s mass, subfebrile temperature
(37,1°-37,4°C), pain in left side. During roentgenological examination in S 1-2 of a left lung limited
microfocal disseminations has been determinated, to the bottom from the IV rib exudation. At
bacterioscopic research of liquid MBT were not found.What research is optimum for confirmation of
etiology of found changes for this patient?{
A. Examination of sputum.
B. Making bronchoscopy.
C. Immunologic research.
D. Biopsy of pleura.
E. Cytological research of exudation.
98. Patient of 45 undergo a course of anmycobacterial medication treatment concerning FDT (12.12.1998) of
left lung’s upper part (fibrocavernous, phase of infiltration and semination), Destr-+ Mbt+ M+
K+ rezist 0, GISTO, Cat4 Cog4(2004). What research above all should be done to a patient to set an
optimum combination of chemo medication?{
A. Determine a type of MBT.
B. Determine presence of the second flora.
C. Determine sensitiveness of MBT to anmycobacterial medication.
D. To define massiveness of bacterioexcretion
E. To define virulence of MBT.
99. Patient of 46 underwent a course of medical treatment during 1 week. Patient was diagnosed\: ’ FDT
(15.01.2004) (desemination, phase to infiltration and disintegration), Destr+, MBT+M+KOrezisto
GISTO Cat1 Cog1(2004). MBT has been discovered by bacteriological method in 3 analyses. What is
the most reliable reason that the record of K O was made in a diagnosis?{
A. Kulturalniy analysis was not conducted.
B. Negative result of sputum’s sowing was got.
C. Insufficient period for MBT’s growth
D. Absence of MBT in sputum.
E. Incorrect results of bacterioscopy.
100. Patient of 48 is on treatment in tuberculosis dispensary concerning FDT (13.12.2003) of upper part of
the right lung (infiltrative, phase of disintegration and semination ), Destr+ Mbt+ m+ k+ resist- ,
GIST O, Сat2 Сog4((2003). He does not use alcohol and narcotics and does not smoke. In spite of
adequate chemotherapy (N,R,S,E) patient still has a progressive tuberculosis. On the control radiography
the increasing of cavity disintegration and appearance of semination fires have been determined on a left
lung. What kind of research should be done to a patient to determine possible reason of treatment’s
ineffectiveness?{
A. General blood test.
B. Biochemical blood examination.
C. Koch’s test.
D. Immunological research.
E. Functions’ research of the external breathing.
101. Sick women 34 years old. She grumbles about a cough with sputum, pain in the right part of thorax,
weakness, increase body's temperature up to 37,8°C. On the survey sciagram of the right lung it is found
out an area of unhomogeneous structure without clear contours. It was established the diagnosis\:
tuberculosis What disease does have alike roentgenological signs?{
A. Bronchial asthma.
B. Pneumonia.
C. Cyst.
D. Bronchitis.
E. lungs oedema.
102. Sick men 36 years old. He is directed to the T.B. prophylactic center with a diagnos of tuberculosis. It
was made more inspection and as a result were revealed destructive changes in the overhead particle of
right lung. What roentgenological method of research was used for more inspection?{
A. Lateral sciagraphy.
B. Bronchography.
C. Radioxerography.
D. Tomography.
E. Fluorography.
103. Sick woman 24 years old is directed to phthisiatrician, concerning changes, that were discovered on
fluorogram (prophylactic inspection). We can see changes not very good, because they are hidden behind
the collar-bone. What roentgenological research we need to use, to find out these changes?{
A. entgenography.
B. Bronchography.
C. Rentgenoscopy.
D. Lateral sciagraphy.
E. Sciagraphy with the maximal taking of collar-bone.
104. Sick woman 40-ty years acted in to the T.B. prophylactic center complaining on a cough, weakness,
decline of mass , cough with sputum. A differential diagnostic is conducted between infiltrative
tuberculosis of upper particle of left lung and a cancer of lungs .What roentgenological method of
research is optimum to confirm the diagnosis?{
A. Radioxerography.
B. Bronchography.
C. Computerized tomography.
D. Pleurography.
E. Rentgenoscopy.
105. The patient of 47 years . He is on treatment in T.B. prophylactic center concerning the relapse of
tuberculosis of the left lung (infiltrative tuberculosis). In patient's phlegm appear MBT but on a survey
sciagram destructive changes are not determined. What roentgenological method of research should we
use to find the source which excretes bacterias?{
A. Tomography.
B. Bronchography.
C. Spot-film sciagraphy.
D. Rentgenoscopy.
E. Lateral sciagraphy
106. The Patient 38 years old. He is ill with cirrhotic tuberculosis of overhead particle of the right lung
during 10 years. The patient is prepared to the operation. It is needed to define mobile of lower edge of
lungs. What method of roentgenological research is used in this case?{
A. Tomography.
B. Bronchography.
C. Sciagraphy.
D. Rentgenoscopy.
E. NMR.
107. The patient is 39 years. At a prophylactic inspection in infraclavicular region of right lung (lateral part
of it) found out the area focal shade of small intensity. What segment of lung does the area belongs to?{
A. VIII.
B. VI.
C. IV.
D. VI.
E. VII.
108. The patient of 25 years acted into the T.B. prophylactic center complaining about a weakness, decline
of appetite, cough with sputum. A survey sciagram was made, on which in the part of the left lung an
annular shade is determined. Such character of shade is inherent for\:{
A. Hearth.
B. Infiltration.
C. Fibrosis.
D. Disintegration of pulmonary tissue.
E. Exudat accumulation.
109. The patient of 38 years grumbles about the shortness of breath, weight in a right side increasing of
body's temperature up to 39°C. On a survey sciagram found out the homogeneous intensive dark patch
from the level of the IV rib to the diaphragm with an oblique high bound. Such roentgenological changes
are inherent for\: {
A. Pneumonia.
B. Cancer.
C. Eosinophylic infiltration.
D. Exudatic pleurisy.
E. Dry pleurisy.
110. The patient of 51 years old, during 9 months was treated because of the infiltrative tuberculosis of the
upper part of the right lung, decay phase, MBT (+). At X-ray examination\: the upper part of the right
lung became smaller in volume, under the clavicle there’s a decay cavity 3 cm in diameter, the trachea is
moved to the right, MBT (-). Define the form of tuberculosis.{
A. Cyrrhotic
B. Caseuos pneumonia
C. Fibrous-cavernous
D. Infiltrative
E. Nidus
111. A 15 years old child lives with her parents and grandfather. Grandfather suffers from tuberculosis of the
lungs (active form). The teenager is in constant contact with grandfather. The teenager should be
revaccinated. What dose of BCG SSI should be given to patient in this case?{
A. 0,5 ml.
B. 0,1 ml
C. 0,25 ml
D. 0,025 ml
E. 0,05 ml.
112. A 24 year old patient is diagnosed with tuberculosive meningitis. In the lungs lymphatic knots are
observed. MBT is absent in cerebrospinal fluid. Which treatment should be prescribed to patient in acute
phase?{
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Streptomycin
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
C. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol + Streptomycin
D. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol + Ofloxacin
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Ethambutol + Streptomycin
113. A 26 year old patient suffers from diabetes of moderate degree. He became acutely ill. Temperature
increased up to 40'С, complains of cough with small amount of mucous sputum, weakness, diaphoresis.
On x-ray\\: observed darkening of the upper part of the right lung with small area of brighter spots and
presence of low intensity shadows at the bottom of both lungs. What treatment of should be prescribed in
acute phase?{
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin+ Pyrazinamide+ Ethambutol
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin+ Ethambutol+ Pyrazinamide + Streptomycin
C. Isoniazid + Streptomycin+ Ofloxacin + Ethambutol
D. Isoniazid + Rifampicin+ Ethambutol+ Pyrazinamide + Ofloxacin
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Ethambutol
114. A 27 years old patient has been diagnosed for the first time with caseous pneumonia of the right lung.
MBT positive numerous times in sputum, sensitivity to all antituberculosis drugs is preserved. What
treatment should be prescribed to patient in acute phase?{
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Streptomycin
C. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Ethambutol + Streptomycin
D. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol + Streptomycin
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol+ Ofloxacin
115. A 29 year old patient has been admitted with complaints of weakness, increased temperature up to 38 С,
productive cough, decreased body weight. On x-ray\\: in the upper part of the right lung infiltrative
changes are noted with destructive changes. MBT present in sputum. What treatment should be
prescribed in acute phase?{
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin
C. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
D. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Ethambutol + Ethionamide
116. A 3 months old child received BCG SSI vaccine. On the third day on the injection spot appeared
infiltration of 8mm in diameter, after a pustule appeared which bursted and formed a 5mm ulcer. What
should be the action of pediatrician?{
A. Apply Isoniazid powder to the wound.
B. Apply Streptomycin to the wound.
C. Patient should be under observation of pediatrician.
D. Laboratory analysis.
E. X-ray.
117. A 4 months old child has been vaccinated with BCG vaccine at birth. In left axilla increased lymphatic
node by 2cm,elastic, painless, no changes in skin. General state of the child is good, temperature 36.5oC.
General blood analysis is within norm. The child has{
A. Unspecific lymphadenitis;
B. Tuberculosis of the peripheral lymphatic node;
C. Generalized infective tuberculosis;
D. Normal reaction to vaccination;
E. Post-vaccination lymphadenitis (complication).
118. A 4 months old child has been vaccinated with BCG vaccine at birth. In left axilla increased lymphatic
node by 2cm,elastic, painless, no changes in skin. General state of the child is good, temperature 36.5oC.
General blood analysis is within norm. What treatment should be prescribed to patient?{
A. Prescribe wide spectrum antibiotics;
B. Treatment with Isoniazid for 3 months;
C. Treatment with Isoniazid and Rifampicin for 3-6 months, compress with Rifampicin and Dimexide in
distilled water;
D. Desensibilizing therapy;
E. No treatment is necessary only observation.
119. A 4 year old child has been vaccinated with BCG SSI vaccine five days after birth. Mantoux test 2 TO
PPD has been negative for the past 3 years. Post vaccination scar is absent. What should be the action of
pediatrician?{
A. Continue with yearly Mantoux tests.
B. Repeat BCG SSI vaccination.
C. Yearly conduct chemoprophylaxis.
D. Repeat BCG SSI vaccination with a greater dose.
E. Conduct x-ray examination.
120. A 31 year old patient has been admitted to tuberculosis hospital with complaints of periodic increased
body temperature up to 37,0'С, weakness. After x-ray and laboratory analysis the patient was diagnosed
with tuberculosis(15.02.2005)of the upper right lung(acute infiltrative stage), Destr.-, MBT- М-КResist-,Histo 0, Cat3 Cog 4 (2005). What should be the treatment plan for the patient?{
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Kanamycin
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin
C. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide
D. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide + Ethionamidum
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Ofloxacini
121. A 38 years old patient has been suffering from fibro-cavernous lung tuberculosis for the past 6 years.
Treatment with ethiotropic drugs is ineffective. Surgical treatment is contraindicated. He complains of
high fever, weakness, productive cough, bloody sputum. MBT is present in sputum and resistant to
streptomycin. What treatment should be prescribed to patient?{
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Kanamycin
C. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethionamide
D. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol + Ofloxacin
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Ethambutol + Kanamycin
122. A 5 month old child hasn’t been vaccinated at birth due to birth trauma. Presently the child is healthy.
What should be done?{
A. Vaccinate the infant at 6 months.
B. Vaccinate the infant at 12 months.
C. After test Montoux
D. Vaccination is contraindicated
E. Vaccinate the child when the weight is 15kg.
123. A 43 years old patient during childhood has been exposed to a tuberculosis patient. During a routine xray in I segment of the right lung a 2cm moderate intensive darkening was noted with defined margins. In
pre pulmonary tissue single low intensity shadows were noted. Patient has no complaints. Objectively no
pathology. Blood analysis within norm, MBT absent. Given diagnosis\\: tuberculoma of the I segment of
right lung, MBT - . What treatment should be prescribed in acute phase?{
A. Dissolving drugs
B. Corticosteroids, immune-correctors
C. Chest ultrasound
D. Vitamin A
E. Tissue Electrophoresis
124. A 45 year old patient has been diagnosed with fibro-cavernous lung tuberculosis. MBT present is
sputum, which is resistant to Isoniazid and Streptomycin. What treatment should be prescribed in acute
phase?{
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin+ Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
B. Ftivazide+ Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ofloxacin
C. Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol + Kanamycin
D. Isoniazid + Rifampicin +Pyrazinamide +Streptomycin
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin +Ethambutol+ Ofloxacin
125. A 46 years old patient has been suffering from cirrhotic tuberculosis of the left lung. Periodically
bacterial discharge is observed. What treatment should be prescribed to patient in acute phase?{
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
C. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Ethambutol
D. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Streptomycin
E. Isoniazid + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol + Streptomycin
126. A 51 year old patient is an inpatient. Clinical diagnosis\: tuberculosis(12.01.2005)of the upper part of
right lung (caseous pneumonia) Destr.+, MBT+ М+К+ Resist(Н)-,Histo 0, Cat 1 Cog 1 (2005) In order to
obtain results of sensitivity to MBT patient has been under treatment with \\: Isoniazid + Rifampicin +
Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide. What drug should be prescribed instead of Isoniazid?{
A. Rifabutin.
B. Ftivazide
C. Ofloxacin.
D. Dassa
E. Kanamycin
127. A 55 year old patient has been diagnosed for the first time with fibro-cavernous tuberculosis of the
lower lobe of the left lung. On x-ray decrease in size of lower left lobe, Mediastinum shifted to the left.
In VI segment on the background of cirrhosis thickening of the wall of the cavity is noted in the lower
lobe of the left lung small intensive shades are noted. MBT is present in sputum; sensitivity to all
antituberculosis drugs is preserved. What treatment should be prescribed to patient in acute phase?{
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Streptomycin
C. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide
D. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ofloxacin
128. A 57 years old patient has been suffering from tuberculosis for the past 6 years. Two years ago he has
been diagnosed with chronic lung tuberculosis (2.09.1994) ( fibro-cavernous, infiltrative phase), Destr.+,
MBT+ М+К+ Resist(0)-,Histo 0, Cat 4 Cog 4 (2005). What treatment should be prescribed in acute
phase?{
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide
C. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
D. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Kanamycin + Ethambutol
129. A 8 year old child is on living with a father who suffers from lung tuberculosis, MBT (+). Mantoux test
for the child is negative. What drug should be ordered for primary chemoprophylaxis for the child?{
A. Ethambutol.
B. Pyrazinamide.
C. Rifampicin.
D. Ethionamide.
E. Isoniazide.
130. A 7 year old child lives with his mother who suffers from tuberculosis. Mantoux test negative. What
Chemoprophylactic therapy should be ordered for the child?{
A. Guarding.
B. Repetitive.
C. Secondary.
D. Primary.
E. Intensive.
131. A 7 year old child was vaccinated at birth with BCG SSI vaccine. When she was 4 months on the
injection site a cold abscess appeared. A 2 months local treatment lead to disappearance of the abscess.
At present the Mantoux 2 ТО PPD is negative.\n What should be done in this case?{
A. Revaccinate with BCG vaccine.
B. Revaccinate with BCG-M vaccine.
C. Conduct chemoprophylaxis.
D. Do not revaccinate, it is contraindicated.
E. Perform X-ray.
132. A 8 years old child is presently healthy. Mantoux 2 To test is negative. It is known that after receiving
BCG SSI vaccine at birth patient suffered from complication-lymphadenitis of the left axillary lymph
node. What should be done in this case?{
A. Revaccinate with BCG SSI vaccine.
B. Do not revaccinate.
C. Conduct chemoprophylaxis following with BCG SSI vaccine.
D. Do not revaccinate, once a year perform Mantoux 2 TO test.
E. Revaccinate wirh BCG SSI, followed by chemoprophylaxis.
133. Family consisting of a husband and wife, husband has been diagnosed for the first time with destructive
lung tuberculosis, MBT+. The wife has been examined and is healthy. What treatment should the wife
undergo?{
A. Chemoprophylactic Isoniazid 0,3 g daily.
B. Chemoprophylactic Rifampicin 0,6 g daily.
C. BCG SSI vaccination.
D. Chemoprophylactic Ethambutol 1,2 g.
E. Treatment with three different antimycobacterial preparations.
134. The health 1,5 month old child was not able to receive BCG SSI at birth due to fever. What should be
done ?{
A. Vaccinate with BCG SSI vaccine.
B. Conduct mantoux test with 2 ТО.
C. Conduct chemoprophylaxis.
D. Admit patient for surveillance.
E. Should be referred to a pediatrician.
135. A patient P. has been diagnosed with\\: Infiltrated tuberculosis(22.03.04)of upper part of the
lung(infiltrative), Destr+, MBT+ М +К + Resist-,Histo 0, Cat 1 Cog 1 (2004).\n What antimycobacterial
treatment should be prescribed in acute phase of the disease?{
A. Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Pasque Acre, Streptomycin
B. Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide, Streptomycin, Ofoxacin.
C. Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Streptomycin, Pyrazinamid.
D. Isoniazid, Rifampicin.
E. Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Streptomycin.
136. A patient P. is diagnosed with tuberculosis (І4.02.2005) of the upper right lung (fibro-cavernous,
infiltrative phase), Destr.+, MBT+ М+К+ Resist(Н+К+Е+Z)-,Histo 0, Cat 2 Cog 4 (2005), In the upper
part of the right lung a large cavern is present(6,0x7,0 cm). Patient has been offered surgical treatment.
What surgical treatment should e performed in this case?{
A. Cavernotomy.
B. Pulmonectomy
C. Segmentectomy
D. Lobectomy
E. Cavernoplastics
137. A patient C. with tuberculosis(4.11.2004) of lungs(Disseminative, infiltrative and destructive phase),
Destr.+, MBT+ М+К+ Resist(0)-,Histo 0, Cat 1 Cog 4 (2005). Patient is being treated according to I
category drugs\\: Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide. Patient abuses alcohol use.
What non-specific patient should be prescribed to patient?{
A. Ambroksol
B. Carsil
C. Lidaza
D. Trental
E. Almagel
138. After x-ray examination of a 43 year old patient it was noted that on second segment of the right lung
small low intensity focal shadows moderate in size with unclear margins. Patient denies of any
complaints. No pathologies objectively. Blood analysis is within norms. He was diagnosed with acute
tuberculosis of the second segment of the right lung. Sputum test is negative. What treatment should be
prescribed in acute phase?{
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide+ Ethambutol
C. Isoniazid + Streptomycin
D. Isoniazid + Rifampicin +Ethambutol+ Pyrazinamide + Streptomycin
E. Ethambutol + Pyrazinamide
139. Infant has been vaccinated with BCG at the hospital. After 4 weeks on the area of injection a blue
coloured 4mm infiltrate appeared. These changes are typical for ?\:{
A. Complication of BCG vaccine.
B. Normal local allergic reaction to vaccination.
C. Proper antiseptic measures were not followed during vaccination.
D. Severe reaction to the vaccine.
E. Subcutaneous injection of the vaccine .
140. Infant was vaccinated in the hospital. A 5mm post-activation scar has appeared. At the age of 1,
mantoux test resulted in 10mm induration during the first test and 6mm during the second test. How
would you evaluate these results ?{
A. Chronic tuberculosis intoxication
B. Tuberculosis infectivity
C. Turn of tuberculosis test
D. Early tuberculosis intoxication
E. Post vaccination allergy.
141. Infiltrative phase of primary tuberculosis complex of the middle lobe of the right lung was discovered
in a 10 year old child. MBT negative(pneumonic stage). What therapy should be prescribed to the child
in acute phase?{
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Kanamycin
C. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethionamide
D. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol + Ofloxacin
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Ethambutol + Kanamycin
142. For the past few weeks a 34 year old patient complains of weakness, increased temperature up to
38,1'С, cough with small amount of sputum. Upon x-ray examination it was determined that in VI
segment in left lung a 4x4 cm darkening, with low intensity shadow with unclear borders. Infiltrative
lung tuberculosis of the left lung was diagnosed. Bacterioscopically MBT positive. What therapy should
be prescribed in acute phase ?{
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
C. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol + Streptomycin
D. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Kanamycin
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethionamide
143. In (4.11.2005) a patient has been diagnosed with lung tuberculosis (disseminative, phase of infiltration
and destruction), Destr.+, MBT+ М+К+ Resist-,Histo 0, Cat 1 Cog 4 (2004) Patient is currently under
treatment of 1st category\\: Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide. Patient constantly
abuses alcohol. What drug should be prescribed to patient for non specific therapy?{
A. Ambroksol.
B. Thiotriazoline
C. Lidaza.
D. Trental
E. Almagel
144. In a 7 year old child, after 6 months after re-vaccination on the area of the BCG injection a 6 mm keloid
scar is noted. Patient feels well. What action should be taken ?{
A. Conduct local treatment.
B. Conduct chemoprophylaxis.
C. Perform Mantoux test.
D. Perform x-ray.
E. Observe the child at an outpatient base according to category 5.
145. On chest x-ray of a 26 year old patient it was noted that on II segment of the right lung low intensity
shadows with unclear margins. Patients has no complaints. Objectively no pathologies noted. Blood
analysis within physiological norm. MBT absent in sputum. Patient is diagnosed with tuberculosis. What
therapy should be prescribed in acute phase?{
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin+ Pyrazinamide
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin+ Kanamycin
C. Isoniazid + Rifampicin+ Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
D. Isoniazid + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
E. Rifampicin+ Kanamycin + Ethambutol+ Streptomycin
146. Patient has been diagnosed with\: milliary tuberculosis (5.09.2005), ), Destr-, MBT- М -К - Resist-,
Histo 0, Cat 1 Cog 3 (2005) n What scheme of treatment should be prescribed to patient in acute phase?{
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin - Streptomycin+ Ethionamide.
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide+ Ethambutol.
C. Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Ethambutol + Pyrazinamide.
D. Isoniazid + Streptomycin+ Ethambutol + Pyrazinamide.
E. Еthambutol + Rifampicin + Ethambutol + Ethionamide.
147. Patient has been diagnosed with\\: tuberculosis (8.01.2006) S2 (tuberculoma). Destr.+, MBT+ М+К+
Resist(0)-,Histo 0, Cat 1 Cog 1 (2006) After 2 months of treatment tuberculoma has increased in size to
5,5cm in diameter. Bacterial sections are constant. A patient is getting ready for surgery. What surgical
intervention should be performed in this case?{
A. Pulmonectomy
B. Lobectomy
C. Bilobectomy
D. Segmentectomy
E. Resection of tuberculoma
148. Patient is undergoing a treatment for the diagnosis of\\: tuberculus meningitis. Diagnosis is confirmed
with presence of MBT in cerebrospinal fluid. The following treatment has been prescribed to patient\\:
Isoniazid +Ethambutal, Rifampicin - per os, Streptomycin - Intramuscularly, Pyrazinamide- per os. What
drug should be introduced intraspinally during cerebrospinal puncture?{
A. Rifampicin
B. Ethambutal
C. Streptomycin
D. Amikacin
E. Streptomycin with calcium chloride complex
149. What is the optimal scheme of treatment for antimycobacterial therapy in the beginning phase in patient
with tuberculosis (05.09.2004)of the upper right lung (tuberculoma. Destr.-, MBT- М-К- Resist(0),Histo
0, Cat 2 Cog 4 (2005){
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Ofloxacin
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
C. Isoniazid + Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide
D. Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Ethambutol
E. Pyrazinamide + Kanamycin + Ethambutol
150. What is the optimal time of treatment for antimycobacterial therapy for patient with
tuberculosis(13.08.2003) of the upper part of left lung(acute, infiltrative phase), Destr.-, MBT- М-КResist(0)-,Histo 0, Cat 3 Cog 3 (2003) {
A. 2 months.
B. 4 months
C. 6 months
D. 8 months
E. 10 months
151. A female patient of 45 is disturbed with cough, temperature rise up to 37,5°Got ill six weeks ago after
”the flu”. In a 2 weeks treatment course for focal pneumonia, focal shadows in the upper segment of the
right lung remained without any changes. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Aspergilosis
B. Lung cancer
C. Eosiniphil infiltration
D. Lingering pneumonia
E. Nidus tuberculosis
152. Nidal shades of medium intensity with vague contours were revealed on the left apex of a 20-years old
youth during fluorographic examination. His general state is gooMantoux test with 2 TU – 19 mm
infiltratYour preliminary diagnosis?
A. Primary tuberculous complex.
B. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Disseminated tuberculosis.
D. Lung tuberculoma.
E. Focal tuberculosis.
153. A group of shadows of small and medium intensity of 3-8 mm in diameter has been revealed in the
upper part of the right lung in a patient of 25 years old on a fluorogoram. The patient’s state is
satisfactory. Mantoux test with 2 TU – 16 mm infiltratWhat disease is the most probable one?
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Eosinophil infiltration
C. Nidus pneumonia
D. Peripheral lung cancer
E. Nidus lung tuberculosis
154. Small and average nidi of little intensity have been revealed on the apex of the right lung during
fluorographic examination of a man aged During the last month he notes the decrease of the appetite,
perspiration, inconsiderable cough. Prescribe of antimicobacterial therapy on the 1-st stage.
A. Isoniazidum + pyrazinamidum
B. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + streptomycini + pyrazinamidum + ethambutolum.
C. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum.
D. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + ethambutolum.
E. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + pyrazinamidum
155. Patient V. suffers from tuberculosis for 17 years. Recent dyspnea aggravation, cough, new pain in the
right intercostal area, in heart area, drowsiness, edema in lower extremities. What is the most probable
complication?
A. Spontaneous pneumotorax
B. Lung atelectasis
C. Amiloidosis of internal organs
D. Tuberculosis of bronchi
E. Chronic lung heart
156. The patient M., 19 years old, got sick gradually: general weakness, the body temperature up to 37? C.
She had been in contact with a patient suffering from tuberculosis. The tuberculous meningitis was
suspected. Say, which one from the present symptoms is not typical for the tuberculous meningitis?
A. Dyplopia
B. Headache
C. Gradual development of the disease
D. Vomiting
E. Normal body temperature
157. A patient, 45years old, is diagnosed with tuberculous meningitis for the first time. The general condition
is grave, the meningeal symptoms are sharply pronounced, the consciousness is shadowed. What is the
total duration of the treatment of this patient?
A. 1 month
B. 3 months
C. 5 months
D. 7 months
E. 12 months
158. The teacher O., 28 years old, was treated during 10 months because FDTB (05.05.2003) of the upper
part of the right lung (infiltration ), Destr+, MBT+M-C+, Resist-, HIST0, Cat1 Coh2(2003). The state
became much better (the absence of MBT, the closing of the cavity of decay). What is the tactics for the
employment?
A. To be let to the previous work
B. To continue the list of uncapacity to work up to 12 months and then to be let to work
C. To direct to the MSEC to indicate the II invalid group
D. To propose another job
E. To direct to the MSEC to indicate the III invalid group
159. A man of 48. The photoroengenologic examination showed multiple focuses of various dimensions of
low and medium intensity with illegible contours in the upper segments of both lungs. The patient does
not feel himself worse. Blood analysis: 8,2 x 109/l, ESR – 20 mm/hour. Which form of lungs
tuberculosis does the patient have?
A. Miliary
B. Disseminated
C. Nidus
D. Infiltrate
E. Disseminated (chronic)
160. Patient at the age of 35 years has complains concerning cough with sputum, weakness, shortness of
breath during minor activity. Three month ago was returned from correctional institutions. During
medical examination right part of the thorax is narroweLags during breath. Mycobacteriums tuberculosis
revealed bacterioscopy. Which clinic form of pulmonary tuberculosis was revealed in the patient?
A. Tuberculoma.
B. Focal tuberculosis.
C. Tuberculous pleurisy.
D. Disseminated pulmonary tuberculosis.
E. Fibrous cavernous tuberculosis
161. Patient (woman) at the age 36 year first diagnosed fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis,
mycobacterium tuberculosis+, resist to ethambutol and streptomycin. Which combination of
antimicobacterial agents is the most optimal?
A. Isoniazid+rifampicin A+ thioacetazone+florimytcin.
B. Isoniazid+kanamycin+PAS(A)(para-aminosalicylic acid)+ethionamide.
C. Kanamycin+ethionamide+rifampicin+phthivazide.
D. Isoniazid+cycloserine+protionamide+kanamycin.
E. Rifampicin+isoniazid+kanamycin+pyrazinamide.
162. Patient age 42 years. He is sick by fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis of the upper part of the
right lung during 8 years. Mycobacteriums tuberculosis+. He feels good during last 2 year. Radiographic
data: the upper part of the right lung available thick cavern with fibrosis and perifocal inflammation. The
upper part is narrow due fibrosis. Both lungs have focuses of semination. Shadow of mediastinum shifted
right.What radiographic data are typical for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis of the lungs?
A. Caverns presence, perifocal inflammation.
B. Perifocal inflammation, bronchogenic dissemination.
C. Organs on mediastinum are shifted in the side of lesion.
D. Intense dark patch, narrowed lung field.
E. Caverns presence, well-defined fibrosis, focuses of semination.
163. Patient age 33 years admitted to hospital with complains about weakness, decreasing of the appetite,
hyper hydrosis, subfebrile temperature, cough with sputum. Tuberculosis of the left lung (infiltrative
form) was revealed 3 year ago. The patient systematically broke treatment course, excessive used spirits,
irregular took antimicobacterial medications. As a result patient has resistance of mycobacteriums
tuberculosis to isoniazid and rifampicin and has formed fibrous cavernous tuberculosis of left lung.What
reasons of forming fibrous cavernous tuberculosis in the patient?
A. Disturbance of medical treatment.
B. Alcohol abuse.
C. I rregular take medicine.
D. Resistance of mycobacteriums tuberculosis to isoniazid and rifampicin.
E. All above.
164. Patient age 42 years. He is sick by fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis during 8 years. Had
irregular treatment. He has complains about intense pain in the left part of thorax, breathlessness.
Objective: state of the patient is averagAbove left lung percussion data shows tympanitis, auscultatory breath not auscultates. What complications of fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis arose in the
patient?
A. Bullous emphysema.
B. Tuberculous atelectasis.
C. Chronical cor pulmonale.
D. Escudative pleurisy.
E. Pneumothorax spontaneous.
165. Patient`s (woman) age 52 years. She is sick by fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis during 15
years. She had irregular treatment. She admitted to hospital with complains about strong pain in the left
part of the thorax during breathing, shortness of breath. Objective: state of the patient is averagLeft part
of the lung lags during breathing, during percussion – tympanitis. Auscultatory - breath very impaire
What medical investigation need to do with patient at first for more accurate diagnosis?
A. Medical investigation of respiratory function.
B. Computer tomography.
C. Bronchoscopy.
D. Tomography.
E. Radiography of organs of thorax.
166. Patient (woman) age 54 years. She is sick by fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis during 15 years.
She had irregular treatment. She admitted to hospital with complains about cough with bright-red blood
with bubbles (total amount of the flowed blood near 250 milliliters) , shortnes of breath, weakness,
giddiness, subfebrile temperature (low grade fever). During percussion above upper part of right lung is
tympanic shade of lung sounDuring auscultation - bronchial respiration with different crepitations.
Above other regions of lungs - diffused dry rales. Radiographic data: near S2 right lung defines cavity of
disintegration with diameter 5.0 x 4.0 centimeters, upper part is reduced, right root pulled up. What
complications of fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis arose in the patient?
A. Pneumothorax spontaneous.
B. Sputum with blood.
C. Pulmonary edema.
D. Chronical cor pulmonale.
E. Pulmonary hemorrhage.
167. Patient at the age of 49 years address to doctor with complains about weakness, decreasing of the
appetite, hyper hydrosis, subfebrile temperature, cough with spew. Tuberculosis of the left lung was
revealed 7 years ago. Patient had course of treatment in the hospital. Two year ago patient had relapse of
diseasRadiographic data:both lungs fibrous changeUpper part of left lung has cavity with diameter 6
centimeters with area of perifocal inflammation.Upper part of right lung has some cavities..Spew has
mycobacteriums tuberculosis+. What clinic form of tuberculosis resides such kind of radio data?
A. Caseous pneumonia.
B. Infiltrative form.
C. Tuberculoma.
D. Cirrhosis form
E. Fibrous-cavernous form.
168. Patient at the age of 56 years has fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis during 13 years. He
admitted to hospital with complains about shortness of breath in quiet state, edema of legs. Objective:
available diffusive cyanosis, increased liver on 4 centimeters, edema of legs. Above both lungs, in upper
areas (against a background of hard breath) auscultates crepitation with middle bubbles. P8 – 100 per
minute, arterial pressure 115/88 mm of mercury. Heart borders increased, present accent and separation
of II sound above pulmonary artery. What complication arose in the patient?
A. Pneumothorax spontaneous.
B. Pulmonary hemorrhage.
C. Spew with blood.
D. Pulmonary edema.
E. Chronical cor pulmonale.
169. Patient`s age is 40 years. Has tuberculosis during 7 years. Two years ago got diagnosed fibrous
cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis, mycobacterium tuberculosis+. Half year ago appeared progressive
shortness of breath during physical activity. Now shortness of breath appears during rising on the second
floor. Objective: respiration rate 24 per minute, pulse - 96 beats per minutHeart sounds speeded up,
rhythmical. Above pulmonary artery auscultates accent of second sound. Liver during palpation not
sickly, prominent from border of costal margin on 2 centimeters. What complication arose in the
patient?
A. Pneumothorax spontaneous.
B. Pulmonary hemorrhage.
C. Pulmonary edema.
D. Spew with blood.
E. Chronical cor pulmonale.
170. Patient age is 40 years. Has fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis during 8 years. Last time has
edema of legs. Urine examination shows: growing proteinuria, cylindruria, hyposthenuriWhat is the
most probable reasons for changing in urine examination?
A. Acute nephritis.
B. Renal tuberculosis.
C. Cystic disease.
D. Chronic renal insufficiency.
E. Amyloidosis.
171. The prophylactic photoroentgenographic examination of a 25-year-old patient showed in segments 1-2
of the left lung focal shadows of low intensity without distinct contours. Mantoux test with 2 TO – 7 mm
infiltratBlood analysis: leuk. – 9,9 x 109/l, ESR – 26 mm/hour. Which is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Infiltrative lung tuberculosis
B. Nidus pneumonia
C. Lung cancer
D. Eosiniphil infiltration
E. Nidus lung tuberculosis
172. Patient, Underwent 4-months treatment in a hospital because of infiltrate tuberculosis of the upper
segment of the left lung in the phase of destruction. He is achieved, but in the place of the infiltrate a
round 2 cm hole of medium intensity and with distinct exterior contours is formeWhat treatment method
is most advisable at this phase?
A. To recommend sanatoric treatment
B. To use surgical intervention
C. To carry out 1,5-2th months course of hormonotherapy
D. To use means of popular medicine
E. To continue the treatment with antimycobacterial preparations
173. A man of 43, smoker, complains of cough with little sputum secretion, subfebrility, weight loss. With
the suspect for the abcess-forming pneumonia was hospitalized into a diagnostic department.
Roentgenogram: in the upper segment of the right lung – 4x4 cm round shadow with distinct exterior
contour. Blood analysis: leuk. – 9,0 x 109/l, ESR – 19 mm/hour. Sputum analysis: leuk. – 8-12 in the
vision fiel Mantoux test with 2 TO – 22 mm infiltrat.What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Peripheral lung cancer
B. Abscess of lung
C. Non-malignant tumor
D. Aspergiloma
E. Lung tuberculoma
174. A man of 38 complains of pain in heart area, subfebrility, sweatness, weight loss. Pulse: 82
strokes/min., AP 110/75 mm m.Systolic murmur over the heart apex. Roentgenogram: focal shadows up
to 5mm in diameter on both lungs apexes. What disease is the most probable one?
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Eosinophil infiltration
C. Nidus lung tuberculosis
D. Peripheral lung cancer
E. Nidus pneumonia
175. Female patient Z., 3Got ill with diabetes mellitus six years ago. The roentgenologic examination
showed infiltrate shadow with enlightment in the center in the lower segment of the left lung. General
condition of the patient is satisfactory. Blood analysis: leuk. – 10,5 x 109/l, ESR – 25 mm/hour. Mantoux
test with 2 TO - positivWhat is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Lung cancer
B. Pneumonia
C. Abscess of a lung
D. Primary tuberculosis complex
E. Infiltrative tuberculosis
176. Patient K., Got ill acutely after a surgical operation for a stomach ulcer. Roentgenogram: massive
infiltration of pulmonary tissue with several hollows of destruction in the upper segment of the right
lung. Mantoux test with 2 TO – doubtful. Blood analysis: leuk. – 17,0 x 109/l, ESR – 52 mm/hour. MBT
are found in sputum. What is the most probable form of lungs tuberculosis?
A. Infiltrative
B. Nidus
C. Fibrous-cavernous
D. Cirrhotic
E. Caseous pneumonia
177. A cloud-like darkening of the upper part of the right lung with a lightening in the center, to the left
paracardially a group of small intensity nidi have been revealed during fluorographic examination of a
female patient, 30, suffering from a stomach ulcer. A preliminary diagnosis.
A. Lung tuberculoma.
B. Fibrous cavernous tuberculosis.
C. Caseous pneumonia.
D. Disseminated tuberculosis.
E. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
178. Haemoptysis appeared in a day after hyperinsolation of a girl of No pathologic changes were found in
the lungs of fluorography six months ago. Damp middle-blistered rales are heard beneath the right
clavicle, Mantoux test with 2 TU – 23 mm infiltratWhat changes in lungs can one think about?
A. Spontaneous pneumothorax.
B. Lung tuberculosis.
C. Multiple nidi.
D. Cirrhosis of a lung.
E. Decay cavities.
179. Plan a specific treatment to a patient with FDTB (03.03.2001) of the upper part of the right lung
(caseous pneumonia), Destr+, MBT+M+C+, Resist-, HIST0, Cat1 Coh1(2001). The patient is 45, weight
– 46 kg. His general condition is difficult. There is no accompanying pathology. Prescribe
antimycobacterial preparations.
A. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + streptomycini.
B. Isoniazidum + pyrazinamidum
C. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum.
D. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + ethambutolum.
E. Isoniazidum + rifampycinum + streptomycini + pyrazinamidum .
180. Female patient, During the last five years has noted general weakness, cough, subfebrility;
menstruations absence for three months. General roentgenogram: in the 2nd segment of the left lung – a
round hole above 3cm in diameter of medium intensity. Mantoux test with 2 TO – 23 mm infiltratWhat is
the most probable diagnosis?
A. Aspergiloma
B. Peripheral lung cancer
C. Filled with a cyst
D. Chondroma
E. Lung tuberculoma
181. A patient R., aged During the last four months – dry cough, general weakness, perspiration, subfebrile
temperaturThere is a round formation of over 2 cm in diametre, of medium intensity in the second
segment of the upper part of the right lung on a fluorogram. At the age of 20, the patient suffered from
the infiltrative lung tuberculosis. The general blood analysis is within the norm. Mantoux reaction with 2
ТU – 15 mm infiltratA preliminary diagnosis.
A. Primary tuberculous complex.
B. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Disseminated tuberculosis.
D. Focal tuberculosis.
E. Lung tuberculom
182. A female patient Z., A shadow with vague contours sized 4 cm, MBT(-) has been found in the right
lung (1st segment) at a roentgenologic examination. After 3 months of antimycobacterial therapy a round
focus, 2 cm in diametre, of homogeneous structure with clear contours forme A diagnosis after 3-months
treatment.
A. Primary tuberculous complex.
B. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Disseminated tuberculosis.
D. Focal tuberculosis.
E. Lung tuberculoma.
183. A round shadow with wave-like outer contours was found in the 3-rd segment of the left lung of a man
of 60 during a fluorographic examination. There were single calcinates in the roots. ESR – 62 mm/hr.
What illness can be suspected?
A. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
B. Disseminated tuberculosis.
C. Lung tuberculom
D. Focal tuberculosis.
E. Periferal cancer.
184. A female patient Z., 29, has been coughing for 2 years, with a small quantity of sputum, sometimes
subfebrilitet. She did not apply for a medical carA week ago a heterogeneous round darkening 2,5 x 3,0
cm with clear contours and a strip of excentric lightening was found in the sixth segment. A preliminary
diagnosis.
A. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis.
B. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Disseminated tuberculosis.
D. Focal tuberculosis.
E. Lung tuberculom
185. In a patient S., 17, suffering from diabetes, a round shadow of 2,5 cm in diameter, of medium
intensivity with vague outer contours and a path to the root was found in the second segment of the upper
part of the right lung during fluorography. Mantoux test with 2 ТU – 24 mm infiltrate.A preliminary
diagnosis.
A. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis.
B. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Disseminated tuberculosis.
D. Caseous pneumonia.
E. Lung tuberculom
186. A patient 35, complains of the weakness, insignificant cough with sputum. An inhomogeneous limited
darkening sized more than 5cm. in the 81, 2 of the right lung has been revealed at roentgenologic
examination. Lung infiltrative tuberculosis of the upper part of the right lung has been suspecteWhat
most reliable auscultative data characterize will be observed above the lesion lungs section of mentioned
localization?
A. Moist rales
B. Dry disseminated rales
C. Vesicular breathing
D. Amphoric respiration
E. Absence of breathing
187. Fluorographic examination has been conducted for a patient 25, on the occasion of the complains of the
raising of body temperature and cough, as a result of which darkening of small intensity of 4,0-5,0 cm in
diameter with the destruction present has been revealed in the upper part of the right lung. MBT has
been revealed in sputum. What rales will be the most characteristic for such changes in lungs?
A. Disseminated rales
B. Diffused single rales
C. Moist and dry rales along lung lesion
D. Moist rales in lower parts of lungs
E. Local rales
188. A patient 35, appeal to the doctor with complains of the weakness, cough with sputum, raising of body
temperature to 37,2?Lung infiltrative tuberculosis was revealed in antitubercular dispensary after finish
examination. It is known from anamnesis, that a patient was ill with arthritis, infectious hepatitis,
tyreotoxicosis. Diabetes two years ago and glomerulonephrytis. What somatic disease is the risk factor of
tuberculosis occurring?
A. Glomerulonephritis
B. Thyreotoxicosis
C. Infectious hepatitis
D. Gaimoritis
E. Diabetes
189. Patient 38, is on treatment into an antitubercular dispensary on the occasion of firstly diagnosed
infiltrative tuberculosis of the upper part of the left lung in decay phase (lobit).No changes have been
revealed at physical examination. How should patient breath right to improve informing of the
auscultative method?
A. To breathe frequently
B. To breathe deeply
C. To cough strongly
D. To breathe by opened mouth
E. To cough slightly and to do a deep breathe
190. A patient 40, is directed to antitubercular dispensary for finish examination and lung tuberculosis
diagnosis confirmation. A patient complains of the raising of body temperature to 37,5?C, weakness,
disposition to perspire, cough with sputum. What sputum characterized lung tuberculosis?
A. Purulent with a stinking odor
B. Frothy
C. Slime sputum of canary color
D. Rusty
E. Slime
191. Patient 30, has been delivered on treatment into an antitubercular dispensary on the occasion of firstly
diagnosed infiltrative tuberculosis of the upper part of the right lung. The intoxication syndrome is
expresseWhich of cited complaints do intoxication syndrome at tuberculosis refer to?
A. Haemophthisis, weakness, chest pain, cold, shortness of breathe
B. Cough, sputum excretion, hectic temperature, chest pain
C. Nausea, vomit, cough, pain in joints, indisposition
D. Cough, sputum excretion, broken-sleep, headache, hoarseness of voice
E. Subfebrile temperature, weakness, appetite and weight loss, disposition to perspire
192. Patient 32, has been delivered on treatment into an antitubercular dispensary on the occasion of relapse
of tuberculosis process. The presence of bronchi-lung-pleura syndrome has been determined in a patient
at examination. What are characterized symptoms for this syndrome?
A. The raising of body temperature, weakness, appetite loss, weight loss, disposition to perspire
B. Cough, weakness, broken-sleep, headache, hoarseness of voice
C. Cough, weakness, hoarseness of voice, dry rales, shortening of percussion note
D. Shortness of breathe, broken-sleep, moist rales, increasing voice tremor, indisposition
E. Cough, sputum presence, chest pain, haemophthisis, shortness of breathe
193. A patient 35, complains of the raising of body temperature to 37,5?C, appetite loss, indisposition,
weakness, cough with sputum excretion up to 50 ml per day of slime character. The state of patient has
worsened gradually, during a month. What disease in a patient can one suspect?
A. Pneumonia
B. Lung abscess
C. Bronchial asthma
D. Chronic bronchitis
E. Lung tuberculosis
194. A patient 55, is ill with tuberculosis during 3 month, complains of the cough with sputum excretion,
raising of body temperature, weakness, shortness of breathe at physical tension. Amphoric respiration is
heard above the right lung, in the area under clavicle at auscultation. What changes in lungs do such
auscultative phenomenon at tuberculosis condition?
A. Exudates
B. Lung atelectasis
C. A small cavern
D. Cirrhotic changes
E. A big cavern
195. A patient 33, complains of the cough with sputum, weakness, raising of body temperature to 37,52?C,
during 3 weeks, appetite loss, indisposition. No changes have been revealed at objective examination.
What should be found out in a patient in the life anamnesis?
A. Smoking
B. Following the routine of work and rest
C. Sport occupation
D. Present the emotional labiality
E. Present the contact with tuberculosis patient
196. Female patient Z., 29 years old, was brought by an urgent medical service car to a regional tuberculous
dispensary. She complains on cough, dyspnea, pain in the right half of the thorax. Objectively – wooden
sound at percussion, auscultatively – the absence of breathing above the right half of the thorax. What is
the most probable diagnosis?
A. Lung infarction
B. Lung atelectasis
C. Exudative pleurisy
D. Pleropneumonia
E. Spontaneous pneumothorax
197. A female patient K., 30, two years ago underwent treatment on the occasion of the FDTB (16.09.2002) of the first
segment of the right lung (nidal tuberculoisis), Destr-, MBT-M-C-, HIST0, Cat3 Coh3(2002). 10 days ago a rightside purulent otitis was diagnosed. At the present time she complains of a terrible headache, vomiting, general
weakness. She has difficulty in making a contact. Roentgenologically there are two nidal shadows of more than
medium intensity in the first segment of the right lung. The liquor analysis: turbid, cytosis – 650 cells in 1 ml,
neutrophiles – 85 %, lymphocytes – 15 %, sugar – 3,1 mmol/L, chlorides – 115 mmol/L. Your diagnosis.
A. Serous meningitis
B. Tuberculous meningitis
C. Meningo-coccal meningitis
D. “Meningism”
E. Secondary purulent meningitis
198. Patient, 62. Complaints of accessive cough, dyspnea, drop of appetite, weight loss for 10 kg. Contacted
with his brother who is ill with tuberculosis of lungs. 6 months ago had a surgical operation because of
cancer of the prostatic gland. Blood analysis: anemia, ESR – 65 mm/hour. Roentgenogram: multiple
focal shadows (5-6 mm) with distinct contours in medial and especially in lower lungs segments. Your
preliminary diagnosis.
A. Disseminated lung tuberculosis
B. Nidus lung tuberculosis
C. Tromboembolism of branches of lung arteria
D. Bilateral nidus pneumonia
E. Carcinomatosis
199. Patient, 35. Has been a drift miner for 10 years. Complains for dyspnea during physical load, cough
with little of sputum. Normal body temperature. Rales in the lungs are not heard. Blood analysis: leuk. –
7,8 x 109/l, ESR – 8 mm/hour. Mantoux test with 2 TO – 10mm infiltrate. Roentgenogram: small focal
shadows of high intensity with distinct contours on both sides, especially in the medial-lateral segments.
What is the preliminary diagnosis?
A. Small-nidal pneumonia
B. Miliary tuberculosis
C. Disseminated lung tuberculosis
D. Carcinomatosis
E. Pneumoconiosis
200. Patient L., 35. The illness started acutely – with body temperature rise up to 39°C, cough with sputum
secretion. Received antibiotics during a week time – no effect. Not numerous moist fine bubbling rales
between the scapulae. Roengenogram: focuses of various dimensions with illegible contours along the
whole extent of both lungs. Blood analysis: leuk. – 13,2 x 109/l, ESR – 45 mm/hour. Which is the most
probable diagnosis?
A. Bilateral nidal pneumonia
B. Infarction-pneumonia
C. Stagnation phenomena in lungs
D. Caseous pneumonia
E. Disseminated lung tuberculosis
201. The patient, 34 years old, 8 years ago was treated because of the infiltrative tuberculosis of lung. Her
state became much better. During the last 6 years the X-ray picture was stable. To what group of
dispensary observation does she belong?
A. 5.3
B. 5.2
C. 5.1
D. 5.5
E. 5.4
202. In a seven-years-old girl in 5 months after the revaccination, in the place of vaccine injection of BCG a
swelling with cyanotic touch of skin appeared, at palpation – fluctuation. What is the postvaccinal
complication?
A. Lymphodenit
B. Cyst
C. Keloid seam
D. Ulcer
E. Cold abscesse
203. At the 5 years old boy, who suffers from the tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes suddenly
appeared coughing, pain behind the stern, shortness of breath, mild cyanosis of lip mucose. Body
temperature is 38,4? C. Upon the upper part of the right lung there is the dulling of the percussion note,
in the same place there is the weakened breathing. The most probable complication of the tuberculosis of
intrathoracic lymphatic nodes.
A. Exudative pleurisy
B. Spontaneous pneumothorax
C. Tuberculosis of bronchi
D. Pleural empyema
E. Atelectasis
204. A girl of 7 years old, 2 months ago suffered from “influenza”, after which coughing, general weakness,
decreased appetite, sweating appeared, the body temperature rose up to 37,5? C. At the percussion and
auscultation pathological changes are not found. On the X-ray: the enlarged tracheobronchial and
bronchopulmonal lymphatic nodes on the left side. Blood: leuc. 9,0 x 109/l, ESR – 22 mm/hour.
Mantoux test with 2 TU – infiltrate of 17 mm. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Lymphogranulomatosis
C. Lymphosarcoma
D. Central cancer
E. Tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes
205. Prophylactic examination of a 17-year-old boy revealed bilateral enlargement of bronchopulmonary
lymph nodes. General condition – satisfactory, no complaints. No pathologic alterations were found at
physiacal examination. Mantoux test with 2 TO – negative. General blood analysis – without any
pathologic deviations. The most probable diagnosis.
A. Lymphogranulomatosis
B. Unspecific adenopathy
C. Sarcoidosis
D. Tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes
E. Lympholeucosis
206. A boy of 6 complains for cough, poor appetite, sweating, temperature rise up to 37,5°C. Roentgenogram
– on the left: enlarged bronchopulmonary lymph nodes with illegible exterior contours. Mantoux test
with 2 TO – 15 mm infiltrate. Blood analysis: leuk. – 9,0 x 109/l, ESR – 30 mm/hour. The most probable
diagnosis.
A. Unspecific pneumonia
B. Central cancer
C. Tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes
D. Lymphosarcoma
E. Sarcoidosis
207. Patient K., 53. Roentgenologic examination showed in the upper segment of the left lung a ringlike
shadow with a diameter of 5cm with thick walls and fibrous heaviness and focusness. Sputum contains
MBT. What clinical picture is the most probable one?
A. Lung cirrhotic tuberculosis
B. Infiltrative lung tuberculosis
C. Disseminated lung tuberculosis
D. Lung tuberculoma
E. Lung fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
208. A 10-year-old patient M. is diagnosed with tuberculin “turn”, Mantoux test with 2 TO – 16 mm
infiltrate. Complaints for general asthenia, increased sweating. Blood analysis: leuk. – 9,2x109/l, ESR –
26 mm/hour. Roentgenogram examination did not reveal pathologic alterations in the lungs. What
diagnosis is the most probable one?
A. Primary tuberculous complex
B. Tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes
C. Nidus lung tuberculosis
D. Infiltrative lung tuberculosis
E. Tuberculosis intoxication
209. Patient of 45 is on treatment in tuberculosis dispensary concerning FDT (13.12.2003) of upper part of
the right lung (infiltrative, phase of disintegration and semination ), Destr+ Mbt+ m+ k+ resist- ,
GIST O, Сat2 Сog4((2003). He does not use alcohol and narcotics and does not smokIn spite of adequate
chemotherapy (N,R,S,E) patient still has a progressive tuberculosis. On the control radiography the
increasing of cavity disintegration and appearance of semination fires have been determined on a left
lung. What kind of research should be done to a patient to determine possible reason of treatment’s
ineffectiveness?
A. General blood test.
B. Biochemical blood examination.
C. Koch’s test.
D. Functions’ research of the external breathing.
E. Immunological research.
210. Patient of 36 is on treatment in tuberculosis dispensary with a diagnosis: FDT (23.11.1997) of right
lung’s upper part (Fibrosis - cavernous, phase of infiltration and semination), Mbt+ ,m- ,K+ resist+
(R,E) resist O, GIST O, Cat4 Cog4(2004).What kind of research should be primarily done to a patient?
A. Histological
B. Luminescent microscopy.
C. Immunological research.
D. Biological research.
E. Determine sensitiveness of MBT to chemo medication of the II row.
211. A “range” of tuberculin reaction is established in a 19-years old patient, Mantaex test with 2 TU PPD-L
–a papule of 16mm in diameter. He complains of the general weakness, subfebrile temperature, promoted
perspiration. The blood analysis: L -9,2? 10 /l, ESR-26 mm/hr. No pathological changes in lungs is been
revealed at roentgenological examination. What diagnosis is most reliable?
A. Primary tuberculous complex
B. Tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes
C. Nidus lung tuberculosis
D. * Tuberculous intoxication
E. Infiltrative tuberculosis
212. A patient 25, has fallen ill acutely. He complains of the headache, dry cough, shortness of breath, the
body temperature rising up to 39,0?C. Objectively: his general state is difficult, cyanosis of lips, rales are
not heard. The blood analysis: L -12,6? 10 /l, ESR-16 mm/hr. Multiple small nidal shades of weak
intensity are observed throughout the whole lung length on the inspection roentgenogram. Mantaex test
with 2 TU PPD-L –a papule of 5mm in diameter. What clinical form of lung tuberculosis is found in a
patient?
A. Nidus
B. Infiltrative
C. Disseminated
D. * Miliary tuberculosis
E. Caseous pneumonia
213. ?A patient aged 34. FDT (21.01.2004) of the upper particle of the right lung (infiltrative), Destr +,
MBT+ M- K+ Resist- HIST0, Cat1Cog1(2004), as to clinico-roentgenologicalal data was established.
What phase is answered by abbreviation of Destr +?
A. infiltration
B. * sowing
C. condensation
D. decay
E. suction
214. A patient is 40-ty.He is on treatment in antitubercular dispensary with a diagnosis: CT (15.02.2000) of
upper particles of both lungs(fibrous-cavernous, phase of infiltration and sowing), Destr+,MBT+ M+ K+
Resist- ResistІІ0 HIST0, Cat4 cog1(2000). Roentgenologically decay cavities (in upper particles of
lungs), multiple fresh nidi in both lungs, fibrous deformation of lung picture has been established in a
patient. What phase of tubercular process is answered by the presence of multiple fresh nidi?
A. Phase of decay
B. Phase of condensation
C. Phase of calcination
D. * Phase of sowing
E. Phase of infiltration
215. A patient, 34th. She was hospitalized into an antitubercular dispensary in connection with infiltrative
changes with destruction in the upper particle of the right lung presence, which have been found on
roentgenogram. Complains on weakness, subfebrile temperature of body, cough with sputum
expectoration. No pathological changes from the respiratory organs have been revealed at physical
examination. MBT+ have been in sputum analysis (bacteriologically). The diagnosis of lung tuberculosis
has been established in a patient. What diagnosis formulation correct is?
A. FDT (15.11.2004) (nidus), Destr+, MBT- M- K- HIST0, Cat3 cog4(2003).
B. FDT (15.11.2004) of lungs (disseminated, the phase of infiltration), Destr-, MBT- K- HIST0, Cat3
cog4(2004).
C. FDT (15.11.2004) of the middle particle of the right lung (infiltrative) Destr+, MBT- K+ HIST0,
Cat3 cog4(2004).
D. CT (3.12.1999) of the upper particle of the right lung (cirrhotic) Destr-, MBT- K- HIST0, Cat3
cog4(2003)
E. * FDT (15.11.2004) of the upper particle of the right lung (infiltrative) Destr+, MBT+ M- K+ Resist0
ResistІІ0 HIST0, Cat3 cog4(2004).
216. A patient, 40. She complains of a cough with sputum expectoration, weakness, raising of body
temperature. No changes from respiratory organs have been revealed at physical examination.
Roentgenologically decay cavity with perifocal inflammation of lung tissue and nidi of sowing in both
lungs has been found in S1,2 of the right lung. MBT are revealed in sputum. A diagnosis: FDT
(15.01.2004) of the upper particle of the right lung (infiltrative), Destr +, MBT+ M+ K+ Resist0
ResistІІ0 HIST0,Cat1cog1 (2004) has been established in a patient. What method of revealing
tuberculosis mycobacterium is the answer to the abbreviation of M+?
A. bacteriological
B. biological
C. culturally
D. bacterioscopy
E. * method of sowing
217. A rink-like shadow of 5 cm in diameter with thick walls in the upper part of the left lung, around which
there are fibrous traces and nidal shadows at roentgenological examination in a 53-years old patient.
MBT have been found in sputum. What form of lung tuberculosis is most reliable?
A. Cirrhotic
B. Infiltrative
C. Disseminated
D. Tuberculoma
E. * Fibrous-cavernous
218. Each tuberculosis patient can infect annually:
A. 1-5 persons
B. * 10-15 persons
C. 25-30 persons
D. 35-40 persons
E. 45-50 persons
219. In what term it should be expect results of culturally examination with a view to reveal MBT at using of
hard eggs mediums?
A. 2-5 days
B. 10-14 days
C. * 2-2.5 months
D. 4-6 hours
E. 20-30 days
220. Isoniazidum was synthesized in the laboratory of:
A. S.Waksman
B. * Fox
C. R.Koch
D. R.Roentgen
E. R.Philip
221. Multiple nidal shades of weak and medium intensity in the upper and middle parts of lungs have been
found at roentgenological examination in a 19-years old patient. MBT have been found in sputum. The
blood analysis: ESR-38 mm/hr. What diagnosis is most reliable?
A. Lung infiltrative tuberculosis
B. Nidus lung tuberculosis
C. * Disseminated lung tuberculosis
D. Caseous pneumonia
E. Fibrous-cavernous lung tuberculosis
222. On the exposure of what changes in biopsy material is based histological confirmation of tubercular
character of inflammation?
A. * Pirogov-Langerhans cells , caseous necrosis.
B. Cells of foreign bodies, fibroblasts.
C. A big amount of neutrophiles, colicvation necrosis.
D. Proliferation of lymphocytes.
E. Proliferation of poorly differentiated cells.
223. Patient 35-ty, complains of the shortness of breath at walking, weakness pain is in the area of heart. He
is ill tuberculosis during 15 years. An intensive shade in the upper part of the left lung due to which a
particle is diminished in a volume on inspection roentgenogram. The left root smart upwards, a shade of
mediastinum is dislocated to the left. MBT have been found by sowing method in sputum analysis. What
clinical form of tuberculosis for a patient is marked?
A. Fibrous-cavernous
B. Infiltrative
C. Caseous pneumonia
D. * Cirrhotic
E. Tuberculoma
224. Patient 38th years. He complains of the body temperature rising up to 37,2?C, weakness, promoted
perspiration, cough with sputum expectoration. Roentgenologically infiltrative shade with decay cavity in
S1,2,3 of the right lung and nidi of sowing in S6 of healthy lung. Tuberculosis mycobacterium was found
in sputum. The clinical diagnosis of tuberculosis was established in a patient. What diagnosis should be
answered classification fully?
A. FDT (12.01.2005) of the upper part of the right lung (infiltrative) Destr+, MBT+ M+ K+ HIST0,
Cat1cog1(2005).
B. * FDT (12.01.2005) of the upper part of the right lung (infiltrative) Destr+, MBT+ M+ K+ Resist0
ResistІІ0 HIST0, Cat1cog1(2005).
C. FDT (12.01.2005) (infiltrative), MBT+ M+ K+ HIST0, Cat1Cog1 (2005).
D. FDT (12.01.2005) of the upper part of the right lung (infiltrative) MBT+ M+ K+ Resist+ ResistІІ0
HIST0, Cat1cog1 (2005).
E. FDT (12.01.2005) of the upper part of the right lung (infiltrative) Destr+,Resist0 ResistІІ0 HIST0.
225. Patient 38th years. She is on treatment into an antitubercular dispensary. FDT (12.11.2004) of lungs
(disseminated, the phase of infiltration and decay) Destr+, MBT+ M+ K+ Resist- ResistІІ0, Cat1
cog4(2004) has been established in a patient at hospitalization.. Roentgenologically multiple nidi in all
pulmonary fields with decay cavities presence have been revealed in S1-2 of the left lung. MBT+ have
been in sputum analysis. After the performed course of treatment during 4th months nidi in both lungs
have resolved partly, bacteria excretion and sizes of caverns have decreased. How to estimate efficiency
of treatment?
A. Cessation of bacterial excretion
B. Recovery
C. * Prolongation treatment
D. Ineffective treatment
E. Completed treatment
226. Patient age 42 years. He is sick by fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis of the upper part of the
right lung during 8 years. Mycobacteriums tuberculosis+. He feels good during last 2 year. Radiographic
data: the upper part of the right lung available thick cavern with fibrosis and perifocal inflammation. The
upper part is narrow due fibrosis. Both lungs have focuses of semination. Shadow of mediastinum shifted
right. What radiographic data are typical for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis of the lungs?
A. * Caverns presence, well-defined fibrosis, focuses of semination.
B. Caverns presence, perifocal inflammation.
C. Perifocal inflammation, bronchogenic dissemination.
D. Organs on mediastinum are shifted in the side of lesion.
E. Intense dark patch, narrowed lung field.
227. Patient aged 20. He complains of a weakness, subfebrile temperature, insignificant cough with sputum
expectoration. FDT (16.12.2004) of lungs (disseminated, the phase of infiltration), Destr +, MBT+ MK+ Resist- ResistІІ0 HIST0, Cog4 (2004), as to clinico-roentgenologicalal and laboratory data was
established. What category does it follow to deliver a patient to?
A. Cat 5
B. Cat 4
C. * Cat 1
D. Cat 2
E. Cat 3
228. Patient of 30-ty years. He was hospitalized into an antitubercular dispensary in connection with changes
which have been found in fluorography: a shade about 1 cm in diameter of small intensity with vague
contours has been revealed in S1 of the right lung. On tomogrami destruction is determined in the center
of shade. MBT+ have been in sputum analysis (bacteriologically). A diagnosis of nidus lung tuberculosis
has been established in a patient. What phases of nidus lung tuberculosis are representing changes which
have been revealed on roentgenogram?
A. Infiltration and sowing
B. * Infiltration and decay
C. Suction and scarring
D. Decay and sowing
E. Condensation and suction
229. Patient of 30-ty, was on treatment in an antitubercular dispensary with a diagnosis: FDT (16.06.2003)
S1-2 of the left lung(infiltrative), Destr +, MBT+ M+ K+ Resist- ResistІІ0 HIST0, VNII
Cat1cog2(2003). During 6 months a course of antimycobacterial therapy was performed in hospital. Then
next 2 months he was treated ambulatory. At the present time excretion of bacteria has ceased in a
patient, a cavern has scarred. How to define efficiency of treatment of this patient?
A. completed treatment
B. * ineffective treatment
C. Interrupted treatment
D. Left
E. recovery
230. Patient of 35-ty years. At prophylactic examination nidal shade of small intensity with vague contours
has been found in lateral zone of the under clavicle area of the right lung. What segment of lung should
be noted in a clinical diagnosis?
A. SІІІ
B. SX
C. SІV
D. SVI
E. * S11
231. Single nidi of small intensity with vague contours have been revealed in apexes segments of both lungs
at prophylactic fluorographic examination in a 19-years old patient. What form of tuberculosis such
changes are characteristic for?
A. Infiltrative tuberculosis
B. Tuberculoma
C. * Nidus lung tuberculosis
D. Caseous pneumonia
E. Disseminated lung tuberculosis
232. The antituberculosis vaccine BCG was produced by:
A. R.Koch
B. S.Waksman
C. * A.Calmette and Guerin
D. F. Seibert
E. M.Linnykova
233. The total number of tuberculosis patients in the world is:
A. 3-5 mln
B. 10-15 mln
C. 20-30 mln
D. 40-45 mln
E. * 50-60 mln
234. The world first antituberculosis dispansery was founded by:
A. R.Koch
B. * R.Phylip
C. A.Calmette and Guerin
D. Abre
E. F.G.Yanovsky
235. Treatment of what state is most perspective and important from the epidemiological point of view?
A. At first diagnosed tuberculosis without destruction.
B. * At first diagnosed tuberculosis with destruction.
C. Relapse.
D. Chronic tuberculosis.
E. Primary tuberculosis.
236. What changes in the number of leucocytes at the uncomplicated tuberculosis are the most typical?
A. Expressed leucocytosis with a considerable bacillarnuclear shift, leukemia reaction
B. Changes are not characteristic
C. * Moderate leucocytosis with an unsignificant bacillarnuclear shift
D. Leucopenia
E. Both leucopenia and leucocytosis is possible
237. What changes of ESR at the uncomplicated tuberculosis are most characteristic?
A. Accelerated up more than 60 mm on hour
B. * Changes are absent
C. Reduction
D. Accelerated up to 30 mm on hour
E. Accelerated only in woman
238. What changes of the urine at a lung tuberculosis which courses with expressed phenomena of
intoxication are most characteristic?
A. Moderate proteinuria, moderate leucocyturia, total macrohaematuria
B. * Moderate leucocyturia, single erythrocytes
C. Significant proteinuria without changes in the number of leucocytes, initial macrohaematuria
D. Pyuria, cylindruria, microhaematuria
E. Total macrohaematuria with a pain syndrome
239. What color is used for the revealing MBT?
A. According to Gram
B. * According to Tsil-Nilsen
C. According to Romanovskij-Gimza
D. By fuxyne
E. By methylene-blue
240. What complication does specific belong to?
A. Haemophthisis
B. * Chronic lung heart
C. Atelectasis
D. Larynx tuberculosis
E. Amyloidosis
241. What data clinical diagnosis formulation begin from?
A. The process phase
B. Clinical form
C. Bacterial excretion
D. Localization of process
E. * Type of tuberculous process
242. What definition does atypical mycobacterium characterize most exactness?
A. There are unpathogenic mycobacteria for a human being
B. They cause tuberculosis with atypical course
C. * They cause an illness, similar to tuberculosis, for persons with lowered immunity
D. There are pathogenes of leprae
E. There are changed mycobacteria under act of chemotherapy
243. What definition of role of clinical blood examination in tuberculosis patients is most correct?
A. It allows to define an etiologic diagnosis
B. It has no importance
C. * It allows to evaluate expressiveness of inflammatory and intoxication changes in an organism
D. It form the basis of differential diagnostics
E. It form the basis of working capacity examination
244. What form of tuberculosis does primary belong to?
A. Nodus
B. Disseminated
C. * Tuberculosis of the unstated localization.
D. Caseous pneumonia
E. Infiltrative
245. What form of tuberculosis is referring to primary?
A. Disseminated
B. Nidus
C. Infiltrative
D. Tuberculoma
E. * Tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes
246. What formulation of clinical diagnosis of lung tuberculosis is not correct?
A. FDT (16.06.2003) of the upper parts of both lungs (disseminated, the phase of infiltration), Destr+,
MBT+ M+ K+ Resist0, HIST0, Cat1 cog2(2003).
B. * CT (12.02.2000) of the upper part of the right lung (fibrous-cavernous), Destr+, MBT+ K+ M+
Resist+(8,K), HIST0, haemophthisis, CLH, HI ІІA degree, Cat4 cog1(2000).
C. TR (20.11.2003) of the lower part of the right lung (tuberculoma), Destr+, MBT- M- K-, HIST0, RI
1st degree, Cat2cog4(2003). Diabetes, І type, severe form.
D. FDT (20.09.2003) (nidus, the phase of infiltration), MBT- M- K0, HIST0, Cat3 cog3(2003)
E. State after the lobectomy of the upper part of the right lung (20.06.2003) on the occasion of
tuberculoma of the upper part of the right lung in the decay phase, MBT(+).
247. What information must not contain the classification of any illness according to the IKD-10?
A. Clinical form of disease.
B. Localisation of affection.
C. * Prognosis.
D. Accompanimental diseases.
E. Complication.
248. What is the definition of primary tuberculosis?
A. At first diagnosed tuberculosis.
B. * Initial signs of tuberculosis.
C. Nondestructive tuberculosis.
D. Tuberculosis which arose up just after infection.
E. Tuberculosis with an affection of only one organ or system.
249. What is the definition of secondary tuberculosis?
A. Relapse of tuberculosis.
B. Destructive tuberculosis.
C. * Tuberculosis which arose up long after an infection.
D. Tuberculosis with the unfolded clinical picture.
E. Generalized tuberculosis.
250. What is the most probable distance at the infectioning by MBT by the aerogenic way?
A. * To 1,5 m
B. To 3,5 m
C. To 4,5 m
D. To 6 m
E. To 10 m
251. A “range” of tuberculin reaction was discovered in girl B. aged 9. Clinico-roentgenological and
laboratory examinations revealed no pathological changes. Your tactics regarding with the girl.
A. To repeat Mantoux test with 2 TU in a year
B. To hospitalize to an antituberculous hospital
C. * To perform chemoprophylaxis with isoniazidum and vitamin B6 within 3 months
D. The observation in an antituberculous dispensary for 1-2 years
E. To consider the girl healthy and not to take any prophylactic measures
252. A 10-year-old patient M. is diagnosed with tuberculin “turn”, Mantoux test with 2 TO – 16 mm
infiltrate. Complaints for general asthenia, increased sweating. Blood analysis: leuk. – 9,2x109/l, ESR –
26 mm/hour. Roentgenogram examination did not reveal pathologic alterations in the lungs. What
diagnosis is the most probable one?
A. Primary tuberculous complex
B. Tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes
C. Nidus lung tuberculosis
D. * Tuberculosis intoxication
E. Infiltrative lung tuberculosis
253. A 2-years old child reaction to Mantoux test with 2 TU – 7 mm infiltration, at the age of 4 – 3 mm.
Postvaccinal seam of 4 mm. Define the character of tuberculin reaction.
A. Infectious allergy
B. A “range” of tuberculin testing
C. The child is ill with tuberculosis
D. * Postvaccinal allergy
E. Doubtful Mantoux reaction
254. A 25-year-old patient fell ill acutely. Complaints for headache, dry cough, dyspnea, temperature rise up
to 39,0? C. Objectively: general condition is grave, lips cyanosis, rales are not heard. Blood analysis:
leuk. – 12x109/l, ESR – 16 mm/hour. Plain roengenogram: the whole length of both lungs is full with
multiple, small focal shadows of low intensity. Mantoux test – 5mm infiltrate. What clinical form of
lungs tuberculosis does this patient have?
A. Nidus
B. Infiltrative
C. Disseminated
D. * Miliary tuberculosis
E. Caseous pneumonia
255. A 6 years old boy K., had a “range” of tuberculin reaction. What examinations should be done?
A. * General clinical examination, inspection roentgenogram of the thoracic cage organs, general blood
and urine test
B. Koch’s testing, general blood and urine test
C. Fluorography, general blood and urine test
D. Tomography, smear examination from pharynx for MBT
E. Fibrobronchoscopy, examination of contents from bronchi for MBT
256. A patient 33, complains of the cough with sputum, weakness, raising of body temperature to 37,52?C,
during 3 weeks, appetite loss, indisposition. No changes have been revealed at objective examination.
What should be found out in a patient in the life anamnesis?
A. Smoking
B. Following the routine of work and rest
C. * Present the contact with tuberculosis patient
D. Sport occupation
E. Present the emotional labiality
257. A patient 35, appeal to the doctor with complains of the weakness, cough with sputum, raising of body
temperature to 37,2?C. Lung infiltrative tuberculosis was revealed in antitubercular dispensary after
finish examination. It is known from anamnesis, that a patient was ill with arthritis, infectious hepatitis,
tyreotoxicosis. Diabetes two years ago and glomerulonephrytis. What somatic disease is the risk factor of
tuberculosis occurring?
A. Glomerulonephritis
B. * Diabetes
C. Thyreotoxicosis
D. Infectious hepatitis
E. Gaimoritis
258. A patient 35, complains of the raising of body temperature to 37,5?C, appetite loss, indisposition,
weakness, cough with sputum excretion up to 50 ml per day of slime character. The state of patient has
worsened gradually, during a month. What disease in a patient can one suspect?
A. Pneumonia
B. * Lung tuberculosis
C. Lung abscess
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Chronic bronchitis
259. A patient 35, complains of the weakness, insignificant cough with sputum. An inhomogeneous limited
darkening sized more than 5cm. in the 81, 2 of the right lung has been revealed at roentgenologic
examination. Lung infiltrative tuberculosis of the upper part of the right lung has been suspected. What
most reliable auscultative data characterize will be observed above the lesion lungs section of mentioned
localization?
A. Moist rales
B. Dry disseminated rales
C. Vesicular breathing
D. Amphoric respiration
E. * Absence of breathing
260. A patient 40, is directed to antitubercular dispensary for finish examination and lung tuberculosis
diagnosis confirmation. A patient complains of the raising of body temperature to 37,5?C, weakness,
disposition to perspire, cough with sputum. What sputum characterized lung tuberculosis?
A. Purulent with a stinking odor
B. * Slime
C. Frothy
D. Slime sputum of canary color
E. Rusty
261. A patient 45, complains of the weakness, periodical raising of body temperature to 37,7?C, cough with
sputum expectoration more than 3 weeks. There are tuberculosis patients in a family. In what thorax
areas can one reveal auscultative changes at objective examination of the patient most frequently?
A. In the space between scapular
B. In the lower third of lungs
C. In the area under scapular
D. * In the area under clavicle
E. In the axillary’s region
262. A patient 55, is ill with tuberculosis during 3 month, complains of the cough with sputum excretion,
raising of body temperature, weakness, shortness of breathe at physical tension. Amphoric respiration is
heard above the right lung, in the area under clavicle at auscultation. What changes in lungs do such
auscultative phenomenon at tuberculosis condition?
A. Exudates
B. * A big cavern
C. Lung atelectasis
D. A small cavern
E. Cirrhotic changes
263. A patient of 40 is on treatment in tuberculosis dispensary with a diagnosis: FDT (15.01.2004) of right
lung’s upper part (focal) Destr-, Mbt - m- k- ,gist o, Cat 3 Cog1(2004). Roentgenological: in S1,2 of right
lung darkening was determined 1 centimeter in the diameter of weak intensity. What blood test is typical
for patients with a tuberculosis?
A. RBC.- 4,6х1012, НЬ - 134 г/л, WBC - 28х109, E-17%, п- 3%, с -60%, Li-15%, Mo-5%, ESR - ЗО
mm/hr.
B. RBC.- 3,6х10, НЬ - 128 г/л, WBC - 15х109, п- 7%, с -53%, Li - 30%. Mo - 10%, ESR - 70 mm/hr.
C. RBC.- 4,6х1012, НЬ - 136 г/л, WBC - 2,5х109, п- 1%, с -60%, Li - 29%, Mo - 10%, ESR - 40
mm/hr.
D. * RBC.- 4,2х1012, НЬ - 130 г/л, WBC - 9,5х109, п- 5%, с -67%, Li - 20%, Mo - 5%, ESR - 20
mm/hr.
E. RBC.- 3,2х1012, НЬ - 120 г/л, WBC - 4,5х109, е- 20, п- 1% , с -49% , Li - 25%, Mo -5%, Blood
sedimentation test-2 mm/hr
264. A patient six-year-old boy with primary tubercular complex, above the lower department of thorax in
right side auscultate pleural friction rub. What do pathological changes we think about?
A. Spontaneous pneumothorax.
B. * Dry pleurisy.
C. Ecsudatical pleurisy.
D. Pleuropneumonia.
E. Pleural empyema.
265. Patient 30, has been delivered on treatment into an antitubercular dispensary on the occasion of firstly
diagnosed infiltrative tuberculosis of the upper part of the right lung. The intoxication syndrome is
expressed. Which of cited complaints do intoxication syndrome at tuberculosis refer to?
A. Haemophthisis, weakness, chest pain, cold, shortness of breathe
B. Cough, sputum excretion, hectic temperature, chest pain
C. Nausea, vomit, cough, pain in joints, indisposition
D. * Subfebrile temperature, weakness, appetite and weight loss, disposition to perspire
E. Cough, sputum excretion, broken-sleep, headache, hoarseness of voice
266. Patient 32, has been delivered on treatment into an antitubercular dispensary on the occasion of relapse
of tuberculosis process. The presence of bronchi-lung-pleura syndrome has been determined in a patient
at examination. What are characterized symptoms for this syndrome?
A. The raising of body temperature, weakness, appetite loss, weight loss, disposition to perspire
B. Cough, weakness, broken-sleep, headache, hoarseness of voice
C. * Cough, sputum presence, chest pain, haemophthisis, shortness of breathe
D. Cough, weakness, hoarseness of voice, dry rales, shortening of percussion note
E. Shortness of breathe, broken-sleep, moist rales, increasing voice tremor, indisposition
267. Patient 38, is on treatment into an antitubercular dispensary on the occasion of firstly diagnosed
infiltrative tuberculosis of the upper part of the left lung in decay phase (lobit).No changes have been
revealed at physical examination. How should patient breath right to improve informing of the
auscultative method?
A. To breathe frequently
B. To breathe deeply
C. To cough strongly
D. * To cough slightly and to do a deep breathe
E. To breathe by opened mouth
268. Patient K., 53. Roentgenologic examination showed in the upper segment of the left lung a ringlike
shadow with a diameter of 5cm with thick walls and fibrous heaviness and focusness. Sputum contains
MBT. What clinical picture is the most probable one?
A. Lung cirrhotic tuberculosis
B. Infiltrative lung tuberculosis
C. Disseminated lung tuberculosis
D. Lung tuberculoma
E. * Lung fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
269. Patient N., 26. Roentgenologic examination showed multiple focal shadows in upper and medial lungs
segments of low and medium intensity. Sputum contains MBT. Blood analysis: ESR – 38 mm/hour.
What diagnosis is the most probable one?
A. Infiltrative lung tuberculosis
B. Nidus lung tuberculosis
C. * Disseminated lung tuberculosis
D. Caseous pneumonia
E. Lung fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
270. Patient of 20 went to tuberculosis dispensary with complaints about a weakness, indisposition, cough
with sputum. On a survey rontgenography were discovered infiltrative changes on the upper part of right
lung with the presence of cavity of disintegration. Using bacterioscopic method MBT were found in
sputum.What amount of MBT should be found in 1 ml of sputum (at a revision 300 eyeshots)?
A. 500.
B. * 5000.
C. 1000.
D. 100.
E. 100000.
271. Patient of 25 is on treatment in tuberculosis dispensary with a diagnosis: FDT (2.02.2004) of right
lung’s upper part (infiltrative, phase of disintegration and semination), Destr- mbt+ m- k+ Resist+ (N,R)
resist O, GIST O, Cat4 Cog1(2004). The patient was appointed proper treatment: N, R, S, Z. In two
months during conducting roentgenological control positive dynamics was not seen. As a result of
determination of MBT sensitiveness to untuberculosis preparations was got in 2 months after patient’s
receipt .What is the principal reason of treatment’s ineffectiveness?
A. * Existence of MBT’s resistance to unmycobacterial medications.
B. Smoking.
C. Periodic using of alcohol.
D. Protracted reception of chemo medication.
E. In the absence of fifth preparation. '
272. Patient of 29 years on a roentgenological inspection found out in the right lung under a collar-bone dark
patch in a diameter to 1sm, small intensity with unclear contours. What type of pathological shade is
certain in the woman?
A. focal
B. Infiltrative .
C. focal-infiltrative .
D. * Annular.
E. Linear.
273. ?Patient of 35 at a reception to tuberculosis dispensary complains about a weakness, promoted
sweating, cough with sputum of mucus character. Roentgenological: in S1,2 of left lung darkening of
weak intensity with unclear contours was found. What kind of research should be done to confirm
diagnosis tuberculosis?
A. General blood test.
B. Biochemical blood test.
C. * Sputum’s test on MBT.
D. Immunological research of blood.
E. Sputum’s test on the second flora.
274. Patient of 36 is on treatment in tuberculosis dispensary with a diagnosis: FDT (23.11.1997) of right
lung’s upper part (Fibrosis - cavernous, phase of infiltration and semination), Mbt+ ,m- ,K+ resist+ (R,E)
resist O, GIST O, Cat4 Cog4(2004).What kind of research should be primarily done to a patient?
A. Histological
B. Luminescent microscopy.
C. * Determine sensitiveness of MBT to chemo medication of the II row.
D. Immunological research.
E. Biological research.
275. Patient of 36 went to the stationary section of tuberculosis dispensary with complaints about cough with
sputum, weakness, temperature - 38,0°C, severe headache, nausea and vomit that does not bring a
facilitation. A disease has begun gradually. Patient went to the therapeutist and then X-ray examination
was made. As a result of examination small (1-2 mm in diameter) multiply nonintencive shades with
unclear contours along lungs were determined. Patient was diagnosed: a FDT (3.12.2003) of lungs
(miliary in a phase of infiltration and disintegration), Destr+, Mbt+m-k+ rezist-rezistpo, GIST O
Kat1kog4(2003). What kind of research will reliably confirm possibility tubercular meningitis’
development?
A. Bacterial analysis of sputum.
B. Immunologic research.
C. Encephalography.
D. Bacterioscopy of spinal liquid.
E. * Biochemical analysis of composition of spinal liquid.
276. Patient of 42 grumbles about weakness, bad appetite and sleep, decline of body’s mass.
Roentgenlogical: in S1 infiltrative darkening was found out in a right lung. General analysis of blood:
Er.- 4,8х1012, Нb - 146 г/л, L - 8,5х109, E-3%, P-7%, s-66%, l-20%,m-4%, ESR - 22 mm/hr. What
research should be done to a patient with the purpose to exposure MBT?
A. * Taking of washing liquid of bronchial tubes.
B. Tomography.
C. To take a Manta’s sample from 2 PPD-L.
D. To explore sputum.
E. To make immunological research.
277. Patient of 43 complains about weakness, bad appetite, decline of body’s mass, subfebrile temperature
(37,1°-37,4°C), pain in left side. During roentgenological examination in S 1-2 of a left lung limited
microfocal disseminations has been determinated, to the bottom from the IV rib exudation. At
bacterioscopic research of liquid MBT were not found.What research is optimum for confirmation of
etiology of found changes for this patient?
A. Examination of sputum.
B. Making bronchoscopy.
C. Immunologic research.
D. * Biopsy of pleura.
E. Cytological research of exudation.
278. Patient of 43 undergo a course of anmycobacterial medication treatment concerning FDT (12.12.1998)
of left lung’s upper part (fibrocavernous, phase of infiltration and semination), Destr-+ Mbt+ M+ K+
rezist 0, GISTO, Cat4 Cog4(2004). What research above all should be done to a patient to set an
optimum combination of chemo medication?
A. Determine a type of MBT.
B. Determine presence of the second flora.
C. * Determine sensitiveness of MBT to anmycobacterial medication.
D. To define massiveness of bacterioexcretion
E. To define virulence of MBT.
279. Patient of 44 underwent a course of medical treatment during 1 week. Patient was diagnosed: the lungs’
FDT (15.01.2004) (desemination, phase to infiltration and disintegration), Destr+, MBT+M+K+rezisto
GISTO Cat1 Cog1(2004). MBT has been discovered by bacteriological method in 3 analyses. What is the
most reliable reason that the record of K O was made in a diagnosis?
A. Kulturalniy analysis was not conducted.
B. Negative result of sputum’s sowing was got.
C. * Insufficient period for MBT’s growth
D. Absence of MBT in sputum.
E. Incorrect results of bacterioscopy.
280. Patient of 45 is on treatment in tuberculosis dispensary concerning FDT (13.12.2003) of upper part of
the right lung (infiltrative, phase of disintegration and semination ), Destr+ Mbt+ m+ k+ resist- , GIST O,
Сat2 Сog4((2003). He does not use alcohol and narcotics and does not smoke. In spite of adequate
chemotherapy (N,R,S,E) patient still has a progressive tuberculosis. On the control radiography the
increasing of cavity disintegration and appearance of semination fires have been determined on a left
lung. What kind of research should be done to a patient to determine possible reason of treatment’s
ineffectiveness?
A. General blood test.
B. Biochemical blood examination.
C. Koch’s test.
D. * Immunological research.
E. Functions’ research of the external breathing.
281. Sick women 35 years old. She grumbles about a cough with sputum, pain in the right part of thorax,
weakness, increase body's temperature up to 37,8°C. On the survey sciagram of the right lung it is found
out an area of unhomogeneous structure without clear contours. It was established the diagnosis:
tuberculosis What disease does have alike roentgenological signs?
A. Bronchial asthma.
B. * Pneumonia.
C. Cyst.
D. Bronchitis.
E. lungs oedema.
282. Sick men 35 years old. He is directed to the T.B. prophylactic center with a diagnos of tuberculosis. It
was made more inspection and as a result were revealed destructive changes in the overhead particle of
right lung. What roentgenological method of research was used for more inspection?
A. Lateral sciagraphy.
B. Bronchography.
C. Radioxerography.
D. * Tomography.
E. Fluorography.
283. Sick woman 20 years old is directed to phthisiatrician, concerning changes, that were discovered on
fluorogram (prophylactic inspection). We can see changes not very good, because they are hidden behind
the collar-bone. What roentgenological research we need to use, to find out these changes?
A. entgenography.
B. Bronchography.
C. Rentgenoscopy.
D. Lateral sciagraphy.
E. * Sciagraphy with the maximal taking of collar-bone.
284. Sick woman 50-ty years acted in to the T.B. prophylactic center complaining on a cough, weakness,
decline of mass , cough with sputum. A differential diagnostic is conducted between infiltrative
tuberculosis of upper particle of left lung and a cancer of lungs .What roentgenological method of
research is optimum to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Radioxerography.
B. Bronchography.
C. * Computerized tomography.
D. Pleurography.
E. Rentgenoscopy.
285. The patient of 45 years . He is on treatment in T.B. prophylactic center concerning the relapse of
tuberculosis of the left lung (infiltrative tuberculosis). In patient's phlegm appear MBT but on a survey
sciagram destructive changes are not determined. What roentgenological method of research should we
use to find the source which excretes bacterias?
A. * Tomography.
B. Bronchography.
C. Spot-film sciagraphy.
D. Rentgenoscopy.
E. Lateral sciagraphy
286. The Patient 37 years old. He is ill with cirrhotic tuberculosis of overhead particle of the right lung
during 10 years. The patient is prepared to the operation. It is needed to define mobile of lower edge of
lungs. What method of roentgenological research is used in this case?
A. Tomography.
B. Bronchography.
C. Sciagraphy.
D. * Rentgenoscopy.
E. NMR.
287. The patient is 35 years. At a prophylactic inspection in infraclavicular region of right lung (lateral part
of it) found out the area focal shade of small intensity. What segment of lung does the area belongs to?
A. VIII.
B. VI.
C. IV.
D. VI.
E. * VII.
288. The patient of 24 years acted into the T.B. prophylactic center complaining about a weakness, decline
of appetite, cough with sputum. A survey sciagram was made, on which in the part of the left lung an
annular shade is determined. Such character of shade is inherent for:
A. Hearth.
B. Infiltration.
C. Fibrosis.
D. * Disintegration of pulmonary tissue.
E. Exudat accumulation.
289. The patient of 35 years grumbles about the shortness of breath, weight in a right side increasing of
body's temperature up to 39°C. On a survey sciagram found out the homogeneous intensive dark patch
from the level of the IV rib to the diaphragm with an oblique high bound. Such roentgenological changes
are inherent for:
A. Pneumonia.
B. Cancer.
C. Eosinophylic infiltration.
D. * Exudatic pleurisy.
E. Dry pleurisy.
290. The patient of 52 years old, during 9 months was treated because of the infiltrative tuberculosis of the
upper part of the right lung, decay phase, MBT (+). At X-ray examination: the upper part of the right
lung became smaller in volume, under the clavicle there’s a decay cavity 3 cm in diameter, the trachea is
moved to the right, MBT (-). Define the form of tuberculosis.
A. Cyrrhotic
B. Caseuos pneumonia
C. * Fibrous-cavernous
D. Infiltrative
E. Nidus
291. A female patient of 45 is disturbed with cough, temperature rise up to 37,5°C. Got ill six weeks ago
after ”the flu”. In a 2 weeks treatment course for focal pneumonia, focal shadows in the upper segment of
the right lung remained without any changes. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Aspergilosis
B. Lung cancer
C. Eosiniphil infiltration
D. * Nidus tuberculosis
E. Lingering pneumonia
292. A female patient Z., 29, has been coughing for 2 years, with a small quantity of sputum, sometimes
subfebrilitet. She did not apply for a medical care. A week ago a heterogeneous round darkening 2,5 x
3,0 cm with clear contours and a strip of excentric lightening was found in the sixth segment. A
preliminary diagnosis.
A. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis.
B. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Disseminated tuberculosis.
D. * Lung tuberculoma.
E. Focal tuberculosis.
293. A female patient Z., 35. A shadow with vague contours sized 4 cm, MBT(-) has been found in the right
lung (1st segment) at a roentgenologic examination. After 3 months of antimycobacterial therapy a round
focus, 2 cm in diametre, of homogeneous structure with clear contours formed. A diagnosis after 3months treatment.
A. Primary tuberculous complex.
B. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Disseminated tuberculosis.
D. * Lung tuberculoma.
E. Focal tuberculosis.
294. A man of 38 complains of pain in heart area, subfebrility, sweatness, weight loss. Pulse: 82
strokes/min., AP 110/75 mm m.c. Systolic murmur over the heart apex. Roentgenogram: focal shadows
up to 5mm in diameter on both lungs apexes. What disease is the most probable one?
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Eosinophil infiltration
C. * Nidus pneumonia
D. Nidus lung tuberculosis
E. Peripheral lung cancer
295. A man of 43, smoker, complains of cough with little sputum secretion, subfebrility, weight loss. With
the suspect for the abcess-forming pneumonia was hospitalized into a diagnostic department.
Roentgenogram: in the upper segment of the right lung – 4x4 cm shadowing with distinct exterior
contour and a sickle-shaped enlargement. Blood analysis: leuk. – 9,0 x 109/l, ESR – 19 mm/hour.
Sputum analysis: leuk. – 8-12 in the vision field. Mantoux test with 2 TO – 22 mm infiltrate. What is the
most probable diagnosis?
A. Peripheral lung cancer
B. Abscess of lung
C. * Lung tuberculoma
D. Non-malignant tumor
E. Aspergiloma
296. A patient R., aged 32. During the last four months – dry cough, general weakness, perspiration,
subfebrile temperature. There is a round formation of over 2 cm in diametre, of medium intensity in the
second segment of the upper part of the right lung on a fluorogram. At the age of 20, the patient suffered
from the infiltrative lung tuberculosis. The general blood analysis is within the norm. Mantoux reaction
with 2 ТU – 15 mm infiltrate. A preliminary diagnosis.
A. Primary tuberculous complex.
B. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Disseminated tuberculosis.
D. * Lung tuberculoma.
E. Focal tuberculosis.
297. Female patient Z., 29 years old, was brought by an urgent medical service car to a regional tuberculous
dispensary. She complains on cough, dyspnea, pain in the right half of the thorax. Objectively – wooden
sound at percussion, auscultatively – the absence of breathing above the right half of the thorax. What is
the most probable diagnosis?
A. Lung infarction
B. Lung atelectasis
C. Exudative pleurisy
D. * Spontaneous pneumothorax
E. Pleropneumonia
298. Female patient Z., 39. Got ill with diabetes mellitus six years ago. The roentgenologic examination
showed infiltrate shadow with enlightment in the center in the lower segment of the left lung. General
condition of the patient is satisfactory. Blood analysis: leuk. – 10,5 x 109/l, ESR – 25 mm/hour. Mantoux
test with 2 TO - positive. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Lung cancer
B. Pneumonia
C. * Infiltrative tuberculosis
D. Abscess of a lung
E. Primary tuberculosis complex
299. Female patient, 29. During the last five years has noted general weakness, cough, subfebrility;
menstruations absence for three months. General roentgenogram: in the 2nd segment of the left lung – a
round hole above 3cm in diameter of medium intensity. Mantoux test with 2 TO – 23 mm infiltrate. What
is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Aspergiloma
B. Peripheral lung cancer
C. * Lung tuberculoma
D. Filled with a cyst
E. Chondroma
300. In a patient S., 17, suffering from diabetes, a round shadow of 2,5 cm in diameter, of medium
intensivity with vague outer contours and a path to the root was found in the second segment of the upper
part of the right lung during fluorography. Mantoux test with 2 ТU – 24 mm infiltrate.A preliminary
diagnosis.
A. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis.
B. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Disseminated tuberculosis.
D. * Lung tuberculoma.
E. Caseous pneumonia.
301. Patient (woman) age 54 years. She is sick by fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis during 15 years.
She had irregular treatment. She admitted to hospital with complains about cough with bright-red blood
with bubbles (total amount of the flowed blood near 250 milliliters) , shortnes of breath, weakness,
giddiness, subfebrile temperature (low grade fever). During percussion above upper part of right lung is
tympanic shade of lung sound. During auscultation - bronchial respiration with different crepitations.
Above other regions of lungs - diffused dry rales. Radiographic data: near S2 right lung defines cavity of
disintegration with diameter 5.0 x 4.0 centimeters, upper part is reduced, right root pulled up. What
complications of fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis arose in the patient?
A. Pneumothorax spontaneous.
B. * Pulmonary hemorrhage.
C. Sputum with blood.
D. Pulmonary edema.
E. Chronical cor pulmonale.
302. Patient (woman) at the age 36 year first diagnosed fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis,
mycobacterium tuberculosis+, resist to ethambutol and streptomycin. Which combination of
antimicobacterial agents is the most optimal?
A. * Rifampicin+isoniazid+kanamycin+pyrazinamide.
B. Isoniazid+rifampicin A+ thioacetazone+florimytcin.
C. Isoniazid+kanamycin+PAS(A)(para-aminosalicylic acid)+ethionamide.
D. Kanamycin+ethionamide+rifampicin+phthivazide.
E. Isoniazid+cycloserine+protionamide+kanamycin.
303. Patient age 33 years admitted to hospital with complains about weakness, decreasing of the appetite,
hyperhidrosis, subfebrile temperature, cough with sputum. Tuberculosis of the left lung (infiltrative form)
was revealed 3 year ago. The patient systematically broke treatment course, excessive used spirits,
irregular took antimicobacterial medications. As a result patient has resistance of mycobacteriums
tuberculosis to isoniazid and rifampicin and has formed fibrous cavernous tuberculosis of left lung. What
reasons of forming fibrous cavernous tuberculosis in the patient?
A. Disturbance of medical treatment.
B. Alcohol abuse.
C. Irregular take medicine.
D. Resistance of mycobacteriums tuberculosis to isoniazid and rifampicin.
E. * All above.
304. Patient age 42 years. He is sick by fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis during 8 years. Had
irregular treatment. He has complains about intense pain in the left part of thorax, breathlessness.
Objective: state of the patient is average. Above left lung percussion data shows tympanitis, auscultatory
- breath not auscultates. What complications of fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis arose in the
patient?
A. Bullous emphysema.
B. Tuberculous atelectasis.
C. * Pneumothorax spontaneous.
D. Chronical cor pulmonale.
E. Escudative pleurisy.
305. Patient age 48 years. He is sick by fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis of the high part of left
lung during 6 years. Mycobacteriums tuberculosis+. Worsening state of health after supercooling. What
complains of patient are typical for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis of the lungs?
A. Cough with sputum with blood streaks, hyperhidrosis, worsening of the appetite, decreasing of the
body weight.
B. * Cough, increasing of the body temperature, hyperhidrosis, general weakness, decreasing of the
body weight.
C. Increasing of the body temperature, hyperhidrosis, general weakness, decreasing of the body weight.
D. Cough wit sputum, breathlessness, pain in thorax, increasing of the body temperature, hyperhidrosis,
general weakness, decreasing of the body weight.
E. Headache, hyperhidrosis, general weakness, decreasing of the bode weight.
306. Patient age is 40 years. Has fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis during 8 years. Last time has
edema of legs. Urine examination shows: growing proteinuria, cylindruria, hyposthenuria. What is the
most probable reasons for changing in urine examination?
A. Acute nephritis.
B. * Amyloidosis.
C. Renal tuberculosis.
D. Cystic disease.
E. Chronic renal insufficiency.
307. Patient at the age of 35 years has complains concerning cough with sputum, weakness, shortness of
breath during minor activity. Three month ago was returned from correctional institutions. During
medical examination right part of the thorax is narrowed. Lags during breath. Mycobacteriums
tuberculosis revealed bacterioscopy. Which clinic form of pulmonary tuberculosis was revealed in the
patient?
A. Tuberculoma.
B. Focal tuberculosis.
C. Tuberculous pleurisy.
D. Disseminated pulmonary tuberculosis.
E. * Fibrous cavernous tuberculosis
308. Patient at the age of 43 years admitted to hospital with complains about weakness, decreasing of the
appetite, hyperhidrosis, subfebrile temperature, cough with spew. Tuberculosis of the left lung was
revealed 8 years ago. Three year ago patient had relapse of disease. Radiographic data:both lungs fibrous
changed. Upper part of left lung has cavity with diameter 10 centimeters with area of perifocal
inflammation.Upper part of right lung has some cavities of disintegration.Sputum has mycobacteriums
tuberculosis+. What clinic form of pulmonary tuberculosis is present in the patient?
A. Caseous pneumonia.
B. Tuberculoma.
C. Infiltrative form.
D. * Fibrous-cavernous form.
E. Cirrhosis form.
309. Patient at the age of 49 years address to doctor with complains about weakness, decreasing of the
appetite, hyperhidrosis, subfebrile temperature, cough with spew. Tuberculosis of the left lung was
revealed 7 years ago. Patient had course of treatment in the hospital. Two year ago patient had relapse of
disease. Radiographic data:both lungs fibrous changed. Upper part of left lung has cavity with diameter 6
centimeters with area of perifocal inflammation.Upper part of right lung has some cavities..Spew has
mycobacteriums tuberculosis+. What clinic form of tuberculosis resides such kind of radio data?
A. Caseous pneumonia.
B. Infiltrative form.
C. * Fibrous-cavernous form.
D. Tuberculoma.
E. Cirrhosis form.
310. Patient at the age of 56 years has fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis during 13 years. He
admitted to hospital with complains about shortness of breath in quiet state, edema of legs. Objective:
available diffusive cyanosis, increased liver on 4 centimeters, edema of legs. Above both lungs, in upper
areas (against a background of hard breath) auscultates crepitation with middle bubbles. P8 – 100 per
minute, arterial pressure 115/88 mm of mercury. Heart borders increased, present accent and separation
of II sound above pulmonary artery. What complication arose in the patient?
A. Pneumothorax spontaneous.
B. Pulmonary hemorrhage.
C. Spew with blood.
D. Pulmonary edema.
E. * Chronical cor pulmonale.
311. Patient K., 36. Got ill acutely after a surgical operation for a stomach ulcer. Roentgenogram: massive
infiltration of pulmonary tissue with several hollows of destruction in the upper segment of the right
lung. Mantoux test with 2 TO – doubtful. Blood analysis: leuk. – 17,0 x 109/l, ESR – 52 mm/hour. MBT
are found in sputum. What is the most probable form of lungs tuberculosis?
A. Infiltrative
B. Nidus
C. Fibrous-cavernous
D. * Caseous pneumonia
E. Cirrhotic
312. Patient V. suffers from tuberculosis for 17 years. Recent dyspnea aggravation, cough, new pain in the
right intercostal area, in heart area, drowsiness, edema in lower extremities. What is the most probable
complication?
A. Spontaneous pneumotorax
B. Lung atelectasis
C. * Chronic lung heart
D. Amiloidosis of internal organs
E. Tuberculosis of bronchi
313. Patient`s (woman) age 52 years. She is sick by fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis during 15
years. She had irregular treatment. She admitted to hospital with complains about strong pain in the left
part of the thorax during breathing, shortness of breath. Objective: state of the patient is average. Left
part of the lung lags during breathing, during percussion – tympanitis. Auscultatory - breath very
impaired. What medical investigation need to do with patient at first for more accurate diagnosis?
A. * Radiography of organs of thorax.
B. Medical investigation of respiratory function.
C. Computer tomography.
D. Bronchoscopy.
E. Tomography.
314. Patient`s age is 40 years. Has tuberculosis during 7 years. Two years ago got diagnosed fibrous
cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis, mycobacterium tuberculosis+. Half year ago appeared progressive
shortness of breath during physical activity. Now shortness of breath appears during rising on the second
floor. Objective: respiration rate 24 per minute, pulse - 96 beats per minute. Heart sounds speeded up,
rhythmical. Above pulmonary artery auscultates accent of second sound. Liver during palpation not
sickly, prominent from border of costal margin on 2 centimeters. What complication arose in the patient?
A. Pneumothorax spontaneous.
B. Pulmonary hemorrhage.
C. * Chronical cor pulmonale.
D. Pulmonary edema.
E. Spew with blood.
315. Patient, 27. Underwent 4-months treatment in a hospital because of infiltrate tuberculosis of the upper
segment of the left lung in the phase of destruction. He is achieved, but in the place of the infiltrate a
round 2 cm hole of medium intensity and with distinct exterior contours is formed. What treatment
method is most advisable at this phase?
A. To recommend sanatoric treatment
B. * To continue the treatment with antimycobacterial preparations
C. To use surgical intervention
D. To carry out 1,5-2th months course of hormonotherapy
E. To use means of popular medicine
316. A 14 years old child lives with her parents and grandfather. Grandfather suffers from tuberculosis of the
lungs (active form). The teenager is in constant contact with grandfather. The teenager should be
revaccinated. What dose of BCG SSI should be given to patient in this case?
A. 0,5 ml.
B. * 0,1 ml
C. 0,25 ml
D. 0,025 ml
E. 0,05 ml.
317. A 23 year old patient is diagnosed with tuberculosive meningitis. In the lungs lymphatic knots are
observed. MBT is absent in cerebrospinal fluid. Which treatment should be prescribed to patient in acute
phase?
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Streptomycin
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
C. * Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol + Streptomycin
D. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol + Ofloxacin
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Ethambutol + Streptomycin
318. A 25 year old patient suffers from diabetes of moderate degree. He became acutely ill. Temperature
increased up to 40'С, complains of cough with small amount of mucous sputum, weakness, diaphoresis.
On x-ray\: observed darkening of the upper part of the right lung with small area of brighter spots and
presence of low intensity shadows at the bottom of both lungs. What treatment of should be prescribed in
acute phase?
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin+ Pyrazinamide+ Ethambutol
B. * Isoniazid + Rifampicin+ Ethambutol+ Pyrazinamide + Streptomycin
C. Isoniazid + Streptomycin+ Ofloxacin + Ethambutol
D. Isoniazid + Rifampicin+ Ethambutol+ Pyrazinamide + Ofloxacin
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Ethambutol
319. A 26 years old patient has been diagnosed for the first time with caseous pneumonia of the right lung.
MBT positive numerous times in sputum, sensitivity to all antituberculosis drugs is preserved. What
treatment should be prescribed to patient in acute phase?
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Streptomycin
C. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Ethambutol + Streptomycin
D. * Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol + Streptomycin
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol+ Ofloxacin
320. A 28 year old patient has been admitted with complaints of weakness, increased temperature up to 38 С,
productive cough, decreased body weight. On x-ray\: in the upper part of the right lung infiltrative
changes are noted with destructive changes. MBT present in sputum. What treatment should be
prescribed in acute phase?
A. * Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin
C. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
D. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Ethambutol + Ethionamide
321. A 2months old child received BCG SSI vaccine. On the third day on the injection spot appeared
infiltration of 8mm in diameter, after a pustule appeared which bursted and formed a 5mm ulcer. What
should be the action of pediatrician?
A. Apply Isoniazid powder to the wound.
B. Apply Streptomycin to the wound.
C. * Patient should be under observation of pediatrician.
D. Laboratory analysis.
E. X-ray.
322. A 3 months old child has been vaccinated with BCG vaccine at birth. In left axilla increased lymphatic
node by 2cm,elastic, painless, no changes in skin. General state of the child is good, temperature 36.5oC.
General blood analysis is within norm. The child has
A. Unspecific lymphadenitis;
B. Tuberculosis of the peripheral lymphatic node;
C. Generalized infective tuberculosis;
D. Normal reaction to vaccination;
E. * Post-vaccination lymphadenitis (complication).
323. A 3 months old child has been vaccinated with BCG vaccine at birth. In left axilla increased lymphatic
node by 2cm,elastic, painless, no changes in skin. General state of the child is good, temperature 36.5oC.
General blood analysis is within norm. What treatment should be prescribed to patient?
A. Prescribe wide spectrum antibiotics;
B. Treatment with Isoniazid for 3 months;
C. * Treatment with Isoniazid and Rifampicin for 3-6 months, compress with Rifampicin and Dimexide
in distilled water;
D. Desensibilizing therapy;
E. No treatment is necessary only observation.
324. A 3 year old child has been vaccinated with BCG SSI vaccine five days after birth. Mantoux test 2 TO
PPD has been negative for the past 3 years. Post vaccination scar is absent. What should be the action of
pediatrician?
A. * Continue with yearly Mantoux tests.
B. Repeat BCG SSI vaccination.
C. Yearly conduct chemoprophylaxis.
D. Repeat BCG SSI vaccination with a greater dose.
E. Conduct x-ray examination.
325. A 32 year old patient has been admitted to tuberculosis hospital with complaints of periodic increased
body temperature up to 37,0'С, weakness. After x-ray and laboratory analysis the patient was diagnosed
with tuberculosis(15.02.2005)of the upper right lung(acute infiltrative stage), Destr.-, MBT- М-КResist-,Histo 0, Cat3 Cog 4 (2005). What should be the treatment plan for the patient?
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Kanamycin
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin
C. * Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide
D. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Ethambutol
326. A 39 years old patient has been suffering from fibro-cavernous lung tuberculosis for the past 6 years.
Treatment with ethiotropic drugs is ineffective. Surgical treatment is contraindicated. He complains of
high fever, weakness, productive cough, bloody sputum. MBT is present in sputum and resistant to
streptomycin. What treatment should be prescribed to patient?
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Kanamycin
C. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethionamide
D. * Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol + Ofloxacin
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Ethambutol + Kanamycin
327. A 4 month old child hasn’t been vaccinated at birth due to birth trauma. Presently the child is healthy.
What should be done?
A. Vaccinate the infant at 6 months.
B. Vaccinate the infant at 12 months.
C. * Vaccinate the infant at 4 months.
D. Vaccination is contraindicated
E. Vaccinate the child when the weight is 15kg.
328. A 40 years old patient during childhood has been exposed to a tuberculosis patient. During a routine xray in I segment of the right lung a 2cm moderate intensive darkening was noted with defined margins. In
pre pulmonary tissue single low intensity shadows were noted. Patient has no complaints. Objectively no
pathology. Blood analysis within norm, MBT absent. Given diagnosis\: tuberculoma of the I segment of
right lung, MBT - . What treatment should be prescribed in acute phase?
A. Dissolving drugs
B. * Corticosteroids, immune-correctors
C. Chest ultrasound
D. Vitamin A
E. Tissue Electrophoresis
329. A 46 year old patient has been diagnosed with fibro-cavernous lung tuberculosis. MBT present is
sputum, which is resistant to Isoniazid and Streptomycin. What treatment should be prescribed in acute
phase?
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin+ Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
B. Ftivazide+ Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ofloxacin
C. * Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol + Kanamycin
D. Isoniazid + Rifampicin +Pyrazinamide +Streptomycin
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin +Ethambutol+ Ofloxacin
330. A 48 years old patient has been suffering from cirrhotic tuberculosis of the left lung. Periodically
bacterial discharge is observed. What treatment should be prescribed to patient in acute phase?
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin
B. * Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
C. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Ethambutol
D. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Streptomycin
E. Isoniazid + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol + Streptomycin
331. A 50 year old patient is an inpatient. Clinical diagnosis: tuberculosis(12.01.2005)of the upper part of
right lung (caseous pneumonia) Destr.+, MBT+ М+К+ Resist(Н)-,Histo 0, Cat 1 Cog 1 (2005) In order to
obtain results of sensitivity to MBT patient has been under treatment with \: Isoniazid + Rifampicin +
Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide. What drug should be prescribed instead of Isoniazid?
A. Rifabutin.
B. Ftivazide
C. * Ofloxacin.
D. Pasque Acre
E. Kanamycin
332. A 51 year old patient has been diagnosed for the first time with fibro-cavernous tuberculosis of the
lower lobe of the left lung. On x-ray decrease in size of lower left lobe, Mediastinum shifted to the left.
In VI segment on the background of cirrhosis thickening of the wall of the cavity is noted in the lower
lobe of the left lung small intensive shades are noted. MBT is present in sputum; sensitivity to all
antituberculosis drugs is preserved. What treatment should be prescribed to patient in acute phase?
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Streptomycin
C. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide
D. * Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ofloxacin
333. A 53 years old patient has been suffering from tuberculosis for the past 6 years. Two years ago he has
been diagnosed with chronic lung tuberculosis (2.09.1994) ( fibro-cavernous, infiltrative phase), Destr.+,
MBT+ М+К+ Resist(0)-,Histo 0, Cat 4 Cog 4 (2005). What treatment should be prescribed in acute
phase?
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide
C. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
D. * Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Kanamycin + Ethambutol
334. A 6 year old child is on living with a father who suffers from lung tuberculosis, MBT (+). Mantoux test
for the child is negative. What drug should be ordered for primary chemoprophylaxis for the child?
A. Ethambutol.
B. Pyrazinamide.
C. Rifampicin.
D. Ethionamide.
E. * Isoniazide.
335. A 6 year old child lives with his mother who suffers from tuberculosis. Mantoux test negative. What
Chemoprophylactic therapy should be ordered for the child?
A. Guarding.
B. Repetitive.
C. * Secondary.
D. Primary.
E. Intensive.
336. A 7 year old child was vaccinated at birth with BCG SSI vaccine. When she was 4 months on the
injection site a cold abscess appeared. A 2 months local treatment lead to disappearance of the abscess.
At present the Mantoux 2 ТО PPD is negative.\n What should be done in this case?
A. Revaccinate with BCG vaccine.
B. Revaccinate with BCG-M vaccine.
C. Conduct chemoprophylaxis.
D. * Do not revaccinate, it is contraindicated.
E. Perform X-ray.
337. A 7 years old child is presently healthy. Mantoux 2 To test is negative. It is known that after receiving
BCG SSI vaccine at birth patient suffered from complication-lymphadenitis of the left axillary lymph
node. What should be done in this case?
A. Revaccinate with BCG SSI vaccine.
B. Do not revaccinate.
C. Conduct chemoprophylaxis following with BCG SSI vaccine.
D. * Do not revaccinate, once a year perform Mantoux 2 TO test.
E. Revaccinate wirh BCG SSI, followed by chemoprophylaxis.
338. A family consisting of a husband and wife, husband has been diagnosed for the first time with
destructive lung tuberculosis, MBT+. The wife has been examined and is healthy. What treatment should
the wife undergo?
A. * Chemoprophylactic Isoniazid 0,3 g daily.
B. Chemoprophylactic Rifampicin 0,6 g daily.
C. BCG SSI vaccination.
D. Chemoprophylactic Ethambutol 1,2 g.
E. Treatment with three different antimycobacterial preparations.
339. A health 1,5 month old child was not able to receive BCG SSI at birth due to fever. What should be
done ?
A. * Vaccinate with BCG SSI vaccine.
B. Conduct mantoux test with 2 ТО.
C. Conduct chemoprophylaxis.
D. Admit patient for surveillance.
E. Should be referred to a pediatrician.
340. ?A patient has been diagnosed with\: Infiltrated tuberculosis(22.03.04)of upper part of the
lung(infiltrative), Destr+, MBT+ М +К + Resist-,Histo 0, Cat 1 Cog 1 (2004).\n What antimycobacterial
treatment should be prescribed in acute phase of the disease?
A. Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Pasque Acre, Streptomycin
B. Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide, Streptomycin, Ofoxacin.
C. * Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Streptomycin, Pyrazinamid.
D. Isoniazid, Rifampicin.
E. Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Streptomycin.
341. A patient is diagnosed with \: tuberculosis (І4.02.2005) of the upper right lung (fibro-cavernous,
infiltrative phase), Destr.+, MBT+ М+К+ Resist(Н+К+Е+Z)-,Histo 0, Cat 2 Cog 4 (2005), In the upper
part of the right lung a large cavern is present(6,0x7,0 cm). Patient has been offered surgical treatment.
What surgical treatment should e performed in this case?
A. Cavernotomy.
B. * Pulmonectomy
C. Segmentectomy
D. Lobectomy
E. Cavernoplastics
342. A patient with tuberculosis(4.11.2004) of lungs(Disseminative, infiltrative and destructive phase),
Destr.+, MBT+ М+К+ Resist(0)-,Histo 0, Cat 1 Cog 4 (2005). Patient is being treated according to I
category drugs\: Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide. Patient abuses alcohol use.
What non-specific patient should be prescribed to patient?
A. Ambroksol
B. * Carsil
C. Lidaza
D. Trental
E. Almagel
343. After x-ray examination of a 42 year old patient it was noted that on second segment of the right lung
small low intensity focal shadows moderate in size with unclear margins. Patient denies of any
complaints. No pathologies objectively. Blood analysis is within norms. He was diagnosed with acute
tuberculosis of the second segment of the right lung. What treatment should be prescribed in acute phase?
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin
B. * Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide+ Ethambutol
C. Isoniazid + Streptomycin
D. Isoniazid + Rifampicin +Ethambutol+ Pyrazinamide + Streptomycin
E. Ethambutol + Pyrazinamide
344. An infant has been vaccinated with BCG at the hospital. After 4 weeks on the area of injection a blue
coloured 4mm infiltrate appeared. These changes are typical for ?:
A. Complication of BCG vaccine.
B. * Normal local allergic reaction to vaccination.
C. Proper antiseptic measures were not followed during vaccination.
D. Severe reaction to the vaccine.
E. Subcutaneous injection of the vaccine .
345. An infant was vaccinated in the hospital. A 5mm post-activation scar has appeared. At the age of 1,
mantoux test resulted in 10mm induration during the first test and 6mm during the second test. How
would you evaluate these results ?
A. Chronic tuberculosis intoxication
B. Tuberculosis infectivity
C. Turn of tuberculosis test
D. Early tuberculosis intoxication
E. * Post vaccination allergy.
346. An infiltrative phase of primary tuberculosis complex of the middle lobe of the right lung was
discovered in a 10 year old child. MBT negative(pneumonic stage). What therapy should be prescribed to
the child in acute phase?
A. * Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Kanamycin
C. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethionamide
D. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol + Ofloxacin
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Ethambutol + Kanamycin
347. For the past few weeks a 35 year old patient complains of weakness, increased temperature up to
38,1'С, cough with small amount of sputum. Upon x-ray examination it was determined that in VI
segment in left lung a 4x4 cm darkening, with low intensity shadow with unclear borders. Infiltrative
lung tuberculosis of the left lung was diagnosed. Bacterioscopically MBT positive. What therapy should
be prescribed in acute phase ?
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide
B. * Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
C. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol + Streptomycin
D. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Kanamycin
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethionamide
348. In (4.11.2004) a patient has been diagnosed with lung tuberculosis (disseminative, phase of infiltration
and destruction), Destr.+, MBT+ М+К+ Resist-,Histo 0, Cat 1 Cog 4 (2004) Patient is currently under
treatment of 1st category\: Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide. Patient constantly
abuses alcohol. What drug should be prescribed to patient for non specific therapy?
A. Ambroksol.
B. * Thiotriazoline
C. Lidaza.
D. Trental
E. Almagel
349. In a 7 year old child, after 6 months after re-vaccination on the area of the BCG injection a 5mm keloid
scar is noted. Patient feels well. What action should be taken ?
A. Conduct local treatment.
B. Conduct chemoprophylaxis.
C. Perform Mantoux test.
D. Perform x-ray.
E. * Observe the child at an outpatient base according to category 5.
350. On chest x-ray of a 27 year old patient it was noted that on II segment of the right lung low intensity
shadows with unclear margins. Patients has no complaints. Objectively no pathologies noted. Blood
analysis within physiological norm. MBT absent in sputum. Patient is diagnosed with tuberculosis. What
therapy should be prescribed in acute phase?
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin+ Pyrazinamide
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin+ Kanamycin
C. * Isoniazid + Rifampicin+ Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
D. Isoniazid + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
E. Rifampicin+ Kanamycin + Ethambutol+ Streptomycin
351. Patient has been diagnosed with: milliary tuberculosis (5.09.2004), ), Destr-, MBT- М -К - Resist-,Histo
0, Cat 1 Cog 3 (2004) n What scheme of treatment should be prescribed to patient in acute phase?
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin - Streptomycin+ Ethionamide.
B. * Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide+ Ethambutol.
C. Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Ethambutol + Pyrazinamide.
D. Isoniazid + Streptomycin+ Ethambutol + Pyrazinamide.
E. Еthambutol + Rifampicin + Ethambutol + Ethionamide.
352. Patient has been diagnosed with\: tuberculosis (8.01.2005) S2 (tuberculoma). Destr.+, MBT+ М+К+
Resist(0)-,Histo 0, Cat 1 Cog 1 (2005) After 2 months of treatment tuberculoma has increased in size to
5,5cm in diameter. Bacterial sections are constant. A patient is getting ready for surgery. What surgical
intervention should be performed in this case?
A. Pulmonectomy
B. Lobectomy
C. Bilobectomy
D. * Segmentectomy
E. Resection of tuberculoma
353. Patient is undergoing a treatment for the diagnosis of\: tuberculus meningitis. Diagnosis is confirmed
with presence of MBT in cerebrospinal fluid. The following treatment has been prescribed to patient\:
Isoniazid + Pasque Acre - intravenously, Rifampicin - per os, Streptomycin - Intramuscularly,
Pyrazinamide- per os. What drug should be introduced intraspinally during cerebrospinal puncture?
A. Rifampicin
B. Pasque Acre
C. Streptomycin
D. Amikacin
E. * Streptomycin with calcium chloride complex
354. What is the optimal scheme of treatment for antimycobacterial therapy in the beginning phase in patient
with tuberculosis (05.09.2004)of the upper right lung (tuberculoma. Destr.-, MBT- М-К- Resist(0),Histo
0, Cat 2 Cog 4 (2005)
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Ofloxacin
B. * Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
C. Isoniazid + Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide
D. Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Ethambutol
E. Pyrazinamide + Kanamycin + Ethambutol
355. What is the optimal time of treatment for antimycobacterial therapy for patient with
tuberculosis(13.08.2003) of the upper part of left lung(acute, infiltrative phase), Destr.-, MBT- М-КResist(0)-,Histo 0, Cat 3 Cog 3 (2003)
A. 2 months.
B. 4 months
C. * 6 months
D. 8 months
E. 10 months
356. A 14 years old child lives with her parents and grandfather. Grandfather suffers from tuberculosis of the
lungs (active form). The teenager is in constant contact with grandfather. The teenager should be
revaccinated. What dose of BCG SSI should be given to patient in this case?
A. 0,5 ml.
B. * 0,1 ml
C. 0,25 ml
D. 0,025 ml
E. 0,05 ml.
357. A 25 year old patient suffers from diabetes of moderate degree. He became acutely ill. Temperature
increased up to 40'С, complains of cough with small amount of mucous sputum, weakness, diaphoresis.
On x-ray\: observed darkening of the upper part of the right lung with small area of brighter spots and
presence of low intensity shadows at the bottom of both lungs. What treatment of should be prescribed in
acute phase?
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin+ Pyrazinamide+ Ethambutol
B. * Isoniazid + Rifampicin+ Ethambutol+ Pyrazinamide + Streptomycin
C. Isoniazid + Streptomycin+ Ofloxacin + Ethambutol
D. Isoniazid + Rifampicin+ Ethambutol+ Pyrazinamide + Ofloxacin
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Ethambutol
358. A 2months old child received BCG SSI vaccine. On the third day on the injection spot appeared
infiltration of 8mm in diameter, after a pustule appeared which bursted and formed a 5mm ulcer. What
should be the action of pediatrician?
A. Apply Isoniazid powder to the wound.
B. Apply Streptomycin to the wound.
C. * Patient should be under observation of pediatrician.
D. Laboratory analysis.
E. X-ray.
359. A 3 months old child has been vaccinated with BCG vaccine at birth. In left axilla increased lymphatic
node by 2cm,elastic, painless, no changes in skin. General state of the child is good, temperature 36.5oC.
General blood analysis is within norm. What treatment should be prescribed to patient?
A. Prescribe wide spectrum antibiotics;
B. Treatment with Isoniazid for 3 months;
C. * Treatment with Isoniazid and Rifampicin for 3-6 months, compress with Rifampicin and Dimexide
in distilled water;
D. Desensibilizing therapy;
E. No treatment is necessary only observation.
360. A 3 months old child has been vaccinated with BCG vaccine at birth. In left axilla increased lymphatic
node by 2cm,elastic, painless, no changes in skin. General state of the child is good, temperature 36.5oC.
General blood analysis is within norm. The child has
A. Unspecific lymphadenitis;
B. Tuberculosis of the peripheral lymphatic node;
C. Generalized infective tuberculosis;
D. Normal reaction to vaccination;
E. * Post-vaccination lymphadenitis (complication).
361. A 3 months old child has been vaccinated with BCG vaccine at birth. In left axilla increased lymphatic
node by 2cm,elastic, painless, no changes in skin. General state of the child is good, temperature 36.5oC.
General blood analysis is within norm. The child has
A. Unspecific lymphadenitis;
B. Tuberculosis of the peripheral lymphatic node;
C. Generalized infective tuberculosis;
D. Normal reaction to vaccination;
E. * Post-vaccination lymphadenitis (complication).
362. A 3 months old child has been vaccinated with BCG vaccine at birth. General state of the infant is
satisfactory. A complication from the vaccine is observed- post-vaccination lymphadenitis ( in left
axillary area increased lymphatic nodes and abscess is noted) What local treatment should be done?
A. Treatment with Isoniazid + local.
B. * Treatment with Isoniazid + Rifampicin + local.
C. Treatment with Isoniazid + Rifampicin.
D. Treatment with Rifampicin + local.
E. Treatment with Isoniazid + Rifampici + local n.
363. A 3 year old child has been vaccinated with BCG SSI vaccine five days after birth. Mantoux test 2 TO
PPD has been negative for the past 3 years. Post vaccination scar is absent. What should be the action of
pediatrician?
A. * Continue with yearly Mantoux tests.
B. Repeat BCG SSI vaccination.
C. Yearly conduct chemoprophylaxis.
D. Repeat BCG SSI vaccination with a greater dose.
E. Conduct x-ray examination.
364. A 39 year old patient has been suffering from fibro-cavernous lung tuberculosis. During 5 years MBT
was positive in sputum. On x-ray upper right part of the lung is destroyed. Sensitivity of MBT to
antituberculosis preparations is preserved. What treatment should be prescribed to patient in the acute
phase of the disease ?
A. * Resection of the upper right part of the lung + antimycobacterial therapy
B. Antimycobacterial therapy
C. Antimycobacterial therapy + immune stimulators
D. Antimycobacterial therapy + glucocorticoids
E. Resection of the upper part of the lung
365. A 4 month old child hasn’t been vaccinated at birth due to birth trauma. Presently the child is healthy.
What should be done?
A. Vaccinate the infant at 6 months.
B. Vaccinate the infant at 12 months.
C. * Vaccinate the infant at 4 months.
D. Vaccination is contraindicated
E. Vaccinate the child when the weight is 15kg.
366. A 40 years old patient during childhood has been exposed to a tuberculosis patient. During a routine xray in I segment of the right lung a 2cm moderate intensive darkening was noted with defined margins. In
pre pulmonary tissue single low intensity shadows were noted. Patient has no complaints. Objectively no
pathology. Blood analysis within norm, MBT absent. Given diagnosis\: tuberculoma of the I segment of
right lung, MBT - . What treatment should be prescribed in acute phase?
A. Dissolving drugs
B. * Corticosteroids, immune-correctors
C. Chest ultrasound
D. Vitamin A
E. Tissue Electrophoresis
367. A 46 year old patient has been diagnosed with fibro-cavernous lung tuberculosis. MBT present is
sputum, which is resistant to Isoniazid and Streptomycin. What treatment should be prescribed in acute
phase?
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin+ Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
B. Ftivazide+ Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ofloxacin
C. * Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol + Kanamycin
D. Isoniazid + Rifampicin +Pyrazinamide +Streptomycin
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin +Ethambutol+ Ofloxacin
368. A 48 years old patient has been suffering from cirrhotic tuberculosis of the left lung. Periodically
bacterial discharge is observed. What treatment should be prescribed to patient in acute phase?
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin
B. * Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
C. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Ethambutol
D. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Streptomycin
E. Isoniazid + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol + Streptomycin
369. A 50 year old patient is an inpatient. Clinical diagnosis: tuberculosis(12.01.2005)of the upper part of
right lung (caseous pneumonia) Destr.+, MBT+ М+К+ Resist(Н)-,Histo 0, Cat 1 Cog 1 (2005) In order to
obtain results of sensitivity to MBT patient has been under treatment with \: Isoniazid + Rifampicin +
Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide. What drug should be prescribed instead of Isoniazid?
A. Rifabutin.
B. Ftivazide
C. * Ofloxacin.
D. Pasque Acre
E. Kanamycin
370. A 51 year old patient has been diagnosed for the first time with fibro-cavernous tuberculosis of the
lower lobe of the left lung. On x-ray decrease in size of lower left lobe, Mediastinum shifted to the left.
In VI segment on the background of cirrhosis thickening of the wall of the cavity is noted in the lower
lobe of the left lung small intensive shades are noted. MBT is present in sputum; sensitivity to all
antituberculosis drugs is preserved. What treatment should be prescribed to patient in acute phase?
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Streptomycin
C. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide
D. * Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ofloxacin
371. A 53 years old patient has been suffering from tuberculosis for the past 6 years. Two years ago he has
been diagnosed with chronic lung tuberculosis (2.09.1994) ( fibro-cavernous, infiltrative phase), Destr.+,
MBT+ М+К+ Resist(0)-,Histo 0, Cat 4 Cog 4 (2005). What treatment should be prescribed in acute
phase?
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide
C. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
D. * Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Kanamycin + Ethambutol
372. A 6 months old child was not vaccinated at birth due to acute viral respiratory infection. At present
patient is well and needs to be vaccinated. What investigation should be done in order to vaccinate
patient?
A. * Mantoux test 2 ТО PPD.
B. General blood analysis.
C. Biochemical blood analysis.
D. X-ray.
E. Immunologic blood analysis.
373. A 6 year old child is on living with a father who suffers from lung tuberculosis, MBT (+). Mantoux test
for the child is negative. What drug should be ordered for primary chemoprophylaxis for the child?
A. Ethambutol.
B. Pyrazinamide.
C. Rifampicin.
D. Ethionamide.
E. * Isoniazide.
374. A 6 year old child lives with his mother who suffers from tuberculosis. Mantoux test negative. What
Chemoprophylactic therapy should be ordered for the child?
A. Guarding.
B. Repetitive.
C. * Secondary.
D. Primary.
E. Intensive.
375. A 7 year old child was revaccinated at school with BCG vaccine. At the age of 8 post-vaccination scar
has disappeared. At what age it is mandatory for this child to be revaccinated ?
A. * 14 years
B. 9 years
C. 12 years
D. 15 years
E. 8 years.
376. A 7 year old child was vaccinated at birth with BCG SSI vaccine. When she was 4 months on the
injection site a cold abscess appeared. A 2 months local treatment lead to disappearance of the abscess.
At present the Mantoux 2 ТО PPD is negative.\n What should be done in this case?
A. Revaccinate with BCG vaccine.
B. Revaccinate with BCG-M vaccine.
C. Conduct chemoprophylaxis.
D. * Do not revaccinate, it is contraindicated.
E. Perform X-ray.
377. A 7 years old child is presently healthy. Mantoux 2 To test is negative. It is known that after receiving
BCG SSI vaccine at birth patient suffered from complication-lymphadenitis of the left axillary lymph
node. What should be done in this case?
A. Revaccinate with BCG SSI vaccine.
B. Do not revaccinate.
C. Conduct chemoprophylaxis following with BCG SSI vaccine.
D. * Do not revaccinate, once a year perform Mantoux 2 TO test.
E. Revaccinate wirh BCG SSI, followed by chemoprophylaxis.
378. A family consisting of a husband and wife, husband has been diagnosed for the first time with
destructive lung tuberculosis, MBT+. The wife has been examined and is healthy. What treatment should
the wife undergo?
A. * Chemoprophylactic Isoniazid 0,3 g daily.
B. Chemoprophylactic Rifampicin 0,6 g daily.
C. BCG SSI vaccination.
D. Chemoprophylactic Ethambutol 1,2 g.
E. Treatment with three different antimycobacterial preparations.
379. A health 1,5 month old child was not able to receive BCG SSI at birth due to fever. What should be
done ?
A. * Vaccinate with BCG SSI vaccine.
B. Conduct mantoux test with 2 ТО.
C. Conduct chemoprophylaxis.
D. Admit patient for surveillance.
E. Should be referred to a pediatrician.
380. ?A patient has been diagnosed with\: Infiltrated tuberculosis(22.03.04)of upper part of the
lung(infiltrative), Destr+, MBT+ М +К + Resist-,Histo 0, Cat 1 Cog 1 (2004).\n What antimycobacterial
treatment should be prescribed in acute phase of the disease?
A. Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Pasque Acre, Streptomycin
B. Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide, Streptomycin, Ofoxacin.
C. * Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Streptomycin, Pyrazinamid.
D. Isoniazid, Rifampicin.
E. Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Streptomycin.
381. A patient is diagnosed with \: tuberculosis (І4.02.2005) of the upper right lung (fibro-cavernous,
infiltrative phase), Destr.+, MBT+ М+К+ Resist(Н+К+Е+Z)-,Histo 0, Cat 2 Cog 4 (2005), In the upper
part of the right lung a large cavern is present(6,0x7,0 cm). Patient has been offered surgical treatment.
What surgical treatment should e performed in this case?
A. Cavernotomy.
B. * Pulmonectomy
C. Segmentectomy
D. Lobectomy
E. Cavernoplastics
382. A patient with tuberculosis(4.11.2004) of lungs(Disseminative, infiltrative and destructive phase),
Destr.+, MBT+ М+К+ Resist(0)-,Histo 0, Cat 1 Cog 4 (2005). Patient is being treated according to I
category drugs\: Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide. Patient abuses alcohol use.
What non-specific patient should be prescribed to patient?
A. Ambroksol
B. * Carsil
C. Lidaza
D. Trental
E. Almagel
383. After x-ray examination of a 42 year old patient it was noted that on second segment of the right lung
small low intensity focal shadows moderate in size with unclear margins. Patient denies of any
complaints. No pathologies objectively. Blood analysis is within norms. He was diagnosed with acute
tuberculosis of the second segment of the right lung. What treatment should be prescribed in acute phase?
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin
B. * Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide+ Ethambutol
C. Isoniazid + Streptomycin
D. Isoniazid + Rifampicin +Ethambutol+ Pyrazinamide + Streptomycin
E. Ethambutol + Pyrazinamide
384. An infant has been vaccinated with BCG at the hospital. After 4 weeks on the area of injection a blue
coloured 4mm infiltrate appeared. These changes are typical for ?:
A. Complication of BCG vaccine.
B. * Normal local allergic reaction to vaccination.
C. Proper antiseptic measures were not followed during vaccination.
D. Severe reaction to the vaccine.
E. Subcutaneous injection of the vaccine .
385. An infant was vaccinated in the hospital. A 5mm post-activation scar has appeared. At the age of 1,
mantoux test resulted in 10mm induration during the first test and 6mm during the second test. How
would you evaluate these results ?
A. Chronic tuberculosis intoxication
B. Tuberculosis infectivity
C. Turn of tuberculosis test
D. Early tuberculosis intoxication
E. * Post vaccination allergy.
386. An infiltrative phase of primary tuberculosis complex of the middle lobe of the right lung was
discovered in a 10 year old child. MBT negative(pneumonic stage). What therapy should be prescribed to
the child in acute phase?
A. * Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Kanamycin
C. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethionamide
D. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol + Ofloxacin
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Ethambutol + Kanamycin
387. For the past few weeks a 35 year old patient complains of weakness, increased temperature up to
38,1'С, cough with small amount of sputum. Upon x-ray examination it was determined that in VI
segment in left lung a 4x4 cm darkening, with low intensity shadow with unclear borders. Infiltrative
lung tuberculosis of the left lung was diagnosed. Bacterioscopically MBT positive. What therapy should
be prescribed in acute phase ?
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide
B. * Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
C. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol + Streptomycin
D. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Kanamycin
E. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethionamide
388. In (4.11.2004) a patient has been diagnosed with lung tuberculosis (disseminative, phase of infiltration
and destruction), Destr.+, MBT+ М+К+ Resist-,Histo 0, Cat 1 Cog 4 (2004) Patient is currently under
treatment of 1st category\: Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide. Patient constantly
abuses alcohol. What drug should be prescribed to patient for non specific therapy?
A. Ambroksol.
B. * Thiotriazoline
C. Lidaza.
D. Trental
E. Almagel
389. In a 7 year old child, after 6 months after re-vaccination on the area of the BCG injection a 5mm keloid
scar is noted. Patient feels well. What action should be taken ?
A. Conduct local treatment.
B. Conduct chemoprophylaxis.
C. Perform Mantoux test.
D. Perform x-ray.
E. * Observe the child at an outpatient base according to category 5.
390. On chest x-ray of a 27 year old patient it was noted that on II segment of the right lung low intensity
shadows with unclear margins. Patients has no complaints. Objectively no pathologies noted. Blood
analysis within physiological norm. MBT absent in sputum. Patient is diagnosed with tuberculosis. What
therapy should be prescribed in acute phase?
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin+ Pyrazinamide
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin+ Kanamycin
C. * Isoniazid + Rifampicin+ Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
D. Isoniazid + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
E. Rifampicin+ Kanamycin + Ethambutol+ Streptomycin
391. Patient has been diagnosed with: milliary tuberculosis (5.09.2004), ), Destr-, MBT- М -К - Resist-,Histo
0, Cat 1 Cog 3 (2004) n What scheme of treatment should be prescribed to patient in acute phase?
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin - Streptomycin+ Ethionamide.
B. * Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide+ Ethambutol.
C. Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Ethambutol + Pyrazinamide.
D. Isoniazid + Streptomycin+ Ethambutol + Pyrazinamide.
E. Еthambutol + Rifampicin + Ethambutol + Ethionamide.
392. Patient has been diagnosed with\: tuberculosis (8.01.2005) S2 (tuberculoma). Destr.+, MBT+ М+К+
Resist(0)-,Histo 0, Cat 1 Cog 1 (2005) After 2 months of treatment tuberculoma has increased in size to
5,5cm in diameter. Bacterial sections are constant. A patient is getting ready for surgery. What surgical
intervention should be performed in this case?
A. Pulmonectomy
B. Lobectomy
C. Bilobectomy
D. * Segmentectomy
E. Resection of tuberculoma
393. Patient is undergoing a treatment for the diagnosis of\: tuberculus meningitis. Diagnosis is confirmed
with presence of MBT in cerebrospinal fluid. The following treatment has been prescribed to patient\:
Isoniazid + Pasque Acre - intravenously, Rifampicin - per os, Streptomycin - Intramuscularly,
Pyrazinamide- per os. What drug should be introduced intraspinally during cerebrospinal puncture?
A. Rifampicin
B. Pasque Acre
C. Streptomycin
D. Amikacin
E. * Streptomycin with calcium chloride complex
394. What is the optimal scheme of treatment for antimycobacterial therapy in the beginning phase in patient
with tuberculosis (05.09.2004)of the upper right lung (tuberculoma. Destr.-, MBT- М-К- Resist(0),Histo
0, Cat 2 Cog 4 (2005)
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Ofloxacin
B. * Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
C. Isoniazid + Streptomycin + Pyrazinamide
D. Rifampicin + Streptomycin + Ethambutol
E. Pyrazinamide + Kanamycin + Ethambutol
395. What is the optimal time of treatment for antimycobacterial therapy for patient with
tuberculosis(13.08.2003) of the upper part of left lung(acute, infiltrative phase), Destr.-, MBT- М-КResist(0)-,Histo 0, Cat 3 Cog 3 (2003)
A. 2 months.
B. 4 months
C. * 6 months
D. 8 months
E. 10 months
396. A female patient of 45 is disturbed with cough, temperature rise up to 37,5°C. Got ill six weeks ago
after ”the flu”. In a 2 weeks treatment course for focal pneumonia, focal shadows in the upper segment of
the right lung remained without any changes. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Aspergilosis
B. Lung cancer
C. Eosiniphil infiltration
D. * Nidus tuberculosis
E. Lingering pneumonia
397. A female patient Z., 29, has been coughing for 2 years, with a small quantity of sputum, sometimes
subfebrilitet. She did not apply for a medical care. A week ago a heterogeneous round darkening 2,5 x
3,0 cm with clear contours and a strip of excentric lightening was found in the sixth segment. A
preliminary diagnosis.
A. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis.
B. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Disseminated tuberculosis.
D. * Lung tuberculoma.
E. Focal tuberculosis.
398. A female patient Z., 35. A shadow with vague contours sized 4 cm, MBT(-) has been found in the right
lung (1st segment) at a roentgenologic examination. After 3 months of antimycobacterial therapy a round
focus, 2 cm in diametre, of homogeneous structure with clear contours formed. A diagnosis after 3months treatment.
A. Primary tuberculous complex.
B. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Disseminated tuberculosis.
D. * Lung tuberculoma.
E. Focal tuberculosis.
399. A man of 38 complains of pain in heart area, subfebrility, sweatness, weight loss. Pulse: 82
strokes/min., AP 110/75 mm m.c. Systolic murmur over the heart apex. Roentgenogram: focal shadows
up to 5mm in diameter on both lungs apexes. What disease is the most probable one?
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Eosinophil infiltration
C. * Nidus pneumonia
D. Nidus lung tuberculosis
E. Peripheral lung cancer
400. A man of 43, smoker, complains of cough with little sputum secretion, subfebrility, weight loss. With
the suspect for the abcess-forming pneumonia was hospitalized into a diagnostic department.
Roentgenogram: in the upper segment of the right lung – 4x4 cm shadowing with distinct exterior
contour and a sickle-shaped enlargement. Blood analysis: leuk. – 9,0 x 109/l, ESR – 19 mm/hour.
Sputum analysis: leuk. – 8-12 in the vision field. Mantoux test with 2 TO – 22 mm infiltrate. What is the
most probable diagnosis?
A. Peripheral lung cancer
B. Abscess of lung
C. * Lung tuberculoma
D. Non-malignant tumor
E. Aspergiloma
401. A patient R., aged 32. During the last four months – dry cough, general weakness, perspiration,
subfebrile temperature. There is a round formation of over 2 cm in diametre, of medium intensity in the
second segment of the upper part of the right lung on a fluorogram. At the age of 20, the patient suffered
from the infiltrative lung tuberculosis. The general blood analysis is within the norm. Mantoux reaction
with 2 ТU – 15 mm infiltrate. A preliminary diagnosis.
A. Primary tuberculous complex.
B. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Disseminated tuberculosis.
D. * Lung tuberculoma.
E. Focal tuberculosis.
402. Female patient Z., 29 years old, was brought by an urgent medical service car to a regional tuberculous
dispensary. She complains on cough, dyspnea, pain in the right half of the thorax. Objectively – wooden
sound at percussion, auscultatively – the absence of breathing above the right half of the thorax. What is
the most probable diagnosis?
A. Lung infarction
B. Lung atelectasis
C. Exudative pleurisy
D. * Spontaneous pneumothorax
E. Pleropneumonia
403. Female patient Z., 39. Got ill with diabetes mellitus six years ago. The roentgenologic examination
showed infiltrate shadow with enlightment in the center in the lower segment of the left lung. General
condition of the patient is satisfactory. Blood analysis: leuk. – 10,5 x 109/l, ESR – 25 mm/hour. Mantoux
test with 2 TO - positive. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Lung cancer
B. Pneumonia
C. * Infiltrative tuberculosis
D. Abscess of a lung
E. Primary tuberculosis complex
404. Female patient, 29. During the last five years has noted general weakness, cough, subfebrility;
menstruations absence for three months. General roentgenogram: in the 2nd segment of the left lung – a
round hole above 3cm in diameter of medium intensity. Mantoux test with 2 TO – 23 mm infiltrate. What
is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Aspergiloma
B. Peripheral lung cancer
C. * Lung tuberculoma
D. Filled with a cyst
E. Chondroma
405. How many stages of amyloidosis of kidneys are discriminated.
A. 2
B. 3
C. * 4
D. 5
E. 6
406. How many versions of tuberculomas are distinguished regarding pathomorphologic structure?
A. 1
B. 2
C. * 3
D. 4
E. 5
407. How many versions of tuberculomas clinical progress do you know?
A. 1
B. 2
C. * 3
D. 4
E. 5
408. In a patient S., 17, suffering from diabetes, a round shadow of 2,5 cm in diameter, of medium
intensivity with vague outer contours and a path to the root was found in the second segment of the upper
part of the right lung during fluorography. Mantoux test with 2 ТU – 24 mm infiltrate.A preliminary
diagnosis.
A. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis.
B. Infiltrative tuberculosis.
C. Disseminated tuberculosis.
D. * Lung tuberculoma.
E. Caseous pneumonia.
409. In which case surgery is appropriate at tuberculoma?
A. Stationary course.
B. * Disintegration and bacterioexcretion.
C. Small size of tuberculoma (up to 2 cm).
D. Regressive course of tuberculoma.
E. Declining years.
410. In which morphological sort of tuberculoma possible to evolve due long course?
A. Infiltrative-pneumonic.
B. Homogeneous.
C. Pseudotuberculoma.
D. Conglomerate.
E. * Like ball.
411. In which way does the most often become apparent bacterioexcretion at focal pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Practically always by use bacterioscopy.
B. Never.
C. Often by use bacterioscopy.
D. * Sometimes by bacterioscopy.
E. Always by use bacterioscopy.
412. In which way hemogram will be changed at caseous pneumonia?
A. * Hypochromic anemia, leucocytosis 13.0-20.0 х109/L, eosinopenia, lymphopenia, ESR-acceleration
up to 50-70 mm/Hr.
B. Red blood in normal state, leucocytosis 20.0-40.0 х109/L, ESR-acceleration up to 35-55 mm/Hr,
lymphopenia, monocytopenia.
C. Monocytosis, lymphocytosis, normal ESR, leukopenia, hypochromic anemia.
D. Hypochromic anemia, leucocytosis 10.0-12.0 х109/L, еозинопенія, lymphopenia, stub shift up to 815%, ESR-acceleration up to 20-25 mm/Hr.
E. Expressed hypochromic anemia, normal state of white blood, ESR acceleration up to 50-70 mm/Hr.
413. In which way the most often reveals focal tuberculosis?
A. At clinical examination.
B. * At prophylactic photofluorographic examination.
C. At bacterioscopy analysis of spew.
D. At bronchoscopic examination.
E. At immunological examination.
414. Patient (woman) age 54 years. She is sick by fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis during 15 years.
She had irregular treatment. She admitted to hospital with complains about cough with bright-red blood
with bubbles (total amount of the flowed blood near 250 milliliters) , shortnes of breath, weakness,
giddiness, subfebrile temperature (low grade fever). During percussion above upper part of right lung is
tympanic shade of lung sound. During auscultation - bronchial respiration with different crepitations.
Above other regions of lungs - diffused dry rales. Radiographic data: near S2 right lung defines cavity of
disintegration with diameter 5.0 x 4.0 centimeters, upper part is reduced, right root pulled up. What
complications of fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis arose in the patient?
A. Pneumothorax spontaneous.
B. * Pulmonary hemorrhage.
C. Sputum with blood.
D. Pulmonary edema.
E. Chronical cor pulmonale.
415. Patient (woman) at the age 36 year first diagnosed fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis,
mycobacterium tuberculosis+, resist to ethambutol and streptomycin. Which combination of
antimicobacterial agents is the most optimal?
A. * Rifampicin+isoniazid+kanamycin+pyrazinamide.
B. Isoniazid+rifampicin A+ thioacetazone+florimytcin.
C. Isoniazid+kanamycin+PAS(A)(para-aminosalicylic acid)+ethionamide.
D. Kanamycin+ethionamide+rifampicin+phthivazide.
E. Isoniazid+cycloserine+protionamide+kanamycin.
416. Patient age 33 years admitted to hospital with complains about weakness, decreasing of the appetite,
hyperhidrosis, subfebrile temperature, cough with sputum. Tuberculosis of the left lung (infiltrative form)
was revealed 3 year ago. The patient systematically broke treatment course, excessive used spirits,
irregular took antimicobacterial medications. As a result patient has resistance of mycobacteriums
tuberculosis to isoniazid and rifampicin and has formed fibrous cavernous tuberculosis of left lung. What
reasons of forming fibrous cavernous tuberculosis in the patient?
A. Disturbance of medical treatment.
B. Alcohol abuse.
C. Irregular take medicine.
D. Resistance of mycobacteriums tuberculosis to isoniazid and rifampicin.
E. * All above.
417. Patient age 42 years. He is sick by fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis of the upper part of the
right lung during 8 years. Mycobacteriums tuberculosis+. He feels good during last 2 year. Radiographic
data: the upper part of the right lung available thick cavern with fibrosis and perifocal inflammation. The
upper part is narrow due fibrosis. Both lungs have focuses of semination. Shadow of mediastinum shifted
right. What radiographic data are typical for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis of the lungs?
A. * Caverns presence, well-defined fibrosis, focuses of semination.
B. Caverns presence, perifocal inflammation.
C. Perifocal inflammation, bronchogenic dissemination.
D. Organs on mediastinum are shifted in the side of lesion.
E. Intense dark patch, narrowed lung field.
418. Patient age 42 years. He is sick by fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis during 8 years. Had
irregular treatment. He has complains about intense pain in the left part of thorax, breathlessness.
Objective: state of the patient is average. Above left lung percussion data shows tympanitis, auscultatory
- breath not auscultates. What complications of fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis arose in the
patient?
A. Bullous emphysema.
B. Tuberculous atelectasis.
C. * Pneumothorax spontaneous.
D. Chronical cor pulmonale.
E. Escudative pleurisy.
419. Patient age 48 years. He is sick by fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis of the high part of left
lung during 6 years. Mycobacteriums tuberculosis+. Worsening state of health after supercooling. What
complains of patient are typical for fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis of the lungs?
A. Cough with sputum with blood streaks, hyperhidrosis, worsening of the appetite, decreasing of the
body weight.
B. * Cough, increasing of the body temperature, hyperhidrosis, general weakness, decreasing of the
body weight.
C. Increasing of the body temperature, hyperhidrosis, general weakness, decreasing of the body weight.
D. Cough wit sputum, breathlessness, pain in thorax, increasing of the body temperature, hyperhidrosis,
general weakness, decreasing of the body weight.
E. Headache, hyperhidrosis, general weakness, decreasing of the bode weight.
420. Patient age is 40 years. Has fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis during 8 years. Last time has
edema of legs. Urine examination shows: growing proteinuria, cylindruria, hyposthenuria. What is the
most probable reasons for changing in urine examination?
A. Acute nephritis.
B. * Amyloidosis.
C. Renal tuberculosis.
D. Cystic disease.
E. Chronic renal insufficiency.
421. Patient at the age of 35 years has complains concerning cough with sputum, weakness, shortness of
breath during minor activity. Three month ago was returned from correctional institutions. During
medical examination right part of the thorax is narrowed. Lags during breath. Mycobacteriums
tuberculosis revealed bacterioscopy. Which clinic form of pulmonary tuberculosis was revealed in the
patient?
A. Tuberculoma.
B. Focal tuberculosis.
C. Tuberculous pleurisy.
D. Disseminated pulmonary tuberculosis.
E. * Fibrous cavernous tuberculosis
422. Patient at the age of 43 years admitted to hospital with complains about weakness, decreasing of the
appetite, hyperhidrosis, subfebrile temperature, cough with spew. Tuberculosis of the left lung was
revealed 8 years ago. Three year ago patient had relapse of disease. Radiographic data:both lungs fibrous
changed. Upper part of left lung has cavity with diameter 10 centimeters with area of perifocal
inflammation.Upper part of right lung has some cavities of disintegration.Sputum has mycobacteriums
tuberculosis+. What clinic form of pulmonary tuberculosis is present in the patient?
A. Caseous pneumonia.
B. Tuberculoma.
C. Infiltrative form.
D. * Fibrous-cavernous form.
E. Cirrhosis form.
423. Patient at the age of 49 years address to doctor with complains about weakness, decreasing of the
appetite, hyperhidrosis, subfebrile temperature, cough with spew. Tuberculosis of the left lung was
revealed 7 years ago. Patient had course of treatment in the hospital. Two year ago patient had relapse of
disease. Radiographic data:both lungs fibrous changed. Upper part of left lung has cavity with diameter 6
centimeters with area of perifocal inflammation.Upper part of right lung has some cavities..Spew has
mycobacteriums tuberculosis+. What clinic form of tuberculosis resides such kind of radio data?
A. Caseous pneumonia.
B. Infiltrative form.
C. * Fibrous-cavernous form.
D. Tuberculoma.
E. Cirrhosis form.
424. Patient at the age of 56 years has fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis during 13 years. He
admitted to hospital with complains about shortness of breath in quiet state, edema of legs. Objective:
available diffusive cyanosis, increased liver on 4 centimeters, edema of legs. Above both lungs, in upper
areas (against a background of hard breath) auscultates crepitation with middle bubbles. P8 – 100 per
minute, arterial pressure 115/88 mm of mercury. Heart borders increased, present accent and separation
of II sound above pulmonary artery. What complication arose in the patient?
A. Pneumothorax spontaneous.
B. Pulmonary hemorrhage.
C. Spew with blood.
D. Pulmonary edema.
E. * Chronical cor pulmonale.
425. Patient K., 36. Got ill acutely after a surgical operation for a stomach ulcer. Roentgenogram: massive
infiltration of pulmonary tissue with several hollows of destruction in the upper segment of the right
lung. Mantoux test with 2 TO – doubtful. Blood analysis: leuk. – 17,0 x 109/l, ESR – 52 mm/hour. MBT
are found in sputum. What is the most probable form of lungs tuberculosis?
A. Infiltrative
B. Nidus
C. Fibrous-cavernous
D. * Caseous pneumonia
E. Cirrhotic
426. Patient V. suffers from tuberculosis for 17 years. Recent dyspnea aggravation, cough, new pain in the
right intercostal area, in heart area, drowsiness, edema in lower extremities. What is the most probable
complication?
A. Spontaneous pneumotorax
B. Lung atelectasis
C. * Chronic lung heart
D. Amiloidosis of internal organs
E. Tuberculosis of bronchi
427. Patient`s (woman) age 52 years. She is sick by fibrous cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis during 15
years. She had irregular treatment. She admitted to hospital with complains about strong pain in the left
part of the thorax during breathing, shortness of breath. Objective: state of the patient is average. Left
part of the lung lags during breathing, during percussion – tympanitis. Auscultatory - breath very
impaired. What medical investigation need to do with patient at first for more accurate diagnosis?
A. * Radiography of organs of thorax.
B. Medical investigation of respiratory function.
C. Computer tomography.
D. Bronchoscopy.
E. Tomography.
428. Patient`s age is 40 years. Has tuberculosis during 7 years. Two years ago got diagnosed fibrous
cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis, mycobacterium tuberculosis+. Half year ago appeared progressive
shortness of breath during physical activity. Now shortness of breath appears during rising on the second
floor. Objective: respiration rate 24 per minute, pulse - 96 beats per minute. Heart sounds speeded up,
rhythmical. Above pulmonary artery auscultates accent of second sound. Liver during palpation not
sickly, prominent from border of costal margin on 2 centimeters. What complication arose in the patient?
A. Pneumothorax spontaneous.
B. Pulmonary hemorrhage.
C. * Chronical cor pulmonale.
D. Pulmonary edema.
E. Spew with blood.
429. Patient, 27. Underwent 4-months treatment in a hospital because of infiltrate tuberculosis of the upper
segment of the left lung in the phase of destruction. He is achieved, but in the place of the infiltrate a
round 2 cm hole of medium intensity and with distinct exterior contours is formed. What treatment
method is most advisable at this phase?
A. To recommend sanatoric treatment
B. * To continue the treatment with antimycobacterial preparations
C. To use surgical intervention
D. To carry out 1,5-2th months course of hormonotherapy
E. To use means of popular medicine
430. The illness, with which differential diagnostics of caseous pneumonia should be made most frequent:
A. * Staphylococcal pneumonia
B. Central cancer
C. Eosinophilic pneumonia
D. Nidal pneumonia
E. Bronchoectasia
431. The main method of chronic lung heart diagnostics
A. Elecrocardiography
B. Phonocardiography
C. Balistocardiography
D. * Echocardiography
E. Roentgenoscopy
432. The main reason of the profuse pulmonary bleeding in patients with tuberculosis.
A. * Blood vessel rapture
B. Pulmonary artery thrombosis
C. Varicose of blood pulmonary vessels
D. Activation of fibrinolysis
E. Violations in blood coagulation system
433. ?The method of the definition of a kind of spontaneous pneumothorax.
A. Roentgenologic
B. On the basis of the clinic data.
C. * The pressure measurement in the pleural cavity (manometry)
D. Computer tomography
E. USE
434. The most characteristic blood analysis in patients with the infiltrative lung tuberculosis.
A. Leuc. – 25,0?10/l; е – 3, p – 6, s – 51, l – 23, m – 7 %; ESR – 6 mm/hour.
B. * Leuc. - 9,8?10/l; е – 5, p – 6, s – 65, l – 13, m – 11 %; ESR – 36 mm/hour.
C. Leuc. - 4,0?10/l; е – 2, p – 2, s – 60, l – 26, m – 9 %; ESR – 6 mm/hour.
D. Leuc. – 16,5?10/l; е – 10, p – 10, s – 64, l – 14, m – 2 %; ESR – 21 mm/hour.
E. Leuc. – 6,0?10/l; е – 4, p – 3, s – 60, l – 26, m– 6 %; ESR – 7 mm/hour.
435. The most effective fibrinolysis inhibitor.
A. Trasilol
B. Contrycal
C. * Epsilon-aminocapronic acid (EACA)
D. Amben
E. Albumin
Test tasks to the pictures
1. What clinical form of tuberculosis is presented on the picture Nr .10?
A. Infiltrative tuberculosis
B. Chronic tuberculosis
C. Tuberculomawith decay
D. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
E. * Cirrhotic tuberculosis
2. What segment of the left lung is presented on the picture 21 under the number 2?
A. * Posterior
B. Anterior
C. Apical
D. Superior lingual
E. Inferior lingual
3. What segment of the left lung is presented on the picture 21 under the number 3?
A. Posterior
B. * Anterior
C. Apical
D. Superior lingual
E. Inferior lingual
4. What segment of the left lung is presented on the picture 21 under the number 4?
A. Posterior
B. Anterior
C. Apical
D. * Superior lingual
E. Inferior lingual
5. What segment of the left lung is presented on the picture 21 under the number 5?
A. * Inferior lingual
B. Inferior medial
C. Apical of the inferior lobe
D. Inferior anterior
E. Inerior lateral
6. What segment of the left lung is presented on the picture 21 under the number 6?
A. Inferior lingual
B. Inferior medial
C. * Apical of the inferior lobe
D. Inferior anterior
E. Inerior lateral
7. What segment of the left lung is presented on the picture 21 under the number 8?
A. Inferior lingual
B. Inferior medial
C. Apical of the inferior lobe
D. * Inferior anterior
E. Inerior lateral
8. What segment of the left lung is presented on the picture 21 under the number 9?
A. Medial
B. Inferior medial
C. Apical of the inferior lobe
D. Inferior anterior
E. * Inerior lateral
9. What segment of the left lung is presented on the picture 21 under the number 10?
A. * Inferior posterior
B. Inferior medial
C. Apical of the inferior lobe
D. Inferior anterior
E. Inferior lateral
10. What segment of the left lung ispresented on the picture 21 under the number 1?
A. Posterior
B. Anterior
C. * Apical
D. Superior lingual
E. Inferior lingual
11. What shape of the shadows is presented on the picture 13?
A. Infiltrative
B. Rounded
C. Interlobar (perysuscirites)
D. * Annular
E. Focal
12. What shape of the shadows is presented on the picture 14?
A. * Infiltrative
B. Rounded
C. Interlobar (perysuscirites)
D. Annular
E. Focal
13. What shape of the shadows is presented on the picture 15?
A. * Infiltrative
B. Rounded
C. Interlobar (perysuscirites)
D. Annular
E. Focal
14. What shape of the shadows is presented on the picture 16?
A. Infiltrative
B. * Rounded
C. Interlobar (perysuscirites)
D. Annular
E. Focal
15. What shape of the shadows is presented on the picture 17?
A. Infiltrative
B. Rounded
C. Interlobar (perysuscirites)
D. * Annular with copious focuses
E. Focal
16. What shape of the shadows is presented on the picture 18?
A. * Infiltrative
B. Rounded
C. Interlobar (perysuscirites)
D. Annular with copious focuses
E. Focal
17. What shape of the shadows is presented on the picture 19?
A. Infiltrative
B. Rounded
C. Interlobar (perysuscirites)
D. Annular with copious focuses
E. * focal polymorphic
18. What shape of the shadows is presented on the picture 20?
A. Infiltrative
B. Rounded
C. Interlobar (perysuscirites)
D. Annular with copious focuses
E. * small focused
19. What shape of the shadows is presented on the picture 12?
A. Infiltrative
B. Rounded
C. Interlobar (perysuscirites)
D. Annular
E. * Focal
20. What shape of the shadows is presented on the picture 11?
A. Infiltrative
B. Rounded
C. Interlobar (perysuscirites)
D. Annular
E. * Focal
21. A baby A. was BCG vaccinated on the 3rd day of birth. In 3 months changes of 12 mm in diametre
formed on the spot of the vaccine injection (picture № 33 ). What does it testify of?
A. Lymphadenitis
B. Cyst
C. Keloid seam
D. * Ulcer
E. Cold abscess.
22. A baby B. was BCG vaccinated on the 3rd day of birth. In one year in the place of vaccine injection
of BCG observed changes, which present picture №31 . What does it testify of?
A. * Postvaccinal seam.
B. Lymphadenitis
C. Keloid seam
D. Ulcer
E. Cold abscess
23. A baby C. was BCG vaccinated on the 3rd day of birth. In one year changes of 6 mm in diametre
present on the spot of the vaccine injection(picture31). Your tactics now?
A. Revaccination
B. Prescribe 3 antimycobactical drugs
C. Prescribe chemoprophylaxis
D. X-ray investigation
E. * Mantoux test
24. A baby C. was BCG vaccinated on the 3rd day of birth. In one year changes of 6 mm in diametre
present on the spot of the vaccine injection(picture31). What does it testify of?
A. Postvaccinal immunity is absent
B. * Postvaccinal immunity is present
C. Skin tuberculosis
D. Postvaccinal complication
E. Keloid seam
25. A baby D. was BCG vaccinated in maternity home. In three months changes (picture № 34) formed
in subaxillary region. The children general condition is good. General blood analysis is normal. What
does it testify of?
A. * Posvaccinal complication
B. Unspecific lymphadenitis
C. Tuberculosis of peripheral lymphatic nodes
D. Generalized tuberculosis infection
E. All answers are not correct.
26. A baby D. was BCG vaccinated in maternity home. In three months changes (picture № 34) formed
in subaxillary region, at palpation-fluctuation. What is the postvaccinal complication?
A. * Lymphadenitis
B. Cyst
C. Keloid seam
D. Ulcer
E. Cold abscess
27. A female patient of 45 is disturbed with cough, temperature rise up to 37,5°C. Got ill six weeks ago
after ”the flu”. In a 2 weeks treatment course for pneumonia shadows in the right lung remained
without any changes. Roentgenogram: picture №55 . What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Aspergilosis
B. Lung cancer
C. Eosiniphil infiltration
D. * Nidus tuberculosis
E. Lingering pneumonia
28. A girl was revaccinated in 7 years old. In 9 years old in the place of vaccine BCG was revealed
changes 15 mm in diametre (picture № 35). What is the postvaccinal complication?
A. Lymphadenitis
B. Cyst
C. * Keloid seam
D. Ulcer
E. Cold abscess
29. A man of 43, smoker, complains of cough with little sputum secretion, subfebrility, weight loss. With
the suspect for the abcess-forming pneumonia was hospitalized into a diagnostic department.
Roentgenogram: picture № 47. Blood analysis: leuk. – 9,0 x 109/l, ESR – 19 mm/hour. Sputum
analysis: leuk. – 8-12 in the vision field. Mantoux test with 2 TO – 22 mm infiltrate. What is the most
probable diagnosis?
A. Peripheral lung cancer
B. Abscess of lung
C. Non-malignant tumor
D. Aspergiloma
E. * Lung tuberculoma
30. A man of 46. Two months ago was dismissed from a prison. Has been falling ill gradually: cough,
dyspnea, temperature rise up to 38°C. Roentgenogram: picture № 54. Which diagnosis is the most
probable?
A. Carcinomatosis
B. * Disseminated lung tuberculosis
C. Nidus pneumonia
D. Nidus lung tuberculosis
E. Chronic bronchitis
31. An infant of 6 weeks was vaccinated with BCG SSI at the lying-in hospital.At the place of
vaccination you might see the changes presented on the picture 29. It is:
A. * Normal reaction
B. Complication of vaccination
C. Scar after vaccination
D. Complication which occurred because of violations of aseptic
E. All answers are incorrect.
32. An infant of 7 weeks was vaccinated with BCG SSI at the lying-in hospital.At the place of
vaccination you might see the changes presented on the picture 30. It is:
A. Cold abscess.
B. Superficial ulcer
C. Changes, which occurred as a result of violations of vaccination technik.
D. * Normal reaction.
E. Complication of BCG SSI vaccination.
33. Child of 7 years is healthy. Mantoux test is negative. It is known, that 2 month after previous
vaccination at the lying-in hospital mother found changes presented on the picture Nr.29. Child was
treated at the TB dispensary.What should be done right now in this case?
A. Revaccination with BCG SSI.
B. X-ray of the chest.
C. * Vaccination is containdicated. Once a year should be performed Mantoux test.
D. Registration of the child at the TB dispensary.
E. Vaccination is containdicated. Chemoprophylaxys should be performed.
34. Doctors suspect infiltrative tuberculosis on the radiogram from picture Nr.56.What desease should be
chosen for the differential diagnosis?
A. lung abscess
B. pleuropneumonia.
C. * Eosinophilic infiltrate.
D. peripheral cancer
E. lung infarction.
35. Dry cough, shortness of breath, perspiration appeared in a 19-years old patient after artificial
pregnancy interruption, the body temperature up to 38,50 C. Frequency of breathing was 32 per 1
minute. Rough respiration above the lungs. Roentgenogram: picture № 49 . A year ago Mantoux test
with 2 TU was 19 mm, now it is negative. Haemogram: leucocytes 9 х 109/L, e – 2 %, p – 4 %, s –
74 %, l – 12 %, m – 8 %, ESR – 11 mm/hr.
A. * Miliary tuberculosis
B. Disseminated tuberculosis
C. Infiltrative tuberculosis
D. Caseous pneumonia
E. Nidus tuberculosis
36. Female patient Z., 29 years old, was brought by an urgent medical service car to a regional
tuberculous dispensary. She complains on cough, dyspnea, pain in the right half of the thorax.
Objectively – wooden sound at percussion, auscultatively – the absence of breathing above the right
half of the thorax. Roentgenogram: picture № 38 .What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Lung infarction
B. Lung atelectasis
C. Exudative pleurisy
D. * Spontaneous pneumothorax
E. Pleropneumonia
37. Female patient Z., 39. Got ill with diabetes mellitus six years ago. The roentgenologic examination:
picture № 44 . General condition of the patient is satisfactory. Blood analysis: leuk. – 10,5 x 109/l,
ESR – 25 mm/hour. Mantoux test with 2 TO - positive. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Lung cancer
B. * Infiltrative tuberculosis
C. Pneumonia
D. Abscess of a lung
E. Primary tuberculosis complex
38. In a 7-years old girl in 5 months after revaccination in the place of vaccine injection of BCG
appeared changes, which present picture №32 . What are the indicated phenomena conditioned by?
A. Normal postvaccinal reaction
B. * The vaccine was injected subcutaneously
C. The vaccine was injected intracutaneously
D. Violation of aseptic rules
E. All answers are not correct.
39. In a boy of 7 years old Mantoux test with 2TU is negative. He was BCG vaccinated in maternity
home. Changes according to picture № 31present in the place of vaccine injection. Your tactics now?
A. * Revaccination
B. Contraindication for revaccination
C. Prescribe chemoprophylaxis
D. Prescribe chemoprophylaxis, later revaccination
E. Repeat Mantoux test with 2TU
40. In a seven-years old girl in 5 months after revaccination, in the place of vaccine injection of BCG
appeared changes, which present picture №32. At palpation-fluctuation. What is the postvaccinal
complication?
A. Lymphadenitis
B. Cyst
C. Keloid seam
D. Ulcer
E. * Cold abscess.
41. ?What clinical form of tuberculosis is presented on the picture Nr .10?
A. Infiltrative tuberculosis
B. Chronic tuberculosis
C. Tuberculomawith decay
D. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
E. * Cirrhotic tuberculosis
42. What segment of the left lung is presented on the picture 21 under the number 2?
A. * Posterior
B. Anterior
C. Apical
D. Superior lingual
E. Inferior lingual
43. What segment of the left lung is presented on the picture 21 under the number 3?
A. Posterior
B. * Anterior
C. Apical
D. Superior lingual
E. Inferior lingual
44. What segment of the left lung is presented on the picture 21 under the number 4?
A. Posterior
B. Anterior
C. Apical
D. * Superior lingual
E. Inferior lingual
45. What segment of the left lung is presented on the picture 21 under the number 5?
A. * Inferior lingual
B. Inferior medial
C. Apical of the inferior lobe
D. Inferior anterior
E. Inerior lateral
46. What segment of the left lung is presented on the picture 21 under the number 6?
A. Inferior lingual
B. Inferior medial
C. * Apical of the inferior lobe
D. Inferior anterior
E. Inerior lateral
47. What segment of the left lung is presented on the picture 21 under the number 8?
A. Inferior lingual
B. Inferior medial
C. Apical of the inferior lobe
D. * Inferior anterior
E. Inerior lateral
48. What segment of the left lung is presented on the picture 21 under the number 9?
A. Medial
B. Inferior medial
C. Apical of the inferior lobe
D. Inferior anterior
E. * Inerior lateral
49. What segment of the left lung is presented on the picture 21 under the number 10?
A. * Inferior posterior
B. Inferior medial
C. Apical of the inferior lobe
D. Inferior anterior
E. Inferior lateral
50. What segment of the left lung ispresented on the picture 21 under the number 1?
A. Posterior
B. Anterior
C. * Apical
D. Superior lingual
E. Inferior lingual
51. What shape of the shadows is presented on the picture 11?
A. Infiltrative
B. Rounded
C. Interlobar (perysuscirites)
D. Annular
E. * Focal
52. What shape of the shadows is presented on the picture 12?
A. Infiltrative
B. Rounded
C. Interlobar (perysuscirites)
D. Annular
E. * Focal
53. What shape of the shadows is presented on the picture 13?
A. Infiltrative
B. Rounded
C. Interlobar (perysuscirites)
D. * Annular
E. Focal
54. What shape of the shadows is presented on the picture 14?
A. * Infiltrative
B. Rounded
C. Interlobar (perysuscirites)
D. Annular
E. Focal
55. What shape of the shadows is presented on the picture 15?
A. * Infiltrative
B. Rounded
C. Interlobar (perysuscirites)
D. Annular
E. Focal
56. What shape of the shadows is presented on the picture 16?
A. Infiltrative
B. * Rounded
C. Interlobar (perysuscirites)
D. Annular
E. Focal
57. What shape of the shadows is presented on the picture 17?
A. Infiltrative
B. Rounded
C. Interlobar (perysuscirites)
D. * Annular with copious focuses
E. Focal
58. What shape of the shadows is presented on the picture 18?
A. * Infiltrative
B. Rounded
C. Interlobar (perysuscirites)
D. Annular with copious focuses
E. Focal
59. What shape of the shadows is presented on the picture 19?
A. Infiltrative
B. Rounded
C. Interlobar (perysuscirites)
D. Annular with copious focuses
E. * focal polymorphic
60. What shape of the shadows is presented on the picture 20?
A. Infiltrative
B. Rounded
C. Interlobar (perysuscirites)
D. Annular with copious focuses
E. * small focused
61. On the radiogram you might see the changes from the picture № 43. What desease should we
suspect?
A. * infiltrative tuberculosis
B. fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
C. Focal tuberculosis
D. Tuberculoma
E. cheesy pneumonia
62. Patient K., 35. Complains of cough with sputum secretion, weakness, dyspnea at poor physical load.
Three months ago returned from a prison. Examination: the right half of the thorax is narrowed;
lagging in breathing act. The roentgenologic examination: picture № 37. MBT are revealed
bacterioscopically. What clinical form of lungs tuberculosis is this?
A. Lung tuberculoma
B. Nidus lung tuberculosis
C. Tuberculous pleurisy
D. * Fibrous-cavernous lung tuberculosis
E. Disseminated lung tuberculosis
63. Patient K., 36. Got ill acutely after a surgical operation for a stomach ulcer. Roentgenogram: picture
№45. Mantoux test with 2 TO – doubtful. Blood analysis: leuk. – 17,0 x 109/l, ESR – 52 mm/hour.
MBT are found in sputum. What is the most probable form of lungs tuberculosis?
A. Infiltrative
B. Nidus
C. Fibrous-cavernous
D. Cirrhotic
E. * Caseous pneumonia
64. Patient L., 35. The illness started acutely – with body temperature rise up to 39°C, cough with
sputum secretion. Received antibiotics during a week time – no effect. Not numerous moist fine
bubbling rales between the scapulae. Roengenogram: picture № 54. Blood analysis: leuk. – 13,2 x
109/l, ESR – 45 mm/hour. Which is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Disseminated lung tuberculosis
B. Bilateral nidal pneumonia
C. Infiltrative tuberculosis
D. Stagnation phenomena in lungs
E. Caseous pneumonia
65. Patient L., 35. The illness started acutely – with body temperature rise up to 39°C, cough with
sputum secretion. Received antibiotics during a week time – no effect. Not numerous moist fine
bubbling rales between the scapulae. Roengenogram:picture № 54. Blood analysis: leuk. – 13,2 x
109/l, ESR – 45 mm/hour. Which is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Miliary
B. * Disseminated (subacute)
C. Nidus
D. Disseminated (chronic)
E. Infiltrate
66. Patient M.has has changes presented on the radiogramNr.39. What X-ray syndrome are those changes
typical for?
A. Circular shadow syndrome.
B. Syndrome of multiple annular shadows.
C. Syndrome of extensive enlightenment.
D. Syndrome of extensive blackout.
E. * Pulmonary dissemination syndrome.
67. Patient of 29 years on his radiogram has the changes you might see on the picture Nr.36. What kind
of infiltrate is it?
A. Rounded.
B. Nebulous.
C. Interlobar infiltrate (peryscisuratis).
D. Lobular.
E. * Lobar.
68. The parient X., 45 years old, was hospitalized into the phthisiatrical clinic because of the pulmonary
haemoptysis. During the last two years the patient suffered from coughing with excretion of sputum,
the shortness of breath, rising of body temperature to 37,5? C. She didn’t have the X-ray examination
during the last 5 years. At the examination – the left half of the thorax is narrowed, it lates in the act
of breathing. Upon its upper part there are different wet rales. The roentgenologic examination:
picture № 57. What is the most probable clinical form of pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Tuberculoma
B. Disseminated
C. * Fibrous-cavernous lung tuberculosis
D. Cyrrhotic
E. Caseous pneumonia
69. The prophylactic photoroentgenographic examination of a 25-year-old patient showed changes which
present picture № 55. Mantoux test with 2 TO – 7 mm infiltrate. Blood analysis: leuk. – 9,9 x 109/l,
ESR – 26 mm/hour. Which is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Nidus lung tuberculosis
B. Infiltrative lung tuberculosis
C. Nidus pneumonia
D. Lung cancer
E. Eosiniphil infiltration
70. What clinical form of the tuberculosis is presented on the picture Nr.40?
A. Focal tuberculosis
B. * disseminated tuberculosis
C. Infiltrative tuberculosis
D. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
E. Cirrhotic tuberculosis
71. What clinical form of the tuberculosis is presented on the picture Nr.41?
A. * chronic disseminated tuberculosis
B. Focal tuberculosis
C. Infiltrative tuberculosis
D. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
E. Cirrhotic tuberculosis
72. What clinical form of the tuberculosis is presented on the picture Nr.42?
A. * infiltrative with decay and dissemination
B. Focal tuberculosis
C. Disseminated tuberculosis
D. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
E. Cirrhotic tuberculosis
73. What clinical form of the tuberculosis is presented on the picture Nr.50?
A. Infiltrative tuberculosis
B. Focal tuberculosis
C. Disseminated tuberculosis
D. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
E. * Miliary tuberculosis
74. What clinical form of the tuberculosis is presented on the picture Nr.51?
A. * TB bronchial adenitis
B. Focal tuberculosis
C. Disseminated tuberculosis
D. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
E. Cirrhotic tuberculosis
75. What clinical form of the tuberculosis is presented on the picture Nr.53?
A. Infiltrative tuberculosis
B. Focal tuberculosis
C. Disseminated tuberculosis
D. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
E. * TB bronchial adenitis
76. ?What lung desease is presented on the picture № 48?
A. infiltrative tuberculosis
B. fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
C. peripheral cancer
D. tuberkuloma
E. * lung abscess
77. ?What manipulation is presented on the picture 22?
A. Koch test
B. Mantoux test with 2 ТU
C. * BCG vaccination
D. Pirquet test
E. Moro test
78. What result of Mantoux test is presented on the picture 24 (punction reaction)?
A. * Negative
B. Questionable test result
C. Positive
D. Hyperergic
E. There is no correct answer
79. What result of Mantoux test is presented on the picture 25 (punction reaction)?
A. * Negative
B. Questionable test result
C. Positive
D. Hyperergic
E. There is no correct answer
80. What result of Mantoux test is presented on the picture 27 (infiltrate 10 mm)?
A. Negative
B. Questionable test result
C. * Positive
D. Hyperergic
E. There is no correct answer
81. A baby A. was BCG vaccinated on the 3rd day of birth. In 3 months changes of 12 mm in diametre
formed on the spot of the vaccine injection (picture № 33 ). What does it testify of?
A. Lymphadenitis
B. Cyst
C. Keloid seam
D. * Ulcer
E. Cold abscess.
82. A baby B. was BCG vaccinated on the 3rd day of birth. In one year in the place of vaccine injection
of BCG observed changes, which present picture №31 . What does it testify of?
A. * Postvaccinal seam.
B. Lymphadenitis
C. Keloid seam
D. Ulcer
E. Cold abscess
83. A baby C. was BCG vaccinated on the 3rd day of birth. In one year changes of 6 mm in diametre
present on the spot of the vaccine injection(picture31). Your tactics now?
A. Revaccination
B. Prescribe 3 antimycobactical drugs
C. Prescribe chemoprophylaxis
D. X-ray investigation
E. * Mantoux test
84. A baby C. was BCG vaccinated on the 3rd day of birth. In one year changes of 6 mm in diametre
present on the spot of the vaccine injection(picture31). What does it testify of?
A. Postvaccinal immunity is absent
B. * Postvaccinal immunity is present
C. Skin tuberculosis
D. Postvaccinal complication
E. Keloid seam
85. A baby D. was BCG vaccinated in maternity home. In three months changes (picture № 34) formed
in subaxillary region. The children general condition is good. General blood analysis is normal. What
does it testify of?
A. * Posvaccinal complication
B. Unspecific lymphadenitis
C. Tuberculosis of peripheral lymphatic nodes
D. Generalized tuberculosis infection
E. All answers are not correct.
86. A baby D. was BCG vaccinated in maternity home. In three months changes (picture № 34) formed
in subaxillary region, at palpation-fluctuation. What is the postvaccinal complication?
A. * Lymphadenitis
B. Cyst
C. Keloid seam
D. Ulcer
E. Cold abscess
87. A female patient of 45 is disturbed with cough, temperature rise up to 37,5°C. Got ill six weeks ago
after ”the flu”. In a 2 weeks treatment course for pneumonia shadows in the right lung remained
without any changes. Roentgenogram: picture №55 . What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Aspergilosis
B. Lung cancer
C. Eosiniphil infiltration
D. * Nidus tuberculosis
E. Lingering pneumonia
88. A girl was revaccinated in 7 years old. In 9 years old in the place of vaccine BCG was revealed
changes 15 mm in diametre (picture № 35). What is the postvaccinal complication?
A. Lymphadenitis
B. Cyst
C. * Keloid seam
D. Ulcer
E. Cold abscess
89. A man of 43, smoker, complains of cough with little sputum secretion, subfebrility, weight loss. With
the suspect for the abcess-forming pneumonia was hospitalized into a diagnostic department.
Roentgenogram: picture № 47. Blood analysis: leuk. – 9,0 x 109/l, ESR – 19 mm/hour. Sputum
analysis: leuk. – 8-12 in the vision field. Mantoux test with 2 TO – 22 mm infiltrate. What is the most
probable diagnosis?
A. Peripheral lung cancer
B. Abscess of lung
C. Non-malignant tumor
D. Aspergiloma
E. * Lung tuberculoma
90. A man of 46. Two months ago was dismissed from a prison. Has been falling ill gradually: cough,
dyspnea, temperature rise up to 38°C. Roentgenogram: picture № 54. Which diagnosis is the most
probable?
A. Carcinomatosis
B. * Disseminated lung tuberculosis
C. Nidus pneumonia
D. Nidus lung tuberculosis
E. Chronic bronchitis
91. An infant of 6 weeks was vaccinated with BCG SSI at the lying-in hospital.At the place of
vaccination you might see the changes presented on the picture 29. It is:
A. * Normal reaction
B. Complication of vaccination
C. Scar after vaccination
D. Complication which occurred because of violations of aseptic
E. All answers are incorrect.
92. An infant of 7 weeks was vaccinated with BCG SSI at the lying-in hospital.At the place of
vaccination you might see the changes presented on the picture 30. It is:
A. Cold abscess.
B. Superficial ulcer
C. Changes, which occurred as a result of violations of vaccination technik.
D. * Normal reaction.
E. Complication of BCG SSI vaccination.
93. Child of 7 years is healthy. Mantoux test is negative. It is known, that 2 month after previous
vaccination at the lying-in hospital mother found changes presented on the picture Nr.29. Child was
treated at the TB dispensary.What should be done right now in this case?
A. Revaccination with BCG SSI.
B. X-ray of the chest.
C. * Vaccination is containdicated. Once a year should be performed Mantoux test.
D. Registration of the child at the TB dispensary.
E. Vaccination is containdicated. Chemoprophylaxys should be performed.
94. Doctors suspect infiltrative tuberculosis on the radiogram from picture Nr.56.What desease should be
chosen for the differential diagnosis?
A. lung abscess
B. pleuropneumonia.
C. * Eosinophilic infiltrate.
D. peripheral cancer
E. lung infarction.
95. Dry cough, shortness of breath, perspiration appeared in a 19-years old patient after artificial
pregnancy interruption, the body temperature up to 38,50 C. Frequency of breathing was 32 per 1
minute. Rough respiration above the lungs. Roentgenogram: picture № 49 . A year ago Mantoux test
with 2 TU was 19 mm, now it is negative. Haemogram: leucocytes 9 х 109/L, e – 2 %, p – 4 %, s –
74 %, l – 12 %, m – 8 %, ESR – 11 mm/hr.
A. * Miliary tuberculosis
B. Disseminated tuberculosis
C. Infiltrative tuberculosis
D. Caseous pneumonia
E. Nidus tuberculosis
96. Female patient Z., 29 years old, was brought by an urgent medical service car to a regional
tuberculous dispensary. She complains on cough, dyspnea, pain in the right half of the thorax.
Objectively – wooden sound at percussion, auscultatively – the absence of breathing above the right
half of the thorax. Roentgenogram: picture № 38 .What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Lung infarction
B. Lung atelectasis
C. Exudative pleurisy
D. * Spontaneous pneumothorax
E. Pleropneumonia
97. Female patient Z., 39. Got ill with diabetes mellitus six years ago. The roentgenologic examination:
picture № 44 . General condition of the patient is satisfactory. Blood analysis: leuk. – 10,5 x 109/l,
ESR – 25 mm/hour. Mantoux test with 2 TO - positive. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Lung cancer
B. * Infiltrative tuberculosis
C. Pneumonia
D. Abscess of a lung
E. Primary tuberculosis complex
98. In a 7-years old girl in 5 months after revaccination in the place of vaccine injection of BCG
appeared changes, which present picture №32 . What are the indicated phenomena conditioned by?
A. Normal postvaccinal reaction
B. * The vaccine was injected subcutaneously
C. The vaccine was injected intracutaneously
D. Violation of aseptic rules
E. All answers are not correct.
99. In a boy of 7 years old Mantoux test with 2TU is negative. He was BCG vaccinated in maternity
home. Changes according to picture № 31 present in the place of vaccine injection. Your tactics now?
A. * Revaccination
B. Contraindication for revaccination
C. Prescribe chemoprophylaxis
D. Prescribe chemoprophylaxis, later revaccination
E. Repeat Mantoux test with 2TU
100.
In a seven-years old girl in 5 months after revaccination, in the place of vaccine injection of
BCG appeared changes, which present picture №32. At palpation-fluctuation. What is the
postvaccinal complication?
A. Lymphadenitis
B. Cyst
C. Keloid seam
D. Ulcer
E. * Cold abscess.
101.
On the radiogram you might see the changes from the picture № 43. What desease should we
suspect?
A. * infiltrative tuberculosis
B. fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
C. Focal tuberculosis
D. Tuberculoma
E. cheesy pneumonia
102.
Patient K., 35. Complains of cough with sputum secretion, weakness, dyspnea at poor
physical load. Three months ago returned from a prison. Examination: the right half of the thorax is
narrowed; lagging in breathing act. The roentgenologic examination: picture № 37. MBT are revealed
bacterioscopically. What clinical form of lungs tuberculosis is this?
A. Lung tuberculoma
B. Nidus lung tuberculosis
C. Tuberculous pleurisy
D. * Fibrous-cavernous lung tuberculosis
E. Disseminated lung tuberculosis
103.
Patient K., 36. Got ill acutely after a surgical operation for a stomach ulcer. Roentgenogram:
picture №45. Mantoux test with 2 TO – doubtful. Blood analysis: leuk. – 17,0 x 109/l, ESR – 52
mm/hour. MBT are found in sputum. What is the most probable form of lungs tuberculosis?
A. Infiltrative
B. Nidus
C. Fibrous-cavernous
D. Cirrhotic
E. * Caseous pneumonia
104.
Patient L., 35. The illness started acutely – with body temperature rise up to 39°C, cough with
sputum secretion. Received antibiotics during a week time – no effect. Not numerous moist fine
bubbling rales between the scapulae. Roengenogram: picture № 54. Blood analysis: leuk. – 13,2 x
109/l, ESR – 45 mm/hour. Which is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Disseminated lung tuberculosis
B. Bilateral nidal pneumonia
C. Infiltrative tuberculosis
D. Stagnation phenomena in lungs
E. Caseous pneumonia
105.
Patient L., 35. The illness started acutely – with body temperature rise up to 39°C, cough with
sputum secretion. Received antibiotics during a week time – no effect. Not numerous moist fine
bubbling rales between the scapulae. Roengenogram:picture № 54. Blood analysis: leuk. – 13,2 x
109/l, ESR – 45 mm/hour. Which is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Miliary
B. * Disseminated (subacute)
C. Nidus
D. Disseminated (chronic)
E. Infiltrate
106.
Patient M.has has changes presented on the radiogram Nr.39. What X-ray syndrome are those
changes typical for?
A. Circular shadow syndrome.
B. Syndrome of multiple annular shadows.
C. Syndrome of extensive enlightenment.
D. Syndrome of extensive blackout.
E. * Pulmonary dissemination syndrome.
107.
Patient of 29 years on his radiogram has the changes you might see on the picture Nr.36.
What kind of infiltrate is it?
A. Rounded.
B. Nebulous.
C. Interlobar infiltrate (peryscisuratis).
D. Lobular.
E. * Lobar.
108.
The parient X., 45 years old, was hospitalized into the phthisiatrical clinic because of the
pulmonary haemoptysis. During the last two years the patient suffered from coughing with excretion
of sputum, the shortness of breath, rising of body temperature to 37,5? C. She didn’t have the X-ray
examination during the last 5 years. At the examination – the left half of the thorax is narrowed, it
lates in the act of breathing. Upon its upper part there are different wet rales. The roentgenologic
examination: picture № 57. What is the most probable clinical form of pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Tuberculoma
B. Disseminated
C. * Fibrous-cavernous lung tuberculosis
D. Cyrrhotic
E. Caseous pneumonia
109.
The prophylactic photoroentgenographic examination of a 25-year-old patient showed
changes which present picture № 55. Mantoux test with 2 TO – 7 mm infiltrate. Blood analysis: leuk.
– 9,9 x 109/l, ESR – 26 mm/hour. Which is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Nidus lung tuberculosis
B. Infiltrative lung tuberculosis
C. Nidus pneumonia
D. Lung cancer
E. Eosiniphil infiltration
110.
What clinical form of the tuberculosis is presented on the picture Nr.40?
A. Focal tuberculosis
B. * disseminated tuberculosis
C. Infiltrative tuberculosis
D. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
E. Cirrhotic tuberculosis
111.
What clinical form of the tuberculosis is presented on the picture Nr.41?
A. * chronic disseminated tuberculosis
B. Focal tuberculosis
C. Infiltrative tuberculosis
D. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
E. Cirrhotic tuberculosis
112.
What clinical form of the tuberculosis is presented on the picture Nr.42?
A. * infiltrative with decay and dissemination
B. Focal tuberculosis
C. Disseminated tuberculosis
D. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
E. Cirrhotic tuberculosis
113.
What clinical form of the tuberculosis is presented on the picture Nr.46?
A. * Infiltrative (lobar)
B. Focal tuberculosis
C. Disseminated tuberculosis
D. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
E. Cirrhotic tuberculosis
114.
What clinical form of the tuberculosis is presented on the picture Nr.50?
A. Infiltrative tuberculosis
B. Focal tuberculosis
C. Disseminated tuberculosis
D. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
E. * Miliary tuberculosis
115.
What clinical form of the tuberculosis is presented on the picture Nr.51?
A. * TB bronchial adenitis
B. Focal tuberculosis
C. Disseminated tuberculosis
D. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
E. Cirrhotic tuberculosis
116.
What result of Mantoux test is presented on the picture 24 (punction reaction)?
A. * Negative
B. Questionable test result
C. Positive
D. Hyperergic
E. There is no correct answer
117.
What result of Mantoux test is presented on the picture 25 (punction reaction)?
A. * Negative
B. Questionable test result
C. Positive
D. Hyperergic
E. There is no correct answer
118.
What result of Mantoux test is presented on the picture 26 (infiltrate 3 mm)?
A. Negative
B. * Questionable test result
C. Positive
D. Hyperergic
E. There is no correct answer
119.
What result of Mantoux test is presented on the picture 27 (infiltrate 10 mm)?
A. Negative
B. Questionable test result
C. * Positive
D. Hyperergic
E. There is no correct answer
120.
What result of Mantoux test is presented on the picture 28 (infiltrate 18 mm)?
A. Negative
B. Questionable test result
C. Positive
D. * Hyperergic
E. There is nocorrect answer
121.
What method of roentgenologic research is presented on (pic. fig. 46) for diagnostics of
infiltrative tuberculosis:
A. * target X-ray
B. fluorogram
C. roentgenogram
D. CT
E. bronchogram
122.
What is the clinical form of tuberculosis is presented (Fig. 10) on x-ray bilm of the chest of
the patient:
A. TB intrathoracic lymph nodes
B. Primary tuberculous complex
C. TB intoxication
D. * right lung infiltrative tuberculosis
E. tuberkuloma right lung
123.
A patient 26 years present a cough, bad appetite, sweating, temperature of body to 37,5 ? С.
Changes are presented on fig. 36. Most credible diagnosis.
A. heterospecific pneumonia
B. central cancer
C. sarcoidosis
D. * infiltrative tuberculosis
E. lymphosarcoma
124.
What complication is presentation in fig. 38 :
A. haemoptysis
B. amyloidosis
C. chronic lung heart
D. * spontaneous pneumothorax
E. exudative pleurisy
125.
What roentgeno-stage primary tuberculous complex submitted on plain film of thorax (Fig.
50)?
A. * pneumonic
B. resorption
C. "bilateral"
D. consolidation
E. сalcination
126.
What form of tuberculosis can be seen on fig. 42 :
A. focal
B. * infiltrative
C. tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes
D. cirrothic
E. tuberculoma
127.
Patient A. 35 years grumbles about a cough, bad appetite, sweating, temperature of body to
39?С. Reaction of Mantoux with 2 TU is negative. Blood test: leuc. - 9,0*10\9 /L, ESR - 30 mm/h.
Changes are presented on CT (fig. 9) . Most credible diagnosis
A. heterospecific pneumonia
B. central cancer
C. sarcoidosis
D. * miliary tuberculosis
E. lymphosarcoma
128.
Which X-ray examination was carried out to detect tuberculosis bronchoadenithis (Fig. 51):
A. overview of radiography,
B. sighting radiography,
C. fibrobronhoscopy,
D. * tomography at the level of tracheal bifurcation,
E. ultrasound
129.
A boy 18 years grumbles about a cough, bad appetite, sweating, enhanceable temperature of
body to 37,5 ? С. Reaction of Mantoux with 2 TU is infiltration 16 mm. Blood test: leuc. - 9,0?109,
ESR - 30 mm/h. Changes are presented on x-ray film (fig. 10). Most credible diagnosis
A. tuberculosis intoxication
B. central cancer
C. sarcoidosis
D. * infiltratise tuberculosis
E. primary tuberculosis complex
130.
What clinical form tuberculous preasent on X-ray film of thorax (Fig. 44)?
A. tubercular intoxication
B. * infiltrative tuberculosis
C. cirrhotic tuberculosis
D. tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes
E. a primary tubercular complex at the right
131.
Patient 37 years 2 months ago had a “flu”, which continued into cough, general weakness, lost
appetite, sweating, rise of temperature of body to 37,5 С. During auscultation patological changes not
found. Changes are presented on a fig. 54. What most credible diagnosis?
A. miliary tuberculosis
B. central cancer
C. sarcoidosis
D. fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
E. * disseminated tuberculosis
132.
What clinical form primary tuberculous preasent on X-ray film of thorax (Fig. 58)?
A. * fibro-cavernouse
B. resorption
C. "bilateral"
D. consolidation
E. calcination
133.
What is the primary component of the tuberculosis complex, which localised on the periphery
of the lung tissue (Fig. 50)?
A. * Gohn’s focus
B. primary affect
C. lymphadenitis
D. calcification
E. limfangoitis
134.
What roentgenologic stage of primary tubercular complex presented on the survey sciagram
of organs of thorax ( fig. 50) ?
A. pneumonic
B. resorbtion
C. infiltrations
D. compression
E. * calcinations
135.
A boy 6 years grumbles about a cough, bad appetite, sweating, enhanceable temperature of
body to 37,4 °С. Reaction of Mantoux with 2 TU is infiltration 17 mm. Blood: leuc. - 9,0х109/l,
ESR- 28 mm/h. Changes are presented on this sciagram (fig.51). Most credible diagnosis.
A. tubercular intoxication
B. central cancer
C. sarcoidosis
D. * tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes right lung
E. primary tubercular complex on the left
136.
Patient 47 years complains about a cough, bad appetite, sweating, dyspnea. Blood: leuc. 9,0х109/l, ESR- 25 mm/h. At auscultation - amphoric respiration upper part right lung. Changes are
presented on this fig.37. Most credible diagnosis.
A. * fibrous-caverous tuberculosis
B. chronic abscess
C. polycystosis
D. cancer with decay
E. bronchoectasia
137.
What form of primary tuberculosis are presented on fig. 51
A. primary tubercular complex
B. * tuberclosis of intrathoracic limphatic nodes
C. tuberculous intoxication
D. primary tubercular complex with destruction
E. tuberculosis without established localization
138.
Most likely the result of Mantoux test of child with such a change on X-ray film (Fig. 51):
A. 1 mm
B. 4 mm
C. 7 mm
D. 14 mm
E. * 17 mm
139.
At a prophylactic review for a 17 year old fellow found out the right side increase of
bronchopulmonary lymphatic nodes. General state - satisfactory, complaints are not. At physicaly
inspected, pathological changes it is not discovered. Reaction of Mantoux with 2 TO is infiltration 16
mm. A global analysis of blood is without pathological rejections. Most credible diagnosis (rice. fig.
51).
A. megacaryoblastoma
B. heterospecific adenopathy
C. sarcoidosis
D. * tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes
E. lympholeucosis
140.
At a prophylactic review for a 17 year old fellow found out the right side increase of
bronchopulmonary lymphatic nodes. General state - satisfactory, complaints are not. At physicaly
inspected, pathological changes it is not discovered. Reaction of Mantoux with 2 TU is infiltration 16
mm. A global analysis of blood is without pathological rejections. Most credible diagnosis (rice. fig.
41).
A. primary tubercular complex
B. nidal tuberculosis at the right
C. infiltrative tuberculosis at the right
D. * tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes at the right
E. toberculoma right lung
141.
If preventive annual review in 17 years boy found increase bronhopulmonal lymphatic nodes
on right side. His condition is satisfactory, no complaints. Physical examination without pathological
changes. The reaction of Mantoux test with 2 TU - 16 mm infiltrate. Total blood without pathological
deviations. What form bronhoadenitis present Fig. 51.
A. * infiltrative
B. tumorous
C. "small" form
D. Simones focus
E. Gohn’s focus
142.
Patient 37 year old. General condition is satisfactory, no complaints. Physikal examination
without pathological changes. The reaction of Mantoux test with 2 TU - 6 mm infiltrate with vesicles.
Total blood without pathological deviations. The most likely diagnosis (Fig. 55).
A. * focal lung tuberculosis
B. nonspecific pneumonia
C. sarcoidosis
D. TB intrathoracic lymph nodes
E. infiltrative tuberculosis
143.
Patient S., 35. Complains of cough with sputum secretion, weakness, dyspnea at poor physical
load. Three months ago returned from a prison. Examination: the right half of the thorax is narrowed;
lagging in breathing act. The roentgenologic examination: picture № 58. MBT are revealed
bacterioscopically. What clinical form of lungs tuberculosis is this?
A. infiltrative
B. * fibrous-cavernous
C. focal
D. disseminative
E. cirrothic
144.
The most frequent localization of primary pulmonary segmental heat of passion (Fig. 21).
A. I, II, III, IV segment
B. I, II, IV, VII segment
C. * II, III, VIII, IX segment
D. I, II, IV, VI segment
E. I, II, VI, VII segment
145.
In 6-year-old vaccinated in the maternity home with test Mantoux test with 2 TU for the last
two years increased from 6 to 20 mm. More than 3 months of bad apetite, body temperature
sometimes subfebryl. Changes presentation on fig 51. Treatment plan?
A. Ryfapmicyn + isoniazid + pyrazinamide
B. * Rifapmicyn + isoniazid + ethambutol + pyrazinamide
C. Streptomycin + isoniazid + pyrazinamide
D. Rifapmicyn + streptomycin + ethambutol
E. Kanamycin + pyrazinamide + ethambutol
146.
In a 5-year-old child vaccinated in the maternity home with Mantuox test with 2 TU for the
last two years increased from 5 to 18 mm. Changes submitted on plain film of thorax (Fig. 51).
Which diseases should be differentiated in the first place?
A. * tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphtic nodes
B. central cancer
C. sarcoidosis
D. bronchitis
E. Pneumonia
147.
Which clinical forms of tuberculosis is present on Fig. 46:
A. disseminated
B. focal
C. * infiltrative
D. tuberkuloma
E. TB intrathoracic lymph nodes
148.
What Mantoux test more often can be a patient with such a change in the X-ray (Fig. 9):
A. infiltration of 2 mm
B. infiltration of 24 mm
C. infiltrate 19 mm
D. infiltrate 11 mm
E. * Infiltrate 0 mm
149.
Which clinical forms of tuberculosis is present on Fig. 54:
A. * disseminated subacute
B. focal
C. infiltrative
D. tuberkuloma
E. disseminated chronic
150.
The prophylactic photoroentgenographic examination of a 25-year-old patient showed
changes which present picture № 55. Mantoux test with 2 TO - 7 mm infiltrate. Blood analysis: leuk.
- 9,9 x 109/l, ESR - 26 mm/hour. Sputum test is negative. Which plan of treatment?
A. Ryfapmicyn + isoniazid + pyrazinamide + streptomycin
B. * Ryfapmicyn + isoniazid + ethambutol + pyrazinamide
C. Streptomycin + isoniazid + pyrazinamide + ethambutol
D. Ryfapmicyn + streptomycin + ethambutol + kanamycin
E. Kanamycin + pyrazinamide + ethambutol + ryfapmicyn
151.
What complications of primary TB presented in Fig. 15?
A. Decay
B. Sowing
C. * Pleurisy
D. Atelectasis
E. Spontaneous pneumothorax
152.
What kind of X-ray study presented in Fig. 47?
A. Fluorography
B. Sighting rethenohrama
C. Side radiograph
D. Sighting tomogram
E. * Tomogram at the level of tracheal bifurcation
153.
What complication of primary tuberculosis presented in Fig. 5?
A. athelectasis
B. bronchogenic dissemination
C. * pleurisy
D. fistula
E. lymphogenic dissemination
154.
What Mantoux test samples often can be a child with such a change in the X-ray (Fig. 45):
A. hyperemia 3 mm
B. hyperemia 15 mm
C. infiltrate 22 mm
D. infiltrate 10 mm with vesicles
E. * Infiltrate 0 mm
155.
Which clinical forms of tuberculosis before the X-ray (Fig. 41):
A. * disseminated
B. focal
C. infiltrative
D. tuberkuloma
E. TB intrathoracic lymph nodes
156.
Which complication is present in the Fig. 38:
A. haemophthisis
B. chronic lung heart
C. atelectasis
D. bronhogenic dissemination
E. * spontaneous pneumothorax
157.
What kind of X-ray studies presented in Fig. 47?
A. Fluorography
B. roenthgenogramm
C. Side radiograph
D. Sighting tomogram
E. * Tomogram
158.
Which clinical forms of tuberculosis before the X-ray (Fig. 58):
A. disseminated
B. * Primary tuberculous complex
C. infiltrative
D. tuberkuloma
E. TB intrathoracic lymph nodes
159.
Patient M. was diagnosed primary tuberculouse complex (Fif 18). Sputum test is negative.
Prescribe treatment 1-st stage.
A. Isoniazidum+rifampicinum+pyrazinamidum+streptomicinum+ethambutolum
B. Isoniazidum+rifampicinum+streptomicinum
C. * Isoniazidum+rifampicinum+pyrazinamidum
D. Isoniazidum+rifampicinum+kanamicinum+ethambutolum
E. Isoniazidum+rifampicinum
160.
Patient M. was diagnosed miliary tuberculosis (Fig 20). Sputum test is negative. Prescribe
treatment 1-st stage.
A. Isoniazidum+rifampicinum+streptomicinum
B. Isoniazidum+rifampicinum+pyrazinamidum
C. Isoniazidum+rifampicinum+kanamicinum+ethambutolum
D. Isoniazidum+rifampicinum
E. * Isoniazidum+rifampicinum+pyrazinamidum+streptomicinum+ethambutolum
161.
Patient K. was diagnosed miliary tuberculosis (Fig 20). What illness is least likely to
differentiate this process?
A. Silicosis
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Bilateral nidal pneumonia
D. Carcinomatosis
E. * Lung abscess
162.
Patient K. was diagnosed fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis (Fig 17). What illness is least likely
to differentiate this process?
A. Lung abscess
B. * Silicosis
C. Polycystic ling
D. Air cyst
E. Cancer in the decay phase
163.
Which type of shadow present on fig. 47?
A. Infiltrative
B. Focal
164.
165.
166.
167.
168.
169.
170.
171.
172.
C. Linear
D. Ringshaped
E. * Round
What methond is X-ray diagnostic use in this case? (fig. 38)
A. CT
B. MRT
C. lateral film
D. tomogramma
E. * digital fluorogramm
What clinical form of tuberculosis is presented on the picture Nr.1?
A. * focal tuberculosis
B. Disseminated tuberculosis
C. Infiltrative tuberculosis
D. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
E. Cirrhotic tuberculosis
What clinical form of tuberculosis is presented on the picture Nr.2?
A. * Disseminated tuberculosis
B. focal tuberculosis
C. Infiltrative tuberculosis
D. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
E. Cirrhotic tuberculosis
What clinical form of tuberculosis is presented on the picture Nr.3?
A. * infiltrative with decay and dissemination
B. Focal tuberculosis
C. Disseminated tuberculosis
D. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
E. Cirrhotic tuberculosis
What clinical form of tuberculosis is presented on the picture Nr.4?
A. * Infiltrative tuberculosis
B. Focal tuberculosis
C. Disseminated tuberculosis
D. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
E. Cirrhotic tuberculosis
What clinical form of tuberculosis is presented on the picture Nr.5?
A. Infiltrative tuberculosis
B. Focal tuberculosis
C. Disseminated tuberculosis
D. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
E. * Pleuritis
What clinical form of tuberculosis is presented on the picture Nr.6?
A. Infiltrative tuberculosis
B. Focal tuberculosis
C. * Tuberculoma with decay
D. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
E. Cirrhotic tuberculosis
What clinical form of tuberculosis is presented on the picture Nr.8?
A. Infiltrative tuberculosis
B. Chronic tuberculosis
C. Tuberculomawith decay
D. * Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
E. Cirrhotic tuberculosis
What clinical form of tuberculosis is presented on the picture Nr.7?
A. Infiltrative tuberculosis
B. Chronic tuberculosis
C. Tuberculoma with decay
D. * Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
E. Cirrhotic tuberculosis
173.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
174.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
175.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
176.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
177.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
178.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
179.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
180.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
181.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
182.
A.
B.
What clinical form of tuberculosis is presented on the picture Nr.9?
Infiltrative tuberculosis
* Miliary tuberculosis
Tuberculomawith decay
Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
Cirrhotic tuberculosis
What clinical form of tuberculosis is presented on the picture Nr .10?
Infiltrative tuberculosis
Disseminated tuberculosis
Tuberculoma with decay
Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
* Cirrhotic tuberculosis
What shape of the shadows is presented on the picture 11?
Infiltrative
Rounded
Interlobar (perysuscirites)
Annular
* Focal
What shape of the shadows is presented on the picture 12?
* Infiltrative
Rounded
Interlobar (perysuscirites)
Annular
Focal
What shape of the shadows is presented on the picture 13?
Infiltrative
Rounded
Interlobar (perysuscirites)
* Annular
Focal
What shape of the shadows is presented on the picture 14?
* Infiltrative
Rounded
Interlobar (perysuscirites)
Annular
Focal
What shape of the shadows is presented on the picture 15?
* Infiltrative
Rounded
Interlobar (perysuscirites)
Annular
Focal
What shape of the shadows is presented on the picture 16?
Infiltrative
* Rounded
Interlobar (perysuscirites)
Annular
Focal
What shape of the shadows is presented on the picture 17?
Infiltrative
Rounded
Interlobar (perysuscirites)
* Ring
Focal
What shape of the shadows is presented on the picture 18?
* Infiltrative
Rounded
183.
184.
185.
186.
187.
188.
189.
190.
191.
C. Interlobar (perysuscirites)
D. Annular with copious focuses
E. Focal
What shape of the shadows is presented on the picture 19?
A. Infiltrative
B. Rounded
C. Interlobar (perysuscirites)
D. Annular with copious focuses
E. * focal polimorphic
What shape of the shadows is presented on the picture 20?
A. Infiltrative
B. Rounded
C. Interlobar (perysuscirites)
D. Annular with copious focuses
E. * Small focused
What segment of the left lung ispresented on the picture 21 under the number 1?
A. Posterior
B. Anterior
C. * Apical
D. Superior lingual
E. Inferior lingual
What segment of the left lung is presented on the picture 21 under the number 2?
A. * Posterior
B. Anterior
C. Apical
D. Superior lingual
E. Inferior lingual
What segment of the left lung is presented on the picture 21 under the number 3?
A. Posterior
B. * Anterior
C. Apical
D. Superior lingual
E. Inferior lingual
What segment of the left lung is presented on the picture 21 under the number 4?
A. Posterior
B. Anterior
C. Apical
D. * Superior lingual
E. Inferior lingual
What segment of the left lung is presented on the picture 21 under the number 5?
A. * Inferior lingual
B. Inferior lateral
C. Apical of the inferior lobe
D. Inferior anterior
E. Inerior medial
What segment of the left lung is presented on the picture 21 under the number 6?
A. Inferior lingual
B. Inferior medial
C. * Apical of the inferior lobe
D. Inferior anterior
E. Inerior lateral
What segment of the left lung is presented on the picture 21 under the number 8?
A. Inferior lingual
B. Inferior medial
C. Apical of the inferior lobe
D. * Inferior anterior
E. Inferior lateral
192.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
193.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
194.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
195.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
196.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
197.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
198.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
199.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
200.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
201.
A.
B.
What segment of the left lung is presented on the picture 21 under the number 9?
Medial
Inferior medial
Apical of the inferior lobe
Inferior anterior
* Inerior lateral
What segment of the left lung is presented on the picture 21 under the number 10?
* Inferior posterior
Inferior medial
Apical of the inferior lobe
Inferior anterior
Inferior lateral
What manipulation is presented on the picture 22?
Koch test
Mantoux test with 2 ТU
* BCG vaccination
Pirquet test
Moro test
What manipulation is presented on the picture 23?
Koch test
* Mantoux test with 2 ТU
BCG vaccination
Pirquet test
Moro test
What result of Mantoux test is presented on the picture 24 (punction reaction)?
* Negative
Questionable test result
Positive
Hyperergic
There is no correct answer
What result of Mantoux test is presented on the picture 25 (punction reaction)?
* Negative
Questionable test result
Positive
Hyperergic
There is no correct answer
What result of Mantoux test is presented on the picture 26 (infiltrate 3 mm)?
Negative
* Questionable test result
Positive
Hyperergic
There is no correct answer
What result of Mantoux test is presented on the picture 27 (infiltrate 10 mm)?
Negative
Questionable test result
* Positive
Hyperergic
There is no correct answer
What result of Mantoux test is presented on the picture 28 (infiltrate 18 mm)?
Negative
Questionable test result
Positive
* Hyperergic
There is nocorrect answer
What lung desease is presented on the picture № 48?
infiltrative tuberculosis
fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
C. peripheral cancer
D. tuberkuloma
E. * lung abscess
202.
Patient of 29 years on his radiogram has the changes you might see on the picture Nr.36.
What kind of infiltrate is it?
A. Rounded.
B. Nebulous.
C. Interlobar infiltrate (peryscisuratis).
D. Lobular.
E. * Lobar.
203.
Doctors suspect infiltrative tuberculosis on the radiogram from picture Nr.56.What desease
should be chosen for the differential diagnosis?
A. lung abscess
B. pleuropneumonia.
C. * Eosinophilic infiltrate.
D. peripheral cancer
E. lung infarction.
204.
On the radiogram you might see the changes from the picture № 43. What desease should we
suspect?
A. * infiltrative tuberculosis
B. fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
C. Focal tuberculosis
D. Tuberculoma
E. cheesy pneumonia
205.
Patient M.has changes presented on the radiogramNr.39. What X-ray syndrome are those
changes typical for?
A. Circular shadow syndrome.
B. Syndrome of multiple annular shadows.
C. Syndrome of extensive enlightenment.
D. Syndrome of extensive blackout.
E. * Pulmonary dissemination syndrome.
206.
An infant of 6 weeks was vaccinated with BCG SSI at the lying-in hospital.At the place of
vaccination you might see the changes presented on the picture 29. It is:
A. * Normal reaction
B. Complication of vaccination
C. Scar after vaccination
D. Complication which occurred because of violations of aseptic
E. All answers are incorrect.
207.
Child of 7 years is healthy. Mantoux test is negative. It is known, that 2 month after previous
vaccination at the lying-in hospital mother found changes presented on the picture Nr.29. Child was
treated at the TB dispensary.What should be done right now in this case?
A. Revaccination with BCG SSI.
B. X-ray of the chest.
C. * Vaccination is containdicated. Once a year should be performed Mantoux test.
D. Registration of the child at the TB dispensary.
E. Vaccination is containdicated. Chemoprophylaxys should be performed.
208.
An infant of 7 weeks was vaccinated with BCG SSI at the lying-in hospital.At the place of
vaccination you might see the changes presented on the picture 30. It is:
A. Cold abscess.
B. Superficial ulcer
C. Changes, which occurred as a result of violations of vaccination technik.
D. * Normal reaction.
E. Complication of BCG SSI vaccination.
209.
What clinical form of the tuberculosis is presented on the picture Nr.40?
A. Focal tuberculosis
B. * Disseminated tuberculosis
C. Infiltrative tuberculosis
D. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
E. Cirrhotic tuberculosis
210.
What clinical form of the tuberculosis is presented on the picture Nr.41?
A. * chronic disseminated tuberculosis
B. Focal tuberculosis
C. Infiltrative tuberculosis
D. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
E. Cirrhotic tuberculosis
211.
What clinical form of the tuberculosis is presented on the picture Nr.42?
A. * infiltrative with decay and dissemination
B. Focal tuberculosis
C. Disseminated tuberculosis
D. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
E. Cirrhotic tuberculosis
212.
What clinical form of the tuberculosis is presented on the picture Nr.46?
A. * Infiltrative (lobar)
B. Focal tuberculosis
C. Disseminated tuberculosis
D. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
E. Cirrhotic tuberculosis
213.
What clinical form of the tuberculosis is presented on the picture Nr.50?
A. Infiltrative tuberculosis
B. Focal tuberculosis
C. Disseminated tuberculosis
D. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
E. * Miliary tuberculosis
214.
What clinical form of the tuberculosis is presented on the picture Nr.51?
A. * TB bronchial adenitis
B. Focal tuberculosis
C. Disseminated tuberculosis
D. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
E. Cirrhotic tuberculosis
215.
What clinical form of the tuberculosis is presented on the picture Nr.52?
A. * TB bronchial adenitis
B. Focal tuberculosis
C. Disseminated tuberculosis
D. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
E. Cirrhotic tuberculosis
216.
What clinical form of the tuberculosis is presented on the picture Nr.53?
A. Infiltrative tuberculosis
B. Focal tuberculosis
C. Disseminated tuberculosis
D. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis
E. * TB bronchial adenitis
217.
A baby A. was BCG vaccinated on the 3rd day of birth. In 3 months changes of 12 mm in
diametre formed on the spot of the vaccine injection (picture № 33 ). What does it testify of?
A. Lymphadenitis
B. Cyst
C. Keloid seam
D. * Ulcer
E. Cold abscess.
218.
A baby B. was BCG vaccinated on the 3rd day of birth. In one year in the place of vaccine
injection of BCG observed changes, which present picture №31 . What does it testify of?
A. * Postvaccinal seam.
B. Lymphadenitis
C. Keloid seam
D. Ulcer
E. Cold abscess
219.
In a seven-years old girl in 5 months after revaccination, in the place of vaccine injection of
BCG appeared changes, which present picture №32. At palpation-fluctuation. What is the
postvaccinal complication?
A. Lymphadenitis
B. Cyst
C. Keloid seam
D. Ulcer
E. * Cold abscess.
220.
A baby C. was BCG vaccinated on the 3rd day of birth. In one year changes of 6 mm in
diametre present on the spot of the vaccine injection(picture31). Your tactics now?
A. Revaccination
B. Prescribe 3 antimycobactical drugs
C. Prescribe chemoprophylaxis
D. X-ray investigation
E. * Mantoux test
221.
A baby C. was BCG vaccinated on the 3rd day of birth. In one year changes of 6 mm in
diametre present on the spot of the vaccine injection(picture31). What does it testify of?
A. Postvaccinal immunity is absent
B. * Postvaccinal immunity is present
C. Skin tuberculosis
D. Postvaccinal complication
E. Keloid seam
222.
A girl was revaccinated in 7 years old. In 9 years old in the place of vaccine BCG was
revealed changes 15 mm in diametre (picture № 35). What is the postvaccinal complication?
A. Lymphadenitis
B. Cyst
C. * Keloid seam
D. Ulcer
E. Cold abscess
223.
A baby D. was BCG vaccinated in maternity home. In three months changes (picture № 34)
formed in subaxillary region. The children general condition is good. General blood analysis is
normal. What does it testify of?
A. * Posvaccinal complication
B. Unspecific lymphadenitis
C. Tuberculosis of peripheral lymphatic nodes
D. Generalized tuberculosis infection
E. All answers are not correct.
224.
A baby D. was BCG vaccinated in maternity home. In three months changes (picture № 34)
formed in subaxillary region, at palpation-fluctuation. What is the postvaccinal complication?
A. * Lymphadenitis
B. Cyst
C. Keloid seam
D. Ulcer
E. Cold abscess
225.
In a boy of 7 years old Mantoux test with 2TU is negative. He was BCG vaccinated in
maternity home. Changes according to picture № 31present in the place of vaccine injection. Your
tactics now?
A. * Revaccination
B. Contraindication for revaccination
C. Prescribe chemoprophylaxis
D. Prescribe chemoprophylaxis, later revaccination
E. Repeat Mantoux test with 2TU
226.
In a 7-years old girl in 5 months after revaccination in the place of vaccine injection of BCG
appeared changes, which present picture №32 . What are the indicated phenomena conditioned by?
A. Normal postvaccinal reaction
B. * The vaccine was injected subcutaneously
C. The vaccine was injected intracutaneously
D. Violation of aseptic rules
E. All answers are not correct.
227.
Patient L., 35. The illness started acutely – with body temperature rise up to 39°C, cough with
sputum secretion. Received antibiotics during a week time – no effect. Not numerous moist fine
bubbling rales between the scapulae. Roengenogram: picture № 54. Blood analysis: leuk. – 13,2 x
109/l, ESR – 45 mm/hour. Which is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Disseminated lung tuberculosis
B. Bilateral nidal pneumonia
C. Infiltrative tuberculosis
D. Stagnation phenomena in lungs
E. Caseous pneumonia
228.
Patient L., 35. The illness started acutely – with body temperature rise up to 39°C, cough with
sputum secretion. Received antibiotics during a week time – no effect. Not numerous moist fine
bubbling rales between the scapulae. Roengenogram:picture № 54. Blood analysis: leuk. – 13,2 x
109/l, ESR – 45 mm/hour. Which is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Miliary
B. * Disseminated (subacute)
C. Nidus
D. Disseminated (chronic)
E. Infiltrate
229.
Female patient Z., 39. Got ill with diabetes mellitus six years ago. The roentgenologic
examination: picture № 44 . General condition of the patient is satisfactory. Blood analysis: leuk. –
10,5 x 109/l, ESR – 25 mm/hour. Mantoux test with 2 TO - positive. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
A. Lung cancer
B. * Infiltrative tuberculosis
C. Pneumonia
D. Abscess of a lung
E. Primary tuberculosis complex
230.
Patient K., 35. Complains of cough with sputum secretion, weakness, dyspnea at poor
physical load. Three months ago returned from a prison. Examination: the right half of the thorax is
narrowed; lagging in breathing act. The roentgenologic examination: picture № 37. MBT are revealed
bacterioscopically. What clinical form of lungs tuberculosis is this?
A. Lung tuberculoma
B. Nidus lung tuberculosis
C. Tuberculous pleurisy
D. * Fibrous-cavernous lung tuberculosis
E. Disseminated lung tuberculosis
231.
The parient X., 45 years old, was hospitalized into the phthisiatrical clinic because of the
pulmonary haemoptysis. During the last two years the patient suffered from coughing with excretion
of sputum, the shortness of breath, rising of body temperature to 37,5? C. She didn’t have the X-ray
examination during the last 5 years. At the examination – the left half of the thorax is narrowed, it
lates in the act of breathing. Upon its upper part there are different wet rales. The roentgenologic
examination: picture № 57. What is the most probable clinical form of pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Tuberculoma
B. Disseminated
C. * Fibrous-cavernous lung tuberculosis
D. Cyrrhotic
E. Caseous pneumonia
232.
The prophylactic photoroentgenographic examination of a 25-year-old patient showed
changes which present picture № 55. Mantoux test with 2 TO – 7 mm infiltrate. Blood analysis: leuk.
– 9,9 x 109/l, ESR – 26 mm/hour. Which is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Nidus lung tuberculosis
B. * Infiltrative lung tuberculosis
C. Nidus pneumonia
D. Lung cancer
E. Eosiniphil infiltration
233.
A man of 46. Two months ago was dismissed from a prison. Has been falling ill gradually:
cough, dyspnea, temperature rise up to 38°C. Roentgenogram: picture № 54. Which diagnosis is the
most probable?
A. Carcinomatosis
B. * Disseminated lung tuberculosis
C. Nidus pneumonia
D. Nidus lung tuberculosis
E. Chronic bronchitis
234.
A female patient of 45 is disturbed with cough, temperature rise up to 37,5°C. Got ill six
weeks ago after ”the flu”. In a 2 weeks treatment course for pneumonia shadows in the right lung
remained without any changes. Roentgenogram: picture №55 . What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Aspergilosis
B. Lung cancer
C. Eosiniphil infiltration
D. * Nidus tuberculosis
E. Lingering pneumonia
235.
Patient K., 36. Got ill acutely after a surgical operation for a stomach ulcer. Roentgenogram:
picture №45. Mantoux test with 2 TO – doubtful. Blood analysis: leuk. – 17,0 x 109/l, ESR – 52
mm/hour. MBT are found in sputum. What is the most probable form of lungs tuberculosis?
A. Infiltrative
B. Nidus
C. Fibrous-cavernous
D. Cirrhotic
E. * Caseous pneumonia
236.
A man of 43, smoker, complains of cough with little sputum secretion, subfebrility, weight
loss. With the suspect for the abcess-forming pneumonia was hospitalized into a diagnostic
department. Roentgenogram: picture № 47. Blood analysis: leuk. – 9,0 x 109/l, ESR – 19 mm/hour.
Sputum analysis: leuk. – 8-12 in the vision field. Mantoux test with 2 TO – 22 mm infiltrate. What is
the most probable diagnosis?
A. Peripheral lung cancer
B. Abscess of lung
C. Non-malignant tumor
D. Aspergiloma
E. * Lung tuberculoma
237.
Dry cough, shortness of breath, perspiration appeared in a 19-years old patient after artificial
pregnancy interruption, the body temperature up to 38,50 C. Frequency of breathing was 32 per 1
minute. Rough respiration above the lungs. Roentgenogram: picture № 49 . Mantoux test with 2 TU
is 19 mm. Haemogram: leucocytes 9 х 109/L, e - 2 %, p - 4 %, s - 74 %, l - 12 %, m - 8 %, ESR - 11
mm/hr. Which is the most probable diagnosis ?
A. * Miliary tuberculosis
B. Disseminated tuberculosis
C. Infiltrative tuberculosis
D. Caseous pneumonia
E. Nidus tuberculosis
238.
Female patient Z., 29 years old, was brought by an urgent medical service car to a regional
tuberculous dispensary. She complains on cough, dyspnea, pain in the right half of the thorax.
Objectively – wooden sound at percussion, auscultatively – the absence of breathing above the right
half of the thorax. Roentgenogram: picture № 38 .What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Lung infarction
B. Lung atelectasis
C. Exudative pleurisy
D. * Spontaneous pneumothorax
E. Pleropneumonia
239.
What methond tritment complication of BCG vaccination use in this case? (fig. 34)
A. * surgery and medical
B. only surgery
C. only medical
D. pathogenic therapy
E. vitaminotherapy
240.
How long the patient can live with this clinical form without specific treatment? (Fig. 9)
A. * 1 month
B. 6 month
C. 1 year
D. 5 year
E. 10 year
241.
What kind of disease is nesessary to differentiate this clinical form of tuberculosis? (fig. 3)
A. atelectasis
B. peripheral cancer pulmonum
C. central cancer pulmonum
D. silicosis
E. * abscess
242.
What kind of disease is nesessary to differentiate this fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis? (fig. 7)
A. * chronical abscess
B. peripheral cancer pulmonum
C. silicosis
D. chronical bronchitis
E. bronchial astma
243.
Patient R., 55. Complains of cough with sputum secretion, weakness, dyspnea at poor
physical load. Examination: the right half of the thorax is narrowed; lagging in breathing act. The
roentgenologic examination: picture № 37. MBT are revealed bacterioscopically. What is the most
probable rezults of auscultations above upper part right lung?
A. vesicular breathing
B. crepitation
C. pleura friction murmur
D. absent breathing
E. * amphoric
244.
What kind of disease is nesessary to differentiate this clinical form of tuberculosis? (fig. 8)
A. * chronic abscess
B. central cancer
C. polycystosis
D. chronic bronchitis
E. bronchoectasia
245.
What kind of disease is nesessary to differentiate this clinical form of tuberculosis? (fig. 36)
A. silicosis
B. sarcoidosis
C. bronchial astma
D. * pneumonia
E. bronchitis
246.
How long the patient can live with this clinical form without specific treatment? (Fig. 54)
A. 1 month
B. * 6 month
C. 1 year
D. 5 year
E. 10 year
247.
What kind of disease is nesessary to differentiate this clinical form of tuberculosis? (fig. 42)
A. * pneumonia
B. central cancer
C. lung abscessis
D. exudative pleuritis
E. silicosis
248.
What kind of disease is nesessary to differentiate this clinical form of tuberculosis? (fig. 20)
A. * metastatic cancinomatosis
B. chronic bronchitis
C. emphisema
D. abscess
E. peripheral cancer
249.
What kind of disease is nesessary to differentiate this clinical form of tuberculosis? (fig. 57)
A. central cancer
B. bronchial astma
C. * lung abscess
D. chronic bronchitis
E. eusinophil pneumonia
250.
What methond is X-ray diagnostic use in this case? (fig. 47)
A. CT
B. * tomogramma
C. digital fluorogramm
D. fluorogramm
E. MRT
251.
Patient K. Tuberculosis is diagnosed for the first time in 1-2 segment right lung (fig. 55).
Sputum test is negative. Define the clinical category.
A. Cat. 1
B. Cat. 2
C. * Cat. 3
D. Cat. 4
E. Cat. 5
252.
What methond is X-ray diagnostic use in this case? (fig. 4)
A. CT
B. MRT
C. lateral film
D. tomogramm
E. * plain film
253.
Patient S. Tuberculosis is diagnosed for the first time in 1-2 segment right lung (fig. 55).
Sputum test is positive. Define the clinical category.
A. * Cat. 1
B. Cat. 2
C. Cat. 3
D. Cat. 4
E. Cat. 5
254.
What methond is X-ray diagnostic use in this case? (fig. 6)
A. CT
B. MRT
C. lateral film
D. tomogramma
E. * plain film
255.
A boy 6 years complaints about a cough, bad appetite, sweating. Reaction of Mantoux test
with 2 TU is infiltration 19 mm. Blood: leuc. - 10,0х109/l, ESR- 20 mm/h. Changes are presented on
this sciagram (fig.18). Most credible diagnosis.
A. tubercular intoxication
B. central cancer
C. sarcoidosis
D. * primary tubercular complex on the left
E. tuberculosis of intrathoracic lymphatic nodes left lung
256.
Which stage of primary tuberculous complex presented on fig. 18
A. calcification
B. petrification
C. suction
D. * infiltrative
E. scarring
257.
Which is the most probable diagnosis on the fig 54?
A. infiltrative tuberculosis
B.
C.
D.
E.
miliary tuberculosis
fibrouse-cavernous tuberculosis
* disseminated tuberculosis (subacute)
disseminated tuberculosis (chronic)
258.
The prophylactic photoroentgenographic examination of a 30-year-old patient showed
changes which present picture № 55. Mantoux test with 2 TO – 7 mm infiltrate. Blood analysis is
normal. What is the most probable rezult of auscultation?
A. amphoric breathing
B. multiple moist rales
C. bronchial breathing
D. pleura friction
E. * vesicular breathing
259.
Patient N. Treated against lung tuberculosis 10 years ago success. At the present time there is
tuberculosis changes (fig. 42). Sputum test is positive. Define the clinical category.
A. Cat. 1
B. * Cat. 2
C. Cat. 3
D. Cat. 4
E. Cat. 4
260.
Female, 45 years old. Lung tuberculosis with destruction is diagnosed for the fitst time (fig.
8). Sputum test is positive. Define the clinical category.
A. * Cat. 1
B. Cat. 2
C. Cat. 3
D. Cat. 4
E. Cat. 5
261.
Female, 45 years old. Lung tuberculosis with destruction is diagnosed for the fitst time (fig.
13). Sputum test is negative. Define the clinical category.
A. * Cat. 1
B. Cat. 2
C. Cat. 3
D. Cat. 4
E. Cat. 5
262.
Female, 45 years old. Lung tuberculosis with destruction is diagnosed for the fitst time (fig.
36). Sputum test is negative. Define the clinical category.
A. * Cat. 1
B. Cat. 2
C. Cat. 3
D. Cat. 4
E. Cat. 5
263.
At revealing a range in a child of 3 years of age an observation roentgenogram of the thoracic
cage was made, on which changes was revealed (fig, 18). Sputum test is negative. Define the clinical
category.
A. Cat. 1
B. Cat. 2
C. * Cat. 3
D. Cat. 4
E. Cat. 5
264.
A girl of 7 year old, primary tuberculosis revealed (fig. 18). Sputum test is positive. Define
the clinical category.
A. * Cat. 1
B. Cat. 2
C. Cat. 3
D. Cat. 4
E. Cat. 5
265.
Female K. 36. Fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis is diagnosed for the first time (fig. 37). MBT
are stable to streptomicine. Define the clinical category.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Cat. 1
Cat. 2
Cat. 3
* Cat. 4
Cat. 5
266.
Male K. 45 felt ill with fibrous-cavernous tuberculosis 6 year ago (fig. 17). Define the clinical
category.
A. Cat. 1
B. Cat. 2
C. Cat. 3
D. * Cat. 4
E. Cat. 5
267.
Patient K. 65 years old. Lung tuberculosis is diagnosed for the first time (fig. 54). His general
condition is difficult, high body temperature, dispnea. Sputum test is negative. Define the clinical
category.
A. * Cat. 1
B. Cat. 2
C. Cat. 3
D. Cat. 4
E. Cat. 5
268.
Female 45 years old. Lung tuberculosis is diagnosed for the first time (fig. 36). Sputum test is
negative. Define the clinical category.
A. * Cat. 1
B. Cat. 2
C. Cat. 3
D. Cat. 4
E. Cat. 5
269.
Patient N. 32 years old. Lung tuberculosis is diagnosed for the first time (fig. 20). Sputum test
is positive. Define the clinical category.
A. * Cat. 1
B. Cat. 2
C. Cat. 3
D. Cat. 4
E. Cat. 5
270.
Male, 20 years old. His condition is satisfactory. Roentgenologicaly there is calcinates right
lung (fig. 50)
A. Cat. 1
B. Cat. 2
C. Cat. 3
D. Cat. 4
E. * Cat. 5
271.
A boy of 4 years old primary tuberculosis revealed (fig. 18). Sputum test is negative. Define
the clinical category.
A. Cat. 1
B. Cat. 2
C. * Cat. 3
D. Cat. 4
E. Cat. 5
272.
Prescribe treatment patient with FDLTB (Fig. 54). Sputum test is positive.
A. Isoniazidum+rifampicinum+streptomicinum
B. Isoniazidum+rifampicinum+pyrazinamidum
C. * Isoniazidum+rifampicinum+pyrazinamidum+streptomicinum+ethambutolum
D. Isoniazidum+rifampicinum+kanamicinum+ethambutolum
E. Isoniazidum+rifampicinum
273.
Prescribe treatment patient with FDLTB (Fig. 55). Sputum test is negative.
A. Isoniazidum+rifampicinum+pyrazinamidum+streptomicinum+ethambutolum
B. Isoniazidum+rifampicinum+streptomicinum
C. * Isoniazidum+rifampicinum+pyrazinamidum
D. Isoniazidum+rifampicinum+kanamicinum+ethambutolum
E. Isoniazidum+rifampicinum
274.
Prescribe treatment patient with FDLTB (Fig. 36). Sputum test is positive.
A. Isoniazidum+rifampicinum+streptomicinum
B. Isoniazidum+rifampicinum+pyrazinamidum
C. * Isoniazidum+rifampicinum+pyrazinamidum+streptomicinum+ethambutolum
D. Isoniazidum+rifampicinum+kanamicinum+ethambutolum
E. Isoniazidum+rifampicinum
275.
Prescribe treatment patient with FDLTB (Fig. 37). Sputum test is positive.
A. Isoniazidum+rifampicinum+streptomicinum
B. Isoniazidum+rifampicinum+pyrazinamidum
C. Isoniazidum+rifampicinum
D. * Isoniazidum+rifampicinum+pyrazinamidum+streptomicinum+ethambutolum
E. Isoniazidum+rifampicinum+kanamicinum
276.
Patient D. was diagnosed infiltrative tuberculosis (Fig 42). What illness is least likely to
differentiate this process?
A. * Lung abscess
B. Unspecific pnuemonia
C. Lung atelectasis
D. Eosinophil infiltrate
E. Peripheral lung cancer
277.
Patient K. was diagnosed disseminated tuberculosis (Fig 20). What illness is least likely to
differentiate this process?
A. Silicosis
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Carcinomatosis
D. Bilateral nidal pneumonia
E. * Central cancer
278.
Prescribe treatment patient with FDLTB (Fig. 37). Sputum test is positive. MBT are stable to
streptomicini.
A. Isoniazidum+rifampicinum+streptomicinum
B. Isoniazidum+rifampicinum+pyrazinamidum
C. Isoniazidum+rifampicinum
D. * Isoniazidum+rifampicinum+pyrazinamidum+ethambutolum+kanamicin
E. Isoniazidum+rifampicinum+kanamicinum
279.
Which type of shadow present on fig. 46?
A. * Infiltrative
B. Focal
C. Linea
D. Ringshaped
E. Calcinate
280.
Which way of dissenation MBT present on fig. 9?
A. * Haematogenous
B. Lymphogenous
C. Bronchogenous
D. Contact
E. Lympho-bronchogenous