CHM 101
1.
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Which of the following alcohols is popularly
known as “fuel alcohol”? (a) Propanol (b)
Butanol (c) Pentanol (d) Cyclohexanol
C(CH3)2 (OH) – C(CH3)2 – C(OH)2 – CH3, the
name of the above compound is (a) 2,3,3trimethylpentan-2,4,4-triol
(b)
1,1,2,2tetramethylbutan-1,3,3-triol
(c)
3,3,4trimethylpetan-2,2,4-triol
(d)
2,3,4trimethylpentan-1,2,2-triol
An element X has 54 protons, the group which X
belong is (a) Transition (b) Lanthanide (c) Noble
gas (d) chalcogen
The triad concept of grouping three elements of
similar properties was done by (a) Dmitri
Mendeleef (b) John Newland (c) Henry Moseley
(d) Wolfgang Doberenier
A gas absorbs 2000J of heat and expands by
1.5dm3 against a constant pressure of 3atm the
change in internal energy is approximately (a)
+1545.5J (b) +2454.5J (c) -1545.5J (d) -2454.5J
Which of the following is not a state function?
(a) Entropy (b) Work
(c) Free energy (d)
Internal energy
Which of the following alcohols has the least
melting point? (a) 2,2 – dimethylproan – 1 – ol
(b) 2 – methylpentan – 2 - 0l (c) 2,3 –
dimethylbutan – 1 – 0l (d) 4 – methylbutan – 2 –
0l
What class of alcohol is 2-methylcyclohexan – 1
– 0l? (a) Dihydric alkanol (b) Primary alkanol (c)
Secondary alkanol (d) Tertiary alkanol
F- → F + -e ΔH = -xkJmol-1 from the above, the
reversed enthalpy change is (a) Ionization energy
(b) Affinity energy (c) Electronegitivity energy
(d) Electron Affinity
Which of the following equations justify the
general name given to the Group 1 metals of the
periodic table? (a) 2X + 2H2O → 2XoH + H2
(b) 2XNO3 → 2XNO2 + O2 (c) 2X + H2 → 2XH
(d) X → X+ + -e
The polyhydric alcohol which is usually used in
the production of cream, ointment and cosmetics
is (a) Ethan-1,2-diol (b) Propan-1,2,3-triol (c)
Butan-1,2,3,4-tetrol (d) Pentan-1,2,3,4,5 – Pentol
12.
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14.
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16.
17.
18.
1
Which of the following is not correct about the
solubility trend of alcohols? (a) As the number
of OH increases, the alcohol becomes more
soluble. (b) As the number of carbon atom
increases, the solubility in benzene reduces (c)
As more electronegative elements are substituted
for hydrogen, solubility increases (d) As the
number of carbon atoms increases, the solubility
in water decreases.
Arrange the following atoms in order of
increasing atomic radius 9F, 4Be, 13Al, 16S and
10Ne. (a) 4Be < 9F < 10Ne < 13Al < 16S (b) 10Ne <
13Al < 16S < 9F < 4Be (c) 4Be < 13Al < 16S < 9F <
10Ne (d) 10Ne < 9F < 4Be < 16S < 13Al
I Noble gases
II Halogens
III Chalcogens
IV Alkaline earth metals
Which of the above elements have ionization
energy of approximately zero? (a) I, II, III and
IV (b) I only (c) I, II and III only (d) I and IV
only
An alkanol has a molar mass of 158g/mol, the
name of its proceeding homologue is (a) Decanol
(b) Nonanol (c) Octanol (d) Undecanol
H–C–C–C–H
The nomeri clature of the above compound is
(a)
1,1
–
diphenylpropan-1,2-diol
(b)
1,1-diphenylpropan-2,3-diol
(c)
3,3-diphenylpropan-1,2-dio;
(d)
3,3-diphenylpropan-2,3-diol
Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) when work is done on a system, wis +ve (b)
When there is increase in internal energy of a
system, Δu is +ve (c) When heat is absorbed
from the surrounding into a system, q is +ve (d)
When a given volume of a gas expands, PΔv is –
ve.
OH
The
name of the above alcohol is (a) 2 –methyl-3ethylbenzano (b) 5-ethyl-2-methylbenzanol (c) 3
–
ethyl-2-methylbenzanol
(d)
4-ethyl-1methylbenzano
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
The electronic configuration of an element D is
given as: 152 252 2p6 352 3p6 452 3d10 4p6 552 4d10
5p6 6s1 which of the following is not true about
D? (a) It is an alkalimetal (b) It is a period 6
element (c) It is the most electropositive element
(d) It forms a stable oxide
If 1.0kcal of heat is added to 1.2dm3 of oxygen in
a cylinder at constant pressure of 1.0-atm, the
volume increases to 1.5dm3. Calculate the
change in internal energy for then process. (1atm
= 1.01 x 105Nm-2, 1cal = 4.184J) (a) -4154J (b)
+4154J (c) +4214J (d) – 4214J
Who among the following chemists is reffered to
as “the father of thermodynamics”? (a) Sadi
Carnot (b) Willard Gibbs (c) Rudolf clausius (d)
Micheal Firaday
What is the name of the above alkano? (a)
Heptan-2,5-diol (b) Heptan – 3,5 – diol (c) 2 –
methylhetan – 2 5 – diol (d) 2 – methylheptan –
3, 6 – diol
Its nomenclature is (a) Butan – 2 – ol – 1 – ene –
3 – yne (b) Butan – 1 – ene – 2 – ol – 3 – yne (c)
Butan-1-yne – 3 – ene – 3 – ol (d) Butan – 3 –
yne – 1 – ene – 2 – ol
The elements on the periodic table with symbols
Sb and W are respectively (a) Seaborgium and
Tungsten (b) Seabogium and Wolfmium (c)
Antimony and Tungsten (d) Antimony and
Wolfmium
Arrange the above alcohols in order of increasing
boiling point (a) I > II > III > IV (b) II > III > I >
IV (c) III > IV > II > I (d) III > IV > II > I
Which of then following is constantly
exothermic? (a) Enthalpy of formation (b)
Enthalpy of Solution (c) Enthalpy of
neutralization (d) Enthalpy of reaction
Which of the following alkalimetals has its
trioxocarbonate IV salt to be a thermolabile salt?
(a) Lithium (b) Pottasium (c) Caesium (d)
Rubidium
Which of the following elements are mostly
radioactive on the periodic table? (a) Transition
elements (b) Actinide elements (c) Lanthanide
elements (d) Noble gases
Determine the enthalpy change for the reaction:
N2 + H2 → NH3, given bond dissociation
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
2
energies N – N = 163kJmol-1 and N – H = 391
KJmol-1 (a) – 875KJ (b) + 875KJ (c) – 474KJ
(d) + 474KJ
Which of the following hydroxides is the most
soluble? (a) Be(OH)2 (b) Ca(OH)2 (c) Sr(OH)2
(d) Ba (OH)2
How many resonance structures has SO42-? (a)
four (b) five (c) six (d) eight
The correct bond angles for H2), NH3, Co2 and
BF3 (a) 104.50, 1070, 1800, 1200 (b) 1200 1070,
1800, 1050, (c) 1070, 1200, 1800, 109.50 (d) 1070,
109.50, 1800, 1200
:N  N –
From the above Lewis structure, the formal
charge of Oxygen is (a) 0 (b) +1 (c) _1 (d) –2
The geometry of Sf4 is (a) Trigonal planar (b)
see-saw (c) square pyramidal (d) Tetrahedra
Which of the following statements is incorrect
about hydrogen bonding? (a) It exists in all
hydrogen containing compounds (b) It occurs
when hydrogen is bonded to a highly
electronegative element (c) It is responsible for
the high boiling point of water (d) It exist where
we have O-H, N-H, and F-H bonds
Which of the following do you expect to be nonpolar (a) H2O (b) NH3 (c) HF (d) CH4
which of the following structure show exception
to the OCTET RULE? (a) H2O (b) PCl3 (c) Sf6
(d) CH4
An ionic compound is not likely to have one of
this property (a) Higher melting point (b)
solubility in water (c) Good electrolyte when
dissolved (d) electrical conductor in solid state
The molecular shape of PF5 is (a) octahedral (b)
Trigonal bipyramidal (c) Irregular tetrahedron
(d) Square pyramid.
Which of the following species is expected to
have tetrahedral electron pair geometry? (a)
AsF4 (b) SF4 (c) SiCl4 (d) XeF4.
In accordance with VSEPR theory the correct
shape of O3 is
VSEPR basically states that (a) The repulsion of
atomic nuclei helps determine the shapes of
covalent molecules. (b) The repulsion between
electrons helps determine the shapes of covalent
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
molecules. (c) The repulsion between bonds
helps determine the shapes of covalent
molecules. (d) The attraction between electron
pairs around an atom helps determine the shapes
of covalent molecules.
One of these statement is not true of aluminium:
(a) (a) its oxide is amphoteric (b) It is the least
abundant metallic element in the earth crust. (c)
It is easily passivated with a layer of oxide film.
(d) It can be obtained by the hall process.
The most important compound of aluminum and
hydrogen used as reducing agent in many organic
reactions is (a) LiALH (b) LiALH2 (c) LiALH3
(d) LiALH4.
Which of the following statements is not true of
the group III elements?
(a) The valence
configuration is ns2np. (b) Principal oxidation
state is +3 (c) Metallic character decreases down
the group. (d) The +1 oxidation number is only
important down the group.
Which of the following is not true of halogen?
(a) They rarely form itnerhalogen compounds
(b) They form halides with non-metals (c)
Electronegativity increases down the group. (d)
Each halogen displaces the halogens below it
form solution.
The order of water solubility of the carbonates of
the element is (a) BaCO3 < CaCO3 < MgCO3
<BeCO3 (b) BeCO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 <
BaCO3 (c) CaCO3 < BaCO3 < BeCO3 < MgCO3
(d) MgCO3 < BeCO3 < BaCO3 < CaCO3.
Which of the following statements describe(s)
the features of the periodic table?
I.
Metallic character increases down the
group.
II. Conductivity of metalloids increase with
temperature.
(a) I only (b) I and II only (c) I and III only (d)
I, II and III
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
Which of these elements will not give an M2O3
on reaction with oxygen? (a) Al (b) Tl (c) B
(d) Ga E. None.
The main factors that affect ionization energy
are:
I.
The effective nuclear charge
62.
3
II. The number of energy levels
III. Shielding of electrons
(a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III
only (d) I, II and III
In spite of being chemically inert, which one of
these noble gases forms an appreciable number
of compounds? (a) Helium (b) Argon (c) Neon
(d) Xenon.
What is the order of stability of these MH3 types
of hydrides? (a) NH3 > PH3 > BiH3 (b) NH3 >
BiH3 > PH3 (c) PH3 > NH3 > BiH3 (d) BiH3 >
PH3 > NNH3.
One of these hydroxides is readily converted to
oxide on heating. (a) NaOH (b) Al(OH)3 (C)
LiOH (d) KOH.
The paramagnetism of transition element
compounds is due to (a) Paired electrons in the
d-orbitatls (c) Shared valence electrons (d)
Unshared valence electrons.
The least reactive of all the noble gases is (a)
Helium (b) Neon (c) Argon (d) Xenon.
Which of these have the oxidation state of +3
only?
(a) Vanadium
(b) Titanium
(c)
Chromium (d) Scandium.
Cobalt is the transition metal of vitamin ______
(a) A (b) B12 (c) D12 (d) C.
The metal with the largest atomic radius is (a)
Chromium (b) Vanadium (c) Copper (d)
Cobalt.
The noble gas element which is used to full
filaments of lamps is (a) He (b) Ar (c) Ne (d)
Kr.
Major use of sulphur will include
(a)
Manufacture of petroleum refining (b) Rubber
hardening (c) Making explosives (d) All of the
above.
If an exothermic reaction result in great disorder,
the combined changes in the enthalpy and
entropy will lead to (a) Large decrease in free
energy (b) Spontaneous reaction (c) Negative
ΔH (d) All of the above.
In the exothermic reaction,
N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g)
(a) Energy of the reactant is less than the energy
of the products. (b) Energy is the reactant of the
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
reaction (c) Reaction vessel becomes cooler (d)
None of the above.
The heat of combustion of 1g of ethanol used in
heating 100g of water at temperature between
70oC and 80oC is
(a) -193KJmol-1
(b)
-1
+193KJmol
(c) +91.14KJmol-1
(d)
-1
+93548KJmol .
(relative molecular mass of ethanol = 46, heat
capacity of water = 4.2Jg-1K-1).
When a system dies 56J of work and its internal
energy decreases by 84J, the heat absorbed o
released is (a) 28J (b) -28J (c) 140J (d) -140J.
Which of the following is or are exothermic? I
Heat of solution
II Heat of combustion
III Heat of formation IV Heat of neutralization
(a) I (b) II (c) I and II (d) I and IV
The energy changes that accompany the ignition
of a mixture of hydrogen and oxygen are: (a)
Heat and sound (b) Light and heat (c) Sound
and light (d) Chemical and kinetic.
C (graphite) + O2(g)  CO2(g) H r =
393.5KJmol-1
2H2(g) + O2(g)  2H2O(1) H r = -571.6KJmol-1
CH4(g) + 2O2(g)  CO2(g) + 2H2O(1) H r =
+890.4KJmol-1
Determine the enthalpy of formation of methane
C(graphite) + 2H2(g)  CH4(g)
(a)
-74.7KJmol-1
(b)
+74.7KJmol-1
(c) -149.4KJmol-1 (d) +149.4KJmol-1
10g of CaC2 are reacted with an excess of water
at 20oC and atmospheric pressure. Calculate the
work done in expansion against the atmosphere
by the ethylene evolved during the reaction.
CaC2(s) + 2H2O(1)  Ca(OH)2(s) + C2H2(s)
(a) -381J (b) +381J (c) -762J (d) +762J
If a gas absorbs 1000J of heat and expands by
0.5dm3 against a constant pressure of 2atm, the
change in internal energy is approximately
(a) -1.101KJ (b) +1.101KJ (c) -0.899KJ
(d) -0.899KJ
The influence of entropy on a process is given by
(a) The first law of thermodynamics (b) The
second law of thermodynamics (c) Law of
constant heat summation (d) Born-Haber cycle.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
4
For a system with positive S and positive H .
It can only be spontaneous at (a) All temperature
(b) High temperature (c) Low temperature (d) It
can never be spontaneous.
With respect to 1st law of thermodynamics,
which is (a) ΔU = Q + PΔV (b) ΔU + PΔV (c)
PV
ΔU =
(d) None of the above.
Q
Find the heat of combustion of 0.68g of ethanol
used in heating 100g of water from 240k to 350k.
(Specific heat capacity of water is 4.2Jg-1K-1).
(a) 4618KJ (b) 3261KJ
z(c) 3125KJ (d)
4168KJ.
Considering this reaction vessel
2NH3(g)  N2(g) + 3H2(g) H = +92.4KJ
(a) Energy is absorbed by system (b) Reaction
vessel will become hotter (c) The reaction is
endothermic (d) Energy of the product is more.
If 1.0kcal of heat is added to 1.2dm3 of oxygen in
a cylinder at constant pressure of 1.0am the
volume increases to 1.5dm3. The change in
internal energy for the process
[1atm = 1.01 x 105Nm-2, 1cal = 4.184J]
(a) -4214.3J (b) +4214.3J (c) -4153.7J (d)
+4153.7J
Calculate the standard enthalpy change for the
reaction:
2Al + Fe2O3  2Fe + Al2O3
3
2Al + O2  Al2O3 H r = -1601KJmol-1
2
3
2Fe + O2  Fe2O3 H r = -821KJmol-1
2
(a) +980KJmol-1
(b) -980KJmol-1
(c) -1
-1
2422KJmol (d) +2422KJmol
A 44.0g sample of an unknown metal at 99.0oC
was placed in a constant pressures calorimeter
containing 80.0g of water at 24oC. The final
temperature of the system was found to be
28.4oC. calculate the specific heat capacity of the
metal is
[The heat capacity of the calorimeter is 12.4JoC1
]
(a) 0.493Jg-10C-1 (b) 0.517Jg-10C-1 (c) 0.619Jg10 -1
C (d) 0.725Jg-10C-1.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
odium benzoate is a preservative in many drinks,
it is (a) An ester (b) Salt of a mineral acid (c)
Soap (d) Soluble in water.
Give the name of the compound below?
O
||
CH3 – CH – CH2 – C – OCH3
|
CH3
(a) Methoxy–3–methylbutanoate (b) Methyl–3–
methylbutanoate (c) Methyl–2-methylbutanoate
(d) Methyoxy-2-methylbutanoate.
Suggest the name for the ether below?
CH3CH2 – O – CH3
(a) Methyloxyethane (b) Methylethylether (c)
Ethylmethylether (d) Methylethoxide.
In the synthesis of an ester, which of the
following compound is not required?
(a)
Propanoylchloride (b) Ethanol (c) Sulphoric
acid (d) NaOH.
When ethanol reacts with ammoniacal silver
nitrate to give silver mirror, ethanol has
undergone. (a) Reduction (b) Hydrolysis 9c)
Oxidation (d) Epoxidation.
Give the name of the compound below?
88.
89.
90.
91.
(a) 1-methylcyclopentane alcohol
(b) 2-hydroxyl-1-cyclohexane
(c) 1-methyl-2-hydroxylcyclopentane
(d) 2-methylcyclopentanol
Which pair do not match?
(a) CH3 COOCH2CH2CH3 and pear
(b) Amino acid and protein
(c) Sodium-salt of long chain fatty acid and soap
(d) Ketone and H-bonding.
Ketone can be oxidized by K2Cr2O7/H+ oxidation
of. (a) Primary alcohol (b) Carboxylic acid (9c)
Secondary alcohol (d) Ester.
Give the product in the reaction below?
CH 3  C  N  H 2O HCl

 ?
(a) CH3CH2OH (b) CH3CH2Cl (c) CH3COOH
(d) CH3CH2NH2.
Give the IUPAC name of the compound?
92.
93.
94.
5
OH O
|
||
CH3 – C – CH2 – C – OH
|
H
(a) 2-hydroxylpropanoic acid
(b) 3-hydroxylbutanoic acid
(c) 2-hydroxylbutanoic acid
(d) Ethan-2-ol-2-ethanoic acid
Organic compounds obtained from living
organisms are?
(a) Easy to purify (b) High melting (c) Difficult
to purify (d) Made up of only carbon, hydrogen
and oxygen.
Which of the following cannot be an indicator
for purify of liquid organic compound? (a)
Crystallinity (b) Boiling point (c) Colour (d)
Smell.
Aldehydes have higher boiling point than the
following of similar mass?
(a) Alkane and carboxylic acid
(b) Ether and alcohol
(c) Carboxylic acid and ketones
(d) Ether and alkane
Give the name of the compound below?
O
||
CH3 – CH – CH2 – C – OCH3
|
CH3
(a) 2-methylbutanol (b) 2-methylpentan-4-oL
(c) 4-methylpentan-2-oL
(d) Sec-butylmethylketone
Synthetic polymers cannot be made by? (a)
Chain growth
(b) Addition reaction
(c)
Condensation reaction
(d) Saponification
reaction.
Which of the following doesn’t belong?
(a) Polyethene (b) D-Glucose (c) Protein
(d) Cotton
Common amino acid have only one of the
following listed functional groups? (a) Acid
chloride (b) Acid anhydride (c) Carboxyamide
(d) Amine.
95.
96.
97.
Carbon has the ability to form long chains
called? (a) Catenation (b) Hybridisation (c)
Covalent bond (d) multiple bonding.
?

CH3CH2COOH 
CH3CH2COOH
(a) KMnO4 (b) AlCl3 (c) P2O5 9d) K2Cr2O7
What is the name of the compound below?
105. In which of the following groups would you find
the most powerful reducing elements? (a)
Lithium group (b) beryllium group (c) Boron
group (d) Fluorine
106. Which of these statements is incorrect about
diamond? (a) It is the hardest substance known
(b) It us an electrically insulating solid (c) it is a
rigid transparent material (d) used as lead in
pencil
107. Which of these statements are true of periodic
table? I. metallic character decreases from left to
right II. Metallic character increases down the
group III. Low electrical conductivities are
associated with metalloids
(a) I & II only (b) II & III only (c) I & III only
(d) I, II & III
O
||
CH3 – CH – CH2 – C – OCH3
|
CH3
(a) Phenycarbonyl
(b) Benzaldehyde
(c)
Benzene carbonyl (d) Benzeneformaldehyde.
98.
The name of the above compound is
(a) Phenyl-3-methylbenzoate
(b) 3-phenyl-1-methylbenzoate
(c) 1-methyl-3-phenylbenzoate
(d) 3-methyl-phenylbenzoate
99. When a butter becomes rancid, the acid present is
(a) Benzoic acid
(b) Butanoic acid
(c)
Cyclohexanoic acid (d) Acetic acid
100. Which of the following esters cannot be formed
from pentanoic acid?
(a) Ethylpropanoate (b) Methylbutanoate (c)
Butylethanoate (d) Propylethanoate
101. Which of these statements is tree of nitrogen
group elements? (a) They are mostly metalloids
(b) They are mostly non-metals (c) They are
highly electronegative elements (d) metallic
character is pronounced only at the bottom of the
group.
102. The order of acid strength of oxoacids of
chlorine is: (a) HCLO4 >HCIO3 >HCIO (b)
HCLO4 > HCIO > HCIO3 (c) HCIO3 > HCIO
HCLO4 > (d) HCIO3 > HCLO4 >HCIO
103. Which of these factors affect ionization energy of
a gaseous atom? I. Nuclear charge II. Number of
energy levels III. Electron Shielding
(a) I & III only (b) II & III only (c) I, II & III (a) I & II
only
108. The least thermally stable carbonates in the listed
compounds is: (a) Be (b) Mg (c) Ca (d) Sr
109. Which of these statements are true of tungsten
carbide? I. it is a typical covalent carbide II. It is
a typical interstitial carbide III. The carbon atoms
occupy the gaps between tungsten metal (a) I &
II only (b) I & III only (c) II & Iii only (d) I & III
110. Which of these smelting processes is referred to
as hall Process? (a) 2Ga2O3 +3C  4Ga +
3CO2 (b) 2Fe2O3 + 3C  4Fe + 3CO2 (c)
2Al2O3 + 3C  4Al + 3CO2 (d) 2B2O3 + 3C 
4Be + 3CO2
111. The least stable of these tetrachlorides is ……..
(a) CCl4 (b) SnCl4 (c) SiCl4 (d) PbCl4
112. Which of these is true of the flat planes of carbon
atoms in graphite? (a) the atoms are in
heptagonal network (b) The atoms are in
hexagonal network (c) the atoms are in trigonal
network (d) The atoms are in octahedral network
113. One ofthese statements is incorrect about
nitrogen: (a) Has maximum coordination number
of 4 (b) Exhibit expanded octet (c) Forms
104. One of these noble elements forms a significant
number of chloride compounds: (a) Argon (b)
neon (c) Xenon (d) Krypton
6
114.
115.
116.
117.
penetahalides (d) oxidation number varies from –
3 to + 5 in most compounds
A gaseous container contains 34g of ammonia,
32g of sulphur IV oxide and 64g of methane. If
the total pressure exerted is 3.2 atm. The partial
pressure of ammonia is (a0 1.0 atm (b) 1.2 atm
(c) 1.8 atm (d) 2.4 atm
If 200cm3 of methane diffuse through a porous
plug in 40secs. What volume of sulphur IV oxide
gas will diffuse through the same plug for 1min?
[S = 32, C = 12, H = 1, O = 16] (a) 100cm3 (b)
120cm3 (c) 150cm3 (d) 180cm3
If the volume of a given mass of a gas is
increased by a multiple of four and the pressure
is halved. If the initial temperature is 170C. The
new temperature is (a) 3070C (b) 5800C (c)
4050C (d) 4930C
Which of the following structures can be
predicted with using the Valence Shell Electron
pair Repulsion theory? (a) NO3- 9b0 NO2- 9c)
CO32- (d) SO42118. Which of these pairs of oxides is amphoteric I
nature? (a) They are naturally hard metals (b)
They have low enthalpies of fusion (c) they have
low densities (d) They have low melting and
boiling points
119. The reaction: LiH + H2O  LiOH + H2 may be
exploited for: (a) Lithium hydroxide production
(b) Hydrogen production (c) drying organic
solvent (d) carrying out all of the above
120. Which of the following statements is not true of
the group III elements? (a) The valence
configuration is ns2np1 (b) The principal
oxidation state is +3 (c) The +1 oxidation state is
only important down the group (d) Metallic
character decreases down the group
7
PHS
1.
What effect does an isotropic homogenous
medium have on Coulomb’s law for charges
embedded in it? (a) Reduces the force between the
charges (b) increases the force between the
charges
(c) the force between the charges
remains the same (d) none
2.
How many electrons are contained in -1 C of
charge? What is the total mass of these electrons?
(a) 5.9 x 10-12kg
(b) 7.6 x 10-12kg
(c) 9.8 x
-12
-12
10 kg (d) 5.6 x 10 kg
3.
The uranium nucleus contains a charge 92 times
that of the proton. If a proton is shot at the
nucleus, how large a repulsive force does the
proton experience due to the nucleus when it is 1
x 10-11 m from the nucleus center? The nuclei of
atoms are of order 10-14 m in diameter, so the
nucleus can be considered a point charge.
(a) 3.1 x 10-4N
(b) 2.1 x 10-4N (c) 5.5 x
10-4N
(d) 8.0 x 10-4N
8.
9.
102
Four beats per second are heard when two
tuning forks are sounded simultaneously. After
attaching a small piece of tape to one prong of
the second tuning fork, the two tuning forks are
sounded again and two beats per second are
heard. If the first fork has a frequency of 180
Hz, what must the original frequency of the
second fork have been?
(a) 184HZ (b)300Hz (c)450Hz (d)421Hz
Four equal point charges, +3 μC, are placed at
the four corners of a square that is 40 cm on a
side. Find the force on any one of the charges.
(a) 0.97N (b)0.12N (c) 0.43N (d)0.65N
Use the information below to answer Questions 10
and 11.
A charge, 6 μC, experiences a force of 2 mN in the +x
direction at a certain point in space.
10.
Use the information below to answer Questions 4
and 5.
Two point charges Q1 and Q2 are 3 m apart, and their
combined charge is 20 μC.
4.
If one repels the other with a force of 0.075 N,
what are the two charges?
(a)13, 7 µc
(b) 10, 10 µc
(c) 15, 5 µc (d)
5,15µc.
5.
If one attracts the other with a force of 0.525 N,
what are the magnitudes of the charges?
(a) -35 and 15µc (b)-15, 35 µc
(c)-15, 35 µc
(d) -30, 10 µc
6.
A test charge Q = +2 μC is placed halfway
between a charge Q1 = +6 μC and a charge Q2 =
+4 μC, which are 10 cm apart. Find the force on
the test charge and its direction.
(a) 28 away from Q1
(b) 10 away from Q1
(c) 14.4 away from Q1 (d) 2.3 away from Q1
7.
Three +20 μC charge are placed along a straight
line, successive charges being 2 m apart as shown
below (fig1). Calculate the force on the charge on
the right end.
11.
12.
13.
14.
(a) 1.125 to the left
(b) 1.125 to the right
(c) 0
(d) 0.875 to the right
8
What was electric field there before the charge
was placed there? (a) 334.N/C (b) 333N/C (c)
336N/C (d) 338N/C
Describe the force a -2 μC charge would
experience if it were used in place of the +6 μC.
(a) 0.68mN (b) 1.65mN (c) 7.6mN (d)
0.12mN
An electron is shot at 106 m/s between two
parallel charged plates, as shown (fig2). If E
between the plates is 1 kN/C, where will the
electron strike the upper plate? Assume vacuum
conditions.
(a) 0.6cm (b) 0.43cm (c) 0.75cm (d) 0.65cm
An oil drop carries six electronic charges, has a
mass of 1.6 x 10-12 g, and falls with a terminal
velocity in air. What magnitude of vertical
electric field is required to make the drop move
upward with the same speed as it was formerly
moving downward?
(a) 32.7KN/C (b)6.67 KN/C (c)5.8 KN/C
(d)76.3 KN/C
What is the potential at the point midway
between charges of +2 and +5 μC which are 6 m
apart?
(a) 30 KV (b) 21KV (c) 60 KV (d)10 KV
15.
16.
Three charges are placed at three corners of a
square as shown (fig3). Find the potential at point
A.
(a) 400V(b)254V (c)120V (d) 233V
A proton (q = e, m = 1.67 x 10-27 kg) is
accelerated from rest through a potential
difference of 1 MV. What is its final speed?
(a) 34 x 106m/s (b) 18 x 106m/s (c) 14 x 106m/s
(d) 17 x 106m/s
additional charge will flow onto the capacitor
from the 500 V source?
(a) 35nc (b)54 nc (c)20 nc (d)60 nc
Use the information below to answer Questions 24
and 25.
A current of 7.5 A is maintained in a wire for 45 s. In
this time.
24.
Use the information below to answer Questions 17
and 18.
25.
Two metal plates are attached to the two terminals of a
1.50 V battery. How much work is required to carry a
+5 μC charge.
17. From the negative to the positive plate.
(a) 4.5 µJ (b) 6.2 µJ (c) 7.1 µJ (d) 7.5µJ
18. From the positive to the negative plate?
(a) -7.5µJ (b) -5.7 µJ (c) 3.6 µJ (d) -3.6 µJ
19. The potential difference between the two plates in
Fig4. below is 100 V. If the system is in vacuum,
what will be the speed of a proton released from
plate B just before it hits plate A?
(a) 100 km/s (b) 160 km/s (c)200 km/s (d)
140km/s
20. How much charge is stored in a capacitor
consisting of two concentric spheres of radii 30
and 31 cm if the potential difference is 500 V?
assume K = 1 of air.
(a) 345 nC (b) 517nC (c)453 nC (d)679 nC
26.
How much charge flow through the wire?
(a) 23.55C(b)233,78C (c) 337.5C (d)324.2C
How many electrons flow through the wire?
(a) 4.6x 1021 (b) 2.1x 1021 (c) 6x 1021 (d) 7.2x
1021
A copper wire of 3.0 cm2 cross-sectional area
carries a current of 5.0 A. Find the magnitude of
the drift velocity for the electrons in the wire.
(a) 0.22 mm/s (b) 0.54 mm/s (c) 0.12mm/s
(d)0.15 mm/s
Use the information below to answer Questions 27
and 28.
The three resistors in Fig5 below are R1 = 25 Ω, R2 =
50 Ω and R3 = 100 Ω.
27.
28.
Use the information below to answer Questions 21,
22 and 23.
What is the total resistance of the circuit?
(a) 10.3 Ω (b)53 Ω (c)69 Ω (d) 58.3Ω
What are the current I1, I2 and I3 for a 12-V
battery?
(a) 0.301A, 0.112A, 0.0345A (b) 0.310A,
0.213A, 0.034A (c) 0.206A, 0.137A,
0.0685A (d) 0.43A, 0.23A,0.11A
A certain parallel-plate capacitor consists of two plates,
each with area 200 cm2, separated by a 0.4 cm air gap.
21.
22.
23.
Use the information below to answer Questions 29
and 30.
Compute its capacitance.
(a) 44pF (b)54 pF (c)76 pF (d)23 pF
If the capacitor is connected across a 500 V
source, what is the value of E between the plates?
(a) 129 KV/m (b) 67 KV/m (c) 324 KV/m
(d)125KV/m
If a liquid with K = 2.60 is poured between the
plates so as to fill the air gap, how much
The circuit in Fig6 below has a current of 0.5 A when
R is 10 Ω and a current of 0.27 A when R is 20 4.
Find
29.
9
The internal resistance r.
(b) 1.2 Ω (b)3.2 Ω (c) 1.76 Ω (d) 1.1 Ω
30.
The emf E of the battery.
(a) 5.88v (b) 4.332v (c) 6.12v (d) 2.89v
31. A current flowing through a divalent copperplating bath and a silver-plating bath in series
deposits 0.400 g of copper in 10 min. How much
silver is deposited? Atomic weights are 108 and
63.54 for silver and copper, respectively.
(a) 1.5g(b)1.8g (c)1.47g (d) 1.36g
32. An ammeter reads 0.90 A when connected in
series with a silver-plating bath that deposits 2.60
g of silver in 39 min. By what percentage is the
ammeter reading incorrect? (Atomic weight of
silver = 108).
(a) 10.1%(b)8.5% (c) 9.3% (d) 1%
33. In a certain electronic device, a 10 μF capacitor is
charged to 2000 V. when the device is shut off,
the capacitor is discharged for safety reasons by a
so called bleeder resistor of 1MΩ placed across its
terminals. How long does it take for the charge on
the capacitor to decrease to 0.01s of its original
value
(a) 42s(b) 46s (c)58s (d)55s
34. When the device is shut off, the capacitor is
discharged for safety reasons by a so-called
bleeder resistor of 1 MΩ placed across its
terminals.
(a) 10.8ms(b) 10.2ms(c)10.5ms (d)10.1ms
35. A He2+ ion travels at right angles to a magnetic
field of 0.80 T with a velocity of 105 m/s. Find the
magnitude of the magnetic force on the ion.
(a) 3.23 x 10-14N (b) 2.15 x 10-14N (c) 2.56 x 1014
N (d) 7.00 x 10-14N
Use the following information to answer
questions 36 and 37
An electron is moving with a speed of 5 x 107 m/s
at right angle to a magnetic field of 5000 G.
36.
What is the magnetic force on the electron?
(a) 6 x 10-12N (b) 4 x 10-12N (c) 7 x 10-12N
(d) 8 x 10-12N
38.
What is the force on a singly charged carbon ion
moving with a speed of 3 x 105 m/s at right
angles to a magnetic field to 7500 G?
(a) 3.6 x 10-14N (b) 8.9 x 10-14N (c) 6,3 x 10-14N
(d) 9.8 x 10-14N
39. What is the centripetal acceleration of the ion?
(a) 4.88 x 1012m/s2 (b) 1.81 x 1012m/s2 (c) 2.54
x 1012m/s2 (d) 6.32 x 1012m/s2
40. What is the radius of the circle in which the ion
moves?
(a) 49.7mm
(b)34.21mm
(c)56.98mm
(d)73.1mm
41. Alpha particles (m = 6.68 x 10-27 kg, q = +2e),
accelerated through a potential difference V to 2
keV, enter a magnetic field B = 0.2 T
perpendicular to their direction of motion.
Calculate the radius of their path.
(a) 16mm (b) 32mm (c)21mm (d)43mm
42. A charge q = 40 μC moves with instantaneous
velocity u = (5 x 104)j m/s through the uniform
fields E= 6 x 104 (0.52i + 0.56j +0.645k)V/m
B= 1.7(0.693i +0.6j +0.4k) T. find the
magnitude of the instantaneous force on q
(a)1.09N(b)0.78N(c)2.76N(d)3.04N
43. A rectangular loop 6 cm high and 2 cm wide is
placed in a magnetic field of 0.02 T. If the loop
contains 200 turns and carries a current of 50
mA, what is the torque on it? Assume that the
face of the loop is parallel to the field.
(a) 4.1 x 10-4 Nm (b) 4.6 x 10-4 Nm (c) 2.4 x
10-4 Nm(d) 6.1 x 10-4 Nm
44. A circular coil of radius 40 mm consists of 250
turns of wire in which the current is 20 mA.
What is the magnetic field in the center of the
coil?
(a) 37.3 µT(b)36.1 µT (c)54.2 µT (d)10.9 µT
Use the information below to answer Questions 45
and 46.
37.
What is the radius of the circle in which the
electron moves?
(a) 0.42mm(b) 0.57mm (c)0.89mm (d)0.65mm
The fig7 shows two long parallel wires separated by a
distance of 180 mm. There is a current of 8 A in wire
1 and a current of 12 A in wire 2.
Relate the information for 38, 39 and 40 to answer
38, 39 and 40
10
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
Find the total magnetic field at the point A, which
is on the line joining the wire and 30 mm from
wire 1 and 150 mm from wire 2.
(a) 10.6 µT (b)65.2 µT (c) 37.3µT (d)34.4 µT
At what point on the line joining the wires is the
magnetic field zero?
(a) 78mm(b) 72mm (c)60mm (d)45mm
In the Bohr-model hydrogen atom the single
electron orbits the nucleus in a circle of radius a =
5.3 x 10-11 m, making f  6.6 x 1015 revolutions
each second. Estimate the magnetic field at the
nucleus.
(a) 32T(b) 20T(c)15T (d) 13T
An axle of a truck is 2.4 m long. If the truck is
moving due north at 30 m/s at a place where the
vertical component of the earth’s magnetic field is
90 μT, what is the potential difference between
the two ends of the axle.
(a) 6.48mV (b)5.89mV (c)6.13mV (d)5.98mV
A magnetic field B is perpendicular to the 7.0 cm2
area of a 50 loop coil. The ends of the essentially
resistanceless coil are connected across a 30 Ω
resistor. Find the current through the resistor if B
= 75e-200t G, where t is measured in seconds.
(a) 2.34 exp {-200t} mA (b) 1.75 exp {-200t} mA
(c) 4.89 exp {-200t} mA (d) 3.56 exp {-200t}
mA
How much charge will flow through a 200 Ω
galvanometer connected to a 400 Ω circular coil
of 1000 turns wound on a wooden stick 20 mm in
diameter, if a magnetic field B = 0.0113 T
parallel to the axis of the stick is decreased
suddenly to zero?
(a)3.5 µC (b)6.2 µC (c)9.2 µC (d)+5.9µC
11
PHS 101
1.
A mass m suspended from a spring of
constant k has a period T. If a mass M
is added, the period becomes 3T. Find
M in terms of m.
(a) 3m (b) 8m (c)7m (d)10m
Use the information below to answer
Questions 2, 3 and 4.
A spring-mass oscillator has a total energy
E0 and an amplitude x0.
7.
How large will K(KE) and U(PE) be
1
for it when x = x0 ?
2
E0
4 E0
(a)
(b)
and
2
4
E0
9 E0
(c)
and
5
4
E0
3E
(d)
and 0
4
4
3E 0
7 E0
and
7
4
8.
For what value of x will K = U?
(a) x0 2 (b) x0 3 (c) x0
A ball moves in a circular path of 0.15 m
diameter with a constant angular speed of 20
rev/min. Its shadow performs simple
harmonic motion on the wall behind it. Find
the acceleration and speed of the shadow.
2.
3.
4.
At a turning point of the motion.
(a)
0.329m/s,1.229m/s2
(b)0,
2
0.349m/s (c) 0.543m/s, 0.559m/s2
(d)0, 0.329m/s2
At the equilibrium position.
(a) 0.and 0.188m/s (b) 0.and 0.157m/s
(c) 0.and 0.177m/s (d) 1.and
2.167m/s
At a point 6 cm from the equilibrium
position.
(a) 0.263 and 0.0942 (b) 0.234, 0.054
(c) 0.345, 0.345 (d)
9.
Use the information below to answer
Questions 5 and 6.
A particle attached to a spring undergoes
SHM. The maximum acceleration of the
particle is 18 m/s2 and the maximum speed
is 3 m/s. find
5.
6.
10.
The frequency of the particle’s motion.
(a) 2.11Hz (b) 0.34Hz (c) 1.54Hz (d)
0.95HZ
The amplitude.
(a) 0.5m (b)0.7m (c) 1.4m (d) 5.7m
11.
Use the information below to answer
Questions 7 and 8
12
4
(d) x0 5
The energy of recoil of a rocket
launcher of mass m = 4536 kg is
absorbed in a recoil spring. At the end
of the recoil, a damping dashpot
engages so that the launcher returns to
the firing position without any
oscillation (critical damping). The
launcher recoils 3 m with an initial
speed of 10 m/s. Find the recoil spring
constant (k).
(a) 50.4AkN/m (b)
44.3AkN/m
(c) 32.1AkN/m (d) 30.2A kN/m
A 3 1b weight hangs at the end of a
spring which has k = 25 1b/ft. If the
weight is displaced slightly and
released, with what frequency will it
vibrate?
(a) 3.33Hz (b) 2.61 Hz (c) 3.77Hz (d)
1.43Hz
If the bulk modulus of water is 2100
MPa, what is the speed of sound in
water.
(a) 345m/s (b) 135m/s (c) 1450m/s
(d)150m/s
12.
A certain 120 Hz wave on a string has
an amplitude of 0.160 mm. How much
energy exists in an 80 g length of the
string? Assume that one wavelength of
the string has mass far smaller than 80
g.
(a) 0.45mJ (b) 0.58mJ (c)1.67mJ
(d)2.12mJ
13. Sources separated by 20 m vibrate
according to the equations
(m)
y1 = 0.66 sin t
(m)
y2 = 0.02 sin t
They send out waves along a rod of
speed 3 m/s. What is the equation of
motion of a particle 12 m from the first
source and 8 m from the second?
(a) y = 0.066sinπt – 0.0123 cos πt
(b) y = 0.099sinπt – 0.0178 cos πt
(c) y = 0.088sinπt – 0.0290 cos πt
(d) y = 0.05sinπt – 0.0173 cos πt
14. The third overtone produced by a
vibrating string 2 m long is 1200 Hz.
What is the velocity of propagation?
(a) 1200m/s (b) 3500m/s (c)2300m/s
(d)4400m/s
Use the information below to answer
Questions 15, 16 and 17.
19.
20.
21.
A 160 cm long string has to adjacent
resonances at frequencies of 85 and 102 Hz.
15.
16.
17.
18.
a frequency of 480 Hz. What is the
mass per unit length of the string?
(a) 1.91 x 10-5kg/m (b) 1.93 x 106
kg/m (c) 1.54 x 10-5kg/m (d)
1.77x 10-5kg/m
Sound waves of frequency 320 Hz are
sent into the top of a vertical tube
containing water at a level that can be
adjusted. If standing waves are
produced at two successive water
levels -20 cm and 73 cm-what is the
speed of the sound waves in the air of
the tube?
(a) 338m/s (b) 339m/s (c)342m/s (d)
340m/s
What is the speed of sound in air when
the temperature is 35 oC? The speed of
sound in air at 0 oC is 331 m/s.
(a) 451.5m/s (b) 731.7m/s (c) 351.6m/s
(d)341.8m/s
Two closed organ pipes sounded
simultaneously give five beats per
second between the fundamentals. If
the shorter pipe is 1.1 m long, find the
length L of the longer pipe. Assume
that v in air = 340 m/s.
(a) 3.21m (b) 1.18m
(c)0.08m
(d)1.14m
Use the information below to answer
Questions 22 and 23.
What is the fundamental frequency of
the string?
(a) 17Hz (b) 27Hz (c) 37Hz(d)40Hz
What is the length of a segment at the
85 Hz resonance?
(a) 32cm (b) 55cm (c) 98cm (d)
31cm
What is the speed of the waves on the
string?
(a) 60m/s (b) 31.2m/s (c) 45.7m/s (d)
54.4m/s
A vertically suspended 200 cm length
of string is given a tension equal to the
weight of an 800 g mass. The string is
found to resonate in three segments to
A hawk is flying directly away from a
birdwatcher and directly toward a distant
cliff at a speed of 15 m/s. The hawk
produces a shrill cry whose frequency is 800
Hz.
22.
23.
13
What is the frequency in the sound that
the birdwatcher hears directly from the
bird.
(a) 667Hz (b) 896Hz (c)887Hz (d)
766Hz
What is the frequency that the
birdwatcher hears in the echo that is
reflected from the cliff?
(a) 837Hz (b) 987Hz (c) 937Hz (d)
890Hz
29.
Use the information below to answer
Questions 24 and 25.
30.
As shown in Fig1 below, an observer P is
standing between two parallel trains tracks
when two trains approach from opposite
directions. Locomotive A has a speed |vA| =
15 m/s. It toots its whistle, which has a
frequency v0 = 200 Hz. Locomotive B has a
speed |vB| = 30 m/s. The speed of sound in
the air is 340 m/s, and no breeze is blowing.
24.
25.
31.
Find the wavelength 1 and frequency
v1 of the sound waves observer P
receives from locomotive A.
(a) 209Hz (b) 309Hz (c) 409Hz (d)
609Hz
What frequency v2 is heard by the
engineer on locomotive B?
(a) 218Hz (b) 387Hz (c) 228Hz (d)
438Hz
32.
33.
Relate Questions 26 and 27.
26.
27.
28.
What is the intensity of 60 dB sound?
(a) 1µW/m2 (b) 3µW/m1 (c)
1µW/m4 (d) 2µW/m2
If the sound level is 60 dB close to a
speaker that has an area of 120 cm2,
what is the acoustic power output of
the speaker?
(a) 10nW (b) 55nW (c) 12nW
(d)23nW
Assume that the average sound level in
a certain room due to one person
speaking is 40 dB. What will be the
sound level when 20 people are
speaking? Although it is not correct to
do so, assumed each of the 20 people
speaks at the same level as did the
single person.
(a) 89dB (b) 65dB(c) 77dB (d) 53dB
Light passes from air into a liquid and
is deviated 19o when the angle of
incidence is 52o. What is the index of
refraction of the liquid?
(a) 2.34 (b) 1.50 (c) 1.45 (d) 1.44
At what angle of incidence should a
beam of light strike the surface of a
still pond if the angle between the
reflected ray and the refracted ray is to
be 900 ? (n=1.33 for water)
(a) 530 (b) 450 (c) 650 (d)550
The index of refraction of a flint glass
is 1.64. Find the critical angle of
incidence for a glass-water interface, if
light is incident from water at an angle
of 44o.
(a) 54.40 (b) 35.80 (c)44.30 (d)66.70
When a fish looks up at the surface of
a perfectly smooth lake, the surface
appears dark except inside a circular
area directly above it. Calculate the
angle  that this illuminated region
subtends.
(a) 68.40 (b) 97.20 (c) 99.30 (d) 100.60
A ray of light is incident on the left
vertical face of a glass cube of
refractive index n2, as shown in below.
The plane of incidence is the plane of
the page, and the cube is surrounded
by liquid (n1). What is the largest angle
of incidence 1 for which total internal
inflection occurs at the top surface?
(a)
34.
35.
14
A beam of sodium light passes from
air into water and then into flint glass,
all with parallel surfaces. If the angle
of incidence in the air is 45o, what is
the angle of refraction in the glass?
(a)320 (b)380 (c)290 (d) 260
(n = 1.333 and 1.63 for water and flint
glass, respectively).
A layer of benzene (index of refraction
= 1.50) floats on water. If the angle of
incidence of the light entering the
benzene from air is 60o, what is the
angle the light makes with the vertical
in the benzene and in the water?
(a) 410 (b)350 (c)600 (d) 530
(a) 55.50 (b) 43.70 (c) 35.50 (d) 65.40
41. The angle of deviation.
(a) 65.50 (b) 35.50 (c) 33.40 (d) 76.50
Use the information below to answer
Questions 42 and 43.
Use the information below to answer
Questions 36, 37 and 38.
A beam of light is passing through air to oil
to water.
A prism having an apex angle 4o ad
refractive index 1.50 is located in front of a
vertical plane mirror as shown below. A
horizontal ray of light is incident on the
prism.
36.
42.
37.
38.
39.
If the angle of incidence in the air is
40o, find the angle of refraction in the
water. The index of refraction for the
oil is 1.45.
(a)0 (b)does not exist (c) 28.90
(d)40.5
If possible, find the angle of incidence
in air such that the beam will not enter
the water.
(a)28.90 (b)0 (c) impossible (d)40.50
Suppose that the direction of the beam
is reversed. If possible, find the angle
of incidence in water so that the beam
will not enter the air.
(a) 100 (b)does not exist (c) 48.60
(d)52.60
Light enters a glass prism having a
refracting angle of 60o. If the angle of
incidence is 30o (incident ray is
parallel to base) and the index of
refraction of the glass is 1.50, what is
the angle the ray leaving the prism
makes with the normal?
(a) 660 (b) 770 (c) 830 (d) 470
43.
44.
45.
Use the information below to answer
Questions 40 and 41.
46.
A ray of light is incident at 30o on a prism
with apex angle A = 55o and index of
refraction 1.50. Calculate
40.
The angles the ray makes with the
sides of the prism.
15
What is the angle of incidence at the
mirror?
(a) 20 (b) 40 (c)60 (d)70
Through what total angle is the ray
deviated?
(a) -1780 (b) 980 (c) -2210 (d)1780
A plastic hemisphere has a radius of
curvature of 8 cm and an index of
refraction of 1.6. On the axis halfway
between the plane surface and the
spherical one (4 cm from each) is a
small flaw. How far from the surface
does the flaw appear to be when
viewed along the axis of the spherical
surface?
(a) -2.52cm (b) -3.25cm (c) 3.25cm
(d) 3.44cm
A plastic hemisphere (radius = R, n =
1.42) is sealed to the end of a long
cylinder of the same material, as
shown in fig2. A narrow beam of
parallel light is sent through the system
from left to right. How far from its
point of entry is the beam brought to
focus?
(a) 3.34R(b) 4.44R (c) 2.66R (d)
3.38R
Two mirrors, each 1.6 m long, are
facing each other. The distance
between the mirrors is 20 cm. A light
ray is incident on one end of one of the
mirrors at an angle of incidence of 30o.
How many times is the ray reflected
before it reaches the other end?
(a) 14 (b) 0.19 (c)20 (d)18
Use the information below to answer
Questions 47 and 48.
In fig3 below, a ray of light is incident at 50o
on the middle of one of a pair of mirrors
arranged at 60o to each other.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
Calculate the angle at which the ray is
incident on the second mirror.
(a) 10 (b)20 (c)30 (d)40
Calculate the angle at which the ray is
incident on the first mirror after being
reflected from the second mirror.
(a) 50 (b) 60(c) 80(d)70
Two plane mirrors are parallel to each
other and spaced 20 cm apart. A
luminous point is placed between them
and 5 cm from one mirror. Determine
the distance from each mirror of the
three nearest images in each.
(b) 10, 15, 20cm (b)5,10,15cm
(c)4,8, and 12cm (d) 15, 25
and 55cm
A concave mirror has radius of
curvature of 0.80 m. Where does this
mirror bring sunlight to a focus?
(a)1.6cm (b)1.65cm (c) 0.40cm (d)
0.6cm
It is desired to cast the image of a
lamp, magnified 5 times, upon a wall
12 ft distant from the lamp. What kind
of spherical mirror is required and
what is its position?
(a)concave -5ft (b) convex, -5ft (c)
concave, 5ft (d) convex, 5ft
An amateur lens grinder wants to grind
a converging lens of crown glass (n =
1.52) with the same curvature on both
sides and a focal length of 25 cm.
What radius of curvature must he grind
on each face?
(a)12cm (b) 26cm (c)20cm (d) 15cm
An object 6 cm high is placed 40 cm
from a thin converging lens of 8 cm
55.
56.
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focal length. A second converging lens
of 12 cm focal length is placed 20 cm
from the first lens. Find the position,
size, and character of the final image.
(a) 10cm, virtual, erect (b) 60cm
virtual, inverted (c)60cm, virtual,
erect (d)60cm, real, inverted
A convex lens of focal length 12 cm is
placed in contact with a plane mirror.
If an object is placed 20 cm from the
lens, where is the final image formed?
(a) 8.6cm, left of the lens
(b)
10.6cm,left of the lens (c)10.6cm
to the right (d) 8.6cm to right of the
lens.
Laser light (630 nm) incident on a pair
of slits produces an interference
pattern in which the bright fringes are
separated by 8.3 mm. A second light
produces an interference pattern in
which the bright fringes are separated
by 7.6 mm. What is the wavelength of
this second light?
(a) 676nm (b) 557nm (c)887nm (d)
563nm
The rest masses of the proton, neutron,
and deuteron are
mp = 1.67261 x 10-27 kg
mn = 1.67492 x 10-27 kg
md = 3.34357 x 10-27 kg
The deuteron (the nucleus of heavy
hydrogen) consists of a proton and a
neutron. How much energy should
be liberated in the formation of a
deuteron from a free proton and free
neutron, initially at rest “at infinity”?
57.
(a) 2.22MeV (b)1.65eV (c) 1.34e
V(d) 4.88eV
Find the energy of the photons in a
beam whose wavelength is 526 nm,
(a) 2.36eV (b)0.98eV (c)`1.43eV (d)
2.66eV
Use the information below to answer
Questions 58, 59 and 60.
A surface has light of wavelength 1 = 550
nm incident on it, causing the ejection of
photoelectrons for which the stopping
potential is Vs1 = 0.19 V. Suppose that
radiation of wavelength 2 = 190 nm were
incident on the surface. Calculate
58.
59.
60.
The stopping potential Vs2.
(a) 4.47v (b) 4.50v (c) 5.00v (d)5.98v
The work function of the surface
(a)
2.09eV (b) 2.07eV
(c)
3.13eV(d)1.25eV
The threshold frequency for the
surface.
(a) 222THz (b) 555THz (c) 498THz
(d) 431THz
17