General Biology I: Final Exam
[Raven & Johnson, 2007]
Copy # _______
Part I: Multiple Choice Select the one best answer for each of the following questions. Fill in the entire space on
the answer sheet for the corresponding answer.
1.
Each is a general characteristic of living organisms except
(A) ordered complexity (B) sensitivity (C) growth (D) energy utilization (E) abiotic crystals
2.
Which of the following sequences of organization is likely to be seen in a multicellular organism, going from smallest
to largest?
(A) cell, tissue, organ, organism (B) cell, organ, system, tissue (C) cell, organ, tissue, organism
(D) organism, system, organ, tissue (E) tissue, system, cell , organ
3.
What do we call the maintenance of internal conditions of an organism within a certain boundary range?
(A) taxonomy (B) adaptation (C) homeostasis (D) catabolism (E) genetics
-----------------------For question 4, refer to the following processes:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
conclusion
experimentation
formulating the hypothesis
observation
4.
Which of the following sequences places the processes in proper order of the scientific method?
(A) a, c, b, d (B) d, c, b, a (C) c, b, a, d (D) b, c, d, a
-----------------------5. An alien from another planet landed on earth. He is fascinated by cars and is determined to figure out how they work.
He decides to disassemble one of them and examine each part independently. He removes one of the tires and
proceeds to learn all he can about the tire. He then removes one of the headlights and proceeds to learn all he can
about the headlight. What type of approach is this alien taking to learn about the car?
(A) relativism (B) inductive reasoning (C) deductive reasoning (D) reductionism (E) operant conditioning
6.
Four groups of mice consume different amounts of sweetener in their food. The control group is the one that
receives
(A) 10 mg/day of sweetener (B) 50 mg/day of sweetener (C) no sweetener (D) extra food (E) milk instead of water
7.
What is a hypothesis?
(A) a report of the findings of scientific experiments
(B) use of isolated facts to reach a non-testable idea that may explain a phenomenon
(C) a general statement made to include the work of many scientists
(D) an observational investigation
(E) a tentative statement, based on data, that can be used to guide further observations and experimentation
8.
An atom that has one electron in the outer shell would most likely
(A) form sulfide bonds only
(B) lose the electron and become a negatively charged ion
(C) lose the electron and become a positively charged ion
(D) share seven electrons to acquire a completed outer shell
(E) tend to be inert (unreactive)
9.
An element has an atomic number of 14. Its electron distribution from inner to outer energy levels is
(A) 1-4-8 (B) 1-8-5 (C) 2-8-2 (D) 2-8-4 (E) 2-8-6
10. Each is a property of water except
(A) nonpolar (B) maximum density at 4 degrees centigrade (C) good solvent
(D) molecules are cohesive (E) liquid at room temperature
11. Which of the following elements is not one of the six most common in living organisms?
(A) carbon (B) oxygen (C) iron (D) nitrogen (E) hydrogen
12. ATP
(A) provides enzymes for metabolism (B) is a high-energy molecule which breaks down to ADP + phosphate
(C) is a lipid (D) is an amino acid (E) has a helical structure
13. The shape of a polypeptide is
(A) maintained by bonding between parts of the polypeptide (B) important to its function
(C) ultimately dependent upon the primary structure (D) all of these are correct
14. Which of these is not a characteristic of carbon?
(A) forms four covalent bonds (B) bonds with itself (C) forms long chains (D) forms rings (E) is sometimes ionic
15. Mitochondria
(A) break down nucleic acids (B) are involved in cellular respiration
(D) are involved in secretion (E) direct cell division
16. Which of these is not found in the nucleus?
(A) chromatin that condenses to chromosomes
(D) histones (E) DNA
(C) contain grana and thylakoids
(B) nucleolus that produces rRNA
(C) Golgi apparatus
17. Which of these best distinguishes a prokaryotic cell from a eukaryotic cell?
(A) Prokaryotic cells have a cell wall, but eukaryotic cells never do.
(B) Prokaryotic cells are much larger than eukaryotic cells.
(C) Prokaryotic cells have flagella, but eukaryotic cells do not.
(D) Prokaryotic cells do not have a membrane-bounded nucleus, but eukaryotic cells do have such a nucleus.
(E) Prokaryotic cells display a higher degree of compartmentalization.
18. The small size of cells is best correlated (or linked) with
(A) an adequate surface area for exchange of materials (B) their prokaryotic versus eukaryotic nature
(C) their number of lysosomes (D) the fact they are self-reproducing (E) whether they have cilia
19. Which is not true about the cell theory?
(A) It states that bacteria and other small organisms can arise spontaneously.
(B) It states that all cells come from preexisting cells.
(C) It states that all organisms are composed of cells.
(D) Its various parts were described by Schleiden, Schwann, and Virchow.
(E) It is accepted today by biologists as applying to virtually all forms of life.
20. The major functions of the plasma membrane do not include
(A) separation of the fluid environments inside and outside the cell.
(B) regulation of molecules and ions that pass into and out of the cell.
(C) recognition and communication between different cells and tissues.
(D) maintaining connections between adjacent cells.
(E) production of proteins used within the cell.
21. Whether a molecule can cross the plasma membrane depends upon
(A) the size of the molecule (B) the shape of the molecule (C) the charge of the molecule
(D) the chemical properties of the molecule (E) all of the above
22. Which phrase does not describe one of the functions of proteins of the plasma membrane?
(A) forming a channel through the membrane
(B) binding to a substance to carry it through the membrane
(C) triggering the duplication of the genetic material
(D) acting as a receptor for substances external to the cell
(E) increasing the rate of a chemical reaction
23. In cells, oxidation is accomplished by the
(A) addition of argon (B) addition of sulfur (C) removal of carbon atoms (D) removal of hydrogen and electrons
(E) addition of nitrogen
24. Any energy transformation involves the loss of some energy as
(A) electricity (B) heat (C) light (D) motion (E) magnetism
----------For questions 25 and 26, use the following key:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
movement of a substance against its concentration through the release of energy from ATP
passive movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration
passive movement of molecules from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration
movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of low water concentration to an area of
higher water concentration
(E) movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of high water concentration to an area of
lower water concentration
25. Which is the best definition of diffusion?
26. Which is the best definition of active transport?
----------For question 27, use the following key:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Salts will move into the cell from the surrounding solution.
Water will move into the cell from the surrounding solution.
Salts will move out of the cell into the surrounding solution.
Water will move out of the cell into the surrounding solution.
None of the above will occur.
27. If a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, which will occur?
----------For questions 28 and 29, use the following key:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
facilitated transport
active transport
uniporter transport
endocytosis
exocytosis
28. The sodium-potassium pump moves sodium and potassium ions across the plasma membrane by___.
29. Cell products are secreted from the cell through ___.
----------30. Enzymes
(A) make it possible for cells to escape the need for energy (B) are nonprotein molecules that help coenzymes
(C) lower the energy of activation (D) are affective over all temperature ranges
(E) are stable in a wide range of pH values
31. Electron transport systems
(A) are found in both mitochondria and chloroplasts
(B) release energy as electrons are transferred
(C) are involved in the production of ATP (D) involve a series of carrier molecules (E) All of these are correct.
32. Which statement describes the currently accepted theory of how an enzyme and its substrate fit together?
(A) As the substrate binds to the enzyme, the shape of the active site changes to accommodate the reaction.
(B) As the product is released, the enzyme physically breaks down.
(C) The enzyme is like a knife that “cuts” the substrate.
(D) The active site is permanently changed by its interaction with the substrate.
(E) The enzyme is only needed to allow the substrate’s reaction with a required ion.
33. You arrive late to a biological seminar. However, just as you enter the room, you hear the speaker referring to the
“amino end” and the “carboxyl end” of a macromolecule. Immediately, you know that the speaker’s topic is
(A) nucleic acids (B) fats (C) proteins (D) waxes (E) DNA
34. What are the products of photosynthesis?
(A) oxygen and carbohydrate (B) water and oxygen (C) water and carbon dioxide (D) carbohydrate and water
(E) carbohydrate and carbon dioxide
35. What organisms are capable of photosynthesis?
(A) plants only (B) plants and algae only (C) plants and some bacteria only (D) plants, algae, and some bacteria
(D) plants, algae, and some simple animals
36. Which is most closely associated with the Calvin cycle?
(A) ATP production (B) carbon dioxide fixation (C) oxygen production (D) helium production
(E) removal of electrons from water for passage through an electron transport system
37. The two major sets of reactions involved in photosynthesis are
(A) replication and transcription (B) glycolysis and the Krebs cycles (C) the transition and Krebs cycles
(D) fermentation and translation (E) the light-dependent and carbon fixation reactions
38. Sunburn is caused by which component of sunlight?
(A) infrared rays (B) X rays (C) long wavelength rays (D) ultra violet rays (E) green wavelenths
-------For questions 39 through 41, use the following list as a key:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
oxygen
stroma
carbohydrate
chlorophyll
thylakoid membrane
39. organic product of photosynthesis
40. nonorganic product of photosynthesis
41. molecule that absorbs light energy
-------42. Complete oxidative breakdown of glucose generally results in approximately ___ ATP molecules.
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 22 (D) 36 (E) 43
43. The first process in breaking down glucose is
(A) the citric acid cycle (B) glycolysis (C) the electron transport system (D) fermentation (E) Calvin cycle
44. Which process produces alcohol or lactate?
(A) fermentation (B) the citric acid cycle (C) glycolysis (D) the electron transport system
(E) the transition reaction
45. Visible light has a wavelength range of
(A) 200-800 nanometers (B) 0.1-100,000 nanometers (C) 400-700 nanometers
(D) 200-400 nanometers (E) 1,000-4,000 nanometers
46. The purpose of fermentation is to supply
(A) photosynthesis with carbon dioxide (B) hydrogens to the transition reaction (C) oxygen as an electron acceptor
(D) the citric acid cycle with oxygen (E) glycolysis with free NAD+
47. The coenzymes NAD+ and FAD carry hydrogens to the
(A) electronic reactions (B) transition reaction (C) DNA reaction (D) cell cycle (E) electron transport system
48. The pathway that is directly responsible for most of the ATP formed during cellular respiration is
(A) the electron transport system (B) glycolysis (C) the citric acid cycle (D) the transition reaction
(E) passive transport
49. The diploid (2n) number of chromosomes for humans is
(A) 23 (B) 24 (C) 44 (D) 46 (E) 48
50. Which statement is not true about mitosis?
(A) Mitosis is a process that duplicates and divides the nuclear contents.
(B) Mitosis produces two daughter cells that contain the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell.
(C) Mitosis produces two daughter cells that contain the same kinds of chromosomes as the parent cell.
(D) Mitosis is involved in development of a fertilized egg into a multicellular organism.
(E) Mitosis involves a 2n parent cell to form four daughter cells containing n chromosomes.
51. If a sperm cell contains 8 chromosomes, it comes from an animal that has __ chromosomes.
(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 12 (D) 16 (E) 24
52. What is the importance of crossing-over?
(A) It provides extra genetic material for the daughter cells.
(B) It increases the likelihood that daughter cells contain different genetic material.
(C) It produces the proteins that are associated with DNA in chromosomes.
(D) It increases chromosome condensation.
(E) It separates the homologous chromosomes.
53. The traits Mendel studied in garden peas showed
(A) complete dominance (B) incomplete dominance
54. Which is not a major function of the genetic material?
(A) store information (B) catalyze chemical reactions
(C) epistasis
(D) pleiotropy
(C) replicate itself
(E) polygenic inheritance
(D) undergo mutation
55. If the sequence of bases in DNA is TGCA, then the sequence of bases in RNA will be
(A) AGCU (B) TGCA (C) ACGT (D) ACGU (E) TCGA
56. If the structure of DNA is compared to a ladder, then the
(A) sides of the ladder consist of phosphates and sugars (B) the ladder is twisted
(C) steps of the ladder are hydrogen-bonded bases (D) ladder is a polymer of nucleotides
(E) All of these are true.
57. The central dogma of molecular biology
(A) states that DNA is a template for all RNA production.
(B) states that DNA is a template only for DNA replication.
(C) states that translation precedes transcription.
(D) pertains only to prokaryotes because humans are unique.
(E) states that DNA is used directly as a template for protein synthesis
58. Which is the process by which a protein is constructed?
(A) translation (B) transcription (C) transposition
(D) transformation
(E) transposon
59. What is the function of a vector in genetic engineering?
(A) to cut DNA into many fragments (B) to carry DNA into a new cell (C) to link together newly joined DNA pieces
(D) to make millions of copies of a specific segment of DNA (E) to separate DNA fragments with electricity
60. Restriction enzymes
(A) serve as introns in cells (B) seal pieces of DNA together (C) restrict the growth of eukaryotic cells
(D) kill pathogenic prokaryotic cells (E) cleave (cut) DNA into small fragments
61. Restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLPs)
(A) identify individuals genetically (B) are the basis for DNA fingerprints
(D) can be subjected to gel electrophoresis (E) All of these are correct.
(C) are inherited
62. Gel electrophoresis
(A) measures the size of cells (B) tells whether viruses are infectious (C) separates living from nonliving cells
(D) measures the charge and size of proteins and DNA fragments (E) injects genes into embryos
63. Darwin’s theory of natural selection to explain evolution is also known as
(A) descent with modification (B) inheritance of acquired characteristics (C) uniformitarianism
(D) catastrophism (E) genetic engineering
64. Which of the following is/are a biological “population”?
(A) all of the corn plants in a cornfield
(B) all of the human population of a rural western town
(C) all male and female English sparrows that reside in a community
(D) all of the variable-colored ladybird beetles of the species Harmonia axyridis in a forest
(E) all of the above are correct
65. If the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is met, what is the net effect?
(A) evolution leading to a population better adapted to an unchanging environment
(B) evolution leading to a population better adapted to a changing environment
(C) very slow and continuous evolution with no increased adaptation
(D) no evolution because the alleles in the population remain the same
Part II: True/False
Select your response and fill in the appropriate space on the answer sheet.
The first column is for true and second column for false.
66. Autotrophy and heterotrophy are the two strategies of satisfying the basic necessities of life on earth.
67. Electrons in different electron shells contain less energy if they are further from the nucleus.
68. Water moderates the temperatures on earth because it can absorb and release large amounts of heat.
69. Polymers are formed by hydrolysis reactions.
70. A living organism represents stored energy in the form of chemical compounds.
71. During photosynthesis, carbon dioxide is chemically reduced to a carbohydrate.
72. The light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis occur in the ribosomes.
73. Metabolism of fats produces more ATP molecules per gram than metabolism of carbohydrates or proteins.
74. Photosynthesis returns carbon dioxide to the atmosphere.
75. Fermentation is the process that produces bubbles of carbon dioxide that makes bread dough rise.
76. The genotype is the physical appearance of an individual.
77. The F1 offspring of a Mendelian monohybrid cross will be intermediate (or a blending) in phenotype between the
phenotypes of the parents.
78. The chromosomes that differ between males and females are called autosomes.
79. Carriers are individuals that appear to be normal but are capable of having a child with a genetic disorder.
80. Almost all living organisms use the same basic biochemical molecules, including DNA and many enzymes.
81. Antibiotics are effective in treating viral infections.
82. A current medical concern is the increase in antibiotic-resistant bacteria.
83. Kingdom Protista is a very diverse collection of organisms.
84. Fortunately fungi do not cause diseases in humans.
85. Complex eumetazoans tend to have distinct tissues and a definite body cavity.
86. Arthropoda is the smallest phylum of animals in terms of numbers of species.
87. Earthworms are invertebrates.
88. Vertebrates have a high degree of cephalization.
89. Bird characteristics include a four-chambered heart, an amniotic egg, and feathers.
90. Humans are grouped in the mammalian group of monotremes.
91. The stomata in plant leaves are bordered by guard cells that regulate opening and thus water loss.
92. The most successful plants on earth are the nonvascular plants such as mosses.
93. Generally, the root system of plants is at least equivalent in size and extent to the shoot system.
94. Ecology is the study of the interactions of organisms with other organisms and the physical environment.
95. Living things are divided into domans/kingdoms according to their color, size, and ability to cause disease.
96. Living cells are best viewed with an electron microscope.
97. Prokaryotes have three basic shapes: bacillus, coccus, and spirillum.
98. Viruses are basically composed of lipids and carbohydrates.
99. Frogs are classified as reptiles.
100. Cellular respiration and photosynthesis compose a major part of the carbon cycle on earth.
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