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Gleim Private Pilot FAA Knowledge Test
2014 Edition, 1st Printing
Updates
February 8, 2014
The FAA has released a new Computer Testing Supplement. The FAA made every effort to keep
the figures themselves largely the same, with changes only for readability/enhanced aesthetics.
Unfortunately, the Sport Pilot, Recreational Pilot, and Private Pilot Computer Testing Supplement
was not as easy for the FAA to update into color. For example, some figures are excerpts from
Sectional Charts showing geographical areas with new landmarks. In some cases, airports have
been renamed or even closed. Moreover, some Airport/Facility Directory pages have changed due
to alterations at the respective airports over the years, such as lengthened runways or additional
taxiways.
What does this mean?
Some of the figure changes mandated edits to the associated questions so accuracy and viability
could be maintained. However, if we look at the big picture of how those changes will affect
students, the impact is minimal. For example, the symbols for airports and Class C airspace are
the same. Frequencies may have changed, but their placement on a sectional chart has not
changed. In one instance, Dallas Red Bird airport has become Dallas Executive airport. In this
case, a student confident in his or her ability to read a Sectional Chart would simply note that the
airport is now referred to as “Dallas Executive” instead of “Dallas Red Bird.” In this manner, almost
all of the changes are not the kind that will trip up a Gleim student who has studied according to
our plan.
How should you handle this change?
Please follow these 3 steps:
1. Download (and print) the new Computer Testing Supplement:
Title: Sport, Recreational, and Private Pilot
URL:
http://www.faa.gov/training_testing/testing/test_questions/media/sport_rec_private_akts.pdf
Total Pages: 118
File Size: 35.44MB
2. Use this new computer testing supplement from the FAA instead of the figures shown in the
Gleim Private Pilot Knowledge Test book.
3. See on pages 2 through 9 of this update the questions that changed due to the new figures.
The following is a synopsis for quick reference:
▪ Study Unit 3 – 4 questions have changed
▪ Study Unit 8 – questions 39, 40, and 47 are no longer answerable; we have removed them
from our test bank
▪ Study Unit 9 – 16 questions have changed; 2 questions have been added
▪ Study Unit 10 – 2 questions have changed
▪ Study Unit 11 – 5 questions have changed
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Page 2 of 9
STUDY UNIT 3 - UPDATE
QUESTIONS
Subunit 3.1: Runway Markings
4. (Refer to Figure 49.) According to the
airport diagram, which statement is true?
A. Runway 32 is equipped at position E with
emergency arresting gear to provide a means
of stopping military aircraft.
B. Takeoffs may be started at position A on
Runway 25, and the landing portion of this
runway begins at position B.
C. The takeoff and landing portion of Runway 25
begins at position B.
5. (Refer to Figure 49.) That portion of the
runway identified by the letter A may be used for
A. landing.
B. taxiing and takeoff.
C. taxiing and landing.
6. (Refer to Figure 49.) What is the difference
between area A and area E on the airport
depicted?
A. “A” may be used for taxi and takeoff; “E” may
be used only as an overrun.
B. “A” may be used for all operations except
heavy aircraft landings; “E” may be used only
as an overrun.
C. “A” may be used only for taxiing; “E” may be
used for all operations except landings.
Answer (B) is correct. (AIM Para 2-3-3)
DISCUSSION: In Fig. 49, Runway 25 takeoffs may be
started at position A, and the landing portion of this runway
begins at position B. In this example, a displaced threshold exists
at the beginning of Runway 25. The threshold is a heavy line
across the runway, designating the beginning portion of a runway
usable for landing. The paved area behind the displaced runway
threshold is available for taxiing, the landing rollout, and the
takeoff of aircraft. In the airport diagram, the displaced threshold
is indicated by three ovals stacked.
Answer (A) is incorrect. Arresting cables across the
operational area of a runway are indicated by yellow circles 10 ft.
in diameter painted across the runway at positions of the
arresting cables. Area E has a light shade that means chevron
markings, which indicates an overrun area. Answer (C) is
incorrect. Only the landing portion of Runway 25 begins at
position B. The takeoff may be started in the paved area behind
the displaced runway threshold (i.e., position A).
Answer (B) is correct. (AIM Para 2-3-3)
DISCUSSION: The portion of the runway identified by the
letter A in Fig. 49 is a displaced threshold, as marked by the
tri-oval displaced threshold indicator pointed to by B. This means it may
be used for taxiing or takeoffs but it cannot be used for landings.
Answer (A) is incorrect. Area A may be used for the landing
rollout but not the actual landing. Answer (C) is incorrect. Area A
may be used for the landing rollout but not the actual landing.
Answer (A) is correct. (AIM Para 2-3-3)
DISCUSSION: Area A in Fig. 49 is the paved area behind a
displaced runway threshold, as identified by the tri-oval displaced
threshold indicated pointed to by B. This area may be used for
taxiing, the landing rollout, and the takeoff of aircraft. Area E is a
stopway area, as identified by the lighter shade. This area, due to
the nature of its structure, is unusable except as an overrun.
Answer (B) is incorrect. Area A cannot be used by any
aircraft for landing. Answer (C) is incorrect. Area A can also be
used for takeoff and landing rollout. Area E cannot be used for
any type of operation, except as an overrun.
Subunit 3.2: Taxiway and Destination Signs
20. The ‘yellow demarcation bar’ marking indicates
A. runway with a displaced threshold that
precedes the runway.
B. a hold line from a taxiway to a runway.
C. the beginning of available runway for landing
on the approach side.
Answer (A) is correct. (AIM Para 2-3-6)
DISCUSSION: A demarcation bar is a 3-ft.-wide yellow stripe
that separates a runway with a displaced threshold from a blast
pad, stopway, or taxiway that precedes the runway.
Answer (B) is incorrect. A set of solid yellow and dashed
yellow lines represents the hold lines between a taxiway and
runway. Answer (C) is incorrect. The yellow demarcation bar
delineates the beginning of the displaced threshold, which is not
a landing surface.
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Page 3 of 9
STUDY UNIT 9 - UPDATE
QUESTIONS
Subunit 9.1: Longitude and Latitude
5. (Refer to Figure 22.) (Refer to area 2.)
Which airport is located at approximately
47°34'30"N latitude and 100°43'00"W longitude?
A. Linrud.
B. Makeeff.
C. Johnson.
6. (Refer to Figure 22.) (Refer to area 3.)
Which airport is located at approximately
47°21'N latitude and 101°01'W longitude?
A. Underwood.
B. Pietsch.
C. Washburn.
Answer (B) is correct. (PHAK Chap 15)
DISCUSSION: On Fig. 22, you are asked to locate an airport
at 47°34'30"N latitude and 100°43'W longitude. Note that the
101°W longitude line runs down the middle of the page.
Accordingly, the airport you are seeking is 17 min. to the east of
that line.
Each crossline is 1 min. on the latitude and longitude lines.
The 48°N latitude line is approximately two-thirds of the way up
the chart. The 47°30'N latitude line is about one-fourth of the way
up. One-third up from 47°30'N to 48°N latitude would be 47°39'N.
At this spot is Makeeff Airport.
Answer (A) is incorrect. Linrud is north of the 48°N latitude
line. Answer (C) is incorrect. Johnson airport is south of 47°30'N
latitude line.
Answer (C) is correct. (PHAK Chap 15)
DISCUSSION: See Fig. 22. Find the 48° line of latitude
(2/3 up the figure). Start at the 47°30' line of latitude (the line
below the 48° line) and count down nine ticks to the 47°21'N
mark and draw a horizontal line on the chart. Next find the 101°
line of longitude and go left one tick and draw a vertical line. The
closest airport is Washburn.
Answer (A) is incorrect. Underwood is a city (not an airport)
northwest of Washburn by about 1 in. Answer (B) is incorrect.
Pietsch is north of the 48°00' latitude line.
Subunit 9.2: Airspace and Altitudes
11. (Refer to Figure 27.) (Refer to area 2.)
Identify the airspace over Bryn Airport.
A. Class G airspace -- surface up to but not
including 1,200 feet AGL; Class E airspace -1,200 feet AGL up to but not including
18,000 feet MSL.
B. Class G airspace -- surface up to but not
including 18,000 feet MSL.
C. Class G airspace -- surface up to but not
including 700 feet MSL; Class E airspace -700 feet to 14,500 feet MSL.
Answer (A) is correct. (ACL)
DISCUSSION: Bryn Airport is located 1.5 inches down from
2 on Fig. 27. In the lower left-hand corner of the figure, there is a
portion of a blue shaded ring. According to the chart legend, this
indicates that Class E airspace begins at 1,200 ft. AGL within this
ring. Therefore, the Class G airspace would extend from the
surface to 1,200 ft. AGL, followed by Class E airspace up to, but
not including, 18,000 ft. MSL.
Answer (B) is incorrect. The Class G airspace above Bryn
Airport ends at 1,200 ft. AGL (the beginning of Class E airspace),
not 18,000 ft. MSL. Answer (C) is incorrect. Class G airspace
above Bryn Airport extends to 1,200 ft. AGL, indicated by the
shaded blue line in the bottom left corner of the chart excerpt.
Class G airspace up to 700 ft. AGL (not MSL) would be indicated
by magenta shading surrounding Bryn Airport. Additionally,
Class E airspace above Bryn Airport extends to 18,000 ft. MSL,
not 14,500 ft. MSL.
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Study Unit 9 - Update
17. (Refer to Figure 21.) (Refer to area 4.)
What hazards to aircraft may exist in
restricted areas such as R-5302A?
A. Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial
gunnery or guided missiles.
B. High volume of pilot training or an unusual type
of aerial activity.
Page 4 of 9
Answer (A) is correct. (AIM Para 3-4-3)
DISCUSSION: See Fig. 21. Restricted areas denote the
existence of unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as
military firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles.
Answer (B) is incorrect. A high volume of pilot training or an
unusual type of aerial activity describes an alert area, not a warning
area. Answer (C) is incorrect. Military training activities that
necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers are
characteristic of MOAs, not restricted areas.
C. Military training activities that necessitate
acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.
20. (Refer to Figure 21.) (Refer to area 2.)
The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional
Airport is
A. 19 feet.
B. 36 feet.
C. 360 feet.
24. (Refer to Figure 24 and Legend 1)
(Refer to area 3.) For information about
glider operations at Ridgeland Airport, refer to
A. notes on the border of the chart.
B. the Airport/Facility Directory.
C. the Notices to Airmen (NOTAM) publication.
24B. (Refer to Figure 25 and Legend 1)
(Refer to area 1.) For information about the
parachute jumping at Caddo Mills Airport, refer to
A. notes on the border of the chart.
B. the Airport/Facility Directory.
C. the Notices to Airmen (NOTAM) publication.
27. (Refer to Figure 24.) (Refer to area 3.)
The top of the group obstruction approximately
11 nautical miles from the Savannah VORTAC
on the 10° radial is
A. 455 feet MSL.
B. 400 feet AGL.
C. 432 feet MSL.
30. (Refer to Figure 26.) At which airports is
fixed-wing Special VFR not authorized?
A. Fort Worth Meacham and Fort Worth Spinks.
B. Dallas-Fort Worth International and Dallas
Love Field.
C. Addison and Dallas Executive.
Answer (A) is correct. (ACL)
DISCUSSION: The question asks for the elevation of the
Chesapeake Regional Airport (Fig. 21). East of 2, note that the
second line of the airport identifier for Chesapeake Regional
reads “19 L 55 123.05.” The first number, in bold type, is the
altitude of the airport above MSL. It is followed by the L for
lighted runway(s), 55 for the length of the longest runway
(5,500 ft.), and the CTAF frequency (123.075).
Answer (B) is incorrect. This is not listed as the elevation of
anything near Chesapeake Regional Airport. Answer (C) is
incorrect. This is the height above ground of the group
obstructions approximately 6 NM southeast of Chesapeake
Regional Airport, not the elevation of the airport.
Answer (B) is correct. (ACL)
DISCUSSION: The miniature glider near the Ridgeland
Airport (at 3 on Fig. 24) indicates a glider operations area. The
A/FD will also have information on the glider operations at
Ridgeland Airport.
Answer (A) is incorrect. The sectional chart legend identifies
symbols only. Answer (C) is incorrect. NOTAMs are issued only
for hazards to flight.
Answer (B) is correct. (ACL)
DISCUSSION: The miniature parachute near the Caddo
Mills Airport (at 1 on Fig. 25) indicates a parachute jumping area.
In Legend 1, the symbol for a parachute jumping area instructs
you to see the Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD) for more
information.
Answer (A) is incorrect. The sectional chart legend identifies
symbols only. Answer (C) is incorrect. NOTAMs are issued only
for hazards to flight.
Answer (A) is correct. (ACL)
DISCUSSION: To determine the height of the lighted stack,
first find it on Fig. 24. Locate the compass rose and look along
the 10° radial, knowing that the compass rose has a 10 NM
radius. Just outside the compass rose is a group obstruction
(stacks). Its height is 455 ft. MSL; AGL height is not shown.
Answer (B) is incorrect. This is the height of an obstruction to
the northeast of the group obstruction. Answer (C) is incorrect.
This is the height of a group obstruction on the 350°, not 10°,
radial.
Answer (B) is correct. (ACL)
DISCUSSION: The first (top) line of the airport data for
Dallas-Ft. Worth Int’l. and Dallas Love Field (Fig. 26, areas 5
and 6) indicates NO SVFR, which means no special VFR
permitted for a fixed-wing aircraft.
Answer (A) is incorrect. Ft. Worth Meacham and Fort Worth
Spinks permit special VFR operations since it is not indicated
otherwise. Answer (C) is incorrect. Addison and Dallas Executive
permit special VFR operations since it is not indicated otherwise.
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Study Unit 9 - Update
36. (Refer to Figure 26.) (Refer to area 8.)
What minimum altitude is required to fly over
the Cedar Hill TV towers in the congested area
southwest of Dallas Executive?
A. 2,731 feet MSL.
B. 3,549 feet MSL.
C. 3,349 feet MSL.
Page 5 of 9
Answer (B) is correct. (FAR 91.119)
DISCUSSION: The Cedar Hill TV towers (Fig. 26, west of 8)
have an elevation of 2,549 ft. MSL. The minimum safe altitude
over a congested area is 1,000 ft. above the highest obstacle
within a horizontal radius of 2,000 ft. of the aircraft. Thus, to
vertically clear the towers, the minimum altitude is 3,549 ft. MSL
(2,549 + 1,000).
Answer (A) is incorrect. The figure of 2,731 ft. AGL, not MSL,
is the minimum height to fly over the shortest, not the tallest, of
the obstructions in the group. Answer (C) is incorrect. This is only
800 ft., not 1,000 ft., above the tallest structure.
Subunit 9.3: Identifying Landmarks
41. (Refer to Figure 21.) (Refer to area 5.)
The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to
aircraft?
A. Unmarked blimp hangars at 300 feet MSL.
B. Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,008 feet AGL.
C. Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,008 feet MSL.
43. (Refer to Figure 22.) Which public use
airport depicted is indicated as having fuel?
A. Minot Int’l (area 1).
B. Garrison (area 2).
C. Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3).
43B. (Refer to Figure 25.) Which public use
airports depicted are indicated as having fuel?
A. Commerce (area 6) and Rockwall (area 1).
B. Rockwall (area 1) and Sulphur Springs
(area 5).
C. Commerce (area 6) and Sulphur Springs
(area 5).
47. (Refer to Figure 27.) (Refer to area 5.)
What is the CTAF/UNICOM frequency at
Barnes County Airport?
A. 122.0 MHz.
B. 122.8 MHz.
Answer (C) is correct. (ACL)
DISCUSSION: On Fig. 21, northwest of 5, find “CAUTION:
UNMARKED BALLOON ON CABLE TO 3,008 MSL.” This is
self-explanatory.
Answer (A) is incorrect. The box clearly says that there is an
unmarked balloon, not blimp hangars, to 3,008 ft. MSL, not
300 ft. MSL. Answer (B) is incorrect. The balloon extends to
3,008 ft. MSL, not AGL.
Answer (A) is correct. (ACL)
DISCUSSION: On Fig. 22, the requirement is to identify the
airports having fuel available. Airports having fuel available are
designated by small squares extending from the top, bottom, and
both sides of the airport symbol. Only Minot Int’l (area 1) has
such a symbol.
Answer (B) is incorrect. Garrison (2 inches left of 2) does not
indicate that fuel is available. Answer (C) is incorrect. Mercer
County Regional Airport (1 1/2 inches to the left of 3) does not
indicate that fuel is available.
Answer (B) is correct. (ACL)
DISCUSSION: On Fig. 25, the requirement is to identify the
airports having fuel available. Airports having fuel available are
designated by small squares extending from the top, bottom, and
both sides of the airport symbol. Only Rockwall (area 1) and
Sulphur Springs (area 5) have such symbols.
Answer (A) is incorrect. Commerce does not indicate it has
fuel. Commerce has a star that indicates it has an airport beacon.
Answer (C) is incorrect. Commerce does not indicate it has fuel.
Commerce has a star that indicates it has an airport beacon.
Answer (B) is correct. (ACL)
DISCUSSION: In Fig. 27, Barnes County Airport is 2 in. to
the right of 5. The CTAF at Barnes County Airport is marked as
the UNICOM frequency for the airport, i.e., 122.8.
Answer (A) is incorrect. This is Flight Watch. Answer (C) is
incorrect. This is an FSS frequency.
C. 123.6 MHz.
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Study Unit 9 - Update
50. (Refer to Figure 22.) On what frequency
can a pilot receive Hazardous Inflight
Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) in the vicinity of
area 1?
A. 117.1 MHz.
B. 118.0 MHz.
C. 122.0 MHz.
Page 6 of 9
Answer (A) is correct. (ACL)
DISCUSSION: On Fig. 22, 1 is on the upper left and the
Minot VORTAC information box is 1 in. below 1. Availability of
Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) will be
indicated by a circle which contains an “H,” found in the upper
right corner of a navigation frequency box. Note that the Minot
VORTAC information box has such a symbol. Accordingly, a
HIWAS can be obtained on the VOR frequency of 117.1. Notice
the 1 before 17.1 is truncated by the excerpt. VOR frequencies
all begin with a 1, so a 1 can be inferred.
Answer (B) is incorrect. “Ch 118” in the Minot VORTAC
information box refers to the TACAN channel (the military
equivalent of VOR/DME). Answer (C) is incorrect. The
universal frequency for Flight Watch is 122.0.
Subunit 9.4: Radio Frequencies
55. (Refer to Figure 26.) (Refer to area 3.)
If Dallas Executive Tower is not in operation,
which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic
Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?
A. 27.25 MHz.
B. 122.95 MHz.
Answer (A) is correct. (ACL)
DISCUSSION: In Fig. 26, find the Dallas Executive Airport
just above 3. When the Dallas Executive tower is not in
operation, the CTAF is 27.25 because that frequency is marked
with a C.
Answer (B) is incorrect. This is the UNICOM frequency.
Answer (C) is incorrect. This is the ATIS frequency.
C. 126.35 MHz.
Subunit 9.6: Airport/Facility Directory
61. (Refer to Figure 53.) When approaching
Lincoln Municipal from the west at noon for the
purpose of landing, initial communications
should be with
A. Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz.
B. Clearance Delivery on 120.7 MHz.
C. Lincoln Tower on 118.5 MHz.
62. (Refer to Figure 53.) Traffic patterns
in effect at Lincoln Municipal are
A. to the right on Runway 14 and Runway 32; to
the left on Runway 18 and Runway 35.
B. to the left on Runway 14 and Runway 32; to
the right on Runway 18 and Runway 35.
C. to the right on Runways 14 - 32.
Answer (A) is correct. (A/FD)
DISCUSSION: Fig. 53 contains the A/FD excerpt for Lincoln
Municipal. Locate the section titled Airspace and note that
Lincoln Municipal is located in Class C airspace. The Class C
airspace is in effect from 0530-0000 local time (1130-0600Z).
You should contact approach control (app con) during that time
before entering. Move up two lines to App/Dep Con and note that
aircraft arriving from the west of Lincoln (i.e., 170° – 349°) at
noon should initially contact Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0.
Answer (B) is incorrect. You would contact Clearance
Delivery for a squawk code before contacting ground when you
are on the ground, not in the air. Answer (C) is incorrect. When
approaching Lincoln Municipal at noon, your initial contact should
be with approach control, not the tower.
Answer (B) is correct. (A/FD)
DISCUSSION: Fig. 53 contains the A/FD excerpt for Lincoln
Municipal. For this question, you need to locate the runway end
data elements, i.e., Rwy 18, Rwy 14, Rwy 32, Rwy 17, Rwy 35,
and Rwy 36. Traffic patterns are to the left unless right traffic is
noted by the contraction "Rgt tfc." The only runways with right
traffic are Rwy 18 and Rwy 35.
Answer (A) is incorrect. Traffic patterns are to the left, not
right, for Rwy 14 and Rwy 32. Traffic patterns are to the right, not
left, for Rwy 18 and Rwy 35. Answer (C) is incorrect. The traffic
pattern for Rwy 14 and Rwy 32 is to the left, not right.
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Page 7 of 9
STUDY UNIT 10 - UPDATE
QUESTIONS
Subunit 10.2: Determining Position
5. (Refer to Figure 24.) What is the
approximate position of the aircraft if the VOR
receivers indicate the 345° radial of Savannah
VORTAC (area 3) and the 184° radial of Allendale
VOR (area 1)?
A. Town of Guyton.
B. Town of Springfield.
C. 3 miles east of Briggs.
13. (Refer to Figure 25.) What is the
approximate position of the aircraft if the VOR
receivers indicate the 245° radial of Sulphur Springs
VOR-DME (area 5) and the 140° radial of Bonham
VORTAC (area 3)?
A. Glenmar Airport.
B. Caddo Mills Airport.
C. Majors Airport.
Answer (B) is correct. 3+$. &KDS DISCUSSION: To locate a position based on VOR radials,
draw the radials on your map or on the plastic overlay during the
FAA pilot knowledge test. Remember that radials are from the
VOR, or leaving the VOR. On Fig. 24, the 345° radial from
Savannah extends northwest, and the 184° radial from Allendale
extends south. They intersect over the town of Springfield.
Answer (A) is incorrect. Guyton is on the 325° radial (not the
345° radial of Savannah VORTAC) and the 188° radial (not the
184° radial of Allendale VOR). Answer (C) is incorrect. The
position of 3 NM east of Briggs is on the 330° radial, not the 345°
radial of Savannah VORTAC and the 184° radial of Allendale
VOR.
Answer (A) is correct. 3+$. &KDS DISCUSSION: To locate a position based on VOR radials,
draw the radials on your map or on the plastic overlay during the
FAA knowledge test. Remember that radials are from the VOR,
or leaving the VOR.
On Fig. 25, the 245° radial from Sulphur Springs VOR-DME
extends southwest, and the 140° radial from Bonham VORTAC
extends southeast. They intersect about 1 mi. east of Glenmar
Airport.
Answer (B) is incorrect. Caddo Mills Airport is on the 247°,
not 245°, radial of Sulphur Springs VOR-DME and the 170°, not
140°, radial of Bonham VORTAC. Answer (C) is incorrect. Majors
Airport is on the 157°, not 140°, radial of Bonham VORTAC.
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Page 8 of 9
STUDY UNIT 11 - UPDATE
QUESTIONS
Subunit 11.5: Magnetic Course
23. (Refer to Figure 27.) Determine the magnetic
course from Cooperstown Airport (area 1) to
Jamestown Airport (area 4).
A. 30°.
B. 218°.
C. 210°.
26. (Refer to Figure 24.) On what course
should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set to navigate
direct from Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1) to
Savannah VORTAC (area 3)?
A. 15°.
B. 195°.
C. 201°.
Answer (C) is correct. (PHAK Chap 15)
DISCUSSION: On Fig. 27, you are to find the magnetic
course from Breckheimer Airport (top center) to Jamestown
Airport (below 4). Since Jamestown has a VOR on the field, a
compass rose exists around the Jamestown Airport symbol on
the chart. Compass roses are based on magnetic courses. Thus,
a straight line from Jamestown Airport to Cooperstown Airport
coincides with the compass rose at 30°. Since the route is south
to Jamestown, not north from Jamestown, compute the reciprocal
direction as 210° (30° + 180°). The course, then, is approximately
210°.
Answer (A) is incorrect. The course from Cooperstown to
Jamestown is southwest (not northwest). Answer (B) is incorrect.
This is the true course, not the magnetic course.
Answer (B) is correct. (PHAK Chap 15)
DISCUSSION: You are to find the OBS course setting from
Hampton Varnville Airport (right of 1) to Savannah VORTAC
(below 3 on Fig. 24). Since compass roses are based on
magnetic courses, you can find that a straight line from Hampton
Varnville Airport to Savannah VORTAC coincides the Savannah
VORTAC compass rose at 15°. Since the route is south to (not
north from) Savannah, compute the reciprocal direction as 195°
magnetic (15° + 180°). To use the VOR properly when flying to a
VOR station, the course you select with the OBS should be the
reciprocal of the radial you will be tracking. If this is not done,
reverse sensing occurs.
Answer (A) is incorrect. This would be the course north from,
not south to, Savannah. Answer (C) is incorrect. Compass roses
are based on magnetic course, so you do not need to correct for
magnetic variation.
Subunit 11.8: Time En Route
39. (Refer to Figure 21.) En route to First
Flight Airport (area 5), your flight passes over
Hampton Roads Airport (area 2) at 1456 and then
over Chesapeake Regional at 1501. At what time
should your flight arrive at First Flight?
A. 1516.
B. 1521.
C. 1526.
Answer (C) is correct. (PHAK Chap 15)
DISCUSSION: The distance between Hampton Roads
Airport (about 2 in. north of 2) and Chesapeake Regional
(northeast of 2 on Fig. 21) is 10 NM. It took 5 min. (1501 – 1456)
to go 10 NM, so the airplane is traveling at 2 NM per minute. The
distance from Chesapeake Regional to First Flight (right of 5) is
50 NM. At 2 NM per minute, it will take 25 min. Twenty-five
minutes added to the time you passed Chesapeake Regional
(1501) is 1526.
Answer (A) is incorrect. At 2 NM per min., it will take 25 min.,
not 15 min., to reach first flight. Answer (B) is incorrect. The 25
min. must be added to 1501, not 1456.
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Page 9 of 9
Study Unit 11 - Update
48. (Refer to Figure 26.) What is the estimated
time en route for a flight from Denton (area 1)
to Addison (area 2)? The wind is from 200° at
20 knots, the true airspeed is 110 knots, and the
magnetic variation is 7° east.
A. 13 minutes.
B. 16 minutes.
C. 19 minutes.
Answer (A) is correct. (PHAK Chap 15)
DISCUSSION: The requirement is time en route and not
magnetic heading, so there is no need to convert TC to MC.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
To find the en route time from Denton (southwest of 1) to
Addison (southwest of 2), use Fig. 26.
Measure the distance with plotter to be 23 NM.
TC = 128°.
Mark up 20 kt. with 200° under true index.
Put TC of 128° under true index.
Slide the grid so the pencil mark is on TAS of 110 kt.
Read the groundspeed of 102 kt. under the grommet.
On the calculator side, place 102 kt. on the outer scale over
60 min.
Read 13 min. on the inner scale below 23 NM on the outer
scale.
Answer (B) is incorrect. The groundspeed is 102 kt.
(not 86 kt.). Answer (C) is incorrect. The groundspeed is 102 kt.
(not 73 kt.).
49. (Refer to Figure 26.) Estimate the time en
route from Addison (area 2) to Dallas Executive
(area 3). The wind is from 300° at 15 knots, the
true airspeed is 120 knots, and the magnetic
variation is 7° east.
A. 8 minutes.
B. 11 minutes.
C. 14 minutes.
Answer (A) is correct. (PHAK Chap 15)
DISCUSSION: The requirement is time en route and not
magnetic heading, so there is no need to convert TC to MC.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
To find the en route time from Addison (southwest of 2) to
Dallas Executive (above 3), use Fig. 26.
Measure the distance with plotter to be 18 NM.
TC = 186°.
Mark up 15 kt. with 300° under true index.
Put TC of 186° under true index.
Slide the grid so the pencil mark is on TAS of 120 kt.
Read the groundspeed of 125 kt. under the grommet.
On the calculator side, place 125 kt. on the outer scale over
60 min.
Read 8.5 min. on the inner scale below 18 NM on the outer
scale.
Answer (B) is incorrect. The groundspeed is 125 kt.
(not 98 kt.). Answer (C) is incorrect. The groundspeed is 125 kt.
(not 77 kt.).
Copyright © 2014 Gleim Publications, Inc. and/or Gleim Internet, Inc. All rights reserved. Duplication prohibited. www.gleim.com