MATH 105: PRACTICE PROBLEMS FOR SERIES: SPRING 2011 INSTRUCTOR: STEVEN MILLER (SJM1@WILLIAMS.EDU) 1. Problems 1.1. Sequences and Series. Question 1: Let ππ = claim. 1 . 1+π+π2 π4 Question 2: Let ππ = claim. 1+2π +(−2)π Question 3: Let ππ = π4 . 6∗π Question 4: Let ππ = π . π! Question 5: Let ππ = π2π . 3π ∑∞ Does the series π=1 . Does the series Does the series Does the series ∑∞ π=1 ∑∞ Does the series π=1 ∑∞ ππ converge or diverge? Prove your π=1 ππ converge or diverge? Prove your ππ converge or diverge? Prove your claim. ππ converge or diverge? Prove your claim. ∑∞ π=1 Question 6: Let ππ = π3 /2π/2 . Does the series claim. ππ converge or diverge? Prove your claim. ∑∞ π=1 ππ converge or diverge? Prove your 1.2. Taylor Series (one variable). Question 1.1. Find the ο¬rst ο¬ve terms of the Taylor series for π (π₯) = π₯8 + π₯4 + 3 at π₯ = 0. Question 1.2. Find the ο¬rst three terms of the Taylor series for π (π₯) = π₯8 + π₯4 + 3 at π₯ = 1. Question 1.3. Find the ο¬rst three terms of the Taylor series for π (π₯) = cos(5π₯) at π₯ = 0. Question 1.4. Find the ο¬rst ο¬ve terms of the Taylor series for π (π₯) = cos3 (5π₯) at π₯ = 0. Question 1.5. Find the ο¬rst two terms of the Taylor series for π (π₯) = ππ₯ at π₯ = 0. 8 Question 1.6. Find the ο¬rst six terms of the Taylor series for π (π₯) = ππ₯ = exp(π₯8 ) at π₯ = 0. 2 Question 1.7. Find the ο¬rst four terms of the Taylor series for π (π₯) = √12π π−π₯ /2 = √ exp(−π₯2 /2)/ 2π at π₯ = 0. √ Question 1.8. Find the ο¬rst three terms of the Taylor series for π (π₯) = π₯ at π₯ = 13 . Question 1.9. Find the ο¬rst three terms of the Taylor series for π (π₯) = (1 + π₯)1/3 at π₯ = 12 . Date: May 3, 2011. 1 2 INSTRUCTOR: STEVEN MILLER (SJM1@WILLIAMS.EDU) Question 1.10. Find the ο¬rst three terms of the Taylor series for π (π₯) = π₯ log π₯ at π₯ = 1. Question 1.11. Find the ο¬rst three terms of the Taylor series for π (π₯) = log(1 + π₯) at π₯ = 0. Question 1.12. Find the ο¬rst three terms of the Taylor series for π (π₯) = log(1−π₯) at π₯ = 1. Question 1.13. Find the ο¬rst two terms of the Taylor series for π (π₯) = log((1 − π₯) ⋅ ππ₯ ) = log((1 − π₯) ⋅ exp(π₯)) at π₯ = 0. Question 1.14. Find the ο¬rst three terms of the Taylor series for π (π₯) = cos(π₯) log(1 + π₯) at π₯ = 0. Question 1.15. Find the ο¬rst two terms of the Taylor series for π (π₯) = log(1 + 2π₯) at π₯ = 0. PRACTICE PROBLEMS 3 2. Solutions 2.1. Sequences and Series. Question 1: Let ππ = claim. 1 . 1+π+π2 ∑∞ Does the series π=1 ππ converge or diverge? Prove your Solution: This series converges. Notice that for all π ≥ 1, 1+π+π2 > π2 , so ∑ 1/(1+π+π2 ) < 2 2 2 1/π , meaning that each term of this series is strictly less than 1/π . Since ∞ π=1 1/π converges, this series converges as well. Question 2: Let ππ = claim. π4 1+2π +(−2)π . Does the series ∑∞ π=1 ππ converge or diverge? Prove your Solution: We claim that this series diverges. Remember that a necessary (but not suο¬cient!) condition for a series to converge is that limπ→∞ ππ = 0. However, notice that the odd terms of this series are all growing! That is, if π = 2π + 1 for some integer π, then we have (1) π2π+1 = (2π + 1)4 = (2π + 1)4 2π+1 2π+1 1+2 + (−2) because 22π+1 + (−2)2π+1 = 0. Therefore limπ→∞ π2π+1 = ∞, so we cannot possibly have limπ→∞ ππ = 0, so the series cannot converge. Question 3: Let ππ = π4 . 6∗π Question 4: Let ππ = π . π! ∑∞ ππ converge or diverge? Prove your claim. ∑∞ 4 4 3 Solution: This series also diverges. Notice that π /(6π) = π /6, so π=1 π /(6π) = ∑∞ 3 1 3 π=1 π . But π ≥ π for all integer π ≥ 1, so this series diverges by comparison to 6 the sequence ππ = π. If instead we had π4 /6π , then it would converge by the ratio test. Does the series Does the series π=1 ∑∞ π=1 ππ converge or diverge? Prove your claim. Solution: This series converges. Notice that π/π! = 1/(π − 1)!, so shifting our index by 1 we have (2) ∞ ∞ ∑ ∑ π 1 = , π! π! π=1 π=0 recalling that 0! = 1. We claim that for π ≥ 4, π! > π2 . Notice that when π = 4, π! = 24, while π2 = 16. We prove this claim using induction (notice we’ve already shown the base case). Suppose that for some π ≥ 4, π! > π 2 . We show that (π + 1)! > (π + 1)2 . We see (π + 1)! = (π + 1)π! > (π + 1)π 2 by our inductive assumption. Thus if we can show π 2 > π + 1, we’ll be done. Consider the polynomial π (π₯) = π₯2 − π₯ − 1. We see that π ′ (π₯) = 2π₯ − 1 > 0 for all π₯ > 1/2. Therefore, since π 2 − π − 1 > 0 when π = 4, π 2 − π − 1 > 0 for all π ≥ 4. Therefore (π + 1)! = (π + 1)π! > (π + 1)π 2 > (π + 1)2 , as we wanted to show. Therefore 1/π! < 1/π2 , and the series converges by comparison to the sequence ππ = 1/π2 . 4 INSTRUCTOR: STEVEN MILLER (SJM1@WILLIAMS.EDU) We can also solve this by using the ratio test. ππ+1 π = lim π→∞ ππ = = = = = Question 5: Let ππ = π2π . 3π (π + 1)/(π + 1)! π→∞ π/π! π π! lim π→∞ π + 1 (π + 1)! π π! lim π→∞ π + 1 (π + 1)π! π 1 lim π→∞ π + 1 π! π 1 lim lim = 1 ⋅ 0 = 0. π→∞ π + 1 π→∞ π! lim Does the series ∑∞ π=1 ππ converge or diverge? Prove your claim. Solution: This series converges. Again, we claim that for suο¬ciently large π, π(2/3)π < 1/π2 , which is equivalent to showing that (3/2)π /π > π2 . Taking logs, we see this is equivalent to π log(3/2) − log(π) > 2 log(π), or π log(3/2) > 3 log(π), or π/ log(π) > 3/ log(3/2) (assuming π > 1 so log(π) > 0). Notice that the function π (π₯) = π₯/ log(π₯) has derivative (log(π₯) − 1)/(log(π₯)2 ), which is positive for all π ≥ π. Therefore, since π (π10 ) = π10 /10 > 3/ log(3/2), (3/2)π /π > π2 for all π ≥ ⌊π10 ⌋. Thus the series converges by comparison with the sequence ππ = 1/π2 . Question 6: Let ππ = π3 /2π/2 . Does the series claim. ∑∞ π=1 ππ converge or diverge? Prove your Solution: Let’s use the Ratio test. ππ+1 π = lim π→∞ ππ (π + 1)3 /2(π+1)/2 π→∞ π3 /2π/2 (π + 1)3 2π/2 = lim π→∞ π3 2(π+1)/2 π + 1 π + 1 π + 1 2π/2 = lim π→∞ π π π 2π/2 21/2 π+1π+1π+1 1 = lim π→∞ π π π 21/2 π+1 π+1 π+1 1 1 = lim lim lim lim 1/2 = 1 ⋅ 1 ⋅ 1 ⋅ 1/2 < 1; π→∞ π→∞ π→∞ π→∞ π π π 2 2 as this is less than 1, the series converges. Note the hardest part of this problem is doing the algebra well and canceling correctly. = lim PRACTICE PROBLEMS 5 2.2. Taylor Series (one variable). Recall that the Taylor series of degree π for a function π at a point π₯0 is given by π ′′ (π₯0 ) π (π₯0 ) + π ′ (π₯0 )(π₯ − π₯0 ) + (π₯ − π₯0 )2 2! π ′′′ (π₯0 ) π (π) (π₯0 ) + (π₯ − π₯0 )3 + ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ + (π₯ − π₯0 )π , 3! π! where π (π) denotes the π th derivative of π . We can write this more compactly with summation notation as π ∑ π (π) (π₯0 ) (π₯ − π₯0 )π , π! π=0 where π (0) is just π . In many cases the point π₯0 is 0, and the formulas simplify a bit to π ∑ π ′′ (0) 2 π (π) (0) π π (π) (0) π π₯ = π (0) + π ′ (0)π₯ + π₯ + ⋅⋅⋅ + π₯ . π! 2! π! π=0 The reason Taylor series are so useful is that they allow us to understand the behavior of a complicated function near a point by understanding the behavior of a related polynomial near that point; the higher the degree of our approximating polynomial, the smaller the error in our approximation. Fortunately, for many applications a ο¬rst order Taylor series (ie, just using the ο¬rst derivative) does a very good job. This is also called the tangent line method, as we are replacing a complicated function with its tangent line. One thing which can be a little confusing is that there are π + 1 terms in a Taylor series of degree π; the problem is we start with the zeroth term, the value of the function at the point of interest. You should never be impressed if someone tells you the Taylor series at π₯0 agrees with the function at π₯0 – this is forced to hold from the deο¬nition! The reason is all the (π₯ − π₯0 )π terms vanish, and we are left with π (π₯0 ), so of course the two will agree. Taylor series are only useful when they are close to the original function for π₯ close to π₯0 . Question 2.1. Find the ο¬rst ο¬ve terms of the Taylor series for π (π₯) = π₯8 + π₯4 + 3 at π₯ = 0. Solution: To ο¬nd the ο¬rst ο¬ve terms requires evaluating the function and its ο¬rst four derivatives: π (0) π ′ (π₯) π ′′ (π₯) π ′′′ (π₯) = = = = 3 8π₯7 + 4π₯3 ⇒ π ′ (0) = 0 56π₯6 + 12π₯2 ⇒ π ′′ (0) = 0 336π₯5 + 24π₯ ⇒ π ′′′ (0) = 0 π (4) (π₯) = 1680π₯4 + 24 ⇒ π (4) = 24. Therefore the ο¬rst ο¬ve terms of the Taylor series are π (4) (0) 4 24 4 π₯ = 3+ π₯ = 3 + π₯4 . 4! 4! This answer shouldn’t be surprising as we can view our function as π (π₯) = 3 + π₯4 + π₯8 ; thus our function is presented in such a way that it’s easy to see its Taylor series about 0. If we wanted the ο¬rst six terms of its Taylor series expansion about 0, the answer would be the π (0) + π ′ (0)π₯ + ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ + 6 INSTRUCTOR: STEVEN MILLER (SJM1@WILLIAMS.EDU) same. We won’t see anything new until we look at the degree 8 Taylor series (ie, the ο¬rst nine terms), at which point the π₯8 term appears. β‘ Question 2.2. Find the ο¬rst three terms of the Taylor series for π (π₯) = π₯8 + π₯4 + 3 at π₯ = 1. Solution: We can ο¬nd the expansion by taking the derivatives and evaluating at 1 and not 0. We have π (π₯) π ′ (π₯) π ′′ (π₯) = = = π₯8 + π₯4 + 3 ⇒ π (1) = 5 8π₯7 + 4π₯3 ⇒ π ′ (1) = 12 56π₯6 + 12π₯2 ⇒ π ′′ (1) = 68. Therefore the ο¬rst three terms gives π (1) + π ′ (1)(π₯ − 1) + π ′′ (1) (π₯ − 1)2 = 5 + 12(π₯ − 1) + 34(π₯ − 1)2 . 2! β‘ Important Note: Another way to do this problem is one of my favorite tricks, namely converting a Taylor expansion about one point to another. We write π₯ as (π₯ − 1) + 1; we have just added zero, which is one of the most powerful tricks in mathematics. We then have π₯8 + π₯4 + 3 = ((π₯ − 1) + 1)8 + ((π₯ − 1) + 1)4 + 3; we can expand each term by using the Binomial Theorem, and after some algebra we’ll ο¬nd the same answer as before. For example, ((π₯ − 1) + 1)4 equals ( ) ( ) 4 4 4 0 (π₯ − 1) 1 + (π₯ − 1)3 11 0 1 ( ) ( ) ( ) 4 4 4 2 2 1 3 + (π₯ − 1) 1 + (π₯ − 1) 1 + (π₯ − 1)0 15 . 2 3 4 In this instance, it is not a good idea to use this trick, as this makes the problem more complicated rather than easier; however, there are situations where this trick does make life easier, and thus it is worth seeing. We’ll see another trick in the next problem (and this time it will simplify things). Question 2.3. Find the ο¬rst three terms of the Taylor series for π (π₯) = cos(5π₯) at π₯ = 0. Solution: The standard way to solve this is to take derivatives and evaluate. We have π (π₯) π ′ (π₯) π ′′ (π₯) = = = cos(5π₯) ⇒ π (0) = 1 −5 sin(5π₯) ⇒ π ′ (0) = 0 −25 cos(5π₯) ⇒ π ′′ (0) = −25. Thus the answer is π (0) + π ′ (0)π₯ + π ′′ (0) 2 25 π₯ = 1 − π₯2 . 2 2 β‘ Important Note: We discuss a faster way of doing this problem. This method assumes we know the Taylor series expansion of a related function, π(π’) = cos(π’). This is one of the three PRACTICE PROBLEMS 7 standard Taylor series expansions one sees in calculus (the others being the expansions for sin(π’) and exp(π’); a good course also does log(1 ± π’)). Recall cos(π’) = 1 − ∞ ∑ π’2 π’4 π’6 (−1)π π’2π + − + ⋅⋅⋅ = . 2! 4! 6! (2π)! π=0 If we replace π’ with 5π₯, we get the Taylor series expansion for cos(5π₯): cos(5π₯) = 1 − (5π₯)2 (5π₯)4 (5π₯)6 + − + ⋅⋅⋅ . 2! 4! 6! As we only want the ο¬rst three terms, we stop at the π₯2 term, and ο¬nd it is 1 − 25π₯2 /2. The answer is the same as before, but this seems much faster. Is it? At ο¬rst it seems like we avoided having to take derivatives. We haven’t; the point is we took the derivatives years ago in Calculus when we found the Taylor series expansion for cos(π’). We now use that. We see the advantage of being able to recall previous results – we can frequently modify them (with very little eο¬ort) to cover a new situation; however, we can of course only do this if we remember the old results! Question 2.4. Find the ο¬rst ο¬ve terms of the Taylor series for π (π₯) = cos3 (5π₯) at π₯ = 0. Solution: Doing (a lot of!) diο¬erentiation and algebra leads to 1− 75 2 4375 4 190625 6 π₯ + π₯ − π₯; 2 8 48 we calculated more terms than needed because of the comment below. Note that π ′ (π₯) = −15 cos2 (5π₯) sin(5π₯). To calculate π ′′ (π₯) involves a product and a power rule, and we can see that it gets worse and worse the higher derivative we need! It is worth doing all these derivatives to appreciate the alternate approach given below. β‘ Important Note: There is a faster way to do this problem. From the previous exercise, we know 25 2 cos(5π₯) = 1 − π₯ + terms of size π₯3 or higher. 2 Thus to ο¬nd the ο¬rst ο¬ve terms is equivalent to just ο¬nding the coeο¬cients up to π₯4 . Unfortunately our expansion is just a tad too crude; we only kept up to π₯2 , and we need to have up to π₯4 . So, let’s spend a little more time and compute the Taylor series of cos(5π₯) of degree 4: that is 25 2 625 4 1− π₯ + π₯. 2 24 If we cube this, we’ll get the ο¬rst six terms in the Taylor series of cos3 (5π₯). In other words, we’ll have the degree 5 expansion, and all our terms will be correct up to the π₯6 term. The reason is when we cube, the only way we can get a term of degree 5 or less is covered. Thus we need to compute )3 ( 25 2 625 4 π₯ + π₯ ; 1− 2 24 however, as we only care about the terms of π₯5 or lower, we can drop a lot of terms in the product. For instance, one of the factors is the π₯4 term; if it hits another π₯4 term or an π₯2 it 8 INSTRUCTOR: STEVEN MILLER (SJM1@WILLIAMS.EDU) will give an π₯6 or higher term, which we don’t care about. Thus, taking the cube but only keeping terms like π₯5 or lower degree, we get ) ( ) ( )2 ( ) ( ) ( ) ( 3 25 2 3 2 625 4 25 2 3 2 1 − + 1 π₯ + π₯ π₯ . 1+ 1 − 2 1 2 2 24 1 After doing a little algebra, we ο¬nd the same answer as before. So, was it worth it? To each his own, but again the advantage of this method is we reduce much our problem to something we’ve already done. If we wanted to do the ο¬rst seven terms of the Taylor series, we would just have to keep a bit more, and expand the original function cos(5π₯) a bit further. As mentioned above, to truly appreciate the power of this method you should do the problem the long way (ie, the standard way). Question 2.5. Find the ο¬rst two terms of the Taylor series for π (π₯) = ππ₯ at π₯ = 0. Solution: This is merely the ο¬rst two terms of one of the most important Taylor series of all, the Taylor series of ππ₯ . As π ′ (π₯) = ππ₯ , we see π (π) (π₯) = ππ₯ for all π. Thus the answer is π (0) + π ′ (0)π₯ = 1 + π₯. More generally, the full Taylor series is π₯ π ∞ ∑ π₯2 π₯3 π₯4 π₯π = 1+π₯+ + + + ⋅⋅⋅ = . 2! 3! 4! π! π=0 β‘ 8 Question 2.6. Find the ο¬rst six terms of the Taylor series for π (π₯) = ππ₯ = exp(π₯8 ) at π₯ = 0. Solution: The ο¬rst way to solve this is to keep taking derivatives using the chain rule. Very quickly we see how tedious this is, as π ′ (π₯) = 8π₯7 exp(π₯8 ), π ′′ (π₯) = 64π₯14 exp(π₯8 ) + 56π₯6 exp(π₯8 ), and of course the higher derivatives become even more complicated. We use the faster idea mentioned above. We know ∞ ∑ π’2 π’3 π’π ππ’ = 1 + π’ + + + ⋅⋅⋅ = , 2! 3! π! π=0 so replacing π’ with π₯8 gives 8 π π₯ = 1 + π₯8 + (π₯8 )2 + ⋅⋅⋅ . 2! As we only want the ο¬rst six terms, the highest term is π₯5 . Thus the answer is just 1 – we would only have the π₯8 term if we wanted at least the ο¬rst nine terms! For this problem, we see how much better this approach is; knowing the ο¬rst two terms of the Taylor series expansion 8 of ππ’ suο¬ce to get the ο¬rst six terms of ππ₯ . This is magnitudes easier than calculating all those derivatives. Again, we see the advantage of being able to recall previous results. Question 2.7. Find the ο¬rst four terms of the Taylor series for π (π₯) = √ exp(−π₯2 /2)/ 2π at π₯ = 0. 2 √1 π−π₯ /2 2π = PRACTICE PROBLEMS 9 Solution: The answer is 1 π₯2 − . 2π 4π We can do this by the standard method of diο¬erentiating, or we can take the Taylor series expansion of ππ’ and replace π’ with −π₯2 /2. β‘ √ Question 2.8. Find the ο¬rst three terms of the Taylor series for π (π₯) = π₯ at π₯ = 13 . Solution: If π (π₯) = π₯1/2 , π ′ (π₯) = 12 π₯−1/2 and π ′′ (π₯) = − 14 π₯−3/2 . Evaluating at 1/3 gives √ ( √ ( ) )2 1 1 3 3 1 3 √ + π₯− − π₯− . 2 3 8 3 3 β‘ Question 2.9. Find the ο¬rst three terms of the Taylor series for π (π₯) = (1 + π₯)1/3 at π₯ = 12 . Solution: Doing a lot of diο¬erentiation and algebra yields ( )1/3 ( )2/3 ( ) ( )2/3 ( )2 3 1 2 1 2 2 1 + π₯− − π₯− . 2 3 3 2 27 3 2 β‘ Question 2.10. Find the ο¬rst three terms of the Taylor series for π (π₯) = π₯ log π₯ at π₯ = 1. Solution: One way is to take derivatives in the standard manner and evaluate; this gives (π₯ − 1)2 . (π₯ − 1) + 2 β‘ Important Note: Another way to do this problem involves two tricks we’ve mentioned before. The ο¬rst is we need to know the series expansion of log(π₯) about π₯ = 1. One of the the most important Taylor series expansions, which is often done in a Calculus class, is ∞ ∑ π’2 π’3 π’4 (−1)π+1 π’π log(1 + π’) = π’ − + − + ⋅⋅⋅ = . 2 3 4 π π=1 We then write π₯ log π₯ = ((π₯ − 1) + 1) ⋅ log (1 + (π₯ − 1)) ; we can now grab the Taylor series from ( ) (π₯ − 1)2 (π₯ − 1)2 ((π₯ − 1) + 1) ⋅ (π₯ − 1) − = (π₯ − 1) + + ⋅⋅⋅ . 2 2 Question 2.11. Find the ο¬rst three terms of the Taylor series for π (π₯) = log(1 + π₯) at π₯ = 0. Question 2.12. Find the ο¬rst three terms of the Taylor series for π (π₯) = log(1−π₯) at π₯ = 1. Solution: The expansion for log(1 − π₯) is often covered in a Calculus class; equivalently, it can be found from log(1 + π’) by replacing π’ with −π₯. We ο¬nd ∞ ( ) ∑ π₯π π₯ π₯ log(1 − π₯) = − π₯ + + + ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ = − . 2 3 π π=1 For this problem, we get π₯ + π₯2 . 2 β‘ 10 INSTRUCTOR: STEVEN MILLER (SJM1@WILLIAMS.EDU) Question 2.13. Find the ο¬rst two terms of the Taylor series for π (π₯) = log((1 − π₯) ⋅ ππ₯ ) = log((1 − π₯) ⋅ exp(π₯)) at π₯ = 0. Solution: Taking derivatives and doing the algebra, we see the answer is just zero! The ο¬rst term that has a non-zero coeο¬cient is the π₯2 term, which comes in as −π₯2 /2. A better way of doing this is to simplify the expression before taking the derivative. As the logarithm of a product is the sum of the logarithms, we have log((1 − π₯) ⋅ ππ₯ ) equals log(1 − π₯) + log ππ₯ . But log ππ₯ = π₯, and log(1 − π₯) = −π₯ − π₯2 /2 − ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ . Adding the two expansions gives −π₯2 /2 − ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ , which means that the ο¬rst two terms of the Taylor series vanish. β‘ Question 2.14. Find the ο¬rst three terms of the Taylor series for π (π₯) = cos(π₯) log(1 + π₯) at π₯ = 0. Solution: Taking derivatives and doing the algebra gives π₯ − π₯2 /2. β‘ Important Note: A better way of doing this is to take the Taylor series expansions of each piece and then multiply them together. We need only take enough terms of each piece so that we are sure that we get the terms of order π₯2 and lower correct. Thus ( ) ( ) π₯2 π₯2 π₯2 cos(π₯) log(1 + π₯) = 1 − + ⋅⋅⋅ ⋅ π₯ − + ⋅⋅⋅ = π₯− + ⋅⋅⋅ . 2 2 2 Question 2.15. Find the ο¬rst two terms of the Taylor series for π (π₯) = log(1 + 2π₯) at π₯ = 0. Solution: The fastest way to do this is to take the Taylor series of log(1 + π’) and replace π’ with 2π₯, giving 2π₯. β‘