MASTER MINDS No.1 for CA/CWA & MEC/CEC SUGGESTED ANSWERS TO MAY 2015 IPCC EXAMS – COST ACCOUNTING & FM Dear students, These suggested answers are meant for easy and quick assessment of possible outcome of IPCC aspirants for their in-advance preparation and future course of planning. Copyrights on these suggested answers are reserved to MASTER MINDS. No circulation of these suggested answers is permitted by any means. Those who download these suggested answers can only use them for their self assessment and they don’t have any rights to circulate the same through any means. DISCLAIMER 1. Readers must aware that, these are not the suggested answers issued by ICAI. These suggested answers are only the recommendations by MASTER MINDS, Guntur. 2. ICAI will issue its own suggested answers in future and performs paper valuation based on its own suggested answers. 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Question No. 1 1a) Step 1: Calculation of P/V Ratio Year 2013 32,00,000 (80,000 40) 34,40,000 (2,40,000) Sales (-) Cost Profit / loss P/V Ratio Change inprofitx100 Change insales 2,40,000(2,40,000) x100 = 48,00,00032,00,000 4,80,000100= 30% = 16,00,000 2014 48,00,000 (1,20,000 40) 45,60,000 2,40,000 = Copy Rights Reserved To MASTER MINDS, Guntur Step 2: Variable Cost per unit Variable cost ratio Variable cost per unit = 1-P/V Ratio = 1 - 0.30 = 0.70 (or) 70% = Selling price per unit x variable cost ratio = 40 x 70% = ` 28 Per unit IPCC May 2015_Suggested Answers_Cost Accounting & FM ____________________1 Ph: 98851 25025/26 www.mastermindsindia.com Step 3: Break even point (in units) B.E.P(inunits) Fixed cost Contributi onperunit Fixed cost (Based on 2014) = Contribution – Profit = Sales x P/V Ratio – Profit = 48,00,000 x 30% - 2,40,000 = `12,00,000 Contribution per unit = S.P.P.U – V.C.P.U = 40-28 = 12 per unit B.E.P(inunits) 12,00,000= 1,00,000 units 12 Step 4: Profit of the firm operates at 25% of the capacity Sales at 15% Capacitor = 2,00,000 x 25% x 40 = `60,00,000 Copy Rights Reserved To MASTER MINDS, Guntur Profit = Sales x P/V Ratio – Fixed cost = 60,00,000 x 30% - 12,00,000 = `6,00,000 1b) i) Production Budget ( month wise ) for the first quarter of the year 2015-16 :Particulars Product Xml Current month sales +Closing stock (25% of next month) - opening stock Production for the month Product Yml Month sales +closing stock (25% of next month) -opening stock April May June 8000 2500 (10000X254%) 10500 10,000 3000 (12000X25%) (2500) 10500 12000 4000 (10000X25%) (3000) 10500 6000 2000 (8000X25%) 8000 8000 2250 (9000X25%) (2000) 8250 9000 3500 (14000X25%) (2250) 10250 ii) Production cost budget (for first quarter) of the year 2015-16:Particulars total production for the quantity (units) Direct material per unit Direct labour per unit Direct man. Exp. Per unit Total cost per unit Total production cost Xml 34000 (10500+10500+13000) 220 130 2 ( 400000 ) 200000 352 1,19,68,000 (34000X352) Yml 26500 (8000+8250+10250) 280 120 3.33 500000 150000 403.33 1,06,88,333 (26500X403.3333) IPCC May 2015_ Suggested Answers_ Cost Accounting & FM ___________________2 MASTER MINDS No.1 for CA/CWA & MEC/CEC Note: 1) Direct manufacturing expenses given is assumed as for to be budgeted production i.e 2,00,000 & 1,50,000. for Xml & Yml given in the problem. 2) There are no opening stock of finishing goods at the beginning of the year 2015-16. 1c) Evaluation of credit policy relating to the new customer Particulars Amount (`) 2,40,000 1,92,000 48,000 24,000 24,000 7,200 16,800 9,600 7,200 Incremental sales (-) Cost of sales @ 80% Profit before adjustment of Bad debts & tax (-) Bad debts PBT (-) tax @ 30% PAT (-) Opportunity cost of Investment in Debtors (W.N) Incremental Net Benefit Since the incremental Net Benefit is positive i.e. ` 7,200, it is advisable for the firm to establish new business connection with the new customer. W.N 1: It is assumed that investment in debtors is valued at cost of sales Investment in debtors = 2,40,000 x 1.50x 80% 12 Copy Rights Reserved To MASTER MINDS, Guntur = `24,000 Opportunity cost of investment in debtors = investment in debtors value x desired rate of return = `24,000 x 40% = `9,600 1d) Calculation of degree of operating leverage for all the firms: Particulars A)Change in revenue B) change in operating income Degree of operating leverage inoperating income(B) (DOL)= change Change inrevenue (A) Firm ( in % ) Q R 25 23 32 36 P 27 25 25 =0.9259 27 32=1.28 25 S 21 40 36=1.5652 40=1.9047 23 21 Calculation of degree of combined leverage for all the firms : Particulars A)Change in Revenue B) change in earnings per share Degree of combined leverage ( DOC) = change inearnings pershare (B) Change inSales(A) P 27 30 30=1.11 27 Firm (in %) Q R 25 23 24 21 24=0.96 25 21=0.91 23 S 21 23 23=1.095 21 IPCC May 2015_Suggested Answers_Cost Accounting & FM ____________________3 Ph: 98851 25025/26 www.mastermindsindia.com Question No. 2 2a) Difference ofOverhead attwolevel Difference inProduction units 2,10,0001,80,000 15 = 10,000units8,000units a) Variable Overhead rate per unit = b) Fixed Overhead = ` 1,80,000 − (8,000 units × ` 15) = ` 60,000 c) Standard hours per unit of production = d) Standard Variable Overhead Rate per hour e) Standard Fixed Overhead Rate per hour f) Std.Overhead Absorption Rate Std.Rateperhour 20=5 hours = 4 VariableOv erheadper unit= 15 =3 = 5hours Std.hour perunit =`4- `3=`1 = ` 2,95,000 – ` 62,500 Actual Variable Overhead = ` 2,32,500 g) Actual Variable Overhead Rate per Hour = 2,32,500 74,000hour s = 3.1419 h) Budgeted hours = 12,000 units × 5 hours = 60,000 hours i) Standard Hours for Actual Production = 15,560 units × 5 hours = 77,800 hours i) Variable Overhead Efficiency and Expenditure Variance: Variable Overhead Efficiency Variance = Std. Rate per hour (Std. Hours – Actual Hours) = ` 3 (77,800 hours − 74,000 hours) = ` 11,400 (F) Variable Overhead Expenditure Variance = Actual Hours (Std. Rate - Actual Rate) = 74,000 hours (` 3 - ` 3.1419) = ` 10,500 (A) ii) Fixed Overhead Efficiency and Capacity Variance: Fixed Overhead Efficiency Variance = Std. Rate per Hour (Std. Hours-Actual Hours) = ` 1(77,800 hours -74,000 hours) = ` 3,800 (F) Fixed Overheads Capacity Variance = Std. Rate per Hour (Actual Hours -Budgeted Hours) = ` 1(74,000 hours – 60,000 hours) = ` 74,000 − ` 60,000 = ` 14,000 (F) IPCC May 2015_ Suggested Answers_ Cost Accounting & FM ___________________4 MASTER MINDS No.1 for CA/CWA & MEC/CEC 2b) a) Calculation of Operating Expenses for the year ended 31st March, 2015. (`) 3,75,000 3,75,000 7,50,000 60,000 8,10,000 60,00,000 Net Profit [@ 6.25% of Sales] Add: Income Tax (@ 50%) Profit Before Tax (PBT) Add: Debenture Interest Profit before interest and tax (PBIT) Sales Less: Cost of goods sold PBIT 18,00,000 8,10,000 Operating Expenses b) 26,10,000 33,90,000 Balance Sheet as on 31st March, 2015 ` Liabilities Share Capital Reserve and Surplus 15% Debentures Sundry Creditors 10,50,000 4,50,000 4,00,000 2,00,000 ` Assets Fixed Assets Current Assets: Stock Debtors Cash 21,00,000 17,00,000 1,50,000 2,00,000 50,000 21,00,000 Working Notes: i) Share Capital and Reserves The return on net worth is 25%. Therefore, the profit after tax of ` 3,75,000 should be equivalent to 25% of the net worth. NetworthX 25 = ` 3,75,000 100 X100= ` 15,00,000 Networth = 3,75,000 25 The ratio of share capital to reserves is 7:3 ShareCapital= 15,00,000X 7 = `10,50,000 10 Reserves = 15 ,00,000X 3 = `4,50,000 10 ii) Debentures Interest on Debentures @ 15% = ` 60,000 ∴ Debentures = 60,000 X100` 4,00,000 15 Copy Rights Reserved To MASTER MINDS, Guntur iii) Current Assets Current Ratio =2 Sundry Creditors = ` 2,00,000 ∴ Current Assets = 2 Current Liabilities = 2× 2,00,000 = ` 4,00,000 IPCC May 2015_Suggested Answers_Cost Accounting & FM ____________________5 Ph: 98851 25025/26 www.mastermindsindia.com iv) Fixed Assets ` Liabilities Share capital Reserves Debentures Sundry Creditors 10,50,000 4,50,000 4,00,000 2,00,000 21,00,000 4,00,000 17,00,000 Less: Current Assets Fixed Assets v) Composition of Current Assets Inventory Turnover = 12 Copy Rights Reserved CostofGoods sold12 To MASTER MINDS, Guntur Closing Stock Closing Stock `18,00,000 Closing Stock ` 1,50,000 12 Composition Stock Sundry debtors Cash (balancing figure) Total Current Assets (` ) 1,50,000 2,00,000 50,000 4,00,000 Question No. 3 3a) Calculation of no.of kms to be travelled & no.of passengers kms for year:Total Kms travelled in a year = 30 kms X 10 trips X 2 journes X 25 dats X 12 months = 1,80,000 kms No.of passengers kms per year = 1,80,000 kms X 32 passengers X 70% capacity = 40,32,000 passengers kms. Operating cost statement for year particulars :- A) B) C) Particulars Standing charger: Insurance Garage Rent Road tax Depreciation A)Total standing charger Maintenance charger: Repairs (4800 X 4) Tyres & tuber (3600 X 4) Total (B) Running charger: 180000 5km 180000 km Oil & sundries 22dr X 100 km Diesel 13m X Sadry of operating stuff 7200 X 12 Total ( C ) Total cost A,B & C Amount 15,600 9,600 5,000 68,000 98,200 19,200 14,400 33,600 4,68,000 39,600 86,400 5,94,000 `7,25,800 IPCC May 2015_ Suggested Answers_ Cost Accounting & FM ___________________6 MASTER MINDS No.1 for CA/CWA & MEC/CEC Passenger tax 725800 X Inof.t 725800 X 25 53 22 53 301275.47 342358.49 Total taking 13,69,434 Total cost Total passengers km 1027075 .47 = 4032000 Cost per passenger km = = 0.2547 Rs per km One way fare per passenger = Copy Rights Reserved To MASTER MINDS, Guntur 1369434 30kms 4032000 = `10.189 per one way. 3b) Given Information Annual cash inflows = `60,000 Useful life = 4 years Internal rate of return = 15% Profitability index = 1.064 Salvage value =0 i) Calculation of cost of the project: IRR is the rate at which present value of cash inflows is equal to the present value of cash outflows At IRR Present value of cash Inflows = Present value of cash outflows Annual cash Inflows x PVAF[r, n] = Present value of cash outflows `60,000 x PVAF[15%, 4] = Present value of cash outflows Present value of cash outflows = `60,000 x 2.855 = `1,71,300 Cost of the project = `1,71,300 ii) Calculation of payback period Payback period InitialInvestment Annual CashInflows 1,71,300 =` 60,000 = Copy Rights Reserved To MASTER MINDS, Guntur = 2.855 years (or) 2 years 10 months 8 days IPCC May 2015_Suggested Answers_Cost Accounting & FM ____________________7 Ph: 98851 25025/26 www.mastermindsindia.com iii) Calculation of cost of capital Profitability index means it is the ratio of sum of the discounted cash inflows to the sum of the discounted cash outflows. Sumof thediscounted cashinflows Sumof thediscounted cashoutflows Sumof thediscounted cashinflows 1,71,300 Profitability Index = 1.064 = Sum of the discounted cash Inflows = `1,71,300 x 1.064 = `1,82,263 Cash Inflows x PVAF[r, n] = `1,82,263 `60,000 x PVAF[r, 4] = `1,82,263 PVAF[r, 4] = ` 1,82,263 60,000 Copy Rights Reserved To MASTER MINDS, Guntur = 3.03772 Trace the PVAF[r, 4] of 3.03772 in PVAF table against 4 years, the cost of capital would be 12% Cost of capital = 12% iv) Calculation of Net Present Value = Present value of cash inflows – present value of cash outflows Net Present Value = `1,82,263 - `1,71,300 = `10,963 Question No. 4 4a) Statement showing allocation of Joint Cost Particulars No. of units Produced Selling Price Per unit (`) Sales Value (`) Less: Estimated Profit (B1 -20% & B2 -30%) Cost of Sales Less: Estimated Selling Expenses (B1 -15% & B2 -15%) Cost of Production Less: Cost after separation Joint Cost allocated B1 B2 1,800 3,000 40 30 72,000 90,000 (14,400) (27,000) 57,600 63,000 (10,800) (13,500) 46,800 49,500 (35,000) (24,000) 11,800 25,500 Copy Rights Reserved To MASTER MINDS, Guntur IPCC May 2015_ Suggested Answers_ Cost Accounting & FM ___________________8 MASTER MINDS No.1 for CA/CWA & MEC/CEC Statement of Profitability Particulars M1 (`) Sales Value (A) B1 (`) 4,00,000 (4,000 × `100) 72,000 90,000 1,75,100 (2,12,400 -11,800 25,500) 11,800 25,500 - 35,000 24,000 80,000 10,800 13,500 (B) 2,55,100 57,600 63,000 (A –B) 1,44,900 14,400 27,000 Less:- Joint Cost - Cost after separation - Selling Expenses (M1- 20%, B1-15% & B2-15%) Profit B2 (`) Overall Profit = `1,44,900 + `14,400 + ` 27,000 = ` 1,86,300 4b) Given Information: Additional finance required for meeting investment plans = ` 30 lakhs Retained earnings available for investment purposes = ` 600,000 Debt – equity ratio = 30 : 70 Statement of showing pattern of raising additional finance: Additional finance required = ` 30 lac. Debt. = ` 30 lacs 30 100 = `9,00,000 Equity Copy Rights Reserved To MASTER MINDS, Guntur 70 = ` 30 lacs 100 = ` 21,00,000 Debt. - ` 900,000 11% of Debt. - ` 300,000 14% of Debt. - ` 600,000 Equity - ` 21,00,000 Retained earnings - ` 600,000 fresh issue of equity share capital (21,00,000 – 600,000) - ` 15,00,000 Copy Rights Reserved To MASTER MINDS, Guntur IPCC May 2015_Suggested Answers_Cost Accounting & FM ____________________9 Ph: 98851 25025/26 i) www.mastermindsindia.com After tax cost of 11% debt. ( kd) = I I(1t) NP = Interest = ` 300,000 * 11% Copy Rights Reserved To MASTER MINDS, Guntur = ` 33,000 t = tax Rate = 30% NP = Net proceeds = ` 300,000 Kd = 33000 (10.30) * 100 300 ,000 = 7.70% After tax cost of 14% Debt. ( kd ) = I I(1t) NP = Interest = 600,000 * 14% = ` 84,000 NP = Net proceeds = ` 600,000 Kd = 84000 (10.30) * 100 600 ,000 = 9.80% Calculation of post tax average cost of additional debt.:Sources 11 % Debt. 14% Debt. Amount (`) 300,000 600,000 Proportion 0.3333 0.6667 900,000 Cost of capital 7.70 9.80 Post tax average cost of additional Debt. (Kd) Prop * C/c 2.57 6.53 9.10 ii) Calculation of cost of retained earnings and cost of equity: Cost of retained earnings ( kr) = Cost of existing equity ( Ke) ( I – tp) Cost of existing equity (Ke) = DPS 1 +g MP0 DPS1 = EXPECTED Dividend per share at the end of the first year = DPS0 ( I + g) DPS0 = EPS * Dividend payout ratio = ` 15 * 70% =` 10.50 DPS1 = 10.50 ( 1 + 0.10 ) Copy Rights Reserved To MASTER MINDS, Guntur = 11.55 MP0 = current market price per share IPCC May 2015_ Suggested Answers_ Cost Accounting & FM ___________________10 MASTER MINDS No.1 for CA/CWA & MEC/CEC = ` 90 g = growth rate = 10% Ke = 11.55+ 10% 90 Copy Rights Reserved To MASTER MINDS, Guntur = 12.833 + 10 = 22.833% Cost of reserves ( Kr ) = Ke (1 – tp) = 22.833 (1-0.20) = 18.2664 DPS 1 +g NP Cost of new equity ( Kne) = DPS1 = expected Dividend per share at the end of the first year = `10.50 ( 1+ 0.10 ) = 11.55 NP = Net proceeds = `90 ( Assumed to be issued at current market price) g = growth rate = 10% Cost of new equity ( Kne) = 11.55+ 10% 90 = 22.833 iii) Calculated of overall weighted average ( after tax ) cost of additional finance :- Sources New equity share capital Retained earnings Debt Amount (in lakhs ) Proportion Cost of capital Proportion Cost of capital 15 0.50 22.833 11.4165 6 9 30 0.20 0.30 18.2664 9.10 3.65328 2.73 Ko = 17.80% Overall cost of additional finance ( K0 )= 17.80% (Approximately) Question No. 5 5a) Sunk costs: Historical costs incurred in the past are known as sunk costs. They play no role in decision making in the current period. Opportunity costs: This cost refers to the value of sacrifice made or benefit of opportunity foregone in accepting an alternative course of action. IPCC May 2015_Suggested Answers_Cost Accounting & FM ____________________11 Ph: 98851 25025/26 www.mastermindsindia.com 5b) Meaning: If during the period of execution of a contract, the prices of materials, or labour etc., rise beyond a certain limit, the contract price will be increased by an agreed amount. Inclusion of such a clause in a contract deed is called an “Escalation Clause”. Accounting Treatment: a) The amount of reimbursement due should be determined by reference to the Escalation Clause. b) The amount due from the Contractee should be recorded by means of the following journal Entry: Date Contractee’s A/c To Contract A/c Dr XXX XXX 5c) Sale and Lease back: a) Under this type of lease, the owner of an asset sells the asset to a party (the buyer), who in turn leases back the same asset to the owner in consideration of a lease rentals. b) Under this arrangement, the asset is not physically exchanged but it all happens in records only. c) The main advantage of this method is that the lessee can satisfy himself completely regarding the quality of an asset and after possession of the asset convert the sale into a lease agreement. Under this transaction, the seller assumes the role of lessee and the buyer assumes the role of a lessor. The seller gets the agreed selling price and the buyer gets the lease rentals. 5d) Miller- Orr Cash Management Model Or stochastic model: a) When the demand for cash is stochastic and not known in advance this method is used. b) In this model control limits are set for cash balances. These limits may consist of as upper limit, the return point; and the lower limit. c) When the cash balance reaches the upper limit, an investment is made in marketable securities by an amount equal to the amount, which is in excess of return point. d) When the cash balance touches the lower limit, some investments are sold so that the cash balance reaches the return point. e) During the period when cash balance stays between high and low limits no transactions between cash and marketable securities are made. Question No. 6 6a) Effective Machine hour for four-week period IPCC May 2015_ Suggested Answers_ Cost Accounting & FM ___________________12 MASTER MINDS No.1 for CA/CWA & MEC/CEC = Total working hours – unproductive set-up time = {(48 hours × 4 weeks) – {(4 hours × 4 weeks)} Copy Rights Reserved To MASTER MINDS, Guntur = (192 – 16) hours ) =176 hours. i) Computation of cost of running one machine for a four week period (`) (A) Standing charges (per annum) Rent Heat and light Forman’s salary Standing charges (per annum) Total expenses for one machine for four week period 5,400.00 9,720.00 12,960.00 28,080.00 (`) 720.00 28,000 3machines x13fourweekperiod Wages (48 hours × 4 weeks × ` 20 × 3 operators) ÷ 3 machines) (B) 3,840.00 Bonus (176 hours × ` 20 × 3 operators) ÷ 3 machines)× 10% Total standing charges Machine Expenses Depreciation = 4,912.00 Repairs and maintenance (`60 × 4 weeks) Consumable stores (` 75 × 4 weeks) Power (176 hours × 20 units ×` 0 .80) Total machine expenses Total expenses (A) + (B) 240.00 300.00 2,816.00 3,756.00 8,668.00 352.00 400.00 52,000x10%x 1 13fourweekperiod (C) ii) Machine hour rate = ` 8,668 = `49.25 176hours Copy Rights Reserved To MASTER MINDS, Guntur 6b) i) Calculation of operating cycle period: Particulars Raw material storage period Work in progress conversion period Finished goods storage period Debt collection period Gross operating cycle period (-) Creditor’s payment period Net operating cycle period ii) Number of operating cycles in a year Period [in days] 50 18 22 45 135 55 80 days = 360days Netoperating Cycle Period IPCC May 2015_Suggested Answers_Cost Accounting & FM ____________________13 Ph: 98851 25025/26 www.mastermindsindia.com = 360days 80 = 4.50 cycles iii) Calculation of Amount of working capital required for the company on cash cost basis Annual operating cost = `21,00,000 (-) Depreciation = ` 2,10,000 Annual cash operating cost = `18,90,000 Amount of working capital required for the company on cash cost basis = = Annual cashoperating cost No. of operating Cycles ina year 18,90,000 4.50 = `4,20,000 Copy Rights Reserved To MASTER MINDS, Guntur iv) As per the given information it is clear that the company is planning to discontinue sales on credit and deliver products based on prepayments. So there is no debt collection period after the new decision. Consequently net operating cycle period will be reduced and hence working capital requirement will be reduced substantially. Revised Net operating cycle period = 80 days – 45 days = 35 days New working capital requirement because of the new decision = 18,90,000 x 35days 360days = ` 1,83,750 Calculation of reduction in working capital requirement Working capital required for the company before the new decision = ` 4,20,000 (-) New working capital requirement because of the new decision = ` 1,83,750 Reduction in working capital requirement = ` 2,36,250 Question No. 7 7a) Cost Centers: It is defined as a location, person or an item of equipment for which cost may be ascertained and used for the purpose of Cost Control. Cost Centers are of two types - Personal and Impersonal. A personal cost center consists of a person or group of persons and an Impersonal cost center consists of a location or an item of equipment. In a manufacturing concern there are two main types of Cost Centers as indicated below: a) Production Cost Center: It is a cost centre where raw material is handled for conversion into finished product. Here both direct and indirect expenses are incurred. Machine shops, welding shops and assembly shops are examples of Production Cost Centers. b) Service Cost Center: It is a cost centre which serves as an ancillary unit to a production cost centre. Power house, gas production shop, material service centers, plant maintenance centers are examples of service cost centers. 7b) Integrated Accounts is the name given to a system of accounting, whereby cost and financial accounts are kept in the same set of books. IPCC May 2015_ Suggested Answers_ Cost Accounting & FM ___________________14 MASTER MINDS No.1 for CA/CWA & MEC/CEC a) There will be no separate sets of books for Costing and Financial records. b) An integrated account provides full information required for Costing as well as for Financial Accounts. c) For Costing it provides information useful for ascertaining the Cost of each product, job, process, operation of any other identifiable activity and for carrying necessary analysis. d) Integrated accounts provides relevant information which is necessary for preparing profit and loss account and the balance sheet as per the requirement of law and also helps in exercising effective control over the liabilities and assets of its business. Advantages: The main advantages of Integrated Accounts are: a) No need for Reconciliation: The question of reconciling costing profit and financial profit does not arise, as there is only one figure of profit. b) Less effort: Due to use of one set of books, there is a significant extent of saving in efforts c) Less Time consuming: No delay is caused in obtaining information as it is provided from books of original entry. d) Economical process: It is economical also as it is based on the concept of “Centralisation of Accounting function”. 7c) Factoring & Bill discounting. a) Factoring is called as “Invoice Factoring’ whereas Bills discounting is known as ‘Invoice discounting’. b) In factoring, the parties are known as the Client, Factor and Debtor whereas in bills discounting, they are known as Drawer, Drawee and Payee. c) Factoring is a sort of management of book debts whereas bills discounting is a sort of borrowing from commercial banks. d) For factoring there is no specific Act, whereas in case of bills discounting, the Negotiable Instruments Act is applicable. 7d) Profit Maximisation Does not consider the effect of future cash flows, dividend decisions, EPS, etc. A firm with profit maximisation objective may refrain from payment of dividend to its shareholders. Ignores time pattern of returns. Focus on short – term. Does not consider the effect of uncertainty / risk. Comparatively easy to determine the relationship between financial decisions and profits. Wealth Maximisation Recognises the effect of all future cash flows, dividends, EPS, etc. A firm with wealth maximisation objective may pay regular dividends to its shareholders. Recognises the time pattern of returns. Focus on medium / long-term. Recognises the risk – return relationship. Does not offer any clear or specific relationship between financial decisions and share market prices. 7e) Present value 1. Present value is the current value of a future amount. It can also be defined as the amount invested today at a given rate over specified period to equal the future amount. 2. Present value (PV), is the amount of money that represents the sum of Principal and Interest if such amount (say Rs.P) is required to be invested now at a certain rate compounded over number of time periods at a specified rate for each time period. 3. From the formula of amount under Compound Interest, we known that An P(1R)n IPCC May 2015_Suggested Answers_Cost Accounting & FM ____________________15 Ph: 98851 25025/26 www.mastermindsindia.com 4. Transporting the above formula and solving for P, we have P = Present Value = An (1R)n (Present value Tables are available for different values of “R” and “n”). Perpetuity 1. Meaning: Perpetuity is a stream of payments or a type of annuity that starts payments on a fixed date and such payments continue forever, i.e. perpetually. 2. Thus, perpetuity is a constant stream of identical cash flows with no end. 3. Examples: (a) Dividend on Irredeemable Preference Share Capital, (b) Interest on Irredeemable Debt / Bonds, (c) Scholarships paid perpetually from an Endowment funds, etc. 4. Operation: In a Fund involving perpetual annual cash flows, an Initial Fund (Principal) is established first, and the payments will flow from the Fund indefinitely. This means that these periodic payments are effectively the annual interest payments. 5. Value: a) Value of perpetuity is calculated as its Expected Income Stream ÷ Discount Factor or Market Rate of interest. Thus, it reflects the expected present value of all payments (to be received perpetually). b) The value of perpetuity is finite because receipts that are anticipated far in the future have extremely low PV. Since the principal is never repaid, there is no present value for the principal. Note: Since perpetuity is a type of annuity which is unending, its sum of Future Value can’t be calculated. 6. Formula: PV of constant Perpetuity = Where, C R C = Cash Flow i.e. Interest, Dividend, etc. per period. R = Interest Rate per Payment Period. PV of a Growing Perpetuity = Where, C RG C = Cashflow i.e. Interest, Dividend, etc. for the first period. R = Interest rate per payment period, G = Rate of growth in cash flows Note: A stream of Cash Flows at a constant rate forever is known as growing perpetuity. THE END Copy Rights Reserved To MASTER MINDS, Guntur IPCC May 2015_ Suggested Answers_ Cost Accounting & FM ___________________16