Practice test 4
1) Mechanical transmission differs from biological transmission in that mechanical
transmission
A) Doesn't involve specific diseases.
B) Doesn't work with noncommunicable diseases.
C) Involves fomites.
D) Doesn't require an arthropod.
E) Requires direct contact.
2) Which one of the following is NOT an example of microbial antagonism?
A) Bacteria occupying host receptors
B) Bacteria causing disease
C) Bacteria producing vitamin K
D) Bacteriocin production
E) Acid production by bacteria
Situation 14.1
During a 6-month period, 239 cases of pneumonia occurred in a town of 300 people. A clinical
case was defined as fever ≥39°C lasting >2 days with three or more symptoms (i.e., chills, sweats,
severe headache, cough, aching muscles/joints, fatigue, or feeling ill). A laboratory-confirmed case
was defined as a positive result for antibodies against Coxiella burnetii. Before the outbreak, 2000
sheep were kept northwest of the town. Of the 20 sheep tested from the flock, 15 were positive for
C. burnetii antibodies. Wind blew from the northwest, and rainfall was 0.5 cm compared with 7 to
10 cm during each of the previous 3 years.
3) In Situation 14.1, the etiologic agent of the disease is
A) Sheep.
B) Wind.
C) Pneumonia.
D) Soil.
E) Coxiella burnetii.
4) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together.
B) Members of a symbiotic relationship cannot live without each other.
C) Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together and benefiting from
each other.
D) At least one member must benefit in a symbiotic relationship.
E) A parasite is not in symbiosis with its host.
5) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Malaria vector
B) Influenza droplet infection
C) Salmonellosis vehicle transmission
D) Syphilis direct contact
E) All of the above are correctly matched.
6) Plague transmitted by a flea is an example of
A) Vehicle transmission.
B) Droplet transmission.
C) Vector.
D) Direct contact.
E) Fomite.
7) Which type of infection can be caused by septicemia?
A) Viremia
B) Bacteremia
C) Systemic infection
D) Focal infection
E) Local infection
8) Koch observed Bacillus anthracis multiplying in the blood of cattle. What is this
condition called?
A) Septicemia
B) Bacteremia
C) Systemic infection
D) Focal infection
E) Local infection
9) Emergence of infectious diseases can be due to all of the following EXCEPT
A) Microbes trying to cause disease.
B) Climatic changes.
C) Travel.
D) Antibiotic resistance.
E) Digging up soil.
10) Which of these infections can cause septicemia?
A) Focal infection
B) Septicemia
C) Systemic infection
D) Bacteremia
E) Local infection
11) Which of the following is NOT an effect of histamine?
A) Swelling
B) Pain
C) Fever
D) Redness
E) Vasodilation
12) TLRs attach to all of the following EXCEPT
A) Flagellin.
B) AMPs.
C) LPS.
D) PAMPs.
E) Peptidoglycan.
13) After ingesting a pathogen, lysosomal enzymes produce all of the following EXCEPT
A) -.
B) Complement.
C) HOCl.
D) OH∙.
E)
.
14) Which of the following is an effect of opsonization?
A) Increased adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms
B) Increased diapedesis of phagocytes
C) Increased margination of phagocytes
D) Cytolysis
E) Inflammation
15) Activation of C3a results in
A) Fever.
B) Attraction of phagocytes.
C) Cell lysis.
D) Acute inflammation.
E) Increased blood vessel permeability.
16) Activation of C5 C9 results in
A) Inflammation.
B) Activation of C3.
C) Leakage of cell contents.
D) Phagocytosis.
E) Fixation of complement.
17) The complement protein cascade is the same for the classical pathway, alternative
pathway, and lectin pathway beginning with the activation of
A) C1.
B) C2.
C) C3.
D) C5.
E) C6.
18) Margination refers to
A) The chemotactic response of phagocytes.
B) The adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms.
C) Adherence of phagocytes to the lining of blood vessels.
D) Dilation of blood vessels.
E) The movement of phagocytes through walls of blood vessels.
19) Bacterial enzymes such as catalase and superoxide dismutase can protect bacteria
from
A) Phagocytosis.
B) Histamine.
C) Gamma interferon.
D) Phagocytic digestion.
E) Complement.
20) Which of the following exhibits the highest phagocytic activity?
A) Eosinophils
B) Neutrophils
C) Basophils
D) Lymphocytes
E) Erythrocytes
21) What type of immunity results from injection of tetanus toxoid?
A) Innate immunity
B) Naturally acquired active immunity
C) Naturally acquired passive immunity
D) Artificially acquired active immunity
E) Artificially acquired passive immunity
Figure 17.1
22) In Figure 17.1, which letter on the graph indicates the patient's secondary response to
an antigen?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
23) Which of the following statements about natural killer cells is false?
A) They destroy cells lacking MHC I.
B) They destroy tumor cells.
C) They destroy virus-infected cells.
D) They are stimulated by an antigen.
E) All of the above statements are true.
24) The best definition antibody is
A) An immunoglobulin.
B) A serum protein.
C) A protein that inactivates or kills an antigen.
D) A protein made in response to an antigen that can combine with that antigen.
E) A protein that combines with a protein or carbohydrate.
25) The presence of which of the following indicates a current infection rather than a
previous infection or vaccination?
A) IgD
B) IgG
C) IgA
D) IgM
E) IgE
26) An antibody's Fc region can be bound by
A) CTLs
B) Antibodies.
C) B cells.
D) Macrophages.
E) T helper cells.
27) In addition to IgG, the antibodies that can fix complement are
A) IgG.
B) IgM.
C) IgA.
D) IgD.
28) What type of vaccine is live measles virus?
A) Toxoid vaccine
B) Conjugated vaccine
C) Nucleic acid vaccine
E) IgE.
D) Subunit vaccine
E) Attenuated whole-agent vaccine
29) Which is the third step in a direct ELISA test?
A) Antigen
B) Substrate for the enzyme
C) Antihuman immune serum
D) Antibodies against the antigen
30) Haemophilus influenzae b capsular polysaccharide with a protein is a(n)
A) Conjugated vaccine.
B) Inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
C) Subunit vaccine.
D) Nucleic acid vaccine.
E) Toxoid vaccine.
31) Which of the following tests is most useful in determining the presence of AIDS
antibodies?
A) Direct fluorescent-antibody
B) Complement fixation
C) Agglutination
D) Indirect ELISA
E) Neutralization
32) Which item is from the patient in a direct ELISA test?
A) Antigen
B) Antibodies against the antigen
C) Antihuman immune serum
D) Substrate for the enzyme
33) Which of the following is a fomite?
A) Water
B) Droplets from a sneeze
C) A hypodermic needle
D) Pus
E) Insects
34) A needlestick is an example of
A) Fomite.
B) Direct contact.
C) Vehicle transmission.
D) Vector.
E) Droplet transmission.
35) Which one of the following is NOT a zoonosis?
A) Cat-scratch disease
B) Rabies
C) Tapeworm
D) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome
E) All of the above are zoonoses.
36) The science that deals with when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is
called
A) Ecology.
B) Public health.
C) Epidemiology.
D) Communicable disease.
E) Morbidity and mortality.
37) Gastroenteritis acquired from roast beef is an example of
A) Fomite.
B) Vehicle transmission.
C) Vector.
D) Droplet transmission.
E) Direct contact.
38) Which of the following statements about fixed macrophages is false?
A) They are mature monocytes.
B) They develop from neutrophils.
C) They are found in certain tissues and organs.
D) They are cells of the mononuclear phagocytic system.
E) All of the above statements are true.
39) Which of the following is NOT a physical factor protecting the skin and mucous
membranes from infection?
A) Saliva
B) Lysozyme
C) Tears
D) Ciliary escalator
E) Layers of cells
Figure 17.2
40) In Figure 17.2, what can attach to a host cell?
A) b and c
B) a and c
C) b
D) d
E) e
41) Which of the following destroys virus-infected cells?
A) Treg
B) Dendritic cells
C) TH
D) CTL
E) B cells
42) Which of the following is a pregnancy test used to find the fetal hormone HCG in a
woman's urine using anti-HCG and latex spheres?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Passive agglutination reaction
Precipitation reaction
Neutralization reaction
Direct agglutination reaction
Immunofluorescence
43) The most likely mode of transmission of pneumonic plague between humans is
A) Vector.
B) Droplet transmission.
C) Vehicle transmission.
D) Direct contact.
E) Fomite.
44) Which of the following is NOT used by phagocytes to adhere to a microorganism?
A) Opsonization
B) Complement
C) Chemotaxis
D) Lysozyme
E) Trapping a bacterium against a rough surface
45) Palivizumab is used to treat respiratory syncytial virus disease. The antiviral drug is
A) A monoclonal antibody.
B) A vaccine.
C) A toxoid.
D) A nucleoside analog.
E) An immunosuppressive.
46) Transient microbiota differ from normal microbiota because transient microbiota
A) Are found in a certain location on the host.
B) Never cause disease.
C) Are acquired by direct contact.
D) Cause diseases.
E) Are present for a relatively short time.
47) CD4+ T cells are activated by
A) Cytokines released by dendtritic cells.
B) Cytokines released by B cells.
C) Interaction between TCRs and MHC II.
D) Complement.
E) Interaction between CD4+ and MHC II.
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
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47)
A
B
E
A
E
C
C
A
A
A
C
B
B
A
A
C
C
C
D
B
D
C
D
D
D
D
B
E
C
A
D
A
C
A
E
C
B
B
B
E
D
A
B
D
A
E
E