BIOLOGY 121 FINAL EXAM
Dr. I’s Summer II , 2008
Name: _______________________________
You have 2 hours for this exam; budget your time wisely. For each question, give the BEST answer.
1. Which is the smallest unit of life that can exist as a separate entity?
a. a cell
b. a molecule
c. an organ
d. a population
e. an ecosystem
2. Each cell is able to maintain a constant internal environment. This is called
a. metabolism.
b. homeostasis.
c. physiology.
d. adaptation.
e. evolution.
3. Which of the following is NOT a eukaryote?
a. fungi
b. bacteria
c. plants
d. animals
e. protistans
4. In order to arrive at a solution to a problem, a scientist usually devises one or more
a. laws.
b. theories.
c. experiments.
d. principles.
e. facts.
5. Which represents the highest degree of certainty?
a. hypothesis
b. fact
c. principle
d. law
e. theory
6. The control in an experiment
a. makes the experiment valid.
b. is an additional replicate for statistical purposes.
c. reduces the experimental errors.
d. minimizes experimental inaccuracy.
e. allows a standard of comparison for the experimental group.
7. Which is the smallest portion of a substance that retains the properties of an element?
a. atom
b. compound
c. ion
d. molecule
e. mixture
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8. The atomic weight (or mass) of an atom is determined by the weight of
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
neutrons and protons.
neutrons and electrons.
protons and electrons.
protons only.
neutrons only.
9. If the atomic weight of carbon is 12 and the atomic weight of oxygen is 16, the molecular weight of glucose C6H12O6 is
a. 24 grams.
b. 28 grams.
c. 52 grams.
d. 168 grams.
e. 180 grams.
10. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a. All isotopes have the same number of electrons.
b. All isotopes have the same number of protons.
c. All isotopes have the same number of neutrons.
d. both a and b, but not c
11. Oxygen, with an atomic number of 8, has __________ electrons in the first energy level and __________ electrons in the second
energy level.
a. 1, 7
b. 2, 6
c. 3, 5
d. 4, 4
e. 5, 3
12. Nitrogen has an atomic number of 7. How many hydrogen atoms are necessary to join with the nitrogen to form a stable compound?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
13. What is formed when an atom loses an electron?
a. mole
b. anion
c. molecule
d. compound
e. cation
14. Two molecules with the same chemical formulas but different structures are known as
a. isotopes
b. isotonic
c. radioactive
d. inert
e. isomers
15. In __________ bonds, both atoms exert the same pull on shared electrons.
a. nonpolar covalent
b. polar covalent
c. double covalent
d. triple covalent
e. ionic
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16. Carbon can form ___ bonds with other atoms.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6
17. The relatively unimportant by-product(s) of many condensation reactions is (are)
a. carbon dioxide.
b. aldehyde groups.
c. enzymes.
d. alcohols.
e. Water
18. Which are NOT macromolecules?
a. proteins
b. polysaccharides
c. nucleotides
d. lipids
e. nucleic acids
19. Which of the following is composed of a 1:2:1 ratio of carbon to hydrogen to oxygen?
a. carbohydrate
b. protein
c. lipid
d. nucleic acid
e. steroid
20. Which is NOT a monosaccharide?
a. glucose
b. fructose
c. deoxyribose
d. starch
e. ribose
21. Which of the following are lipids?
a. sterols
b. triglycerides
c. oils
d. waxes
e. all of the above
22. What kind of bond exists between two amino acids in a protein?
a. peptide
b. ionic
c. hydrogen
d. amino
e. sulfhydroxyl
23. The interaction of four polypeptide chains in a hemoglobin molecule is __________ structure.
a. quaternary
b. secondary
c. primary
d. tertiary
e. quintinery
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24. Which of these cell features is absent in a bacterial cell?
a. plasma membrane
b. RNA
c. cytoplasm
d. nucleus
e. DNA
25. Which of the following organelles is correctly matched with its function?
a. nucleus: protein synthesis
b. ER: heredity
c. Golgi bodies: packaging
d. mitochondria: digestion
e. chloroplasts: storage of lipids
26. The endoplasmic reticulum
a. serves as the internal transportation system of a cell.
b. is the inner membrane of the mitochondria.
c. is characterized by the presence of ribosomes throughout.
d. manufactures ATP.
e. breaks down damaged organelles.
27. Which of the following contain enzymes and are the main organelles of intracellular digestion?
a. Golgi bodies
b. ribosomes
c. mitochondria
d. lysosomes
e. endoplasmic reticula
28. Which of the following are found in both plant and animal cells?
a. nucleus, Golgi body, chloroplasts
b. ribosomes, mitochondria, plasma membranes
c. centrioles, cell walls, nucleolus
d. vacuoles, nucleolus, starch grains
29. Four of the five answers listed below are familiar organelles in the cytoplasm. Select the exception.
a. nucleolus
b. mitochondrion
c. ribosome
d. Golgi body
e. chloroplast
30. The phospholipid molecules of most membranes have
a. a hydrophobic head and a hydrophilic tail.
b. a hydrophobic head and a hydrophobic tail.
c. a hydrophobic head and two hydrophobic tails.
d. a hydrophilic head and two hydrophobic tails.
e. none of the above
31. Most of the functions of plasma membranes are carried out by
a. cholesterol.
b. proteins.
c. hydrophilic heads.
d. hydrophobic tails.
e. carbohydrates.
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32. The rate of diffusion through a semipermeable membrane will be lowest when which of the following is (are) true?
a. I.Concentration gradients are steep.
II.Temperatures are low.
III.Solutes are small molecules.
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
33. A red blood cell will lyse when placed in which of the following kinds of solution?
a. hypotonic
b. hypertonic
c. isotonic
d. any of the above
e. none of the above
34. Movement of a molecule against a concentration gradient is
a. simple diffusion.
b. facilitated diffusion.
c. osmosis.
d. active transport.
e. bulk flow.
35. Which of the following is NOT a form of passive transport?
a. osmosis
b. facilitated diffusion
c. exocytosis
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
36. The second law of thermodynamics holds that
a. matter can be neither created nor destroyed.
b. energy can be neither created nor destroyed.
c. energy of one form is converted to a less concentrated form whenever energy is transformed or transferred.
d. entropy decreases with time.
e. none of the above
37. The energy used by living organisms
a. is declining through time.
b. is derived by breaking bonds that hold the atoms in organic molecules together.
c. involves ionic bonds more often than covalent bonds.
d. is available only from glucose when it undergoes respiration.
e. tends to accumulate in a food chain.
38. Endergonic reactions
a. have more energy in the reactants than in the products.
b. have more energy in the products than in the reactants.
c. are illustrated by the breakdown of glucose.
d. are the mechanisms used by animals to provide energy for biological reactions.
e. both b and c, but not a or d
39. Substances that enter a reaction are termed
a. intermediates.
b. enzymes.
c. energy carriers.
d. substrates.
e. none of these
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40. Enzymes
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
are very specific.
act as catalysts.
are organic molecules.
have special shapes that control their activities.
all of the above
41. Activation energy
a. is less when enzymes are present.
b. causes a greater interaction of substrate with the active site.
c. is needed to begin a reaction.
d. a and c only
e. a, b, and c
42. noncompetitive inhibition is generally a result of
a. excess substrates.
b. binding of regulatory molecules at another site.
c. a change in the temperature of the system.
d. a lack of coenzymes.
e. pH inhibition.
43. The oxygen released in photosynthesis comes from
a. carbon dioxide.
b. glucose.
c. ribulose bisphosphate.
d. water.
e. atmospheric oxygen.
44. Which of the following is LEAST associated with the light-dependent reactions?
a. ATP
b. thylakoids
c. chlorophyll
d. stroma
e. water
45. Chlorophyll reflects (does not absorb) which color of light?
a. red
b. yellow
c. orange
d. green
e. blue
46. Photosystems are mainly
a. light-trapping molecules.
b. enzymes for splitting water.
c. clusters of ATP molecules.
d. sugar assembly sites.
e. a, b, and c are correct
47. The electrons that are passed to NADP+ during the noncyclic pathway were obtained from
a. chlorophyll.
b. CO2.
c. glucose.
d. sunlight.
e. ATP.
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48. ATP is formed when __________ the thylakoid space.
a. hydrogen ions enter
b. electrons leave
c. hydrogen ions leave
d. electrons enter
e. water is split in
49. The first stable compound produced from CO2 in the light-independent reaction is
a. 3-phosphoglycerate (3PG).
b. ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP).
c. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P)
d. glucose.
e. phosphoenol pyruvate.
50. The carbon dioxide acceptor in the Calvin cycle is
a. phosphoglycerate (PGA).
b. ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP).
c. phosphoglyceraldehyde (PGAL).
d. glucose.
e. phosphoenol pyruvate.
51. How many molecules of G3P (glyceraldehydes-3-phosphate) are used to regenerate the six molecules of RuBP (ribulose bisphosphate)?
a. 3
b. 6
c. 10
d. 12
e. 18
52. The process in which oxygen, not carbon dioxide, becomes attached to RuBP is
a. the Calvin-Benson cycle.
b. photolysis.
c. photophosphorylation.
d. chemiosmosis.
e. photorespiration.
53. Which of the following liberates the most energy in the form of ATP?
a. aerobic respiration
b. anaerobic respiration
c. alcoholic fermentation
d. lactate fermentation
e. All liberate the same amount, but through different means.
54. For glycolysis to begin,
a. glucose must enter the mitochondria.
b. there must be an input of energy from ATP.
c. oxygen must be available.
d. some hydrogen acceptors must be available.
e. none of the above
55. How many ATP molecules (net yield) are produced per molecule of glucose degraded during glycolysis?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 36
e. 38
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56. The chemical that enters the mitochondria to continue respiration is
a. glyceraldehydes-3-phosphate (G3P).
b. oxaloacetate.
c. 3-phosphoglycerate (3PG).
d. pyruvate.
e. citrate.
57. To break down a glucose molecule completely, how many passes through the Krebs cycle are required?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
e. 12
58. The most abundant acceptor for hydrogen released in the Krebs cycle is
a. TPN.
b. FMN.
c. NAD+.
d. FAD.
e. cytochrome oxidase.
59. If fermentation follows glycolysis,
a. CO2 will be one of the products as pyruvate is converted to lactate.
b. the two NADH molecules produced during glycolysis will (depending on the organism) be used to reduce pyruvate to either
lactate or ethanol and CO2.
c. ATP will be required to convert pyruvate to either lactate or ethanol and CO2.
d. oxidative phosphorylation occurs either on the plasma membrane or on derivatives of the plasma membrane.
60. In mitosis, if a parent cell has 16 chromosomes, each daughter cell will have how many chromosomes?
a. 64
b. 32
c. 16
d. 8
e. 4
61. The spindle apparatus is first visible during
a. anaphase.
b. metaphase.
c. interphase.
d. prophase.
e. telophase.
62. The chromosomes move toward opposite poles during
a. anaphase.
b. metaphase.
c. interphase.
d. prophase.
e. telophase.
63. Which of the following is the proper sequence for mitosis?
I.metaphase III.prophase
II.telophase IV.anaphase
a. I, III, IV, II
b. I, II, III, IV
c. III, I, IV, II
d. IV, I, III, II
e. III, IV, I, II
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64. The distribution of cytoplasm to daughter cells is accomplished during
a. prokaryotic fission.
b. mitosis.
c. meiosis.
d. cytokinesis.
e. karyokinesis.
65. Animal gametes have
a. half the number of chromosomes as body cells
b. the same number of chromosomes as body cells
c. twice the number of chromosomes as body cells
d. only one chromosome
e. Long tails
66. In human males, meiosis typically results in the production of
a. 2 diploid cells
b. 4 diploid cells
c. 4 haploid cells
d. 2 haploid cells
e. 1 triploid cell
67. Which of the following statements about DNA replication is NOT TRUE?
a. DNA is only replicated if the cell is preparing to divide.
b. Enzymes catalyze both the unzipping and the polymerization of the new molecule.
c. One old strand remains intact in each new DNA molecule.
d. As replication occurs, each base is paired with another exactly like it.
e. Unzipping of the DNA molecule occurs as the hydrogen bonds break.
68. A population of flu viruses is made incorporating BOTH labeled (radioactive, or “heavy”) sulfur AND labeled (radioactive, or
“heavy”) phosphorus. If the viruses are then allowed to infect the respiratory tracts of some volunteer humans, which radioactive
element would move INTO the cells of the people?
a. sulfur only
b. phosphorus only
c. BOTH radioactive elements
d. neither element
e. The answer cannot be determined.
69. What fraction of the offspring of two individuals heterozygous for each of two genes (that is, AaBb x AaBb) will express both the
recessive allele for the A gene AND the dominant allele for the B gene?
a. 1/4
b. 1/16
c. 2/16
d. 3/16
e. 4/16
70. The results of a test cross reveal that all offspring resemble the parent being tested. That parent must be
a. heterozygous
b. polygenic
c. homozygous
d. recessive
e. none of the above
71. If a tetraploid cell underwent meiosis, the resulting cells would be
a. tetraploid
b. diploid
c. triploid
d. polyploid
e. haploid
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72. Jack is colorblind, but his wife Jill is not. Their son, Jacob, is also colorblind. Which of the following conclusions is the most likely?
a. Jacob inherited colorblindness from his father.
b. Jacob’s colorblindness is the result of a new mutation.
c. One of Jill’s parents must have been color blind.
d. Jill was heterozygous for colorblindness.
e. Jack was homozygous for colorblindness.
73. What is the function of restriction enzymes in genetic engineering?
a. it cuts DNA into fragments
b. it carries DNA into a new cell
c. it copies DNA to form new DNA
d. it links together newly joined fragments of DNA
e. it copies RNA to produce cDNA
74. Aliens have been discovered! They have a genetic code much like ours, except that there are five different DNA bases instead of four,
and the base sequences are translated as doublets instead of triplets. How many different amino acids could be accommodated by this
genetic code?
a. 5
b. 10
c. 25
d. 64
e. 32
75. A repressor protein influences transcription by binding with
a. mRNA
b. the operator
c. the regulator
d. the terminator
e. a substrate
76. In which of the following would you most likely find an “operon”?
a. the HIV retrovirus
b. the herpes virus
c. E. coli bacteria
d. Homo sapiens
e. more than one of these
77. “Differential splicing” by spliceosomes
a. allows one gene to produce many different, but related, mRNA molecules
b. results in multiple copies of the protein being produced
c. results in the addition of a longer poly-A “tail” to the mRNA
d. results in RFLPs that can be spread by gel electrophoresis into a DNA fingerprint
e. is done only by prokaryotic organisms
78. Two kinds of mice live in the same area but one kind is black and the other kind is brown. Which of the following would be most
valuable in determining if they are of the same species?
a. Do the two kinds have other physical or physiological differences other than color?
b. Are the brown mice eaten more often by owls than are black mice?
c. Do the brown mice dig holes better or more quickly than do the black mice?
d. Do the brown mice have more babies, on average, than do the black mice?
e. Do members of the two kinds mate with one another and have offspring that reproduce?
79. Note the pedigree chart your beloved professor has drawn on the board. Which of the following modes of inheritance is compatible
with the chart?
a. autosomal dominant
b. autosomal recessive
c. sex-linked dominant
d. sex-linked recessive
e. more than one of the above
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80. How many different kinds of gametes could be produced by an individual with the genotype AABbccDdXAy, barring mutation?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 8
d. 16
e. 32
An incompletely dominant gene controls the color of chickens so that BB is black, Bb is “blue”, and bb is “splashed” white. A
second gene controls comb shape, with the dominant gene R producing a rose comb and r producing a “single” comb. Neither
trait is sex-linked. The following three questions refer to the mating of a pure-breeding black chicken with a rose comb to a
splashed white chicken with a single comb.
81. In the F2 generation, what fraction of the offspring will be black with rose comb?
a. 9/16
b. 3/8
c. 3/16
d. 1/8
e. 1/16
82. In the F2 generation, what fraction of the offspring will be blue with single comb?
a. 9/16
b. 3/8
c. 3/16
d. 1/8
e. 1/16
83. In the F2 generation, what fraction of the offspring will be blue with rose comb?
a. 9/16
b. 3/8
c. 3/16
d. 1/8
e. 1/16
In cocker spaniels, black coat color (B) is dominant over red (b), and solid color (S) is dominant over spotted (s). Neither trait is sexlinked.
84. If a solid red male was crossed with a solid black female to produce a spotted red puppy, the genotypes of the parents (with male
genotype first) would be
a. BbSs x BbSs
b. bbSs x BbSs
c. bbss x BbSs
d. bbSs x Bbss
e. Bbss x Bbss
85. If two black solid dogs were crossed several times and the total offspring were eighteen black solid and five black spotted putties, the
genotypes of the parents would most likely be
a. BbSs x BbSs
b. BbSs x BbSS
c. BBSs x Bbss
d. BBSs x BbSs
e. Bbss x BbSS
86. If the two traits were linked, how many different gametes could a dog heterozygous for both traits produce?
a. only one: BbSs
b. two: BS and bs
c. two Bs and bS
d. four: BS, Bs, bS, and bs
e. it could be more than one of the above, depending on how the traits were linked
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87. Genetic recombination as a result of crossing over occurs more readily in genes that are
a. on the sex chromosomes
b. NOT on the sex chromosomes
c. located on different chromosomes
d. located far apart on the same chromosome
e. located close together on the same chromosome
88. Amniocentesis and Chorionic Villi Sampling (CVS) are
a. a form of gene replacement therapy
b. used in prenatal diagnosis to detect chromosomal mutations and metabolic disorders in embryos
c. a surgical method of repairing genetic deformities
d. a form of chemotherapy that modifies or inhibits gene expression or the function of gene products
e. a recessive genetic trait characterized by progressive neuromuscular degeneration starting after age 40
89. If the DNA triplets were ATG-CGT, the tRNA anticodons involved in translation would be
a. AUG-CGU
b. ATG-CGT
c. UAC-GCA
d. UAG-CGU
e. none of the above
90. Genetic variation among individuals originates
a. because they live in different environments
b. from natural selection
c. from mutations in DNA
d. because parents resemble their offspring
e. in order to increase chances of survival and reproduction
91. Evolution is best defined as
a. Observable change in a species over time
b. A change in gene frequency in a population over time
c. The formation of one species from an ancestor species
d. Survival of the fittest
e. any of the above
92. Which of the following is a misconception about evolutionary theory?
a. evolutionary theory claims to explain the origin of the earth
b. evolutionary theory claims to be able to explain the origin of life on earth
c. evolutionary theory claims to be able to explain the origin of humans
d. evolutionary theory claims that all organisms are related through branching descent from common ancestors
e. more than one of the above is a misconception
93. Biological fitness is determined by
a. how much exercise the organism gets
b. how long you live
c. how many offspring you have
d. the ability to avoid predators
e. how often your DNA mutates
94. Hundreds of generations of men in certain cultures have undergone circumcision, the removal of the foreskin of the penis soon after
birth. Yet men of these cultures are still born with foreskins. The loss of the foreskin is best described as under the control of
a. multiple alleles
b. quantitiative inheritance
c. incompletely dominant genes
d. pleiotropy
e. environmental effects
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95. Which of the following would NOT cause evolution of a dog population via artificial selection?
a. cutting the tails off of dogs for many generations to breed a tailless variety
b. killing the dogs with the longest tails, to breed a short-tailed variety
c. mating only the darkest-colored dogs to breed a black variety
d. starving dogs until many had died, and then breeding the survivors to produce a variety that you could better leave at home
when you went on vacation
e. all of the above would cause evolution of the dog population
96. Charles Darwin and Gregor Mendel both lived and did their research and writing
a. in the 1550's
b. in the 1650's
c. in the 1750's
d. in the 1850's
e. in the 1950's
97. In many species of fireflies, males flash to attract females. Each species has a different distinctive flashing pattern. This is an
example of
a. allopatric speciation
b. geographical isolation
c. behavioral isolation
d. ecological isolation
e. kin selection
98. Of the following anatomical structures, which is homologous to the wing of a bat?
a. the dorsal fin of a shark
b. the tail of a kangaroo
c. the wing of a butterfly
d. the tail fin of a fish
e. the arm of a human
99. An oncogene:
a. Is a gene normally involved in cell growth that can be mutated in cancer.
b. Is a gene normally involved in cell death or inhibition that can be mutated in cancer.
c. Suffers a mutation that causes a gain-of-function.
d. Suffers a mutation that causes loss-of-function.
e. Two of the above are true.
100. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)….
a. Involves primers that bind each strand of a double strand and allow replication to proceed.
b. Occurs when a single molecule of DNA is broken down, causing many others to be broken down.
c. Only occurs in bacteria.
d. Only occurs in cancer cells.
e. None of the above.
101. Now that you are done with your summer session Biology Course, you will
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
Celebrate by going home and passing out
Flee the country
Form a heavy metal band called “The Mendels”
Start a genetics experiment in your garden.
Wonder if Dr. I is actually deaf in one ear, or only faking it.
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