7N409A
CLASS: P.G. E.D.C.
ST. JOSEPH’S COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS) TIRUCHIRAPPALLI – 620 002
SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS – NOVEMBER 2007
TIME: 3.00 Hrs.
MAXIMUM MARKS: 100
SEM
SET
PAPER CODE
III
2006
06PBT362
SUBJECT
GENOMICS AND PROTEOMICS
SECTION – A
Answer all the questions:
20 x 1 = 20
Choose the correct answer:
1. Sakura database is found in
a) DDBJ
b) EMBL
c) EBI
2. Expand AMAS.
a) Analysis of Multiple alignment sequences
c) Alignment of Multiple added sequence
3. Which of the following is not provided by TIGR?
a) Gene expression
c) Protein family information
4. The website address for DDBJ is
a) www.ddbj.nig.ac.jp
b) www.ddbj.jp
d) NCBI
b) Analysis of Multiple aligned sequence
d) Alignment of Multiple analyzed sequences
b) DNA and Protein sequences
d) EST and unannotated gene sequences
c) www.ddbj.ac.in
d) www.ddbj.nig
5. In Genbank entries the feature table starts at ____________.
a) 1st column
b) 3rd column
c) 5th column
d) 7th column
6. ________ method is used in Clustal W.
a) Pearson
b) Altshul
c) Smith
d) Craig Ventor
7. PAM stands for _________
a) Point Accepted Mutation
c) Position Aligned Mark
b) Position Accepted Mutation
d) None of the above
8. __________ tool is used in Secondary structure prediction 07 proteins.
a) SOPMA
b) Swiss-PDB
c) Cn3D
d) Rasmol
9. __________ software is used in Genome annotation
a) Genescan
b) CODEHOP
c) DOCK
d) Chemsketch
10. In a Phylogenic Tree a node represents __________
a) Taxonomic Unit
b) Descendent
c) Ancestor
d) All the above
11. How many Bulk division available in GenBank?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 9
12. The database available in NCBI that gives information about the Oncogenes are
a) Cancer chromosomes
b) Getentry
c) Unigene
d) BLAST
13. HTGS means _________
a) High Throughput Genomic sequence
c) Human Tentative Gene sequence
b) High throughput Gene sequence
d) Human Throughput Genome sequence
14. GEO means ________
a) Gene Expression Omnibus
c) Gene Emboss
b) Genome Expression Omnibus
d) Gene Expression orthologous
15. The enzyme used to form the double strand cDNA from single strand cDNA template is __________
a)DNA Polymerase
b) Reverse Transcriptase
c) RNA Polymerase
d) RNase A
16. _________ was used in the first generation Computers
a) Integrated Circuits
b) Microprocessor
17. HTML Stands for _________
a) Hyper Text Mannual Language
c) Higher Text Mannul Language
c) Transistors
d) Vaccum Tubes
b) Hyper Text Markup Language
d) None o these
18. A group of conserved motifs used to characterize a protein family is called
a) Regular Expressions
b) Fingerprints
c) Patterns
19. The database that shows the protein domain / function relationship is
a) PROSITE
b) PDB
c) BLOCKS
20. Pile up tools can be used for
a) Multiple Alignment
b) PDB
d) PRINTS
d) PRINTS
c) Ungapped Alignment
d) Both b & c
SECTION – B
Answer all the questions in two pages each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary:
5 x 4 = 20
21. a. What is Computational genomics? Give its contributions to biological research.
OR
b. Write short notes on Genbank.
22. a. Give an account on conceptual translation.
OR
b. Critically comment on FASTA.
23. a. Write notes on comparative genomics.
OR
b. How will you align the DNA sequence by Dot Plot? Add a note on their significance in scoring.
24. a. Write short notes on reverse transcriptase.
OR
b. What is PCR? Write its uses.
25. a. Explain the method of producing cDNA libraries.
OR
b. Write short notes on Codons.
SECTION – C
Answer any FOUR questions in four pages each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary:
26. Write an essay on composite protein sequence database.
27. Give a detailed account on primary Nucleic acid database.
28. Describe Computational phylogenetics.
29. Discuss in detail, pairwise alignment and multiple alignment.
30. Describe the various protein structure databases.
****************
4 x 15 = 60
7N353A
CLASS: M.SC. BIOTECHNOLOGY
ST. JOSEPH’S COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS) TIRUCHIRAPPALLI – 620 002
SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS – NOVEMBER 2007
TIME: 3.00 Hrs.
MAXIMUM MARKS: 100
SEM
SET
PAPER CODE
I
2007
06PBT121
SUBJECT
CELL AND MOLECULAR BIOLOGY
SECTION – A
Answer all the questions:
20 x 1 = 20
Choose the correct answer:
1. Which of the following molecules was most likely to have been synthesized in the Smooth
Endoplasmic Reticulum?
a) Protein
b) glucose
c) phospholipid
d) starch
2. Which substances are secreted at the endings of nerve cells?
a) antibodies
b) antigens
c) neurotransmitters
d) lipids
3. An E.coli strain lacking DNA polymerase I would be deficient in ___________.
a) DNA repair
b) Methylation
c) Replication
d) Splicing
4. Which of the following elements is LEAST likely to be found on any + strand viral genomic RNA?
a) A Cap
b) A binding site for Replicase
c) A binding site for ribosomes
d) A binding site for RNA polymerase II
5. The ribosome is involved in all of the following EXCEPT
a) Peptide bond synthesis
b) Binding of protein factors during elongation
c) Aminoacylation of tRNA
d) Binding of Aminoacyl tRNA to mRNA
6. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism for the origin of multigene families?
a) Convergent evolution of dissimilar genes
b) Gene duplication
c) Horizontal gene transfer
d) Viral infection
7. In a bacterial cell, mutation in aminoacyl tRNA synthetase leads to charging of all of the tRNAser with
alanine. Which of the following correctly describe the result of using these tRNA molecules in protein
synthesis?
a) The alanyl-tRNAser will not function in protein synthesis
b) Protein synthesized using alanyl-tRNAser will contain neigther alanine or serine.
c) Protein synthesized using alanyl-tRNAser will contain only serine where alanine would normally
occur
d) Protein synthesized using alanyl-tRNA will contain only alanine where serine would normally occur
8. Which of the following is NOT involved in the processing of mRNA precursors in Eukaryotes?
a) Addition of 5Cap b) Excision of introns
c) Splicing of exons
d) Addition of poly A tail
9. Which of the following does mostly likely result in loss of gene function?
a) A missense mutation in the open reading frame
b) A change from a TAA codon to TAG codon in the coding region
c) A frame shift mutation in the coding sequences
d) A change from T to C in the promoter region
10. Common lesions found in DNA after exposure to UV light are
a) Pyrimidine dimers
b) single strand breaks
c) purine dimers
d) transposition
11. Which of the following enzyme is an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase?
a) Qβ Replicase
b) tRNA deacylase
c) Reverse transcriptase
d) RNA polymerase
12. ___________ technique is used for characterizing the protein-binding sites in the RNA
a) Finger printing
b) Sequencing
c) Foot Printing
d) Cloning
13. _________ is an antibiotic that specifically inhibits the initiation of RNA synthesis
a) Ampicillin
b) tetracycline
c) Rifampicin
d) Kanamycin
14. Which of the following antibiotic is a structural analogue of aminoacyl-tRNA.
a) Puromycin
b) Penicillin
c) Gentamicin
d) Ampicillin
15. Gene expression in eukaryotes is regulated by
a) Methylation of DNA
c) Methylation of RNA
b) Deacetylation of Histones
d) Acetylation of Histones
16. _________ had left handed helices
a) A-DNA
b) Z-DNA
c) B-DNA
d) C-DNA
17. _________ is involved in most DNA chain elongation activity
a) DNA pol I
b) DNA pol II
c) DNA pol III
d) Klenow fragment
18. CCA end in tRNA is otherwise called
a) Acceptor end
b) DHU loop
d) Anticodon loop
c) Extra arm
19. EF-Tu is a carrier protein needed for the binding of charged tRNA to the A site of
a) Active 70S ribosome
b) Active 80S ribosome
c) Dissociated 70S ribosome
d) Dissociated 80S ribosome
20. The protein responsible for the movement of flagella and cilia is ___________.
a) Actin
b) Filamin
c) Dynein
d) Kinesin
SECTION – B
Answer the questions in two pages each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary:
5 x 4 = 20
21. a. Briefly explain bacterial transformation process.
OR
b. Explain the organization of chromosome in prokaryotes.
22. a. What advantage does DNA have in having thymine rather than uracil?
OR
b. Give the functions of Type I and Type II topoisomerases.
23. a. List the requisites of a genetic material.
OR
b. Explain the mechanism of initiation of transcription in E.coli.
24. a. Describe the genetic code and its characteristics.
OR
b. Describe the structure of tRNA at secondary structure.
25. a. List the differences in the genetic organization of prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
OR
b. Write notes on polytene chromosome and its significance.
SECTION – C
Answer any FOUR questions in four pages each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary:
26. Give a detailed account on plasmids and the types.
27. Describe the various DNA repair mechanisms.
28. Explain the post-transcriptional modifications of a primary transcript.
29. Explain the process of translation in Eukaryotes.
30. What are gene families? Describe the structure and expression pattern of the complex multi-gene
family.
****************
4 x 15 = 60
7N413A
CLASS: P.G. E.T.C.
ST. JOSEPH’S COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS) TIRUCHIRAPPALLI – 620 002
SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS – NOVEMBER 2007
TIME: 3.00 Hrs.
MAXIMUM MARKS: 100
SEM
SET
PAPER CODE
III
2006
06PBT366
SUBJECT
MOLECULAR MODELING & COMPUTER AIDED DRUG
DESIGN
SECTION – A
Answer all the questions:
20 x 1 = 20
Choose the correct answer:
1. Molecules can be viewed with Phylip
a) Rasmol
b) Clustal W
c) OLIGO
2. In Clustal W ‘:’ represents
a) Strongly conserved regions
c) Gapped regions
b) Non conserved regions
d) None of the above
d) SPDBV
3. The portion of the internal energy of a system associated with kinetic energies of the molecules is called
a) Latent energy
b) Chemical energy
c) Nuclear energy
d) Sensible energy
4. The quantum mechanical model of atomic structure uses the concept of orbitals to describe
a) the exact position of an electron at any given time
b) the energy levels for the electron(s) and probability distribution for their location
c) the movement of electrons in orbits as in the Bohr model
d) the mass of the atom
5. Structural isomers of molecules will always have _________.
a) a different number and kind of atoms
b) the same number and kind of atoms
c) the same physical properties
d) the same arrangement (position) of atoms in space
6. The energy required to remove an electron form an atom or ion in the gas phase is the
a) nuclear binding energy
b) kinetic energy of the atom
c) orbital energy
d) ionization energy
7. Which of the following is a class I clinical trial?
a) Lead identification
c) Testing with animal cell cultures
b) Docking
d) Testing with animal models
8. CASP stands __________
a) Critical Assessment of structure prediction
c) Calculative Assessment of structure prediction
b) Clinical Assessment of structure prediction
d) None of the above
9. __________ is a method used to suggest a general structure for a new protein
a) Docking
b) Threading
c) Virtual Screening
d) Lead optimization
10. ___________ is the matrix used in the scoring of the sequence
a) PAM 250
b) PAM 100
c) BLOSUM
d) Dot Plot
11. ___________ is a class of statistical modeling tools that can be used for the multiple sequence
management
a) Hidden Markov Model
b) T-COFFEE
c) Clustal V
d) Clustal X
12. Which of the following is NOT a software used in Molecular modeling?
a) SPDB viewer
b) ChemDraw
c) GAUSSIAN
d) Expasy
13. ________ tool is used find the relationship between the receptor and the ligand.
a) Auto dock
b) SOPMA
c) Rossetta
d) HMMSTR
14. ________ techniques is used to identify the structure of the protein.
a) X-ray Crystallaography
b) Chromatography
c) Electrophoesis
d) Salting out
15. __________ is designed to find molecules with a high degree of shape complementarity to the binding
site.
a) Dock
b) Threading
c) Hit identification
d) Target identification
16. Which department must approve any newly designed drug?
a) ISO
b) FDA
c) DoE
d) NIH
17. ___________ enzyme has been identified as the target in HIV
a) HIV Reverse transcriptase
b) DNA polymerase
c) Gp 120
18. ___________ is used for pairwise alignment of the sequence
a) Clustal W
b) SPDBV
c) BLAST
d) HEX
19. E value stands for __________
a) Energy Value
b) Evaluation value
c) Expected value
20. _________ is the study of the evolutionary relationship
a) Phylogeny
b) Docking
c) Threading
d) Gp 60
d) None of the above
d) PROSITE
SECTION – B
Answer the following questions in two pages each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary:
5 x 4 = 20
21. a. Explain the uses of molecular modeling.
OR
b. Explain the non-derivative energy minimization in biomolecules.
22. a. Explain the different Phases in Clinical trail I.
OR
b. Discuss the lead identification process.
23. a. Explain the process of Virtual screening.
OR
b. Discuss the role of Informatics in drug designing.
24. a. Explain the high throughput Screening Technique.
OR
b. Discuss the features of Combinatorial Libraries.
25. a. Explain the steps involved in identifying the homology using BLAST.
OR
b. Enumerate the strategies involved in the generation of HIT molecule.
SECTION – C
Answer any FOUR questions in four pages each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary:
26. Explain the First order energy minimization methods.
27. Discuss the steps involved in drug design.
28. Explain the various interactions between drug and receptor.
29. Discuss the software tools used in molecular modeling.
30. Explain the various clinical trials involved in drug designing.
****************
4 x 15 = 60
7N358A
CLASS: M.SC. BIOTECHNOLOGY
ST. JOSEPH’S COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS) TIRUCHIRAPPALLI – 620 002
SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS – NOVEMBER 2007
TIME: 3.00 Hrs.
MAXIMUM MARKS: 100
SEM
SET
PAPER CODE
III
2006
06PBT329
SUBJECT
PLANT BIOTECHNOLOGY
SECTION – A
Answer all the questions:
20 x 1 = 20
Choose the correct answer:
1. Plant tissue culture is based on the principle of ________
a) cell division
b) cell growth
c) totipotency
d) regeneration
2. Explants are _________
a) reproductive part of the plant like pollen / stamen
b) vegetative part of the plant like leaf / stem
c) any part of the plant like leaf / stem / root
d) the initial tissue / segment of the live plant capable of growth in vitro
3. In a callus _________
a) all cells are dividing
c) there are differentiated & dividing cells
b) all cells are young / meristematic
d) all cells are differentiating
4. Virus-free plants are obtained through _________
a) callus culture
b) embryo culture
c) meristem culture
d) tip culture
5. Host-pathogen interaction is initiated with the response of the host to the bacterial _________
a) genes
b) plasmids
c) cells
d) secretions
6. Agrobacterium can only infect dicots because _________
a) dicots secrete casaminacid
b) dicots release acetosyringone
c) monocots donot have borders
d) dicots have VIR genes
7. Agrobacterium-mediated gene transfer takes place during _________
a) coculativation
b) electroporation
c) microinjection
d) transfection
8. The most successful and precise gene transfer to plants is achieved by __________
a) Electroporation
b) lipofection
c) shotgun
d) Agrobacterium
9. N2 fixation results in the reduction of N2 into __________
a) protein
b) amino acid
c) ammonia
d) nitrate
10. The advantage of gene manipulation in the chloroplast genome is _______
a) tissue specific expression
b) copy number
c) gene dosage
d) all the above
11. Introducing a desired gene into the plastid genome has the advantage of __________
a) gene dosage
b) tissue specific expression
c) easier transformation
12. A plant transgenic to fungal resistance has ________
a) Bt gene
b) Chitinase gene
c) Scorpion gene
13. Bt gene is toxic to _______
a) all pests
b) insect pests
d) Agrobacterium gene
c) warm-blooded animals
14. Gene for food vaccines can be introduced into _________ preferably.
a) banana plant
b) rice plant
c) tobaco plant
d) none of the above
d) cold-blooded animals
d) any plant
15. Antisense RNA technology works on the principle that __________
a) double stranded RNA is defunct
b) mRNA is inhibited by antisense RNA
c) Antisense RNA is made by an inhibitory gene
d) Antisense RNA is toxic
16. Terminator technology was jointly developed by the USDA and the _________
a) Monsanto
b) CGIAR
c) Novartis
d) The Institute of Genomic Research
17. Terminator refers to _________
a) the killing of the weed
c) terminator codon of a gene
b) elimination of pests
d) second generation abortion
18. The biochemical marker is _________
a) ApR
b) TcR
c) KanR
d) GUS
19. The controversy of Gus-based selection is that _________
a) it is simple
b) it does’t work
c) it is not reliable
d) Gus exists naturally in some plants
20. Arabidopsis was chosen to be the model plant for studying plant genomics because ________
a) it is weed
b) it has a small genome
c) its life span is short
d) all the above
SECTION – B
Answer the questions in two pages each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary:
5 x 4 = 20
21. a. Give an outline of plant tissue culture procedure.
OR
b. Write about the various culture media used for plant tissue culture.
22. a. Briefly explain the secretory type of plant-microbe interaction
OR
b. Give a description of the viral vectors of plants.
23. a. Describe any one plastid genome.
OR
b. Describe the genetic elements involved in N2 fixation.
24. a. Take an example and illustrate metabolic engineering.
OR
b. Critically comment on the technology protection system.
25. a. Outline the science of map-based cloning.
OR
b. Write the advances made in food vaccines and plantibodies.
SECTION – C
Answer any FOUR questions in detail in Four pages each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary:
4 x 15 = 60
26. Enumerate how tissue culture is exploited in forestry and agriculture.
27. Describe the mechanism of how Agrobacterium engineers its host.
28. How will you engineer a plant transgenic to insect pest?
29. Give the principle, method and applications of antisense RNA technology.
30. Make a detailed analysis of plant genomics research.
****************
7N354A
CLASS: M.SC. BIOTECHNOLGY
ST. JOSEPH’S COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS) TIRUCHIRAPPALLI – 620 002
SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS – NOVEMBER 2007
TIME: 3.00 Hrs.
MAXIMUM MARKS: 100
SEM
SET
PAPER CODE
SUBJECT
I
2007
06PBT122
BIOCHEMISTRY
SECTION – A
Answer all the questions:
20 x 1 = 20
Choose the correct answer:
1. Cleavage of the glycosidic bonds in glycogen by orthophosphate is called _________.
a) Hydrolysis
b) Glycogenolysis
c) Phosphorolysis
2. Tay-Sachs disease is due to the deficiency of __________.
b) hexosaminidase
a) ganglioside
c) Cholesterol
d) Glycolysis
d) N-Acetyl Neuraminic acid
3. Which of the following types of bonds is LEAST likely to be involved in maintaining the 3D folding of
most proteins?
a) Hydrogen bonds
b) Hydrophobic bonds
c) Disulfide bonds
d) Ester bonds
4. Cellulose is an unbranched polymer of glucose joined by __________
a) - 1,4 linkages
b) - 1, 4 linkages c) - 1,6 linkages
d) - 1,6 linkages
5. The pyrimidine ring is synthesized from ____________.
a) glutamate & carbonates
b) carbamoyl phosphate & aspartate
c) carbamoyl phosphate & bicarbonates
d) aspartate & GDP
6. In sickle cell anaemia, hemoglobin contain _________ instead of glutamate in the - chain
a) Valine
b) Serine
c) Threonine
7. Which chemical is used in Sanger’s method of protein sequencing?
a) Dansyl chloride
b) FDNB
c) Dabsyl chloride
d) Histidine
d) Phenyl isothiocyanate
8. Cyanogen bromide cleaves peptides at ___________.
a) C – side of methionine
c) C – side of cysteine
b) N – side of methionine
d) C – side of serine
9. Arginine is derived synthesized from _________.
a) - ketoglutarate
b) oxaloacetate
c) pyruvate
d) Ribose 5 – phosphate
10. _________ interactions are the major forces in the lipid bilayer configuration
a) Ionic
b) hydrophilic
c) hydrophobic
d) covalent
11. Cerebroside is a __________.
a) glycolipid
b) Phospholipid
c) Sulpholipid
d) derived lipid
12. Which of the following gives mechanical strength to erythrocyte memebranes?
a) actin
b) Myosine
c) Troponin
d) Spectrin
13. Which pair of amino acids absorbs most UV light at 280 nm?
a) Thr & His.
b) Trp & Tyr.
c) Cys & Asp.
d) Phe & Pro.
14. Which of the following is not a sensible grouping of amino acids based on their polarity properties?
a) Ala, Leu, and Val.
b) Arg, His, and Lys.
c) Phe, Trp, and Tyr.
d) Asp, Ile, and Pro.
15. The isoelectric point of an amino acid is defined as
a) The pH where the molecule carries no net electric charge
b) The pH where the carboxyl group is uncharged
c) The pH where the amino group is uncharged
d) The pH of maximum electrolytic mobility
16. According to the fluid mosaic model which type of molecule spans the membrane from its inner to
outer surface?
a) cholesterol
b) phospholipid
c) protein
d) triacylglycerol
17. When it functions as a “second messenger”, cAMP
a) acts outside the cell to influence cellular processes
b) acts “second in importance” to AMP
c) activates all cytosolic protein kinases
d) activates the cAMP-dependent protein kinase
18. Which of the following induces glycogenolysis?
a) Insulin
b) Epinephrin
c) oxytocin
d) phosphorylase
19. Vitamin D is derived from ___________.
a) Cortisole
b) LDL
c) Cholesterol
d) Pregnenolone
20. Which of the following is NOT a second messenger?
b) Ca2+
a) cAMP
c) IP3
d) G protein
SECTION – B
Answer the questions in two pages each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary:
5 x 4 = 20
21. a. Write notes on Lesch-Nyhan syndrome.
OR
b. Explain the synthesis of PRPP.
22. a. Give the structure of any Four charged amino acids.
OR
b. Fetal hemoglobin has a higher oxygen affinity than maternal hemoglobin – What biological
advantage does the fetus have?
23. a. Describe the structure of cellulose.
OR
b. What are glycosaminoglycans? What are their functions in the cell?
24. a. List the salient features of biological membrane.
OR
b. Biological membranes are fluid in nature rather than rigid structures – Explain.
25. a. Write short notes on Lipoproteins.
OR
b. Write the functions of cAMP.
SECTION – C
Answer any FOUR questions in four pages each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary:
26. Discuss the biosynthesis of squalene from isopentenylpyrophosphate.
27. Describe the de novo synthesis of purine nucleotides from 5-phosphoribosylamine.
28. Explain the steps involved in protein sequencing by Edman degradation and peptide mapping.
29. Explain the steps involved in Glycogenolysis and write how it is regulated.
30. Give a detailed account on Second messengers.
****************
4 x 15 = 60
7N359A
CLASS: M.SC. BIOTECHNOLOGY
ST. JOSEPH’S COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS) TIRUCHIRAPPALLI – 620 002
SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS – NOVEMBER 2007
TIME: 3.00 Hrs.
MAXIMUM MARKS: 100
SEM
SET
PAPER CODE
III
2006
06PBT330
SUBJECT
ANIMAL BIOTECHNOLOGY
SECTION – A
Answer all the questions:
Choose the correct answer:
20 x 1 = 20
1. The most successful gene therapy available so far is for __________ disease.
a) Alzheimer’s
b) Cancer
c) SCID
d) All of the above
2. The process of delivery of desired foreign into bacteria is called
a) Transformation
b) Transfection
c) Transduction
d) None of the above
3. __________ hormone is used in super ovulation
a) Testosterone
b) Prostaglandin
c) Human Choronic Gonadotrophin
d) Epinephrine
4. The effective type of vaccine for Diptheria and Tetanus is __________
a) Inactivated vaccine
b) Polysaccharide vaccine c) Whole organism vaccine
d) Toxoid vaccine
5. The process of exchanging strands between any two DNA molecules containing a region of identical
sequence is called ___________.
a) Homologous recombination
b) Homologous restriction
c) Orthologous recombination
d) Orthologous modification
6. Pairs of closely related plasmids which cannot be stably maintained in the progeny of a single cell are
called __________
a) Relaxed plasmids
b) incompatible plasmids
c) Col plasmids
d) Stringent plasmids
7. A vector that can replicate in different organisms is called __________
a) Expression vector
b) Shuttle vector
c) Viral vector
d) None
8. ___________ is a small, non pathogenic single-stranded human DNA Virus.
a) Adenovirus
b) Retrovirus
c) Simian Virus
d) Herpex Simplex Virus
9. Introduction of foreign DNA into animal cell is called _________.
a) Transformation
b) Transduction
c) Transfection
d) Transgenics
10. The cell line used for AcMNP is ____________
a) Spodo poda frugiperda
c) Animal Spodoptera frugiperda
b) Insect Spodoptera frugiperda
d) All the above
11. __________ is a specialized enzyme complex containing a short RNA and a specialized reverse
transcriptase.
a) Gyrase
b) Telomerase
c) Topoisomerase
d) Helicase
12. __________ defines a class of antibiotics that are synthesized through the successive enzymatic
condensation of small carboxylic acids.
a) Polyketide
b) Polyneutide
c) Polytide
d) Polyside
13. __________ is the material of the syringe used in micro injection
a) Quartz
b) Platinum
c) Glass
14. PGD stands ________
a) Preimplantation Genetic Diagnosis
c) Post implantation Genetic Diagnosis
d) Silica
b) Prenatal Genetic Diagnosis
d) Preimplantation Gene Discovery
15. GIFT stands for __________
a) Gamete Intra-Fallopian Transfer
c) Gamete Intra-Fertilisation Transfer
b) Gamete Inter-Fallopian Transfer
d) Gamete Inter-Fertilisation Transfer
16. The BT toxin subunits can be dissociated in vitro by treatment with __________
b) mercaptoethanol
a) SDS
c) EDTA
d) Phenol
17. Baculovirus particles are embedded in a crystalline protein matrix called _____________
a) Occlusion body
b) Capsid protein
c) Degrading body
d) None of the above
18. Dolly was cloned by nuclear transfer of a __________ cell.
a) Mammary udder cell
b) Germ line cell
19. ICSI stands for __________
a) Inter cellular sperm injection
c) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection
c) Retinal cell
d) Mast cell
b) Inter cytoplasmic sperm injection
d) None of the above
20. ________ entails mapping a disease gene of unknown function to a chromosome location.
a) Positional Gene Cloning
b) Positional-candidate Gene Cloning
c) Functional Gene Cloning
d) Candidate Gene Cloning
SECTION – B
Answer the following questions in two pages each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary:
5 x 4 = 20
21. a. Explain the process involved in the culture and production of animal cells.
OR
b. Explain the process that is involved in teratogenesis and teratomas.
22. a. Give an account of the genetic engineering of vaccines.
OR
b. Describe the method of producing monoclonal antibodies from hybridoma.
23. a. Discuss the integrated pest management using juvenile hormone analogues.
OR
b. Explain how silkworms are used as bioreactors.
24. a. Explain Gynogenesis and Androgenesis.
OR
b. List out the features of cryopreservation of animal cell lines.
25. a. Enumerate the strategies involved in mapping the human genome.
OR
b. Explain the DNA fingerprinting protocols used for the identification of victim in murder case.
SECTION – C
Answer any FOUR of the following questions in four pages each.
necessary:
26. Explain the methods used for the development and maintenance of cell lines.
27. Discuss the methods production of recombinant antibodies.
28. Explain the role of Baculovirus in the biocontrol of pests.
29. Enumerate the applications and strategies of in vitro fertilization.
30. Discuss the social, ethical & legal issues arising human out of cloning.
****************
Draw diagrams wherever
4 x 15 = 60
7N355B
CLASS: M.SC. BIOTECHNOLOGY
ST. JOSEPH’S COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS) TIRUCHIRAPPALLI – 620 002
SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS – NOVEMBER 2007
TIME: 3.00 Hrs.
MAXIMUM MARKS: 100
SEM
SET
PAPER CODE
I
2007
06PBT123
SUBJECT
DEVELOPMENTAL BIOLOGY
SECTION – A
Answer all the questions:
20 x 1 = 20
Choose the correct answer:
1. The protein that has a cytoplasmic domain functioning as a tyrosine kinose in the receptor for
a) EGF
b) PDGF
c) Insulin
d) All of the above
2. Which submit of G protein generally stimulates neighbouring pores and enzymes?
a) 
b) 
c) 
d) and 
3. What does a guanine nucleotide release factor do?
a) Inhibits Ras
b) Stimulates Ras c) Inhibits trimeric G protein
d) Stimulates trimeric G protein
4. Which the following statements about the desmosomes are true?
a) It is a disc shoped adhesion site between epithelial cells
b) It is sometimes called a nexus
c) It has a plaque made up of many connexons
d) It facilitates metabolic coupling between adjacent cells.
5. What cells in Drosophila’s cellular blastoderm give rise to the ventral nerve?
a) Dorsal endoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Ventral ectoderm
6. The stiff rod that develops from mesodermal tissue in all chordates is called
a) Notochord
b) Neural tube
c) Spinal cord
d) Endoderm
d) Neural plate
7. The portion of a developing limb where most hox gene are expressed is best described as
a) proximal anterior
b) distal anterior
c) proximal posterior
d) distal posterior
8. What is an example of a GTP activating protein (GAP)?
a) Retinoblastoma protein
b) P 107
c) Wilmus tumor protein
d) Neurofibromatoin protein
9. In which family of genes would a mutation lead to the greatest developmental disruption?
a) Material genes
b) Gap genes
c) Pair-rule genes
d) Homeotic genes
10. What kind of the tissue is found in somites?
a) ectoderm
b) hypoderm
c) endoderm
d) mesoderm
11. Neural crest cells give rise to
a) Dorsal herms of the spinal cord
c) Sympathetic ganglia
b) Advenel certex
d) Preganglionic autonomic nerve
12. What happens to the cdk – cyclin A complex at metaphase?
a) Only cdk is degraded
c) Both cdk and cyclin A re degraded
b) Only cyclin A is degraded
d) None of the above
13. Into which of the following categories do the tumor suppressor protein fit?
a) inhibitors of G protein
b) surface receptor that inhibit signal transduction pathways
c) Protein that requester and inhibit transcriptional activators
d) All the above
14. The absence of protein which leads to cellular transformation or cancer
a) Tumor suppressor protein
b) Oncoprotein
c) retino blastoma protein
d) None of the above
15. A protein that causes a cell to become transformed or cancerous
a) Oncoprotein
b) cdk-cyclin dependent kinase
c) Telomerase
16. Exogenous agents which causes developmental abnormalities are called
a) teratogens
b) Mutagen
c) Carcinogen
d) Rb or P 110
d) Mitogen
17. The time-related deterioration of the physiological functions necessary survival and fertility is
a) Aging
b) Apoptoin
c) Senescence
d) Necrosis
18. A glycoprotein that organizes elastin into a fiber
a) Fibrillin
b) Fibronectin
c) Elastin
d) Lamin
19. What is the testis – determining factor? (sex determination gene)
a) SRY gene
b) DAX1 gene
c) SFI gene
d) SOX 9 gene
20. Somites is made up of
a) paraxial mesoderm
d) sclerotome
b) dermatome
c) myotome
SECTION – B
Answer the following questions in a page each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary:
5 x 4 = 20
21. a. Discuss the role of Notch, Wnt and hedgehog signalling in embryonic development.
OR
b. Give an account on the structure and function of tight junction.
22. a. How can the Sry gene on the Y chromosome redirect a female embryo to become a male?
OR
b. Describe the two important stages of fertilization in animals.
23. a. How does differential gene expression control organs developmental process?
OR
b. Write an account on the origin and arrangement of three germlayers in developing embryo.
24. a. What is the relationship between telomerase expression and cancer cell?
OR
b. Describe the molecular mechanism of apoptosis and its control.
25. a. Discuss the medial implications of developmental Biology.
OR
b. Write an account on some genetic disorders found in human development.
SECTION – C
Answer any FOUR questions. Draw diagrams wherever necessary:
26. How does the integrins act as matrix receptors, integrators and regulators of intracellular signalling
pathways?
27. Explain how the segment polarity genes are responsible for organising the anterior posterior pattern?
28. Explain the three phases of nervous system development.
29. What are protooncogenes? Explain their types and mechanisms of action in cancer induction.
30. How the environment regulates normal development 07 organisms?
****************
4 x 15 = 60
7N360B
CLASS: M.SC. BIOTECHNOLOGY
ST. JOSEPH’S COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS) TIRUCHIRAPPALLI – 620 002
SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS – NOVEMBER 2007
TIME: 3.00 Hrs.
MAXIMUM MARKS: 100
SEM
SET
PAPER CODE
III
2006
06PBT331
SUBJECT
BIOPROCESS TECHNOLOGY
SECTION – A
Answer all the questions:
20 x 1 = 20
Choose the correct answer:
1. Single cell protein can be produced from
a) Cyanobacteria
b) Green algae
c) Fungi
d) All the above
2. The use of bacteria to recover valuable metal from Ores is called
a) Bioconversion
b) Biotransformation
c) Biomining
d) None of the above
3. Which one of enzyme involved in the process of nitrogen fixation?
a) Hydrogenase
b) Nitrogenase
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
4. What is a role of siderophore?
a) Calcium uptake
b) Manganese uptake
c) Iron uptake
d) None of the above
5. Baffles in fermentor used as
a) O2 supplying unit
c) Temperature port
b) pH checking point
6. A process of strain improvement in industries are
a) Mutagenesis
b) Protoplast fusion
c) Both a and b
7. What are secondary metabolites?
a) Products of secondary pathways
c) Products important for the growth of microorganisms
d) Mixing port
d) None of the above
b) Products of primary pathways
d) Products not required for humans
8. Substrate used in blue-white selection during insulin production
a) X gal
b) Lactose
c) Glucose
d) Maltose
9. Example of fusion proteins to aid the purification of recombinant proteins include
a) Protein A
b) Glutathione S transferase
c) Polyarginine
d) All the above
10. Down stream processing include one of the following
a) Dialysis
b) Starter Culture
c) Strain improvement
d) Propagation medium
11. Vinegar production can be done by
a) Alcoholic fermentation
c) Both a and b
b) Acetic acid fermentation
d) None of the above methods
12. Immobilization system used for increased an protease production is
a) k-Carrageenan
b) Ca-alginate
c) Agarose
d) All the above
13. The enzyme used for the treatment of cyanide poisoning is
a) Rhodanase
b) Streptokinase
c) Amylase
d) Catalase
14. Which one of the following is an example for mental chelate chromatography used in fermentation?
a) Agarose containing calcium
b) Agarose containing copper
c) Agrose containing magnesium
d) All the above
15. Which solid matrix is used in adsorption chromatography?
a) Alumina
b) Hydroxyapatite
c) Silica
d) Polystyrene
16. Lycopene is produced by
a) Streptomyces chrestomyceticus
c) Dunaliella salina
b) Rhodococcus maris
d) Candida lipolytica
17. Example for oil degrading bacteria
a) Yarrowia lipolytica
c) Lactobacillus fermentum
b) Bacillus subtilis
d) Pseudomonas denitrificans
18. What is GMP?
a) Genetically Modified Plants
c) Genetically Modified Practices
b) Good Modified Plants
d) Good Manufacturing Practices
19. Substrates used for SCP production
a) Molasses
b) Whey
c) Spent sulphite waste liquor
20. What is meant by Ks in microbial growth rate?
a) Substrate concentration b) Saturation constant
d) All the above
c) Growth rate constant d) Stationary constant
SECTION – B
Answer the following questions in two pages each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary:
5 x 4 = 20
21. a. Write a brief note on the sources of economically important antibiotics.
OR
b. Write a brief note on biopolymers.
22. a. Briefly described recombinant vaccine.
OR
b. What is bioremediation? Add brief note on the microbes involved in the bioremediation process.
23. a. “Bacteria helps to promote the growth of economically important crops”. Justify this statement.
OR
b. Explain briefly on the importance and activity of hydrogenase enzyme.
24. a. Define biopolymers. Explain the biosynthesis of Xanthan gum.
OR
b. Briefly explain on microbial nitrogen fixation.
25. a. Describe the different types of filtration used in down stream processing.
OR
b. Describe in detail on the applications and the role of computers in bioprocess.
SECTION – C
Answer any FOUR of the following questions in four pages each.
necessary:
26. Write a detail note on the microbial synthesis of various commercial products.
27. Describe the biomass production on Single Cell Protein (SCP) using Spirulina.
28. Explain the commercial production of biocatalyst. Give an example.
29. Discuss on the commercial production of penicillin antibiotics.
30. Elaborate on the economics of microbes and their products.
****************
Draw diagrams wherever
4 x 15 = 60
7N357A
CLASS: M.SC. BIOTECHNOLOGY
ST. JOSEPH’S COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS) TIRUCHIRAPPALLI – 620 002
SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS – NOVEMBER 2007
TIME: 3.00 Hrs.
MAXIMUM MARKS: 100
SEM
SET
PAPER CODE
SUBJECT
I
2007
06PBT142
ENZYMOLOGY
SECTION – A
Answer all the questions:
Choose the correct answer:
20 x 1 = 20
1. A chemical reaction has a  = - 2000 KJ/mol. If this were an enzyme-catalyzed, reaction, what can
you predict about the kinetics?
a) It will exhibit very rapid kinetics
b) It will exhibit very slow kinetics
c) The kinetics of the reaction can not be predicted
d) The kinetics depend on the nature of the reactants
2. EDTA destabilize the bacterial cell wall by chelating __________
a) Divalent anions
b) Divalent cations
c) Monovalent cations
d) Trivalent cations
3. The cyanogen bromide generates ___________ under alkaline conditions in the coupling of enzymes.
a) Amidocarbonate moiety
b) Imidocarbonate moiety
c) Bispoxides
d) Tresyl chloride
4. The second digit in the code number of oxidoreductases indicates the __________
a) Donor of the reducing equivalents
b) Donor of the oxidizing equivalents
c) Acceptor of the reducing equivalents
d) None of the above
5. The Arrhenius equation explains that the enzyme activity increases with __________
a) Decrease in temperature
b) Increase in temperature
c) Increase in pH
d) None of the above
6. The inhibitor that binds to the site other than active site is called __________
a) Un competitive inhibition
b) Competitive inhibition
c) Substrate inhibitor
d) Non competitive inhibition
7. The reaction which proceeds at a rate proportional to the concentration of one reactant is
a) First order reaction
b) Second order reaction
c) Zero order reaction
8. Allosteric inhibition produces more __________
a) Linear reaction characteristics
c) Sigmoidal reaction characteristics
b) Parabola reaction characteristics
d) None of the above
9. The DNA polymerase requires ___________ as a cofactor
a) Magnesium
b) Manganese
c) Calcium
10. An example for Abzymes is
a) anti-vasoactive intestinal peptide autoantibodies
c) Fab antibody
d) None of the above
d) Sulphur
b) DNA polymerase
d) None of the above
11. Alloseteric inhibitors __________ the sigmoidal nature of the Michaelis Menton plots.
a) Decrease
b) Increase
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
12. Inactive Chymotrypsin self excise the _________ dipeptides to produce more Stable chymotrypsin
enzyme.
a) Serine 14 – Arginine 15 and Threonine 147 – Asparagine 148
b) Arginine 14 – Arginine 15 and Threonine 147 – Asparagine 148
c) Asparagine 14 – Arginine 15 and Threonine 147 – Asparagine 148
d) Threonine 14 – Arginine 15 and Threonine 147 – Serine 148
13. The most common polymer used in the fibre entrapment of enzymes are __________
a) Cellulose acetate
b) Cellulose
c) Acrylamide
d) Agarose
14. _________ utilise crystals which undergo an elastic deformation when an electrical potential is applied
to them.
a) Electrochemical sensors b) Optical biosensors
c) Piezoelectric biosenseor
d) All the above
15. The technique involves the use of transition metal compounds as a means of activating the surface of
the matrix and allows direct coupling of the enzyme without prior derivitization of activated matrix
through the function of chelates is called __________
a) Metal binding method
b) Ionic binding method
c) Covalent binding method
d) Carrier binding method
16. The primer is designed to be only partially complementary to the target site but in such a way that it
will still bind specifically to the target is called __________
a) Mismatched primer mutagenesis
b) 5’ Add-on mutagenesis
c) Oligonucleotide mutagenesis
d) None of the above
17. The enzyme used for the treatment of cancer is __________
a) Asparaginase
b) Collagenase
c) Pterin demidase
d) Both a & c
18. The enzyme used for the treatment of industrial waste water is __________
a) Laccase
b) Lipase
c) Penicillinase
d) Protease
19. Detergent protease is typically __________
a) Alkali tolerant
b) Acid tolerant
c) Neutral
20. Dehairing of hides and skins can be done by using __________
a) Keratinase
b) Protease
c) Lipase
d) None of the above
d) Peptidase
SECTION – B
Answer the following questions in the pages each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary:
5 x 4 = 20
21. a. Discuss the effect of pH on the activity of enzymes. Is it possible for pH to affect the activity of an
enzyme in a range where none of the side chain groups of the protein are titrated? Explain.
OR
b. Methanol is oxidized by alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH) to the highly toxic formaldehyde. Drinking
methanol is fatal because of the production of formaldehyde; methanol itself is harmless and is
excreted by the kidneys. ADH will also oxidize other alcohols, such as ethanol.
(a) Based on this information propose a way to treat an individual who has ingested methanol.
(b) What additional information would you need before such a treatment could be tried?
22. a. Km and Vm for two substrates A and B are 4.0 M, 25µ mol/sec and 0.5 mM, 15µ mol/sec,
respectively. At low concentration ( < 1 mM) which substrate will react most rapidly? Why does
Vm but not Km depend on the amount of enzyme used in an enzyme reaction?
OR
b. Assuming they have equal affinity for the enzyme, why would a noncompetitive inhibitor be a more
effective drug than a competitive inhibitor?
23. a. Why is it advantageous for the cell to produce proteolytic enzymes in the form of zymogens? State
the reasons.
OR
b. Explain the mechanism involved in the degradation of RNA by ribozymes.
24. a. How will you improve the enzyme stability by site directed mutagenesis?
OR
b. How will you immobilize the enzyme to the matrix by cyanogen bromide? Discuss the mechanism
involved
25. a. List the enzymes used in textile industry and critically comment on their specific applications.
OR
b. Discuss the medical uses of enzymes.
SECTION – C
Answer any FOUR of the following questions in four pages each.
necessary:
Draw diagrams wherever
4 x 15 = 60
26. Explain the extraction and purification of intracellular enzymes from bacteria.
27. Explain the steady state kinetics of multisubstrate reactions.
28. Describe the catalytic mechanism of Chymotrypsin.
29. Explain the various techniques used for the immobilization of enzymes. Add a note on the applications
of immobilization.
30. Discuss the potential role of microbial enzymes in food and paper industries. Give an account on the
advantages and disadvantages of to chemical treatment over enzymic treatment.
****************
7N361A
CLASS: M.SC. BIOTECHNOLOGY
ST. JOSEPH’S COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS) TIRUCHIRAPPALLI – 620 002
SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS – NOVEMBER 2007
TIME: 3.00 Hrs.
MAXIMUM MARKS: 100
SEM
SET
PAPER CODE
III
2006
06PBT346
SUBJECT
MOLECULAR MODELING AND COMPUTER AIDED
DRUG DESIGN
SECTION – A
Answer all the questions:
20 x 1 = 20
Choose the correct answer:
1. Stick models were devised by
a) Koltun
b) Corey
c) Pauling
d) Dreiding
2. First order minimisation algorithm that are frequently used in molecular modeling is
a) Arbitary Step approach
b) Newton Raphson
c) Steepest decent
d) None of the above
3. Molecular dynamics can provide information about
a) Physical properties
b) Conformational properties c) Chemical properties
d) None of the above
4. Molecular visualization uses
a) Raptol
b) Rasmol
c) Clustral w
d) Blast
5. Which one of the following is 3D database?
a) EMBL
b) NCBI
c) PDB
d) Swissprot
6. SAR is
a) Structure analysis resource
c) Structure activity relationship
b) Structure activity reliable
d) None of the above
7. CADD is
a) Computer annotated drug designing
c) Computer aided drug designing
b) Computer assisted drug designing
d) Computer aided data designing
8. The first molecular dynamics simulation of a condensed phase system was performed by
a) Neuton
b) Dupant and Merck
c) Alder and Wainweight
d) None of the above
9. _________ is the program has been widely used to dock small molecular fragments in protein binding
sites.
a) QSAR
b) Ludy
c) Ab initio
d) Hex
10. The relationship between numerical properties and activity is often described as
c) v = p2(f)
d) v = f2(p)
a) v = f(p)
b) v = p(f)
11. Electrostatic potential of molecular is often denoted as
a) Q(r2)
b) Q(r)
c) Q(p)
12. CPK models were devised by
a) Corey, Pauling and Koltun
c) Cohen and others
d) Q2(r)
b) Corey, Kolt and Dreiding
d) Corey and others
13. Positive and Negative modulation for ion channels are
a) Activation, Inhibition
b) Agonist, Antagonist
c) Openers, Blockers
14. The suitable server for “Homology Modeling” is
a) Hex
b) Autodock
c) Dock
d) Swiss PDB viewer
d) Active, Passive
15. Expand GRAMM
a) Global range molecular matching
c) Global range molecular modeling
b) Global range aligned molecular modeling
d) Global range arranged modeling
16. Which one of the following useful in drug receptor interaction studies.
a) Swiss PDB
b) Autodock
c) Clustal w
17. Internal energy is often denoted as
M
a) u  1 M
Ei
i 1
d) Blast
E
b) u E1  Mi
i 1
d) u  x 1
c) u x2 1 M
18. Which one of the following denotes force constant
a) Q
b) K
c) E
M2
d) w
19. The highest point of the pathway between two minima is
a) Saddle point
b) Transition point
20. Valence bond theory is otherwise called
a) London model
b) Paulis model
c) Transversion point
c) Hartree model
d) Static point
d) None of the above
SECTION – B
Answer the following questions in two pages each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary:
5 x 4 = 20
21. a. Write the applications of molecular graphics.
OR
b. Discuss about Local and global energy minima.
22. a. Explain the simulation for conformational analysis by dft.
OR
b. Explain the simulation for conformational analysis by semi embrical methods.
23. a. What is a pharmocophore? How it is helpful in identifying royal drugs?
OR
b. Drug receptor interaction – Explain.
24. a. Explain the structure based design methods to design HIV – 1 protease inhibitors.
OR
b. Discuss about drug modeling for BBB permeation.
25. a. Write an account on Fourier transformation.
OR
b. Explain the methods of predicting protein structures.
SECTION – C
Answer any FOUR of the following questions in four pages each.
necessary:
Draw diagrams wherever
4 x 15 = 60
26. Discuss about QSAR studies and their implications to the 3D modeler.
27. Write an elaborate notes on finding new drug targets to treat disease.
28. Explain about stochastic search methods and combinatorial search methods of predicting structures.
29. Discuss the energy minimisation for small molecules.
30. Give a detailed account on conformational analysis by Ab initio method.
****************