General Biology I: Raven 8 - Unit 3 (Chapters 11 - 19)
Copy # _______
1. The four haploid cells resulting from meiosis may further divide by mitosis in all of the following
organisms except?
A. plants
B. fungi
C. many protists
D. animals
2. The cell produced by the fusion of an egg and a sperm is the
A. gamete.
B. haploid.
C. zygote.
D. germ line cell.
E. somatic cell.
3. All of the following animal cells are diploid except
A. gametic.
B. muscles.
C. nerves.
D. skin.
E. reproductive organ.
4. All of the following are processes that promote new genetic combinations except
A. crossing over.
B. random fertilization.
C. independent assortment.
D. mitosis.
E. natural selection.
5. The synaptonemal complex develops early in meiosis. It is
A. a cluster of chromatids at the end of the cell.
B. a framework of microtubules that organize chromatids.
C. a lattice of proteins that holds homologues together.
D. a set of two homologues lined side by side.
E. the wound up regions of DNA molecules.
6. In one of the first steps in meiosis, the
A. clearly defined spindle apparatus appears in the center of the cell.
B. chromatids separate and move to opposite ends of the cell.
C. half chromosomes are made inactive.
D. homologous pairs of chromosomes pair up along their length.
E. chromosomes become invisible.
7. The point of connection between the two sister chromatids before anaphase of mitosis separates them is
called the
A. homologue.
B. kinetochore.
C. centromere.
D. microtubule complex.
E. synapsis.
8. Which of the following is an explanation for independent assortment, a factor in producing genetic
variability?
A. In anaphase I, where how one pair separates does not affect how any other pair separates.
B. Chromosomes are divided into daughter cells in a random fashion.
C. In prophase I, which chromosomes pairs with which other one is completely random.
D. Each chromosome is capable of a different function.
E. Chromosomes can have different functions in various types of cells of the same organism.
9. Mendel chose the garden pea for his work on inheritance for all of the following reasons except
A. he failed his examination for a teaching certificate.
B. earlier investigators had shown segregation among the offspring.
C. a large number of true breeding varieties were already available.
D. the generation time was short; many offspring can be grown easily.
E. he could choose to self- or cross-pollinate.
10. A diploid organism that has two identical alleles for the same trait is called _______ for that particular
trait.
A. homozygous
B. heterozygous
C. dominant
D. recessive
E. codominant
11. A single gene has 3 or more alternative forms. These are called
A. heterozygotes.
B. multiple alleles.
C. epistatic.
D. homozygotes.
E. multiple zygotes.
12. Mendel referred to the trait that was expressed in the hybrid, F 1 or first filial generation as
A. recessive.
B. dominant.
C. codominant.
D. independent.
E. epistatic.
13. The observable outward manifestation of the genes of an individual is referred to as its
A. blueprint.
B. genotype.
C. phenotype.
D. genetic map.
14. Knight followed up on attempts of English farmers to improve varieties of agriculture with his studies
on garden peas. When he crossed two true breeding varieties, he found out a number of things about an
inherited trait. Which of the following about inherited traits is false?
A. An inherited trait can be masked in some generations but may show up in future.
B. An inherited trait may show up in some offspring only.
C. An inherited trait may be represented more often than the others.
D. An inherited trait is always present in every generation.
15. Let P = purple flowers and p = white, and T = tall plants and t = dwarf. What would be the appearance
of a plant with the genotype PpTt?
A. purple flowers, tall
B. purple flowers, dwarf
C. white flowers, tall
D. white flowers, dwarf
E. pale purple flowers, intermediate height
16. Mendel's understanding of the inheritance of traits in peas, expressed in modern language, included all
of the following except
A. parents transmit information encoded in genes.
B. each individual contains two genes for each trait.
C. not all genes are identical; alternative forms (alleles) exist.
D. each of the alleles present in an individual is discrete.
E. if a given allele is present, its effects will be seen in the individual.
Let Cy = curly wings and Cy+ = wild type. In Drosophila, the Cy allele behaves as a dominant mutation
that produces curly wings in the heterozygous condition (Cy/Cy+), but also behaves as a recessive lethal
mutation. Flies homozygous for the Cy allele die before reaching adulthood.
17. If you crossed flies heterozygous for the Cy allele, what phenotypes would you find in the F 1
generation?
A. wild type and curly wings
B. wild type only
C. curly wings only
D. None of the F1 progeny would survive.
18. As a genetic counselor, you are constructing a human pedigree for a particular disease. You note that
every generation shows the trait, suggesting that it is
A. sex-linked.
B. recessive.
C. dominant.
D. cannot determine from the information provided.
19. Amniocentesis is a procedure that is normally used
A. to reduce the risk of genetic disease.
B. for gene therapy.
C. to change the sex of the fetus.
D. for diagnosis of genetic disorders.
E. for nourishing the fetus.
20. How many Barr bodies does a normal human female contain in her cells?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
21. Humans who have lost even one copy of an autosome are called
A. tetrasomics.
B. trisomics.
C. bisomics.
D. monosomics.
E. nullisomics.
22. The geneticist who discovered the white eye mutation in Drosophila and helped establish that genes are
carried on chromosomes was
A. Mendel.
B. Sutton.
C. Sturtevant.
D. Janssens.
E. Morgan.
23. If a female was a carrier for sex-linked color blindness, what percentage of her male children would
also be color blind?
A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 100%
24. If a XY individual had a deletion of the SRY gene, they would
A. develop as a female.
B. have both male and female characteristics.
C. have ambiguous genitalia.
D. develop as a male.
25. Occasionally, chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis, leading to a condition in which the diploid
number is not normal. This phenomenon is called
A. epistasis.
B. nondisjunction.
C. disjunction.
D. pleiotropy.
E. autosomy.
26. Hemophilia is a
A. recessive condition.
B. dominant condition.
C. epistatic condition.
D. codominant condition.
E. condition that occurs with equal frequency in both sexes.
You are a herpetologist studying snapping turtles. You house the turtles in an incubator set at 22ºC. After a
period of time you find that some new baby turtles have hatched. Interestingly, all of the baby turtles are
male.
27. You want to determine the temperature at which one would obtain a ratio of 1:1 of each gender. Which
of the following conditions would (1) best address this question, and (2) is most scientifically sound?
A. Grow turtles in two different incubators at temperatures of 22ºC and 30ºC.
B. Grow turtles in three different incubators at temperatures of 26ºC, 28ºC, and 30ºC.
C. Grow turtles in four different incubators at temperatures of 24ºC, 26ºC, 28ºC, and 30ºC.
D. Grow turtles in five different incubators at temperatures of 22ºC, 24ºC, 26ºC, 28ºC, and 30ºC.
28. The double helix model was proposed by
A. Watson and Crick.
B. Griffith.
C. Avery.
D. Franklin.
E. Beadle and Tatum.
29. Which of the following choices is the correct sequence for DNA replication in E. coli?
A. initiation, termination, elongation
B. initiation, elongation, termination
C. elongation, termination, initiation
D. elongation, initiation, termination
30. Replication of DNA is
A. conservative.
B. redundant.
C. dispersive.
D. semiconservative.
E. semidispersive.
31. Chargaff's rules for the pairing of nitrogen bases is
A. A = C and G = T.
B. A pairs with T and G pairs with C.
C. A pairs with G and C pairs with T.
D. A pairs with C and G pairs with T.
E. T = C and G = A.
32. Which of the following statements about replication of DNA is false?
A. The two strands are separated.
B. Each strand is used as a template for making a new duplex.
C. The synthesis on each strand is in the opposite direction.
D. The newly synthesized DNA is packaged into one nucleus, and the old DNA is packaged into another
nucleus.
33. Griffith, a British microbiologist, used a bacteria and mice to demonstrate transformation. His results
clearly offered evidence for that process. Transformation is
A. the ability for bacterial homologous chromosomes to transform themselves into an exact copy,
sometimes referred to as DNA replication.
B. the ability of the nucleus of a cell to regenerate and repair itself when damaged by bacterial infections.
C. the ability of the infected mice to transform the bacteria from pathogenic to non-pathogenic during the
experiments.
D. the ability to transfer genetic materials from one cell to another.
E. the ability for the nucleus of a bacterial cell to bypass the process of DNA replication by transforming
into a spore during unsuitable environmental conditions.
34. If a short sequence of DNA is AATTGCCGT, its complement is
A. AAAACGCCA.
B. TTAACGGCT.
C. TTAACGGCA.
D. TTAAGCCGA.
35. The enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis of new DNA molecules is called
A. DNA ligase.
B. DNA polymerase.
C. DNA gyrase.
D. DNA helicase.
E. DNA endonuclease.
36. In Griffith's transformation experiments,
A. mice infected with live R form caused pneumonia and death in the mice.
B. the R form transformed the S form into a virulent variety.
C. mice infected with heat-killed S form and live R form caused pneumonia and death in the mice.
D. the S form lacked an enzyme involved in the manufacture of the polysaccharide coat, leading to the
abnormally smooth colonies.
37. Which of the following DNA sequences is complementary to 5' ATGGTCAGT 3'?
A. 5' ATGGTCAGT 3'
B. 5' TGACTGGTA 3'
C. 5' TACCAGTCA 3'
D. 5' ACTGACCAT 3'
38. The Central Dogma of biology is stated as
A. proteins
RNA
DNA.
B. RNA
DNA
proteins.
C. DNA
proteins
RNA.
D. DNA
RNA
proteins.
39. Noncoding DNA that interrupt the nucleotide sequence of a gene are called
A. exons.
B. introns.
C. axons.
D. anRNPs (snurps).
E. spliceosome.
40. Protein synthesis takes place on
A. the plasma membrane.
B. the nucleus.
C. ribosomes.
D. lysosomes.
E. microbodies.
41. The nucleotide sequence of a mRNA codon is composed of how many bases?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 16
E. 64
42. DNA and RNA nucleotides are composed of five carbon sugars, phosphate, and nitrogen bases. How
many total nitrogen bases are there for use in the two nucleic acids?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
43. The tRNA nucleotide sequence that lines up on the mRNA is
A. an intron.
B. an exon.
C. a release factor.
D. an initiation factor.
E. an anticodon.
44. The different components of the protein synthesizing machinery include all of the following except
A. mRNA.
B. tRNA.
C. ribosomes.
D. amino acids.
E. RNA polymerase.
45. Which of the following is the hallmark of multicellular organisms?
A. grow and divide rapidly
B. cells adjust quickly to outside environment
C. homeostasis
D. quickly synthesize amount and type of enzymes according to available nutrients
E. respond by gene action to oxygen availability
46. The proteins necessary for the use of lactose in E. coli are collectively called the
A. lac regulator.
B. lac suppressor.
C. lac transcriptional effector.
D. lac promoter.
E. lac operon.
47. Small, circular auxiliary DNA molecules of bacteria which are commonly used in biotechnology are
referred to as
A. transposons.
B. germ-line DNA molecules.
C. plasmids.
D. conformational DNA molecules.
E. translational DNA molecules.
48. Restriction enzymes are
A. proteases.
B. lipases.
C. endonucleases.
D. exonucleases.
49. Which of the following statements regarding genomes is true?
A. In general, eukaryotic genomes are larger than prokaryotic genomes.
B. In general, eukaryotic genomes are smaller than prokaryotic genomes.
C. The size of the organism determines the size of the genome.
D. Larger and more complex organisms have more genes than smaller, less complex organisms.
50. All of the following are subprocesses of development except
A. morphogenesis
B. transgenesis
C. growth
D. pattern formation
E. differentiation
Raven 8 - Unit 3 Key
1. D
2. C
3. A
4. D
5. C
6. D
7. C
8. A
9. A
10. A
11. B
12. B
13. C
14. D
15. A
16. E
17. A
18. C
19. D
20. B
21. D
22. E
23. C
24. A
25. B
26. A
27. D
28. A
29. B
30. D
31. B
32. D
33. D
34. C
35. B
36. C
37. D
38. D
39. B
40. C
41. C
42. D
43. E
44. E
45. C
46. E
47. C
48. C
49. A
50. B
Raven 8 - Unit 3 Summary
Category
Difficulty: Difficult
Difficulty: Easy
Difficulty: Moderate
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# of Questions
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