Module 1.
Fundamentals of dentistry
Text test tasks
1. What antiseptics and in what concentration should be used to prevent transfer of infection
when using physician surgeon dentist in rubber gloves?
A. 0.1% sol "novosept”
B. * 0.5% sol "novosept”
C. 1.0% sol "novosept"
D. 1.5% sol "novoseptu"
E. . 3% sol hydrogen peroxide
2. What antiseptics and in what concentration should be used to prevent transfer of infection
when using physician surgeon dentist in rubber gloves?
A. 0.1% sol chloramine
B. * 0.5% sol chloramine
C. 1.0% sol chloramine
D. 1.5% sol chloramine
E. 2.0% sol chloramine
3. How many people should serve the dentist in public institutions?
A. 2-2.5 thousand
B. * 4-4.5 thousand
C. 6-6.5 thousand
D. 7.8 thousand
E. 8.9 thousand
4. How many dentists-surgeons are assigned one nurse position?
A. 0.5 At the post-dental surgery
B. * At 1 post dental surgeon
C. 1.5 Position on the dentist-surgeon
D. At 2-position dental surgeon
E. At the 3-position dental surgeon
5. How many dental surgeons, nurses allocated one position?
A. 0.25 post
B. 0.5 positions
C. * 3. 1 post
D. 1.5 Position
E. 2 posts
6. What is the correct mode of sterilization of dental instruments ?
A. * At 120 C-90 min
B. * At 140 C-45 min
C. * At 160 C-120 min.
D. * At 180 C-60 min.
E. * At 200 C-40 min.
7. From which parts the clinical examination of the patient start?
A. Since the patient complaints and anamnesis life
B. With a history of life and disease
C. * From the subjective and objective test
D. From examination of the oral cavity and additional methods of examination
E. From X-ray and palpation
8. Which part of the survey include general and local review?
A. In the subjective test
B. In anamnesis disease
C. In anamnesis life
D. * To objectively test
E. No right answer
9. Which part of the examination include history of illness and life?
A. * In the subjective test
B. To objectively test
C. Local survey
D. Additional test methods
E. No right answer
10. From which parts of the examination the patient is local part ?
A. Review and palpation of the oral cavity
B. Palpation of soft tissue face
C. * Intraoral and extraoral survey
D. Intraoral survey
E. No right answer
11. What antiseptics and in what concentration should be used to prevent transfer infection at
work surgeon dentist in rubber gloves?
A. * 2.4% solution pervomuri
B. 0.5% solution pervomuri
C. 1.0% solution pervomuri
D. 1.5% solution pervomuri
E. 3.0% solution pervomuri
12. Physician surgeon dentist should do a report on the clinical work per month. Which
document should it complete?
A. Form 043
B. Form 037
C. * Form 039
D. Form 049
E. No right answer
13. What antiseptics and that concentration should be used to prevent the transfer infection in the
absence of opportunities to surgeon work in rubber gloves?
A. 1% sol chloramine
B. * 2% sol chloramine
C. 0.5% sol dyotsydi
D. 3% sol pervomuri
E. 5.0% sol pervomur
14. What antiseptics and in what concentration should be used to prevent the transfer of infection
in the absence of opportunities to surgeon work in rubber gloves?
A. 3.0% sol of hydrogen peroxide
B. 5.0% sol of potassium iodide
C. 1.0% sol ammonia
D. 1.0% sol hloramini
E. * 2.0% sol hloramini
15. What antiseptics and in what concentration should be used to prevent the transfer infection in
the absence of opportunities to surgeon work in rubber gloves?
A. 0.1% sol "novosepti”
B. 3.0% sol "novosepti"
C. * 2.4% sol pervomuri
D. 3% solution pervomuri
E. 1.0% sol hloramini
16. Which research method should be used to assess chewing function?
A. Radiography
B. Thermometry
C. Tomography
D. * Mastykatsiohrafiya
E. Thermography
17. Which method are used to exam tissues near apex of the tooth?
A. Overview
B. Palpation
C. Test Kulazhenko
D. Polls
E. * X-ray.
18. Which study should be carried out to assess the contractile function of masticatory muscles?
A. X-ray
B. * Hnatodynamometriya
C. Tomography
D. Thermometry
E. Thermography
19. What contrasting agent used in sialohrafi?
A. * 10.0% sol etiotrasti
B. Barium sulfate
C. Xeroform
D. Iodoform
E. 10.0% sol calcium chloride
20. Which method exam soft tissues near apex of the tooth?
A. Overview
B. Palpation
C. Test Kulazhenko
D. * Elektroodonometriya
E. Polls
21. .What medical documentation should lead surgeon dentist?
A. Medical books
B. Procedural leaflet
C. Diary account of the
D. Journal of prophylactic examinations
E. * History of disease and leaf daily accounting world
22. What research should be carried to pacient , if he have infectious hepatitis?
A. Complete blood count
B. Electrolytes blood
C. Blood cholesterol
D. * Bilirubin blood
E. Esr
23. What research should be carried out in the presence of a history infectious hepatitis?
A. Complete blood count
B. Electrolytes blood
C. Blood cholesterol
D. Esr
E. * Australia antigen blood
24. why doctors made benzydynovi test ?
A. Sterility tools
B. Presence of corrosion
C. * Presence of residues of blood
D. Presence of residues of detergent
E. Presence of microorganisms
25. How many doctors must to be in dental clinic,to provides physician anesthesiologist?
A. 10
B. 15
C. * 20
D. 25
E. 5
26. How long is it sterilized dental mirror in 6% sol of hydrogen peroxide at room temperature?
A. 30 min.
B. 60 min.
C. 120 min
D. * 180 min
E. 240 min
27. How many beds allocated for one operating table in the dental hospital?
A. 10-20
B. 20-30
C. 30-40
D. 40-50
E. 50-60
28. How many categories of dental clinics do you know?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. * 6
29. Which kind of operations related to unplanned interventions?
A. Replantatsiya
B. . Resection apex of the rooth
C. * Operation extraction
D. Sekvestrektomiya
E. Surgical treatment of periodontal diseases
30. What part of dental patients requiring outpatient treatment?
A. 75-88%
B. 84-90%
C. 91-95%
D. 93-97%
E. * 98-99%
31. What is the path of transmission, where infection transmitted through the suture material or
other materials that remain in the wound?
A. Contact direct
B. Indirect contact
C. * Implantation
D. Breezing
E. Dust
32. What is the most accessible form of dental care for the population?
A. * State budget
B. Private
C. Cooperative
D. Self-financing
E. All of the about
33. What concentration of solution hlorheksydynu bihlyukonatu used for the cleaning of hand
surgeon?
A. * 0.5%
B. 1%
C. 2%
D. 3%
E. 1%
34. Hand surgeon handles 96% p-m ethanol for 10 min. What methods he use ?
A. Method Fyurbrinhera
B. Method Alfred
C. Method Spasokukotskoho-Kochergina
D. * Method Bruno
E. Scrubbing hibitanom
35. How many minutes should be boiled surgical instrument in sterilizer?
A. 20 min.
B. 30 min
C. 40 min
D. 50 min
E. * 60 min.
36. Why doctors use ortotolidyovoyi test?
A. * Presence of residues of blood
B. Presence of corrosion
C. Sterility tools
D. Presence of residues of detergent
E. Presence of microorganisms
37. What regulatory area is set on a single dental chair in dental clinic of II category?
A. 18 m2
B. 20 m2
C. * 14 m2
D. 25 m2
E. 23 m2
38. What is a violation of ethics in the time of dental manipnlation?
A. Begin receiving delayed
B. Crumpled robe doctor
C. Wrong attitude doctor to patient complaints
D. Discussion of the movie while patients
E. * All listed
39. What are the methods of antiseptics?
A. Mechanical
B. Physics
C. Biology
D. Chemistry
E. * All listed
40. What part of dental patients requiring inpatient treatment?
A. 0.5-1%
B. * 1-1.5%
C. 1.5-2%
D. 2-2.5%
E. 2.5-3%
41. What concentration of sol. yodopironi used for the cleaning of hand surgeon?
A. 0.5%
B. * 1%
C. 2%
D. 4%
E. 3%
42. What area operating at 1 dental chair (operating table) in dental clinic 1 category?
A. 14m2
B. 16m2
C. 20m2
D. * 23m2
E. 27m2
43. How many doctors work in the medical clinic of V category?
A. 5-7
B. 7-11
C. * 10-14
D. 12-15
E. 14-17
44. What is the basic structural unit of dental units?
A. * Dentist room
B. Dental Branch
C. Dental Clinic
D. Dental hospital
E. Dental clinic
45. Which kind of operations related to the planned intervention?
A. Operation extraction
B. Operation Disclosure abscess
C. Splintage at the turn of the jaw
D. * Resection top of the apex
E. Reposition of jawfall
46. What appears through fenolftaleyinovoyi samples?
A. Sterility tools
B. Presence of corrosion
C. * Presence of residues of detergent
D. Presence of residues of blood
E. Presence of microorganisms.
47. What method of sterilization used to glows ?
A. Autoclaving
B. Boiling
C. Machining under running water
D. Washing of 2% sol of hloraminu
E. * All these methods
48. What concentration of alcohol solution used for the cleaning of skin operational field?
A. 96%
B. 50%
C. 40%
D. * 70%
E. 80%
49. What is the optimal concentration of solution hydrogen peroxide for the cleaning of oral
cavity before extraction?
A. * 3%
B. 2%
C. 0.5%
D. 1%
E. 4%
50. What is the minimum area for one operating table?
A. 22-28 m2
B. 26-32 m2
C. 32-34 m2
D. 36-40 m2
E. * 36-48 m2
51. An incipient carious lesion on an interproximal surface is usually located ?
A. * At the contact area
B. Facial to the contact area
C. Lingual to the contact area
D. Gingival to the contact area
E. Occlusal to the contact area
52. Enamel caries begins with :
A. A white sensible spot
B. * A white insensible spot
C. A brown sensible spot
D. A brown insensible spot
E. A black sensible spot
53. Streptococcus mutans is considered to be a principal etiologic agent of caries because it
produces organic acids and it :
A. * Forms a gelatinous matrix
B. Metabolizes substrate from saliva
C. Derives energy from enamel constituents
D. Lives symbiotically with lactobacillus acidophilus
E. All of the above
54. Differential sign of incipient caries and enamel hypoplasia:
A. Pain during probing
B. Sensitivity to the thermal irritants
C. * Color test, luminescence of defect area
D. EOD test
E. None of the above
55. A patient has a toothache. Radiographs show a deep carious lesion. There is no detectable
pulpal exposure upon excavation of decay. The best treatment at this time is ;
A. Direct pulp cap
B. Root canal therapy
C. * A permanent restoration after placing a suitable base
D. Placement of a zinc phosphate cement temporary restoration
E. Placement of two coats of cavity varnish and an amalgam reatoration
56. Pathological process of hard tissue of teeth that develops after their eruption, which occurred
demineralization and proteolysis, followed by the formation of a defect under the influence
external and internal factors
A. Hypoplasia
B. Erosion
C. Abrasion
D. * Caries
E. Necrosis
57. Caries rezistens – it
A. resistant to acids
B. resistance to action of alkalis
C. * resistance to action caries factors
D. all answers is correct
E. none of the above
58. Methods of diagnosis of caries in the stage of spots :
A. staining and EDI
B. and EDI X-ray
C. X-ray and termodiagnostik
D. termodiagnostik and transillyuminatsionny method
E. * transillyuminatsion method and staining
59. .Dried surface of carious white spots :
A. * loses shine
B. changes color
C. remains unchanged
D. all answers is correct
E. none of the above
60. Methods of diagnosis of caries in the stage of spots based
A. the stability of the enamel
B. to reduce the permeability of enamel
C. to increase the permeability of enamel
D. * to change the optical properties of enamel
E. all answers is correct
61. When caries patients complain of pain :
A. spontaneous
B. continued after the removal of irritant
C. * only if the irritant
D. all answers is correct
E. none of the above
62. Therapeutic pads with long odontotropnym and antiseptic effect, contain
A. Corticosteroids
B. Antibiotics
C. non-steroidal drugs
D. of calcium hydroxide
E. * all answers is correct
63. Filling material, which protects the dentine should be
A. * prevent the movement of fluid in the dentin canals and sealed them shut
B. reely pass dentin fluid
C. be the thermal and chemical insulator
D. To enhance the permeability of dentin
E. all answers is correct
64. Treating with mordants enamel and dentin under :
A. to enhance the bactericidal properties of the composites
B. to strengthen the regional prileganiya
C. * to eliminate the lubricated layer
D. all answers is correct
E. none of the above
65. Microhardness of enamel with caries in the stage of spots
A. * decreases
B. increases
C. does not change
D. all answers is correct
E. none of the above
66. The processes of ion exchange, mineralization and demineralization provides BY :
A. * microhardness
B. permeability
C. solubility
D. all answers is correct
E. none of the above
67. With the average caries cavity sounding painfully
A. on the edge of the enamel
B. * connection between enamel and dentin
C. in the bottom of carious cavities
D. none of the above
E. all answers is correct
68. The solution of calcium gluconate permeability of enamel :
A. increases
B. * decreases
C. does not change
D. all answers is correct
E. none of the above
69. The most characteristic clinical symptom at different stages of caries IS Pain .what kind?
A. Spontaneous
B. continued after the removal of irritant
C. * only in the presence of irritant
D. all answers is correct
E. none of the above
70. Cavity with surface caries is localized with in the :
A. * enamel
B. enamel and dentin
C. enamel, dentin and predentina
D. all answers is correct
E. none of the above
71. Cavity, with deep caries is localized within the
A. enamel
B. enamel and dentin
C. * enamel, dentin and predentina
D. all answers is correct
E. none of the above
72. Methods of diagnosis of caries in the stage of spots :
A. staining and EDI
B. X-ray and EDI
C. X-ray and termodiagnostic
D. * Termodiagnostic and fluorescent stomatoskopi
E. stomatoskopiya and fluorescent staining
73. For vital staining of tooth enamel in the diagnosis of caries use :
A. eritrozin
B. magenta
C. * methylene blue
D. of potassium iodide
E. solution Schiller-Pisarev
74. Deep caries differentiate :
A. * with a mean caries
B. with chronic pulpitis
C. with chronic periodontitis
D. none of the above
E. fluorosis
75. Sealants are used to prevent :
A. * caries
B. fluorosis
C. all answers is correct
D. none of the above
E. hypoplasia
76. What of the following applies to the general anesthesia ?
A. Application and infiltration anesthesia
B. * Anesthesia and neyroleptanalheziya
C. Method creeping infiltration by Vishnevsky
D. Regional anesthesia
E. Infiltration anesthesia
77. What types of anesthesia is divided?
A. Physical and chemical
B. Application
C. Central and peripheral
D. * Inhaled and not inhalyatsion
E. Local and conduction
78. Which of the following drugs used for inhalation anesthesia?
A. Heksenal
B. Lidocaine
C. Ketamine
D. Septanest
E. * Nitrous oxide
79. What is the anesthesia by which we introduce a mixture of analgesics with neuroleptics?
A. Ataralheziya
B. Audioanesteziya
C. * Neyroleptanalheziya
D. Acupuncture anesthesia
E. Instrumental anesthesia
80. Which of the following drugs used for Not inhalatsion anesthesia?
A. Air
B. * Ketamine
C. Nitrous oxide
D. Ftorotan
E. Heksenal
81. What listed below is general anesthesia?
A. * Intravenous anesthesia
B. Stem anesthesia
C. Spinal anesthesia
D. Paranefral blockade
E. Epidural anesthesia
82. Which drug is used in outpatient dental practice during the intravenous anesthetic solution
tiopentalu sodium to avoid or prevent larynho and bronchoconstriction?
A. Dimedrol
B. Dyprazin
C. Adrenalin
D. Fentanil
E. * Atropine
83. What types of anesthesia do you know?
A. * Inhaled, not inhaled , neyroleptanalheziya
B. Inhaled, mask, endotracheal
C. Inhaled, endotracheal
D. Endotracheal, mask, neyroleptanalheziya
E. Neyroleptanalheziya, mask, inhaled
84. How many stages have premedykatsiya?
A. One-step
B. In two stages
C. * In three stages
D. In four stages
E. In the five stages
85. What is the show for anesthesia in a dental clinic?
A. Acute respiratory infection
B. Acute inflammation
C. Endocrine Pathology
D. * CNS Diseases
E. Cardiovascular Pathology
86. What is the Contraindications for anesthesia in a dental clinic?
A. Fear of treatment and removal of teeth
B. Lactose anesthesia
C. CNS Pathology
D. Bronchial asthma
E. * Acute respiratory infection
87. What with no complications related to complications of anesthesia?
A. Anchone
B. Laryngeal edema
C. * Edema Quincke
D. Aspiration vomiting masses
E. Acute respiratory infection
88. What drugs are better to use for mask narcosis?
A. Propanidid and sodium oksybutyrat
B. Viadryl and altezyn
C. Heksenal
D. * Chloroform and ether
E. Trichlorethylene and metoksyfluran
89. What are ways to support anesthesia?
A. * Semiclosed, Half Open and closed
B. Closed and open
C. Closed, open and semiclosed
D. Closed, open and Half Open
E. Half Open, semi-closed and open
90. In which of these injuries is shown a general anesthesia?
A. Fractures of the upper jaw of the type Lefor2 and Lefor 3
B. Mandible fractures with damage to the tongue
C. Mandible fractures with damage pharynx and larynx
D. * Fracture of nasal bones
E. Mandible fractures with muscle damage the bottom of the oral cavity
91. How many clinical stages have anesthesia?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. * Five
E. Six
92. What drugs are used in neyroleptanalheziyi?
A. Viadryl, heksenal, tiopental sodium
B. Air, ftorotan, nitrous oxide
C. Trichlorethylene, metoksyfluran, chloroform
D. Sodium oksybutyrat, propanidid
E. * Droperydol, fentanil, diazepam
93. What is the Contraindications for anesthesia in a dental clinic?
A. * Pronounced anemia
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Fear of treatment and removal of teeth
D. Lactose anesthesia
E. CNS Pathology
94. What is the show for anesthesia in a dental clinic?
A. Acute respiratory infection
B. Acute inflammation
C. * Lactose anesthesia
D. Pronounced anemia
E. Endocrine Pathology
95. What type of anesthesia is indicated for detection of heavy phlegmon of maxillofacial area?
A. Neyroleptanalheziya
B. * Mask anesthesia
C. Endotracheal anesthesia
D. NO inhalation anesthesia
E. Local anesthesia
96. What is the Contraindications for anesthesia in a dental clinic?
A. CNS Pathology
B. Fear of treatment and removal of teeth
C. Lactose anesthesia
D. * Broken blood coagulation
E. Bronchial asthma
97. Coagulation theory is:
A. Solubility of drugs in adipoid klinnyh membranes
B. Change Mezhevoy tension between the membrane and fluid
C. * Contact coagulation protoplasm of nerve cells
D. Lock regulation redox processes
E. Formation of stable water crystals
98. When transmitting the second stage premedykatsiyi?
A. On the evening before surgery
B. By 5 o'clock the operation
C. By 4 o'clock the operation
D. * For 1,5-2 hours before the operation
E. No right answer
99. Features of primary surgical treatment of wounds maxillofacial region is
A. in antiseptic processing, stitching and bandages
B. to stop bleeding, antiseptic processing, stitching and bandages
C. removing vital clots, wound drainage
D. antiseptic treatment in extract altered necrotic tissue, suturing of wounds
E. * the economy exraction tissue in the wound area, using primary plastics, binding
wounds
100. when patient must have Early primary surgical treatment of wounds?
A. first hour
B. 8.12 hours
C. * 24 hours
D. 48 hours
E.
101.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
102.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
103.
A.
72 hours
When patient must have deferred primary surgical treatment of wounds ,after injury?
first hour
8.12 hours
* 24-48 hours
3 days
8 days
When patient must have Late primary surgical treatment of wounds ,after injuriy ?
8.12 hours
24 hours
* 48 hours
8 days
That's right
Excoriation - is:
Closed mechanical injuries of soft tissues without apparent violation of their anatomical
integrity;
B. * mechanical damage to surface layers of the skin or mucous membranes
C. violation of the integrity of the skin or mucous membranes throughout their thickness,
D. caused by mechanical impact
E. Closed mechanical injuries
104. When nerve damage which occurs aurikulo-temporal syndrome (Frey syndrome)?
A. facial nerve
B. trigeminal nerve;
C. large and small ear nerve
D. * ear-temporal nerve;
E. lingual nerve
105. 106. Can be aurikulo-temporal syndrome in case when we have damage of bucal
area?
A. can, but not earlier than 1 month after injury
B. can, but only after 6 - 8 months after injury
C. can, but not earlier than 1 - 2 years after injury
D. * can not occur;
E. can, but not earlier than 11 - 23 years after injury
106. "Zygomatic syndrome" - is:
A. hyperesthesia of the skin
B. * hipesteziya of skin in the Zygomatic-temporal area and twigs second branch trigeminal
nerve;
C. Zygomatic bone fracture and arcs
D. Zygomatic bone fracture only
E. Zygomatic arch fracture only;
107. Secondary debridement - is:
A. first on account of ill treatment of wounds
B. processing of surgical wounds in the first 24 hours after injury
C. processing of surgical wounds after 24 - 48 hours after injury;
D. processing of surgical wounds 48 hours after injury
E. * surgical processing at the changes associated with infection;
108. When transmitting a sewing skin with mucous membrane during debridement?
A. soft tissue injury to the carotid-chewing area
B. * at large of through defects in the cheeks;
C. with soft tissue wounds cheeks or lips;
D. in revealing glandular abscess;
E. soft tissue injury
109. When dislocation asphyxia should hold:
A. traheobronhoskopiyu
B. * stitched tongue and fix it to the neck;
C. tracheotomy;
D. traheotsentez;
E. konikotomiyu;
110. what mean when, Puncture needles in the throat area situated between the annular and the
thyroid cartilage ?
A. krikotomi
B. krikotraheotomi
C. konikotomi
D. * konikotsentezi
E. tracheotomy;
111. What part of human body is blood?
A. 3 - 5%;
B. * 6 - 8%;
C. 9 - 12%;
D. 13 -16%;
E. 17 - 20%;
112. How many liters of blood circulat and deposited in the body?
A. 2.0 - 2.5 liters;
B. 3.0 - 4.0 liters;
C. * 4.5 - 6.0 liters;
D. 6.0 - 8.0 liters;
E. 8.0 - 10.0 liters
113. What part of human body is blood?
A. 1 / 2 part;
B. 1 / 4 part;
C. 1 / 8 part;
D. * 1 / 16 part;
E. 1 / 32 part;
114. Moderate blood loss - is:
A. * 20% blood loss from the volume of blood circulating;
B. 20 - 35% blood loss from the volume of blood circulating
C. 35 - 50% blood loss from the volume of blood circulating;
D. 60 - 70% blood loss from the volume of blood circulating;
E. 70 - 80% blood loss from the volume of blood circulating;
115. Massive blood loss - is:
A. 20% blood loss from the volume of blood circulating;
B. * 20 - 35% blood loss from the volume of blood circulating
C. 35 - 50% blood loss from the volume of blood circulating;
D. 60 - 70% blood loss from the volume of blood circulating;
E. 70 - 80% blood loss from the volume of blood circulating;
116. How many hours indicators of hematocrit corresponding to the true blood loss?
A. half an hour after injury
B. one hour after injury
C. in 2 - 4 hours after injury
D. within 6 hours after injury
E. * through 8 - 10 hours after injury
117. Patients after acute injury developed pathological condition characterized by severe
disruption of the central nervous system, blood circulation, respiration and metabolism. How
this condition is called?
A. posttraumatic disease;
B. fainting;
C. collapse;
D. * shock;
E. clinical deat
118. Person after acute injury have pathological condition characterized by severe disruption
of the central nervous system, blood circulation, respiration and metabolism.what he have ?
A. posttraumatic disease;
B. fainting;
C. collapse;
D. * shock;
E. clinical death
119. What is the critical level of blood pressure are indications . to change transition from jet
to drip transfusion?
A. 60 mmHg
B. 70 mmHg
C. * 80 mmHg
D. 90 mmHg
E. 100 mmHg
120. Optimal cosmetic effect in the treatment of wounds on the face can be achieved in case
the line of stitches are:
A. * in the direction of power lines;
B. perpendicular to power lines;
C. obliquely on power lines;
D. direction of power lines does not matter;
E. obliquely near power lines;
121. Indicate the correct sequence of the formation of scar:
A. swelling, condensation, epithelial, softening;
B. compaction, epithelial, swelling, softening;
C. * epithelization, swelling, compaction, softening;
D. epithelization, compaction,
E. swelling, softening;
122. True keloyid developing:
A. after injury;
B. after burns;
C. in healing of ulcers
D. * spontaneously, without damaging the skin
E. after tumors
123. How many days after extractions of keloid , appointed pirohenal therapy ?
A. from the first day after surgery;
B. with 3 - 4 days after surgery;
C. * from 6 - 7 days after surgery;
D. 1 month after operation;
E. in 3 - 4 months after surgery;
124. How many times doctor must put hidrocortizoni after exraction of keloyid?
A. * once a week;
B. twice a week
C. three times a week;
D. a day for 10 days;
E. daily for 10 days;
125. How many times doctor must put lidaza after exraction of keloyid?
A. once a week;
B.
C.
D.
E.
126.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
127.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
128.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
129.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
130.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
131.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
132.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
133.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
twice a week;
* three times a week;
a day for 10 days;
a day for 30 days
How long after the healing of wounds recommended extractions of kuloid?
1 - 2 months;
2 - 3 months;
4 - 5 months;
* 6 - 12 months
not less than 1 year
Which disease is to obligate precancer?
leukoplakia;
* Bowen's disease;
papillomatosis;
post x-ray stomatitis
erosive-ulcer form red Vovchuk
Which disease is belong to obligate precancer of red border of lips?
leukoplakia;
keratoakantom
papilloma;
cutaneous horn;
* warty Precancer
Which diseases should be referred to obligate precancer red border of lips?
leukoplakia;
keratoakantom
cutaneous horn
papillomas
* limited hyperkeratosis
Which diseases should be referred to obligate precancer red border of lips?
* heylit Manhanotti
leukoplakia;
papillomas
cutaneous horn
keratoakantom
Which diseases should be attributed to the optional precancer border of red lips?
* leukoplakia;
warty Precancer;
limited hyperkeratosis;
heylit Manhanotti
keratoakantom
Which disease is one of the optional precancer red border of lips?
* cutaneous horn;
warty Precancer;
limited hyperkeratosi
heylit Manhanotti
its no right answer
Chronic mucosal ulcers should be attributed to:
* obligate precancer;
Optional pre-with great potential malignancy
Optional pre-with less potential malignancy
its no right answer
all answer are right
134.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
135.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
136.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
137.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
138.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
139.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
140.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
141.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
142.
A.
B.
C.
what is skin horn?
Internal cells skin cancer
* Rogov verrucosum;
keratoakantoma;
leukoplakia warty
allanswer are right
Cutaneous horn - is:
horn performance, expandable to top;
belonged formation that looks like warts;
* horn performance, which tapered to a narrow peak;
all answer are right
horn performance, expandable behind ;
Bowen's disease - is:
peculiar form of senile verrucosum
* epidermal skin cancer
epidermal cancer of mucosa
Cutaneous horn
all answer are right
Keratoakantoma - is:
peculiar form of senile verrucosum;
vnutrishnoepidermalnyy skin cancer
epidermal cancer of mucosa
* Cutaneous horn
psevdokartsynomatoznyy shellfish
Eritroplaziya Carey are:
* variant of Bowen disease;
Horny verrucosum;
papular skin precancer
abrasive precantser heylit Manhanotti
all answer are right
Which symptom is morphological characteristics of keratoakantom?
multi-cells with pale nuclei
* skin, full horn masses
parakeratozu phenomena
polymorphism of cell
increase in mitosis;
What forms of leukoplakia should be attributed to pre-disease?
leukoplakia Tappeynera
leukoplakia
erosive-ulcer
* erosive-ulcer and leukoplakia
All previously listed species leykoplakiy
At what degree burn, starts to die (disintegrate) proliferous (basal) layer of the epidermis?
І degree;
ІІ degree
* ІІІ- А degree;
III-B degree;
IV degree
At what degree burn ,start to die of skin epithelial appendages?
І degree;
ІІ degree
ІІІ- А degree;
D. * III-B degree;
E. IV degree
143. Name the first stage (period) of burn disease?
A. * burn shock
B. burn toxemia
C. burn septikotoksemiya
D. rekonvalestsentsiy
E. all answer are right
144. How is called the third period of burn disease?
A. burn shock;
B. burn toxemia
C. * burn septicotoksemiya
D. rekonvalestsents
E. all answers are right
145. Name the second period of burn disease?
A. burn shock;
B. * burn toxemia
C. burn septikotoksemiya
D. rekonvalestsents
E. all answer are right
146. Where the percentage of failure in the adult skin (from the entire body surface)
superficial burns can still be considered as local failure?
A. 5%;
B. * 10%
C. 15%;
D. 20%;
E. 25%;
147. Where the percentage of failure in the adult skin (from the entire body surface) deep
burns can still be considered as local failure?
A. * 5%;
B. 10%;
C. to 15%;
D. 20%;
E. 25%;
148. Where the percentage of lost skin in children (from all over the body surface) superficial
burns can still be considered as local failure?
A. 4%
B. * 8%
C. 12%
D. 16%
E. 20%
149. What degree burn of defeat skin should be seen as superficial burns?
A. I degree
B. I and II degree
C. * I, II and III-A level
D. I, II, III-A and III-B level
E. All answer are right
150. What degree burn of defeat skin should be seen as deep burns?
A. Grade IV;
B. * III-B and IV degree
C. III-A,-B, III and IV degree
D. II, III-A, III-B and IV degree
E. All answer are right
151. How long the period of burn shock?
A. to 12 o'clock
B. * from 2 to 48 hours, sometimes 72 hours
C. 4-6 days
D. 7-10 days
E. to 15 days
152. How many percent of the total body surface area is in the surface of the adult head and
neck?
A. 4.5%
B. * 9%
C. 12%
D. 18%
E. 26%
153. How many percent of the total body surface area is in the surface of the adult face?
A. 1%
B. 2%
C. * 3%
D. 4%
E. 5%
154. Blister filled with clear content - a symptom that is characteristic for skin care what
extent?
A. First degree
B. * Second degree
C. A third-degree
D. III-B level
E. IV degre
155. Which area is the head of a child under the age of 1 year (the total body surface area)?
A. 9%
B. 12%
C. 15%
D. 19%
E. * 21%
156. Which area is the head of a child aged 6 to 14 years (the total body surface area)?
A. 9%
B. 12%
C. * 15%
D. 19%
E. 21%
157. Following is the chemical agent can be affected by surface wash in running water?
A. * hydrochloric acid
B. sulfuric acid
C. quicklime
D. organic compounds of aluminum
E. all answer are right
158. What from the following is the chemical agent can not be affected by surface wash in
running water?
A. hydrochloric acid
B. chromic acid
C. * sulfuric acid
D. carbolic acid
E. all answer are right
159. What from the following is the chemical agent can not be affected by surface wash in
running water?
A. hydrochloric acid;
B. chromic acid
C. carbolic acid
D. * quicklime
E. all answer are right
160. Chemical burns of the skin of organic compounds of aluminum can not wash:
A. * water;
B. kerosene
C. gasoline
D. alcohol;
E. carbolic acid
161. How we can conduct the chemical neutralization of acids?
A. * 2-3% solution of sodium hydrokarbonati
B. 1-2% solution of citric or acetic acid
C. 20% solution of sugar
D. glycerin;
E. 5% solution of thiosulfate
162. How we can conduct the chemical neutralization of alkali :
A. 2-3% solution of sodium hydrogen carbonate
B. * 1-2% solution of citric or acetic acid
C. 20% solution of sugar
D. Glycerin
E. 5% solution of thiosulfate (hiposulfatu) sodium
163. How we can conduct the chemical neutralization of quicklime:
A. 2-3% solution of sodium hydrogen carbonate;
B. 1-2% solution of citric or acetic acid;
C. * 20% solution of sugar
D. glycerin;
E. 5% solution of thiosulfate
164. How we can conduct the Chemical neutralization of phenol ?
A. 2-3% solution of sodium hydrogen carbonate
B. 1-2% solution of citric or acetic acid
C. 20% solution of sugar
D. * Glycerin
E. 5% solution of thiosulfate
165. How we can conduct the Chemical neutralization of chromic acid ?
A. 2-3% solution of sodium hydrogen carbonate
B. 1-2% solution of citric or acetic acid
C. 20% solution of sugar
D. glycerin;
E. * 5% solution of thiosulfate (hiposulfatu) sodium
166. what ways we can conduct Chemical neutralization salts of heavy metals ?
A. -3% solution of sodium hydrogen carbonate
B. 1-2% solution of citric or acetic acid
C. 20% solution of sugar
D. glycerin;
E. * 4-5% solution of sodium hydrogen carbonate
167. 168. what we must use ,if we want to make chemical neutralization of Phosphorus ?
A. 2-3% solution of sodium hydrogen carbonate
B. 1-2% solution of citric or acetic acid
C. * 20% solution of sugar
D. Glycerin
E. 5% solution of copper sulphate
168. What is the second period of radiation burns?
A. early radiation reaction
B. * latent period
C. acute inflammation
D. rehabilitation
E. All answer are right
169. What is the third period of radiation burns?
A. early radiation reaction
B. hidden period
C. * acute inflammation
D. rehabilitation
E. all answer are right
170. What is the first period of the radiation burns?
A. * early radiation reaction
B. hidden period
C. acute inflammation
D. rehabilitation
E. all answer are right
171. How many degrees are required for sever radiation burns?
A. one;
B. two
C. * three
D. four
E. five
172. How distinguish degrees of frostbitten skin?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. * Four
E. five
173. What is the primary symptom of freezing skin before reaction period?
A. no symptoms
B. * anemia of skin
C. redness of skin
D. cyanotic skin
E. all answer are right
174. What you can not hold a light massage with frostbitten face?
A. hot hand
B. woolen fabric
C. * snow
D. handkerchiefs
E. all answer are right
175. What antiseptics and in what concentrations should be used in order to prevent infection
transfer without using rubber gloves?
A. 3.0% sol of Hydrogen Peroxide
B. 5.0% sol of Potassium Iodide
C. 1.0% sol of Ammonia
D. 1.0% sol of Chloramine
E. * 2.0% sol of Chloramine
176. What antiseptics and in what concentrations should be used in order to prevent infection
transfer without using rubber gloves?
A. 0.1% sol. “novosepti"
B. 3.0% sol. "novosepti"
C. * 2.4% sol. Pervomuri
D. 3% sol. Pervomuri
E. 1.0% sol. chloramini
177. What belongs to specific methods of examination in dental surgery?
A. Questionary
B. Overview
C. Palpation
D. Percussion
E. * Cytology
178. What belongs to specific methods of examination in dental surgery?
A. Questionary
B. Overview
C. Palpation
D. * Radiography
E. Percussion
179. Which diagnostic method should be used to assess chewing function?
A. Radiography
B. Thermometry
C. Tomography
D. * Masticatiography
E. Thermography
180. Which diagnostic method should be used to assess round apex absces of the tooth?
A. Overview
B. Palpation
C. Test Kulazhenko
D. Questionary
E. * X-ray
181. Which study should be carried out to assess the contractile function of masticatory
muscles?
A. X-ray
B. * Gnatodynamometry
C. Tomography
D. Thermometry
E. Thermographry
182. What contrasting agent is used in sialography?
A. 10.0% sol. Calcium Chloride
B. Barium Sulfate
C. Xeroform
D. Iodoform
E. * 30.0% sol. Iodoli poli
183. What contrasting agent is used in sialography?
A. * 10.0% sol. Etiotrasti
B. Barium Sulfate
C. Xeroform
D. Iodoform
E. 10.0% sol. Calcium Chloride
184. What is the average threshold of excitability of pulp elektroodontometry in case of
periodontitis?
A. 20-30 Ma
B. 40-50 Ma
C. 60-70 Ma
D. 80-90 Ma
E. * 100-150 Ma
185. What is the average threshold of excitability of pulp elektroodontometry in case of facial
nerve neuritis?
A. * 1.3 Ma
B. 5.10 Ma
C. 15-20 Ma
D. 25-30 Ma
E. 35-40 Ma
186. Which method is used to determine the condition of round apex tissues of the tooth?
A. Overview
B. Palpation
C. Test Kulazhenko
D. * Elektroodontometry
E. Questionary
187. What medical documentation should dental surgeon keep record of?
A. Medical books
B. Procedural note
C. Work record diary
D. Journal of prophylactic examinations
E. * History of disease and leaf daily accounting work
188. What research should be carried out in the presence of a history of infectious hepatitis?
A. Complete blood count
B. Electrolytes blood
C. Blood cholesterol
D. * Bilirubin of blood
E. ESR
189. What research should be carried out in the presence of a history of infectious hepatitis?
A. Complete blood count
B. Electrolytes blood
C. Blood cholesterol
D. ESR
E. * Australia antigen blood
190. What determines benzidini test?
A. The level of tools sterility
B. Presence of corrosion
C. * Presence of residues of blood
D. Presence of residues of detergent
E. Presence of microorganisms
191. For how many doctors should dental clinic provide the position of anesthesiologist?
A. 10
B. 15
C. * 20
D. 25
E. 5
192. How long does it take to sterilize dental mirror in 6% hydrogen peroxide solution at room
temperature?
A. 30 min
B. 60 min
C. 120 min
D. * 180 min
E. 240 min
193. How many beds should be in the dental hospital in order to have one operating table?
A. 10-20
B. 20-30
C. * 30-40
D. 40-50
E. 50-60
194. How many distinguishable categories of dental clinics do you know?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. * 6
195. Which below mentioned operations relate to unplanned manipulations?
A. Replantation
B. Apex resection
C. * Extraction operation
D. Sekvestrektomy
E. Surgical treatment of periodontal diseases
196. What part of dental patients requires outpatient treatment?
A. 75-88%
B. 84-90%
C. 91-95%
D. 93-97%
E. * 98-99%
197. How is the way of infection transfer called, where infection transmitted through the
suture material or other materials that remain in the wound?
A. Direct contact
B. Indirect contact
C. * Implantation
D. Breezing
E. Dust
198. What is the most accessible form of dental care for the population?
A. * State budget
B. Private
C. Cooperative
D. Self-financing
E. All of the above
199. Who opened the first tool able to trigger pain fabric?
A. Pirogov
B. Vaysbla
C. * Anrep
D. Filatov
E. Rauer and NM Mihelson
200. Who first synthesized novocaine?
A. * Eiphorp Yplfelder
B. Koller
C. Morris and R. Arrlebu A. A. & R.;
D. Styrrosk
E. No right answer
201.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
202.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
203.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
204.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
205.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
206.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
207.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
208.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
209.
A.
B.
C.
Chemical formula of novocaine?
alcohol carboxylic acid tartrate
dietylamino alpha-2 ,4,6-trymetylatsetanilida hydrochloride
* Beta dietylaminoetanolovyy Air paraaminobenzoynoyi acid hydrochloride
dietylamino alpha-2 ,6-dimetylatsetanilida hydrochloride
ethanol paraaminobenzoynoyi acid hydrochloride
In what year was synthesized novocaine?
in 1889
in 1900
* in 1905
in 1924
in 1931
Is novocaine easily hydrolyzed? In which environment? The solution?
Acidic
* Alkalin
easily in any environment
no right answer
all answer are correct
In long-term preservation of novocaine is?
* more acidic
more alkaline
does not change pH
no right answer
all answer are right
pH of novocaine solution is ? :
5.0
* 6.0
7.0
7.4
No right answer
Which enzyme occurs Novocain hydrolysis ?
* holinesterazy and novokayinesterazy
acetylcholine
betalaktamazy
no right answer
all answer are correct
On chemical structure similar to novocaine sulphamids by:
dietylaminoetanola
* paraaminobenzoynoyi acid
dimetylatsetonilidu
no right answer
all answer are right
Toxicity of novocaine in the introduction to a vein is increased to ? :
not increase
increased 5 times
* increases 10 times
No right answer
All answer are right
How change the blood pressure ,after injection solutions of novocaine?
do not change;
lower
increase
D. no right answer
E. all answer are right
210. How novocaine penetrates through the skin?
A. * bad;
B. Well
C. Very well
D. No right answer
E. All answer are right
211. Duration of anesthesia made by novocaine?:
A. * 30 min
B. about 1 o'clock
C. more than 2 hours
D. up to 10-20 hours
E. no right answer
212. Which vitamin deficiency (hypovitaminosis) increases symptoms of poisoning?
A. B1;
B. B12;
C. * ascorbic acid
D. nicotinic acid
E. no right answer
213. At trial, resulting from intoxication novocaine, please enter:
A. bemehryd
B. * heksenal
C. adrenaline
D. mezaton
E. no right answer
214. Sulphamids and salicylates . can this drugs change the effect of anesthesia of
novocaine?
A. do not change
B. increase
C. * Reduce
D. No right answer
E. All answer are correct
215. Tselnovokayin - is:
A. * derivative novocaine
B. trymekayinu derivative
C. the same like novocaine
D. the same like trymekaine
E. no right answer
216. Benzofurokayin - is:
A. * ethyl ether carboxylic acid tartrate
B. dietylamino alpha-2 ,4,6-trymetylatsetanilida hydrochloride
C. Beta dietylaminoetanolovyy Air paraaminobenzoynoyi acid hydrochloride
D. dietylamino alpha-2 ,4,6-dimetylatsetanilidu hydrochloride
E. artikayiynu hydrochloride
217. What solution of benzofurokayini we use in dentistry ?
A. 0.5%;
B. * 1.0%;
C. 2.0%;
D. 5.0%
E. No right answer
218. what king of tumor is Jaw cancer ?
A. * epithelial tumor
B. connective tissue tumor
C. vascular tumor
D. swelling of nerve fibers
E. tumor of lymphoid tissue
219. In which of the bone, cancer occurs most often?
A. * in the maxillary bone
B. mandible bone
C. in the skull bone
D. in Zygomatic bone
E. in nazal bone
220. At what age jaw cancer occurs more often?
A. in children
B. in youth
C. aged 20-40 years
D. * aged 40-60 years
E. no right answer
221. How call , primary jaw cancer ?
A. sarcoma jaw
B. Yuinha sarcoma
C. * odontogenic carcinoma
D. Paget's disease
E. Sarcoidosis
222. What are the first symptoms of odontogenic carcinoma (primary cancer of the jaw)?
A. * pain in the teeth and their mobility
B. deformation of the jaw
C. ulcers on the gums
D. pathological fracture
E. No right answer
223. Diagnosis : odontogenic carcinoma. What reparative processes in the jaw, you will see
when you made X-ray photo?
A. pronounced;
B. expressed, but not very much
C. weakly expressed
D. * no changes
E. no right answer
224. X-ray picture of odontogenic carcinoma of mandible (primary cancers)?
A. cell sparse bone with clear boundaries, reparative processes in the surrounding bone
absent;
B. * cell sparse bone without clear boundaries, reparative processes in the surrounding bone
absent
C. cell sparse bone with clear boundaries, expressed reparative processes in the surrounding
bone
D. cell sparse bone without clear boundaries, expressed reparative processes in the
surrounding bone;
E. No right answer
225. The source of secondary cancer jaw can not be:
A. epithelium of maxillary sinus mucosa
B. epithelium of nasal mucosa
C. mucous membrane of the alveolar epithelium appendix
D. mucosal epithelium of the mouth
E. * epithelial islands Malyasse, localized in the thick of the jaw
226. Find the right describing of cancerous ulcer?
A. * edges turn, devoured, bottom time, depth, cause dense, easy to bed, the form is invalid,
the cortical surface of bone destruction
B. irregular shape, soft ground, with palpation painful
C. soft edges, hanging, painful, bottom, covered with small yellow nodules
D. dense, infiltrovana in abstseduvannya cells in several areas of granulation weak and
easily roof is norychni moves from poor purulent discharge
E. no right answer
227. Find Saturn of Onhrena who share maxillary sinus in two departments (sectors):
A. * one goes from the inner corner of eye to angle of mandible, second – sagittal
B. one goes from the outer corner of eye to angle of mandible, second – transverzal
C. one goes from the inner corner of eye to angle of mandible, second – transverzal
D. one goes from the outer corner of eye to angle of mandible, second – sagittal
E. no right answer
228. What doctor must to do ,after post extraction profuse bleeding from the tooth hole ?
A. Enter intravenus 10% sol calcium chloride
B. In the transitional fold type 0.1% sol of adrenaline
C. Bombard bladder powder yodoform
D. Compress your fingers land hole
E. * Tight with yodoformi tampon alveoli, after that saturated
229. What complications is most popular after extraction of wisdom tooth on mandibula?
A. * Alveolar nerve injury on mandibula
B. Hematoma
C. Alveolus
D. Jawfall
E. Bleeding
230. What is the most characteristic symptom in the detection of demage of maxillary sinus ?
A. Sharp pain in maxilla region
B. * Positive oral- nasal test
C. Pathological mobility of alveolar appendix
D. No discharge from the bladder
E. No right answer
Situational tasks
1. To doctor come patient 23 years old . Diagnosis of this patient is osteomyelitis , acute stage
. But inflammation is progressed . What is normally we will seen on X-ray photo ?
A. *Portion of bone separated from parent bone
B. Radiopaque area surrounding the affected jaw bone
C. Radiolucent pattern with rugged borders develop
D. Sequestrum and radiolucent band separating from parent bone
E. No radiolucency or radiopacity develop
2. To doctor come patien 27 years old . last month he fill pain in area of maxilla , he fill
offensive smell from nasal cavity . Diagnosis : acute inflammation of maxillary sinus
What reason of inflammation of maxillary sinus , do you know?
A. Infection by the nasal mucosa
B. Infectious diseases (influenza, diphtheria, measles)
C. Odontogenic inflammatory processes;
D. Surgery on the teeth, accompanied by perforation and sinus infection
E. *All answers are true
3. To doctor come patient with acute periodontits of toot. Surgen made extraction of this
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
tooth . After extraction , doctor realize that he made perforation of maxillary sinus . How
you think ,what tooth doctor must extract to made perforation of maxillary sinus (only in
some cases)?
A. Upper canine
B. *The first upper molar
C. Upper lateral incisor
D. The lower second bicuspid
E. Lower wisdom tooth
Patients aged 42 years come to doctor . Last two days he fill pain in area of hard palatine ,
when he open oral cavity , doctor sow inflammation of soft tissue .surgeon diagnosed
abscess of hard palate. What doctor must to do ?
A. Open abscess
B. Do nothing
C. Conservative therapy
D. Physical therapy
E. All answer are right
Patient age 20 . have problems of itching, burning sensation in the lips and face skin, which
appeared a week ago. The emergence of these symptoms he fill after eating of chocolate .
Objective : At a Red part of lips dusk skin is grouped small vesicles filled with serous
fluid with yellow color.. In a significant of blood is eosinophilia. What diagnosis ?
A. Atopic heylit
B. Actinic heylit
C. Contact allergic heylit
D. * Eczematous heylit
E. Meteorological heylit
To doctor come patient near 24 years old . His status is very hard , high temperature of the
body . Diagnosis is Odontogenic sepsis. How you think , what pathogens often cause
sepsis ?
A. Staphylococcus
B. Streptococcus
C. Menincoccus
D. Pnevmococcus
E. *Anaerobes staphyloccus
To surgeon come patient near 24 years old . He fill acute pain in area of maxilla. Diagnosis
; acute abscess of hard pallatina . What is the picture of blood in acute abscess?
A. No change
B. Reducing the number of red blood cells and hemoglobin
C. Emerging young immature blood cells
D. *The number of WBC, ESR acceleration
E. No right answer
The patient asked the doctor complaining of swelling in the left cheek area, the body
temperature of 38.5 C. OBJECTIVE: painful percussion of the tooth 26, transitional
convolution her flat. When pressing on the tooth stands manure. What can be diagnosed in
this patient?
A. Acute purulent periodontitis
B. *Acute purulent periostitis
C. Acute odontogenic osteomyelitis
D. Phlegmon of bucal abscess
E. No right answer
To doctor come patient near 34 years old . he fill pain in area of angle of mandible. One
week ago he have pulpitis , he don’t treat them . Doctor made diagnosis periodontitis of
lower molar tooth. How you think , which lymph nodes were first involved in
inflammation process ?
A. Face
B. Front neck
C. *Submandibular
D. Submental
E. Side neck
10. The patient near 45 years old , complains of intense sharp throbbing pain in section 26.
Percussion 26 sharply painful, movable tooth, mucosa around 26 congested, swollen,
painful palpation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute purulent pulpitis
B. Exacerbation of chronic periodontitis
C. Acute diffuse pulpitis
D. *Acute purulent periodontitis
E. Acute serous pulpitis
11. The patient complains for unpleasant sensations, gravity, sometimes stupid pain in the
area of tooth 36. Tooth with fillings, changed in color, percussion sensitive. In the mucosa
in the region. projection of the root is fistula. What is the diagnosis?
A. No right answer
B. *Chronic periodontitis of 36 tooth, cysts stage
C. All answer are rigth
D. acute pulpitis
E. Acute caries
12. The patient asked the dentist about the long-badger in the lower left cheek. norytsevui
progress on the skin to 0.3 cm in diameter with granulation and small flaccid saniopurulent
fluid. When sensing probe penetrates the soft tissues of the body toward the lower jaw.
When palpation in the thick of the left cheek tissue is determined. In X-ray - 35 tooth has
signs of chronic periodontitis. What is the final diagnosis in this patient?
A. *Odontogenic granuloma of face
B. All answer are right
C. Tuberculosis of mandible
D. Actinomycosis of the lower jaw
E. No right answer
13. To doctor come patient near 23 years old . He have inflammation of the skin , this
inflammation is in red color , in this inflammation you can see 3 black point of necrosis.
Diagnosis : carbuncle of face. What kind of microorganism Caused furuncles and
carbuncles ?
A. Staphylococcus
B. *Streptococcus
C. Menincoccus
D. Pnevmococcus
E. Anaerobes staphyloccus
14. Men 48 years old , on the chin skin pustule appeared, which quickly developed into a
dense, sharply painful infiltration size 3 x 5 cm of skin on his blue and red. In the central
zone of necrosis three around hair follicles. Lymph nodes enlarged chin, painful.
Diagnosis.
A. * Carbuncle chin.
B. Erysipelas of chin.
C. Actinomycosis leather chin
D. Atheroma, which inflamate
E. No right answer
15. To dentist come patient near 34 years old . On the chin skin pustule appeared, which
quickly developed into a dense, sharply painful infiltration size 3 x 5 cm of skin on his blue
and red. In the central zone of necrosis three around hair follicles. Lymph nodes enlarged
chin, painful. Diagnosis.
A. * Carbuncle of the skin
B. Erysipelas of chin.
C. All answer are right
D. Actinomycosis leather chin
E. Atheroma, which inflamate
16. Patient near 20 years old , in the area from the right upper lip is acute swelling and dense
infiltrate size 1.5 x 1.5 cm in the center of infiltration is Point necrotic finish. After removal
of visible necrotic barrel. . Diagnosis.
A. * furuncle
B. ulcerative anthrax.
C. Actinomycosis of the skin
D. Anthrax.
E. No right answer
17. Female treated at the furuncle of the left cheek. Suddenly the patient's condition
worsened. Appeared with severe headache, high body temperature, increased swelling of
the cheeks with dense infiltration What complications developed in this patient?
A. * Facial vein thrombophlebitis
B. No right answer
C. acute purulent antritis
D. Limyfanhoit
E. No right answer
18. The patient asked to the doctor complaining of 35,36,37 tooth mobility, pain in this area to
periodic increase in temperature to 37,5 ° C, malaise, ill 2 months. OBJECTIVE: mobility
35, 36, 37 teeth II level in the area submental fistula from the left purulent discharge.
What is the disease in this patient?
A. *Chronic odontogenic osteomyelitis
B. Migrating granuloma
C. Cancer mandibular
D. Chronic periodontitis
E. Actinomycosis of the lower jaw
19. Patient Complaints byt pain in erupted wisdom tooth. Pain with swallowing,difficulty
opening the mouth, malaise, fever up to 37.5 - 38 ° C. Crown covered with mucous
membrane (hood), which is congested, swollen. With a hood allocated manure. Diagnosis?
A. Osteolielit
B. Alveolitis
C. Gingivitis
D. Periostitis
E. *Perikoronitis
20. To dentist come patient near 24 years old . He want extract tooth . The patient suffers
from epilepsy. What kind of anesthesia is necessary to conduct in the time of operation?
A. *Under endotracheal anesthesia
B. Under mask anesthesia
C. Under anesthesia nazofarynhialnui way
D. Under infiltration anesthesia
E. When conduction block
21. The patient asked the dentist to remove the 36 tooth . one year ago he have pulpitis , he
don’t treat this pulpitis , now he have chronic Periodontitis . The patient suffered a year
ago, myocardial infarction, angina suffering. Which method of anesthesia is the most
rational?
A. Anesthesia
B. Infiltration anesthesia
C. Conduction anesthesia
D. Application of anesthesia
E. * Conduction potenshional anesthesia
22. To doctor come patient . he must have extraction of the tooth 24 . doctor use heksenal
for anesthesia . What is the maximum single dose of heksenal?
A. 3 grams
B. 2 grams
C. 1 gram
D. 0.5 grams
E. 1.5 grams
23. To doctor come patient near 34 years old . Last feew week he fill pain when he eat
something . Objective on tooth 24 , you can see black point . When doctor made probing
patient , fill nothing . diagnosis ?
A. *Caries
B. Pulpitis
C. Periodontitis
D. No right answer
E. All answer are right
24. To doctor come patient near 45 years old . Last two days he fill pain when he eat
something, and spontaneous sharp pain when he slip . Objective on tooth 24 , you can see
black point . When doctor made probing patient , fill strong acute pain near 2 minutes .
diagnosis ?
A. Caries
B. *Pulpitis
C. Periodontitis
D. No right answer
E. All answer are right
25. To doctor come patient near 56 years old . Last year he fill pain when he eat something,
. Objective on tooth 24 , you can see black point , deep caries cavity . This cavity has
connection with pulp camera . When doctor made probing patient , fill nothing , but when
he made vertical percussion , patient fill pain . Diagnosis?
A. Caries
B. Pulpitis
C. Periodontitis
D. No right answer
E. All answer are right
26. To doctor come patient near 45 years old . Objective on tooth 27 , you can see black
point , deep caries cavity . This cavity has connection with pulp camera . near this cavity ,
you can see some inflammation , but only from chick side . befor this patient have
Periodontitis , and don’t treat them . Diagnosis?
A. Caries
B. Pulpitis
C. Periostitis
D. No right answer
E. All answer are right
27. Patient near 25 years old , come to doctor . He cannot talk, and open oral cavity.Objective ;
you can see deformation of face , from left side . two hour ago he fell down . Diagnosis?
A. Pulpitis
B. Periodontitis
C. Caries
D. No right answer
E. *Fracture of mandible
28. Patient near 34 years old , come to doctor . He cannot talk, and fill strong pain in area of
maxilla .Objective ; you can see deformation of face , from left side . two hour ago he fell
down . Diagnosis?
A. Pulpitis
B. Periodontitis
C. Caries
D. No right answer
E. *Fracture of mandible
29. Patient K., appealed to the dental clinic at the removal of 36. From anamnesis revealed that
the patient suffers from hemophilia. Advance Removal accompanied by long-term
bleeding. What tactics doctor?
A. Perform removal under the supervision of hematologist in clinic
B. Required preoperational training in clinics
C. Postoperative treatment is not necessary
D. Perform extraction of the tooth with further recommendations
E. * Carry out intervention in the hospital with pre-and post-operative preparation
30. Patient , appealed to the surgeon-dentist with complaints of fever up to 37,6 ° C, swelling
of soft tissues, pain in 47 tooth on the lower left jaw, which increases with the touch. When
the review occurs and hyperemia transitional fold alveolar appendix of vestibular side of
the damaged section 47 of the tooth. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute Periodontitis
B. * Acute purulent odontogenic periostitis
C. Exacerbation of chronic pulpitis
D. Acute odontogenic osteomyelitis
E. Periodontal abscess
31. Patient 28 years old , conducted 26 tooth removal. After tuberal anesthesia patient felt
general weakness, nausea, and later - a sharp itching and rashes on the skin. Which type of
complication data include symptoms?
A. Collapse.
B. Anaphylactic shock
C. * Hives
D. Edema Quincke
E. Fainting
32. The doctor asked the patient 35 years with complaints of pain in tooth 47. During the X-ray
study of channels in medial and distal roots are broken endodontic instruments. In the top
section of the root cells of bone destruction with clear contours. Which of you would opt to
treat this patient?
A. * Extraction
B. Operation resection top top
C. Operation replantathion of tooth
D. Hemisektsion of tooth
E. Conservative treatment
33. In patients 50 years, for 4 days appeared painful swelling in the area of the upper lip and
left wings of the nose, t - 37,2. objectively: Asymmetric face due to swelling under the left
wing of the nose. Edema of the skin slightly congested. 21 tooth rolling, percussion painful
with palpation is not painful . After a painful transition applicants elastic infiltrate.
A. * Acute purulent abscess of the upper jaw of 21 teeth
B. Acute periodontitis 21 tooth
C. Acute pulpitis 21 tooth
D. Periodontal abscess
E. Exacerbation of chronic peridontitis of 21 tooth
34. Patient K., 27 years appealed to the surgeon-dentist about the exacerbation of chronic
periodontitis 17. During the removal operation palatal tooth root was in maxillary sinus .
What tactics doctor in this situation?
A. * Perform x-ray examinations and send patients to hospital
B. No right answer
C. Remove root through the punched hole formed
D. An operation haymorotomiyi
E. All answer are right
35. Boy 14 years in the disclosure complained of mouth pain in the left temporomandibular
joint that emerged over 2.5 weeks after the carry influenza. OBJECTIVE: hyperemia and
swelling of tissues in the area of the left joint, t 37.2 0C body, teeth intact, normal bite. In
joint bone structure is not altered, enlarged joints crack. What might explain the increasing
gap in the joint radiograph?
A. * The accumulation of serous fluid
B. Tumor growth
C. Growth of fibrous tissue
D. Lime wax
E. No correct answer
36. To the dentist surgeon turned patient, complaining of pain, heartburn tongue. Considers
himself ill within 2 months. Has treatment in hospital (where treat tuberculosis), but did
not complete treatment, abused alcohol. When reviewing the crack-like ulcer on the median
line of the cheesy tongue root decay in contact blood. What treatment is shown in the first
patient?
A. * General treatment and symptomatic local treatment
B. No right answer
C. All answer are right
D. Electro coagulation, symptomatic treatment
E. Sweetening ulcer edges, imposing nodal joints
37. The patient occasionally complained of pain that is worse when he open a mouth and
chew. A history of trauma (received 2 months ago). When the re view is significant
swelling front ear and pain during deep palpation in this area. Opening the mouth is limited
to 2.0 cm , crunch with palpation the auditory passage. In X-ray - articular narrowing gap.
What preliminary diagnosis in this case.
A. * Chronic arthritis posttraumatic
B. Exacerbation of chronic nonspecific arthritis
C. Chronic Arthritis-Osteoarthritis
D. No right answer
E. All answer are right
38. The patient was hospitalized in the department of Maxilla - facial surgery after 30 hours of
injury during seizures. At the time of clinical examination was diagnosed lethal laceration of the chin. What debridement we must to do?
A. * Primary deferred debridement
B. Primary debridement
C. Secondary debridement
D. Early debridement
E. Late debridement
39. From the chemical laboratory to the department of maxillofacial surgery hospital, was
delivered patients 43 years. He has skin care by sulfuric acid. Which of the following
medications need to be use, for neutralization of sulfuric acid in the soft tissue?
A. * 2.5 \%, Mr. Sodium bicarbonate
B. 1-2 \% Mr. acetic acid
C. 0.1 \%, Mr. potassium permanganate
D. 3 \% Mr. hydrogen peroxide
E. 1-2 \% Mr. citric acid
40. In patients during surgery extraction of 18 teeth suddenly appeared cold sweat on the face
and skin. He felt tinnitus and blur in the eyes, and then lost consciousness. SC 95/70. What
factors may contribute to the emergence of this complication during surgery?
A. * Psycho emotional tension, fear of surgical manipulation.
B. Rheumatic heart disease.
C. Chronic kidney disease.
D. Chronic bronchitis.
E. No right answer
41. Patients 28 years have penetrating knife wounds of cheek plot. 10 days after the surgical
operation, there have been wounds fester. On next week he has bleeding from the facial
artery. What type of bleeding may occur in patients?
A. * Late secondary
B. Early secondary
C. Primary
D. Secondary recurrent
E. No right answer
42. Patient 56 years old. Diagnosis: exacerbation of chronic apical periodontitis. Associated
disease of this patient is severe diabetes. Conservative treatment proved unsuccessful.
What further tactics of dentist?
A. * Extraction
B. Resection of upper roots
C. No right answer
D. All answer are right
E. Tooth root amputation
43. Patient 43 asked to the dentist. He complaining of sharp pain near tooth 45 in the time of
eating. After oral examination, the doctor made the diagnosis: acute purulent Periodontitis.
Which symptom is most characteristic of this disease?
A. * Sharp painful percussion of the affected tooth.
B. Presence of deep carious cavity.
C. Pathologic tooth mobility.
D. No right answer
E. All answer are right
44. Dentist was summoned for consultations in the maternity ward. Pregnant R., 20,
complained of the presence of painless tumors germ alveolar mucosa of the upper jaw, the
appearance of which no more than links. After the dental examination was made the
diagnosis: epulis of pregnant. What should be the therapeutic tactics?
A. * Generally, she don’t need special treatment
B. Surgical technique.
C. Drug therapy.
D. Physiotherapy.
E. No right answer
45. Patient D., 25, received poli trauma a result of an accident. During examination diagnosed
dislocation asphyxia. First aid in asphyxia dislocation:
A. * The withdrawal of the tongue forward and fixing it.
B. Tracheotomy.
C. Carrying out artificial ventilation.
D. Drug elimination stenos of the larynx.
E. No right answer
46. Child 2 years old fell at the floor and banging her front upper teeth. 61 tooth became
mobile. Cloth around the tooth is damaged. On radiograph alveolar germ significantly
expand periodontal gap 61 of the tooth root is not damaged. Put a diagnosis.
A. * Partial dislocation of a tooth
B. Full dislocation of the tooth
C. Convoluted dislocation of the tooth
D. Alveolar fracture germ
E. No right answer
47. Patient S., 45, asked the surgeon dentist complaining of obstructed mouth opening that day
is gone. In history - ten days ago was contaminated open wound of the lower jaw.
OBJECTIVE: lockjaw masseter second degree, "sardonically" smile. All teeth intact. What
diseases may suspect the patient?
A. * Tetanus
B. No right answer
C. All answer are right
D. Charley central genesis
E. Acute arthritis
48. Patient seat near dentist office waiting for their turn. Suddenly he fell, appeared hoarsely
breathing, convulsive twitch arms and legs, face and body became pale in color expanded
optical reaction missing, blood pressure and pulse on peripheral arteries are not detected.
What is the extreme condition characterized by symptoms of this?
A. * Clinical death
B. Collapse
C. Anaphylactic shock
D. No right answer
E. All answer are rigth
49. Patient complains of the presence on mucous membrane tumors of the left cheek.
OBJECTIVE: in the oral cavity is localized in the left cheek, clear-cut, tight, with a smooth
surface not painful tumor, size 0.7 x 1.2 cm, covered with the same mucous membrane.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. * Fibroma of left cheek.
B. Small retention cyst of salivary gland
C. Small adenoma of salivary glands
D. No right answer
E. All answer are right
50. When you remove the tooth 46 in patient R., 34 years old, appeared a brief clouding of
consciousness, Pulse weak and frequent, SC 90/60 mm Hg What complications during the
surgery takes place?
A. * Fainting.
B. Vascular collapse.
C. Hypertensive crisis.
D. Myocardial infarction
E. Anaphylactic shock.
Test tasks to figure
1. On image 1 . Hard tissues of the tooth are:
A. *1,2,6,12
B. 3, 4, 5
C. 7, 2
D. 10, 11
E. 8, 9
2. On image 1 . Soft tissues of the tooth are:
A. 8
B. 7
C. *3, 4, 5
D. 10.12
E. 1, 2
3. On image 1. Where indicated tooth enamel ?
A. *1
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12
E. 2
4. On image 1. Where indicated coronal dentine of the tooth ?
A. 3
B. 7
C. *2
D. 6
E. 12
5. On image 1 . Dentine of the tooth root is marked:
A. 5
B. 11
C. 8
D. *6
E. 1
6. On image 1 . Cement of the tooth root is marked:
A. 10
B. 8
C. 7
D. 3
E. *12
7. On image 1 . In what number marked periodont?
A. 5
B. *11
C. 7
D. 4
E. 2
8. On image 2 . The second branch of the trigeminal nerve is marked by :
A. 11
B. 3
C. 5
D. 4
E. *1
9. On image 2.Upper rear alveolar branches of nerve maxilla are marked by :
A. *3
B. 1
C. 8
D. 7
E. 6
10. On image 2 .Where indicated nerve infraorbitalis ?
A. 5
B. 9
C. *4
D. 12
E. 11
11. On image 2 . Small "goose foot" is marked by :
A. 7
B. *9
C. 3
D. 5
E. 11
12. On image 2 .Back superior dental plexus marked by:
A. 6
B. 8
C. 9
D. *5
E. 2
13. On image 2 .Superior medial dental plexus marked by :
A. *6
B. 8
C. 9
D. 5
E. 2
14. On image 2. Upper front dental plexus marked by :
A. 6
B. 8
C. *7
D. 5
E. 2
15. On image 3. Semilunar ganglion marked by :
A. *1
B. 18
C. 14
D. 5
E. 16
16. On image 3.The first branch of the trigeminal nerve (orbital nerve) indicated:
A. 7
B. 9
C. 4
D. *3
E. 6
17. On image 3. Mandible nerve, which is the third branch of the trigeminal nerve is indicated:
A. 13
B. 1
C. 3
D. 10
E. *12
18. On image 3 .Lingual nerve is marked:
A. *15
B. 12
C. 17
D. 18
E. 7
19. On image 3 . Buccal nerve indicated:
A. 10
B. *16
C. 4
D. 8
E. 12
20. On image 3 .Submentall nerve is marked :
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. *9
E. 3
21. On image 4 .Palpation of what croup of peripheral lymph nodes are shown:
A. Cervical
B. Submental
C. Behind mandibull nerv
D. *Submandibullar
E. Occipital
22. On image 5 .Palpation of peripheral lymph nodes are shown:
A. *Cervical
B. Submandibull
C. Behind mandibull
D. Submental
E. Occipital
23. On image 6. Touching the tongue include:
A. In the subjective part of the main survey
B. The advanced instrumental methods of examination
C. Additional laboratory test methods
D. *The main objective of the survey
E. All answers correct
24. On image 7.What kind of X-ray examination shows:
A. Intaraoaral aiming dental
B. *Ortopantomohrafiya
C. X-ray photo of TMJ
D. X-ray photo of nasal cavity
E. Sialografiya
25. On image 8 .In the dental X-ray image marked enlargement periodontal cracks, Diagnosis :
A. Pulpitis
B. Fluorosis
C. *Fibrous chronic periodontitis
D. Caries
E. Acute serous periodontitis
26. On image 9 .What method of X-ray discovering shows :
A. Haymorografia
B. Bone graft
C. *Sialografiya
D. Angiography
E. No correct answer
27. On image 10. At the X-ray image , bone defects appear round shape d = 0,5 cm, with clear
boundaries in the area of roots Molyara . Diagnosis:
A. Pulpitis
B. Fibrous chronic periodontitis
C. *perapical cysts of chronic periodontitis
D. Chronic pulpitis
E. Acute serous periodontitis
28. On image 11 . On this X-ray photo ,we can see :
A. *The results of endodontic treatment of teeth
B. Sealing fisur
C. General therapy
D. Surgical treatment of chronic periodontitis
E. No correct answer
29. On image 12 . Which the local nerve block shown:
A. Infraorbital
B. Tuberal
C. *Incisor
D. Palatine
E. Mandibular
30. On image 12 .What nerve is blocked during incisor anesthesia:
A. *Nasal – palatine
B. Mental
C. Infraorbital
D. Tongue
E. No right answer
31. On image 13 .The technique of which the local nerve block show n:
A. *Infraorbital, intraoral method
B. Tuberal
C. Incisor
D. Palatinal
E. Infraorbital, extraoral method
32. On image 13 . What nerve is blocked during incisor anesthesia:
A. Nasal- palatine
B. Mental
C. *Infraorbital
D. Tongue
E. No right answer
33. On image 14.The technique of which of the local nerve block shown:
A. *Infraorbital, extraoral method
B. Tuberal
C. Incisor
D. Palatine
E. Mandible
34. On image 15 .The technique of which the local nerve block is shown:
A. Infraorbital
B. Tuberal
C. Incisor
D. Palatynal
E. *Manditubular, intra oral method
35. On image 15 .What nerve is blocked during this anesthesia:
A. Nasal- palatine
B. Mental
C. Infraorbital
D. Tongue
E. *mandible and tongle
36. On image 16.The technique of which the local nerve block shown:
A. Infraorbital
B. Mental, extraoral method
C. Incisour
D. Palatine
E. *Mental, intraoral method
37. On imagw 17. The technique of which the local nerve block shown:
A. Infraorbital
B. *Mental, extraoral method
C. Incisour
D. Palatine
E. Mental,intra oral way
38. On image 18.The technique of which the local nerve block shown:
A. Infraorbital
B. Mental
C. Incisour
D. Palatine
E. *Central nerve block
39. On image 19.The technique of which the local nerve block shown:
A. Infraorbital
B. Mental
C. Incisor
D. *Palatine
E. Central nerve block
40. On image 19 .What nerve is blocked during this anesthesia:
A. Nasal –palatine
B. Mental
C. Infraorbital
D. Tongue
E. *Greater palatine nerve
41. In image 20 .This X-ray confirms the diagnosis:
A. Chronic periodontitis
B. Radykulyar cyst
C. Rezydual cyst
D. Fracture of mandible in the area of angle
E. *Atypical position of the tooth wisdom
42. On image 21. What disease we can see on this X-ray photo ?
A. Frontitis
B. Osteomyelitis
C. *Genyantritis
D. Periodontitis
E. Periostitis
43. On image 22 .Sub nasal fracture of the maxilla is marked:
A. *1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 1, 2
E. No right answer
44. On image 23 . What you can see on this X-ray photo ?
A. Traumatic fracture of the maxilla by Le Fort I
B. Traumatic fracture of the maxilla with Le Fort II
C. Traumatic fracture of the maxilla by Le Fort III
D. *Germ alveolar fracture of the upper jaw
E. A full dislocation of teeth
45. On image 24 .What you can see on this X-ray photo:
A. Central fracture of mandible
B. *Mental fracture of mandible
C. Fracture of mandible in the area of angle
D. All answers correct
E. Chronic periconaritis
46. On image 25 .What you can see on this X-ray photo :
A. Fracture of mandible in the area of angle
B. Germ articular fracture of mandible without displacement of fragments
C. *Germ articular fracture of mandible with displacement of fragments
D. Central fracture of mandible
E. No correct answer
47. On image 26 .Immobilisation jaw fragments held by:
A. Smooth tires – staplit
B. Smoothly split with stud
C. Interdental split binding
D. *Ribbon split with offensive part and rubber traction
E. No correct answer
48. On image 27 .On this scheme shows the mechanism:
A. *Reposition of front jawfall
B. Reposition of rear jawfall
C. Conducting a pressure test
D. No correct answer
E. Reposition of right jawfall
49. On image 28 .This X-ray photo ,help us confirms the diagnosis of:
A. Follicular cyst
B. *Root cysts
C. Paradental cysts
D. True A, C
E. No correct answer
50. On image 29 . This tool is used to:
A. *To remove the teeth of upper jaw
B. To remove the teeth of lower jaw
C. For resection
D. To extract an erupted tooth
E. No correct answer
51. On image 30 . This forcepts tool are:
A. To remove the teeth of upper jaw
B. *To remove the teeth of lower jaw
C. For resection
D. To extract an erupted tooth
E. No correct answer
52. On image 31.This tool is used to:
A. To extract Odontogenic cysts
B. To extract not odontogenic cysts
C. For resection
D. *To extraction of root
E. No right answer