Medical English Practice test
1. The combining form of tears is
A: blephar/o
B: hidr/o
C: dacry/o
D: aque/o
2. Myopia is
A: farsightedness
B: nearsightedness
C: astigmatism
D: anisometropia
3. Condition in which hard new bone develops around the oval window is
A: perforated tympanic membrane
B: preauricular node
C: meatal atresia
D: otosclerosis
4. Excessive mucal secretion from bronchial mucous membranes
A: bronchorraphy
B: bronchorrhagia
C: bronchospasm
D: bronchorrhea
5. Discomfort in breathing that is relieved by sitting or standing
A: bradypnea
B: orthopnea
C: tachypnea
D: dyspnea
6. A sheet of fibrous connective tissue separating and binding together muscles, organs, and other soft
structures all over the body is referred to as
A: fascia
B: elastic tissue
C: collagenous tissue
D: loose connective tissue
7. A muscle ring that is responsible for expansion and contraction around orifices such as the anus is
A: cardia
B: sphincter
C: isthmus
D: fascia transversalis
8. The perirenal fat surrounds the
A: the calyces and blood vessels
B: the hilus
C: the pelvis
D: the kidney
9. The pylorus is the ________ part of the pyloric portion
A: distal
B: proximal
C: transverse
D: external
10. The valve between the small intestine and the large intestine is called
A: caecorectal
B: pyloric
C: jejunocaecal
D: ileocaecal
11. Insulin is secreted by the pancreas when
A: blood sugar level is high
B: blood sugar level is low
C: glucagon is secreted
D: the gallbladder secretes bile
12. Water retention that may lead to edema is related to a hypersecretion of
A: aldosterone
B: cortisone
C: thyroxin
D: follicle stimulating hormone
13. In a strict sense, the posterior pituitary is not an endocrine gland because it
A: has a rich blood supply
B: does not make hormones
C: Is not near the brain
D: contains ducts
14. The part of the ear which detects changes in both motion and posture is the
A: interoreceptors
B: vestibular system
C: ciliary muscles
D: incus
15. The stiffening or immobility of a joint resulting from disease, trauma, surgery or bone fusion is
A: paraplegia
B: hunch back
C: ankylosis
D: spondylitis
16. A furrow that accommodates soft structures such as a blood vessel, nerve or tendon is
A: meatus
B: groove
C: foramen
D: fossa
17. The combining form of ankle bone is
A: carp/o
B: tars/o
C: rachi/o
D: ten/o
18. A partition or dividing wall within an anatomical structure is referred to as
A: septum
B: valve
C: cusp
D: flap
19. Histiocytes may move about in the tissue, removing cell “remains” from the tissue spaces. “Remain” means
A: loss
B: sheath
C: additives
D: debris
20. Arterial walls have three
A: bursae
B: pouches
C: tunicae
D: lumens
21. Growth by active division of cell is called
A: proliferation
B: polycythaenia
C: hyperextension
D; polymorphism
22. Any dry condition is referred to as
A: ichtyosis
B: necrosis
C: keratosis
D: xerosis
23. A fluid-filled sac that contains pus or lymph is a
A: pustule
B: bulla
C: blister
D: suppuration
24. A gland that arises from the walls of hair follicles is called
A: sudoriferous gland
B: sweat gland
C: arrector pili
D: sebaceous gland
25. Cracks in the skin are referred to as
A: erosions
B: ulcers
C: fissures
D: plaques
26. A knoblike vascular indentation of the bottom of the hair follicle is a/an
A: root
B: shaft
C: papilla
D: lunula
27. Excessive sweating is
A: sebosis
B: hidrosis
C: hydrosis
D: sudoroma
28. Some melanomas occur below the fingernail and they are referred to as
A: subonychosis
B: sublunula
C: subungual
D: subaxillary
29. A small dark spot or lump on someone’s skin is a
A: lentigo
B: mole
C: freckle
D: lesion
30. Prophylaxis means
A: a surgical procedure
B: preventive treatment
C: a special treatment
D: removal of a part
31. Which cellular layer of the epidermis is the only one capable of producing new cells ?
A: stratum corneum
B: stratum germinativum
C: stratum lucidum
D: stratum granulosum
32. Epithelium is a type of
A: contracting tissue
B: lining tissue
C: secreting tissue
D: conducting tissue
33. The canal of the spinal cord widens out when it reaches the brain to form a system of
A: fossas
B: ventricles
C: orbits
D: sockets
34. A membrane that is attached to the intestines and holds them in place is
A: omentum
B: peritoneum
C: mesentery
D: perineum
35. The opening into the duodenum from the common bile duct is called the
A: hepatopancreatic ampulla
B: cystic duct
C: ampulla of Vater
D: hepatic duct
36. The cuspid tooth is also known as the
A: canine
B: wisdom
C: central incisor
D: molar
37. The process of joining two surfaces along a line in the stomach is referred to as
A: gastropexy
B: gastroclasia
C: gastrorrhaphy
D: gastrostomy
38. Parenteral administration of medicine means
A: through the mouth
B: through the intestines
C: intubation
39: Smooth muscle fibers on either side of the uterine cervix and the rectum is
A: myouterorectal muscle
B: cervicorectal muscle
C: uterorectal muscle
D: myorectouterocervical muscle
40. Cirrhosis is
A: cancerous tumor in the liver
B: cancerous tumor in a viscus
C: tumor in any organ in the abdomen
D: tumor in the liver
D: none of them
41. Improper meeting of teeth and jaws is
A: malocculusion
B: dysdentation
C: maldentation
D: dysgingivosis
42. Calculi in the salivary gland is
A: linguolith
B: glossolith
C: sialolithiasis
D: sialosis
43. A word that means under one of the pelvic bone is
A: supraischial
B: subpubic
C: intrapubic
D: externaliliac
44. The fascia of the cheek and the pharynx is named as the _______ fascia
A: nasopharyngeal
B: glossopharyngeal
C: buccopharyngeal
D: laryngopharyngeal
45. Removal of a fingernail is
A: epidermoid
B: keratoma
C: diaphoresis
D: onychectomy
46. _________ administration of drugs is not a method of parenteral administration
A: intramuscular
B: subcutaneous
C: intradermal
D: oral
47. A disorder in which there is an increase in the number of red blood cell is
A: thrombocytopenia
B: polycythemia
C: cyanemia
D: leukocytosis
48. insufficient blood flow to an area is termed
A: infarction
B: ischemia
C: cardiomyopathy
D: carditis
49. Effusion of fluid into the air spaces and tissue spaces of the lungs is called
A: pleuropneumonia
B: pneumonitis
C: pulmonary edema
D: pulmonary insufficiency
50. How does the distal tubule compare with the proximal tubule ?
A: the distal tubule is farther from the glomerulus
B: the distal tubule is farther from the renal pelvis
C: the distal tubule is nearer the Bowman’s capsule
D: the distal tubule is farther from the renal artery
51. Hypertrophy of any organ is referred to as
A: splenomegaly
B: megalogastria
C: visceromegaly
D: viscerogenic
52. Radiography of a blood vessel is
A: vasography
B: vasogram
C: vasorrhaphy
53. Diverticulum is reffered to as
A: a furrow
B: a pouch
C: a duct
D: a fossa
D: vasoscopy
54. Inflammation of the eye is
A: omphalitis
B: otitis
C: otitics
D: ophthalmitis
55. Congenital absence of the teeth is called
A: anodontia
B: macrodontia
C: microdontia
D: maldontia
56. Inflammation of the tissue around the large intestine is
A: perichondritis
B: pericolitis
C: perienteritis
D: pericystitis
57. Pertaining to only one side is
A: dorsoventral
B: unilateral
C: biconcave
D: medial
58. Presence of blood in the urine is
A: hematuria
B: uremia
C: urinrrhagia
D: uremesis
59. Normal contraction of the heart is
A: eusystole
B: euthanasia
C: eudiastole
D: eurrhythmia
60. The combining form of gum is
A: cheil/o
B: bucc/o
C: gingiv/o
D: dent/o
61. The membrane which encases and supports the tooth is the
A: cementum
B: enamel
C: bone
D: periodontal membrane
62. Incision of a salivary gland is
A: sialoadenotomy
B: sialoadenectomy
C: sialoadenostomy
D: sialoadenorrhexis
63. A form of part that is folded or coiled such as the one in the nephron is reffered to as
A: oblique
B: bent
C: curved
D: convoluted
64. Which word does not mean an “opening” ?
A: orifice
B: meatus
C: crest
D: foramen
65. Find a synonym to “branching of blood vessels”
A: anastomosis
B: ramification
C: vagotomy
D: hiatus
66. A film of mucus and bacteria on the surface of the tooth
A: dental plaque
B: dental ridge
C: dental lamina
D: dental sac
67. A lymphoid tissue growth located at the back of the nose in the upper part of the throat
A: tonsils
B: adenoids
C: adenohypophysis
D: nodules
68. Weakening, damage or deterioration, especially as a result of injury or disease is
A: impairment
B: impediment
C: impedance
D: innervation
69. Pertaining to the large intestine
A: enteric
B: colic
C: gastric
D: sigmoid
70. The wave like muscular contractions of tubular structures that propel the contents onward is referred to as
A: peristalsis
B: periostasis
C: periectasis
D: peritasis
71. The superficial layer of the skin is known as the epidermis, the deeper layer is known as
A: the subcutaneous
B: the superficial fascia
C: the corium
D: the germinativum
72. The only material that keeps hair becoming dry and brittle is called
A: sudor
B: verruca
C: acne vulgaris
D: sebum
73. Any disease of hair is
A: trichosis
B: trichoma
C: trichopathy
D: alopecia
74. To excrete or to expel body wastes especially urine is
A: to secret
B: to ingest
C: to void
D: to vomit
75. Discharge of pus is
A: pyorrhea
B: pyorrhexis
C: pyrrhagia
D: pyosis
76. The parietal pleura __________ the thoracic cavity
A: covers
B: lines
C: is coated
D: surrounds
77. The lidlike structure that covers the larynx during the swallowing of food is
A: glottis
B: epiglottis
C: trachea
D: uvula
78. The atrioventricular valve of the heart on the same side the SA node is
A: bicuspid
B: tricuspid
C: semilunar
D: mitral
79. A backflow of liquid against its normal direction of movement is referred to as
A: reflex
B: refraction
C: reflux
D: regression
80. The medial ends of the clavicles deepen the suprasternal indentation, where indendation means
A: orifice
B: notch
C: circumflex
D: sinus
81. Venae cavea is a plural form of the two biggest ___________
A: arteries
B: arterioles
C: veins
D: vessels
82. Myelocele means
A: a tumor composed of cells normally found in the bone marrow
B: hernial protrusion of the spinal cord through a defect in the vertebral column
C: morbid softening of muscle tissue
D: muscle weakness caused by a CNS abnormality
83. What is the correct category for the term cachexia ?
A: anatomical
B: diagnostic
C: radiological
D: surgical
84. Thyrotoxicosis is caused by which of the following ?
A: goiter
B: exophthalmos
C: hyperthyroidism
D: hypothyroidism
85. What is somatotropin ?
A: a substance that causes the release of hormones from the adenohypophysis
B: a substance that causes the release of hormones from the neurohypophysis
C: a substance that stimulates the ovaries and testes
D: a substance that stimulates the body’s growth
86. The organ or structure toward which the effects of a hormone are directed is
A: an adenohypophysis
B: a varix
C: a target gland
D: a tarsus
87: Which of the following means degeneration ?
A: deterioration
B: lesion
C: collapse
D: hernia
88. Good development of tissue literally means
A: atrophy
B: dystrophy
C: maltrophy
D: eutrophy
89. Efferent means
A: carrying of blood to an organ
B: minute blood vessels
C: designating vessels that drain blood from an organ
D: carrying of impulses into a center of action
90. Inflammation of the stomach and the intestines is
A: gastrocolitis
B: gastroenteritis
C: gastroenterocolitis
D: gastropericolitis
91. Which of the following means “squeeze tightly” ?
A: vasodilation
B: angioma
C: vasoconstriction
D: vasoectasia
92. A lesion or scar in the lining of the stomach or duodenum is referred to as
A: hernia
B: ulcer
C: tumor
D: hemorrhage
93. Aplasia means absence of
A: breathing
B: formation
C: speech
D: voice
94. Hyperventilation may lead to a loss of acid by the body, which is called
A: acidosis
B: alkalosis
C: acid-base balance
D: acid-base compensation
95. A respiratory disorder characterized by destruction of the alveolar walls is
A: bronchitis
B: emphysema
C: hemoptysis
D: aplasia
96. Epinephrine is
A: a glucocorticoid
B: a mineralocorticoid
C: a hormone that helps the body resisit stress
D: a hormone that influences the development of masculine sex characteristics
97. The term for displacement of a bone from its normal position in a joint is
A: dislocation
B: sprain
C: strain
D: twist
98. Pain in a joint is
A: arthragia
B: arthritis
C: arthroma
D: arthrdynia
99. Hardening of a muscle is
A: myelostenosis
B: myosclerosis
C: myomalacia
D: myodynia
100. __________ are bands of fibrous tissue that connect bones or cartilages and serve to support joints
A: ligaments
B: tendons
C: articulations
D: sinuses
101. The presence of excessive amounts of urea and other nitrogenous waste compounds in the blood is
A: hematuria
B: urease
C: urinrrhagia
D: uremia
102. The semiliquid mass of partly digested food is
A: bolus
B: chyme
C: emesis
D: bulk
103. Brachial artery supplies the
A: head
B: neck
C: arm
D: leg
104. All arteries of the systemic circulation branch from the
A: aorta
B: pulmonary artery
C: superior vena cava
D: pulmonary arteries
105. Anteriorly the head of the pancreas is in contact with the transverse colon means
A: The head of the pancreas is posteriorly related to the transverse colon
B: The head of the pancreas is in contact with the transverse colon posteriorly
C: The transverse colon is behind the head of the pancreas
D: The head of the pancreas lies anterior to the transverse colon
106. The soft tissue inside the tooth is referred to as
A: enamel
B: endodontium
C: dentin
D: periodontal membrane
107. A disorder of bones closely related to decreased activity of osteoblasts due to a hormone deficiency is
A: osteomyelitis
B: osteosarcoma
C: osteoporosis
D: osteopathy
108. Which term means paralysis of an eyelid ?
A: blepharospasm
B: ophthalmalgia
C: blephroplegia
D: blepharoplasty
109. Subarachnoid means
A: below certain neuroglial cells
B: below a certain type of membrane
C: below the necessary amount of medication needed for it to be effective
D: resembling medications that cause tetany
110. In paraplegia
A: the upper limbs are affected only
B: the lower limbs are affected only
C: one leg is affected only
D: one arm is affected only
111. An adjective that means concerning the back part of the head
A: temporal
B: occipital
C: parietal
D: cerebellum
112. Which of the following is not a word that pertains to some type of viscera ?
A: colic
B: renal
C: pneumo
D: phreno
113. The name of the largest nerve in the body arising from the sacral nerves on either side is
A: sciatic nerve
B: vagus nerve
C: lumbar nerve
D: cauda equine
114. Sudden attack of sleep occurring at intervals is
A: nocturnal
B: narcolepsy
C: idiopathy
D: epilepsy
115. ___________ is a noise in the ears, such as ringing, buzzing, roaring, clicking, etc
A: vertigo
B: mastoiditis
C: Meniere’s syndrome
D: tinnitus
116. Any disease involving the brain and the spinal cord is
A: cephalomyopathy
B: cephalomyelopathy
C: encephalomyopathy
D: encephalomyelopathy
117. Carpopedal pertains to the
A: wrist bone
B: carpus and the foot
C: metacarpals
D: carpus and the hand
118. _________ is stoppage of lymph flow
A: lymphocytosis
B: lymphostasis
C: lymphocclusion
D: lymphopoiesis
119. Powerful contraction of the intestine usually accompanied by pain is
A: enteropathy
B: enterocele
C: enterocolitis
D: enterospasm
120. The inner ear ___________ the vestibule, the cochlea and the semicircular canals
A: contain
B: consists of
C: made up of
D: is composed from
121. The pia mater ___________ the spinal cord
A: lines
B: is covered by
C: coats
D: is surrounded by
122. Which describes best “cervical hyperflexion” ?
A: fracture of a vertebra
B: distortion of spinal cord
C: dislocation of a vertebra forward
D: distortion of spinal cord and dislocation of a vertebra forward
123. Accumulation of blood inside the brain is referred to as
A: epidural hematoma
B: subbural hematoma
C: intracerebral hematoma
D: intermeningial hematoma
124. Inflammation of the joints of the spine is referred to as
A: spondylarthritis
B: vertebralarthritis
C: spinearthritis
D: bursitis
125. Few means
A: oligo-
B: poly-
C: dendro-
D: astro-
126. Crushing of a nerve is
A: neurorrhaphy
B: neuralgia
C: neurotripsy
D: neurectomy
127. Loss of transparency of the crystalline lenses of the eye or of its capsule is
A: catabolism
B: cataract
C: casts
D: chalazion
128. Another name for the gum is
A: gingival
B: mucosa
C: cheilosis
D: endodontium
129. Slow digestion is another word for
A: tachypepsia
B: bradypepsia
C: eupepsia
D: dyspepsia
130. The duodenum is the ___________ part of the small intestine
A: medial
B: lower
C: distal
D: proximal
131. In surgery an artificial connection between two tubular organs or parts is
A: anastomosis
B: diverticulum
C: gastrotomy
D: proctoplasty
132. The gray matter that covers the brain is called the
A: cerebral tissue
B: cerebral hemisphere
C: cerebral cortex
D: diencephalon
133. A condition caused by formation of spondy bone in the ear is
A: auricosclerosis
B: otosclerosis
C: auditosclerosis
D: autosclerosis
134. Inflammation of the cornea is
A: conjunctivitis
B: iritis
C: stye
D: keratitis
135. Which part of the nervous system carries impulses to involuntary muscles, glands ?
A: somatic
B: autonomic
C: central
D: afferent
136. The presence of lacrimal calculi is referred to as
A: lacrimation
B: dacryolith
C: dacryocyst
D: dacryolithiasis
137. Sensation occurring in the absence of the appropriate stimulus is
A: psychosomatic
B: psychopathic
C: obsession
D: pseudesthesia
138. ____________ is the winglike projection of the ear
A: helix
B: tragus
C: pinna
D: concha
139. The condition when more blood cells than are normally produced by the bone marrow is referred to as
A: erythrocytosis
B: leukocytosis
C: hematopoiesis
D: hemophilia
140. The cross section of the kidney is
A: roughly circular
B: circular
C: oval
D: bean-shaped
141. Any disease of the liver is
A: hepatitis
B: hepatoma
C: hepatemia
D: hepatopathy
142. Excessive urination is
A: polyhydrosis
B: polyuria
C: polythermia
D: polydipsia
143. Formation of nucleus is referred to as
A: karyogenesis
B: nucleidgenesis
C: carotidgenesis
D: nucleolus
144. Stickiness of blood is called
A: viscosity
B: hemophilia
C: density
D: coagulopathy
145. The shape which is curved inwards is referred to as
A: convex
B: biconcave
C: concave
D: protrusion
146. When the vision is better for distant objects is called
A: myopia
B: diplopia
C: hyperopia
D: astigmatism
147. The long process of a nerve fiber that generally conducts impulses away from the cell body
A: dendrite
B: axon
C: astrocyte
D: oligodendrocyte
148. A network of nerves is refereed to as
A: ramus
B: anastomosis
C: matrix
D: plexus
149. Notochord means
A: an indentation in a bone
B: a strip of mesodermal tissue that develops along the dorsal surface of the early embryo
C: a flat disc of tissue
D: the fluid-filled cavity surrounding the developing embryo
150. Directed away from a central organ or section such as a blood vessel is referred to as
A: vena cava
B: afferent arteriole
C: efferent arteriole
D: vein
151. The function of the sinusoids is ___________ the filtered blood from the red pulp
A: collecting
B: to collect
C: collect
D: to have collected
152. X-ray examination of the spinal cord after injection of air is
A: myelography
B: pneumomyelography
C: myelogram
D: pneumomyelogram
153. Cells which provide special support and protection also called “glue cells” are
A: neuroglia cells
B: neurolemma cells
C: astrocytes
D: oligodendrocytes
154. The thalamus and the hypothalamus make up the
A: brain stem
B: cerebellum
C: diencephalon
D: mesencephalon
155. Preventive treatment of a disease is referred to as
A: intrathrcal
B: prophylactic
C: puncture
D: audiology
156. The combining form of eyelid is
A: ophthalm/o
B: ocul/o
C: blephar/o
D: bulb/o
157. The bony, cone-shaped space in front of the skull in which the eyes sit is referred to as the
A: fossa
B: orbit
C: foramen
D: meatus
158. The trunk is the body __________ the head and the limbs
A: excluding
B: including
C: containing
D: consisting of
159. A thrombus is
A: a substance that dissolves a blood clot
B: a clot inside a blood vessel
C: spontaneous dissolution of a blood clot
D: another name for hemolysin
160. The outside opening and passage through which sound waves pass to the ear canal is
A: external auditory foramen
B: external auditory sinus
C: external auditory ossicles
D: external auditory meatus
161. Which describes best the “field of vision” ?
A: the point at which rays of light meet
B: the measurement of how far the eye can see in all directions
C: when the eye is in a fixed position and it is capable of viewing abjects in all directions
D: the focusing of rays of light by the lens
162. Tough, fibrous tunic, outer envelope covering all of the eyeball except the cornea is the
A: sclera
B: retina
C: choroid
D: pupil
163. Hernial protrusion of part of the meninges and the spinal cord through a defect of the
A: myelocele
B: meningomyelocele
C: meningocele
D: spondylocele
164. A small bodily cavity or sac is
A: fossa
B: follicle
C: orbit
D: notch
165. Gutters beside the vertebrae is referred to as
A: perivertebral gutters B: intervertebral gutters C: paravertebral gutters D: retrovertebral gutters
166. The lungs extend _________ about one inch above the collarbone _________ the diaphragm
A: －, to
B: from, below
C: from, to
D: at, to
167. The combining form of secrete is
A: end/o
B: crin/o
C: endocrin/o
D: endogen/o
168. Which is the correct order of the parts of the large intestine ?
A: from the ileum to the ascending colon splenic flexure, transverse colon, etc
B: from the ileum to the cecum, ascending colon, hepatic flexure, transverse colon
C: from the ileum to the descending colon, hepatic flexure, transverse colon
D: from the ileum to the jejunum, cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon
169. Inflammation of the visceral layer of the heart is
A: endocarditis
B: pericarditis
C: epicarditis
D: myocarditis
170. The proximal part of the large intestine is
A: rectum
B: vermiform
C: ascending colon
D: cecum
171. Any disease of the mouth
A: somatodynia
B: stomatopathy
C: stomatodynia
D: somatitis
172. A vessel that supplies blood to the myocardium is called
A: an aorta
B: a vena cava
C: a venule
D: a coronary artery
173. The condition in which the veins are swollen and knotted is called
A: phlebosclerosis
B: phlebitis
C: varicose veins
D: arteriolitis
174. The name of the small mass of tissue in the heart where the heart beat originates
A: AV node
B: Purkinje
C: SA node
D: His
175. A decreased pulse rate is
A: defibrillation
B: bradycardia
C: tachycardia
D: dysrhythmia
176. Inflammation of the ear is
A: otitis
B: otitic
C: otis
D: otitics
177. A developmental abnormality in which there is absence of one or both eyes at birth or the presence of
vestigial eyes is
A: dysophthalmia
B: anophtalmia
C: ophthalmitis
D: ophthalmopathy
178. A respiratory disorder characterized by destruction of the alveolar walls is
A: bronchitis
B: emphysema
C: hemoptysis
D: aplasia
179. Pulmonary embolism means
A: congestion and engorgement of the pulmonary vessels
B: a painful condition caused by pleural adhesions
C: a morbid softening of the lungs
D: obstruction of the pulmonary artery or one of its branches