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It is referred to as the physical and biotic habitat which surrounds us, that which we can
see, touch and smell.
a) Ecology
c) Environment
b) System
d) Community
It consists of several interacting populations occupying the same habitat at the same time.
a) Ecology
c) Community
b) Habitat
d) Species
It is the soil mantle that wraps the core of the earth.
a) Lithosphere
c) Atmosphere
b) Hydrosphere
d) Biosphere
It is the application of science and engineering principles to minimize the adverse effects
of human activities to the environment.
a) Ecology
c) Environmental Science
b) Anthropology
d) Environmental Engineering
The following are abiotic factors of the ecosystem except
a) Rainfall
c) Sunlight
b) Plants
d) Temperature
Of the energy coming from the sun, only ______ is captured by plants and stored as
chemical bonds?
a) 1 to 2%
c) 5 to 8%
b) 3 to 4 %
d) 8 to 10%
It is a community of organisms and population interacting with one another and with the
physical and chemical factors making up their environment.
a) Ecology
c) Biosphere
b) Biodiversity
d) Ecosystem
It is the feeding of one organism upon another in a linear sequence of food transfers?
a) Food Web
c) Food Pyramid
b) Food Chain
d) Food Consumption
The starting point of all food chains and food webs is _________
a) Plants
c) Humans
b) Animals
d) Microorganisms
These are benefits human derive from the ecosystem functions.
a) Food Chain
c) Ecology
b) Ecosystem Services
d) Environment
Human attain spiritual inspiration from which category of ecosystem services
a) Provisioning Services
c) Regulating Services
b) Supporting Services
d) Cultural Services
Which of the following best describes Sustainable Development :
a) It is considered to be development that meets the needs of the present and
compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
b) It is the type of development that results to zero emissions and zero
environmental impact.
c) It is considered to be development that meets the needs of the present without
compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
d) It is the type of development that meets the needs of the present.
What is the process by which water is evaporated from plants?
a) Infiltration
c) Evaporation
b) Percolation
d) Transpiration
14. What are the main products of photosynthesis?
a) Oxygen & Water
c) Carbon Dioxide & Water
b) Oxygen & Nitrogen
d) Carbon Dioxide & Nitrogen
15. Which of the following natural phenomena plays a part in the nitrogen cycle?
a) Evaporation
c) Lightning
b) Snow
d) Rain
16. Most nitrogen is found in ________
a) Soil
c) Plants
b) Atmosphere
d) Water
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17. All of the following biogeochemical cycles involve the atmosphere as either sink or
reservoir except:
a) Water
c) Nitrogen
b) Carbon
d) Phosphorus
18. Water from oceans constitute ____ of the global water supply.
a) 97.5%
c) 70%
b) 75%
d) 25%
19. It is an identifiable source of pollution with specific point of discharge into a particular
water body.
a) Point Source
c) Influent
b) Non-Point Source
d) Effluent
20. The following are consumptive water usage except
a) Water used for hydropower generation
b) Laundry wastewater
c) Water used in washing dishes
d) Water used in toilets
21. These are among the commonly considered physical characteristics of water except:
a) Odor
c) pH
b) Turbidity
d) Temperature
22. Eutrophication is caused by
a) Acids and Bases
c) Hazardous Chemicals
b) Inorganic Nutrients
d) Suspended Solids
23. Inorganic nutrients may come from:
a) Cement Industry
c) Detergent Industry
b) Beverage Industry
d) Food Industry
24. The following are examples of water borne infectious diseases except
a) Hepatitis
c) Typhoid Fever
b) Dengue Fever
d) Gastroenteritis
25. It is the local Philippine regulation issued by DENR for the classification of water bodies.
a) DAO 32
c) DAO 34
b) DAO 33
d) DAO 35
26. It is the local Philippine regulation issued by DENR that sets the standards for wastewater
effluents.
a) DAO 32
c) DAO 34
b) DAO 33
d) DAO 35
27. Fresh surface water intended primarily for waters with watershed are classified as:
a) Class AA
c) Class CC
b) Class BB
d) Class XX
28. The Clean Water Act of the Philippines refers to this as wastewater, partially or completely
treated, or in its natural state, flowing out of a manufacturing, industrial or treatment plant.
a) Runoff
c) Effluent
b) Rainwater
d) Leachate
29. As provided in the Clean Water Act of the Philippines, the setting, revision and
enforcement of drinking water quality standards is the role of
a) DSWD
c) DPWH
b) DOTC
d) DOH
30. The following are the goals of wastewater treatment except
a) Removal of solids
b) Removal of organic matter
c) Restoration of oxygen
d) Recycling of nutrients
31. The amount of oxygen used by bacteria and other wastewater organisms as they feed
upon the organic matter in the wastewater.
a) Total Organic Carbon (TOC)
b) Volatile Organic Carbon (VOC)
c) Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD)
d) Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD)
32. In wastewater treatment, screen bars are used to
a) Remove settleable solids
b) Remove flotable solids
c) Remove organic content
d) Remove coarse solids and other large materials
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33. Equipment employed in primary wastewater treatment include the following except
a) Bar Screens
c) Comminutors
b) Aerators
d) Grit Chamber
34. Grease and oil are removed from wastewater by
a) Skimming
c) Neutralization
b) Screening
d) Aeration
35. In wastewater, it is the process of bringing water and air into close contact in order to
remove gases such as carbon dioxide and to oxidize dissolved metals such as iron.
a) Settling
c) Aeration
b) Screening
d) Adsorption
36. Which of the following is not a product from sludge treatment process?
a) Methane
c) Carbon Dioxide
b) Water
d) Nitrogen
37. The objective of secondary wastewater treatment processes is
a) Remove dissolved oxygen
b) Remove flotable soldis
c) Remove coarse solids
d) Remove bulk organic content
38. It is the term used for the mixture of sea water and fresh water.
a) Aquifer
c) Water Table
b) Brackish Water
d) Groundwater
39. It is the most common wastewater treatment disinfection method used due to its easy and
cheap implementation.
a) Ozonation
c) UV Disinfection
b) Chlorination
d) Membrane Separation
40. Which among the following are addressed in the tertiary wastewater treatment?
a) Oil and Grease
c) Heavy Metals
b) Solids
d) Organic Content
41. The following are tertiary treatment processes except
a) Carbon Adsorption
c) Ion Exchange
b) Disinfection
d) Screening
42. It is a type of usage of water which renders it unavailable for future use.
a) Preserving
c) Consumptive
b) Conserving
d) Non-Consumptive
43. Water quality and availability are affected by the following except
a) Drought
c) Erosion
b) Global Warming
d) Forest Fires
44. Which of the following is an example of non-consumptive water usage?
a) Treated industrial wastewater
b) Water used for irrigation
c) Water used in carwash stations
d) Water used in washing dishes
45. Which of the following gases was not included by the Kyoto Protocol for controlling and
monitoring?
a) Carbon Dioxide
c) Methane
b) Water Vapor
d) Nitrous Oxide
46. Air pollutants that are produced by the combination of two or more primary pollutants
through chemical reactions are _______
a) Primary Pollutants
c) Tertiary Pollutants
b) Secondary Pollutants
d) None of the Above
47. The major source of air pollution in big cities is _______
a) Industries
c) Transportation
b) Power Plants
d) Domestic Cooking
48. Mobile sources of air pollutants include the following except
a) Airplanes
c) Cars
b) Motorcycles
d) Coal Fired Power Plant
49. It is a toxic gas that binds to haemoglobin leading to a shortage of body oxygen supply.
a) Carbon Dioxide
c) Ammonia
b) Carbon Monoxide
d) Nitrous Oxide
50. Smoke density is measured using this chart.
a) Color Chart
c) Boltzmann Chart
b) Pie Chart
d) Ringelmann Chart
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51. It is the DENR Administrative Order (DAO) pertaining to Air Quality for Pollution Control.
a) DAO 34
c) DAO 14
b) DAO 35
d) DAO 15
52. Which of the following are provisions of the Clean Air Act of the Philippines (RA 8749)?
a) Ban on Smoking in enclosed spaces
b) Ban on any form of incineration
c) Air Quality Management Systems
d) All of the Above
53. It is a geographic area with similar characteristics related to air quality.
a) Watershed
c) Landshed
b) Airshed
d) Forestshed
54. A major industrialized country that had not signed the Kyoto Protocol on the grounds of
impairing the country’s economic capacity.
a) Japan
c) USA
b) China
d) Philippines
55. Which of the following mechanisms and processes were agreed on to be stabilized by the
Kyoto Protocol?
a) Greenhouse Gases & Carbon Market
b) Climate Change
c) Ozone Layer Depletion
d) Air Degradation
56. It is the measure of the exclusive global amount of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse
gases emitted by a human activity?
a) Nitrogen Footprint
c) Oxygen Footprint
b) Carbon Footprint
d) Sulfur Footprint
57. It is an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out ozone
depleting substances.
a) Kyoto Protocol
c) Basel Convention
b) Montreal Protocol
d) Stockholm Convention
58. It is the element in Chlorofluorocarbon (CFC) that breaks away by the action of UV light
and involves in the destruction of stratospheric ozone.
a) Chlorine
c) Carbon
b) Fluorine
d) All of the Above
59. According to the Montreal Protocol, it is the target year of recovery of the ozone layer.
a) 2050
c) 2060
b) 2055
d) 2065
60. Ozone is ______
a) Monoatomic oxygen
c) Triatomic oxygen
b) Diatomic oxygen
d) None of the Above
61. It is a phenomenon that occurs when any form of precipitation (rain, snow, etc.) removes
acid from the atmosphere and delivers it to the earth’s surface.
a) Acid Dry Deposition
c) Acid Precipitation
b) Acid Wet Deposition
d) Acid Condensation
62. These are major pollutants that cause acid deposition produced during the combustion of
fossil fuels.
a) Sulfur Dioxide
c) Both (a) and (b)
b) Nitrogen Oxides
d) None of the Above
63. The following are identified as greenhouse gases except
a) Carbon Dioxide
c) Methane
b) Nitrous Oxide
d) Nitrogen
64. Which of the following is not an adverse effect of Global Warming?
a) Increase in average Earth Temperature
b) Rise in average sea level
c) Extreme weather conditions
d) All of the above
65. It is a pollution control device that removes pollution particles from gas streams.
a) Wet Scrubbers
c) Settling Chamber
b) Catalytic Converter
d) Absorbers
66. These are air pollution control systems to reduce particulate matter except
a) Catalytic Converter
c) Electrostatic Precipitators
b) Wet Scrubbers
d) Dust Cyclones
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a)
b)
67. The following are air pollution reduction practices except
a) Refueling of car in the evening
b) Use of acrylic-based paints
c) Keeping of vehicles in good condition
d) Avoiding spilling of gas
68. These are pollutants directly emitted from a process and have a direct contact to humans
and the environment.
a) Primary Pollutants
c) Tertiary Pollutants
b) Secondary Pollutants
d) None of the Above
69. It encompasses activities in which materials are identified as no longer of value and are
either thrown out or gathered for disposal
a) Waste Transport
c) Waste Storage
b) Waste Handling
d) Waste Generation
70. Corn, cobs, bagasse and rice hulls are considered _______ solid wastes.
a) Commercial
c) Domestic
b) Industrial
d) Agricultural
71. It refers to large worn-out or broken household, commercial and industrial appliances.
a) White goods
c) Yard Waste
b) E-waste
d) Agricultural Waste
72. It is the most desirable method of waste minimization.
a) Source Reduction
c) Recycling
b) Waste Treatment
d) Waste Disposal
73. The hierarchy of solid waste management is
a) Treatment – Reduce – Reuse – Recycle – Disposal
b) Reduce – Reuse – Recycle – Treatment – Disposal
c) Disposal – Reuse – Reduce – Recycle – Treatment
d) Recycle – Reuse – Reduce – Treatment – Disposal
74. These are among the means to reduce solid wastes except
a) Buying products with complex packaging
b) Using of cloth napkins instead of paper napkins
c) Using reusable containers for food and beverages
d) Printing on back pages of documents
75. The most important elemental ratio to achieve composting of waste materials is
a) Carbon to Nitrogen
c) Phosphorus to Nitrogen
b) Potassium to Nitrogen
d) Sulfur to Nitrogen
76. In compost, the optimum elemental ratio referred to in the previous number is
a) 30:1
c) 10:1
b) 60:1
d) 100:1
77. The greens in composting refer to
a) Carbon-rich wastes
c) Phosphorus-rich wastes
b) Oxygen-rich wastes
d) Nitrogen-rich wastes
78. Which of the following is a controlled thermal treatment of disposing solid wastes?
a) Landfill
c) Composting
b) Incineration
d) Open Dumping
79. Incinerators are considered the largest sources of these toxic compounds.
a) Dioxins
c) Both (a) and (b)
b) Furans
d) Neither (a) nor (b)
80. It is the very foul-smelling liquid collected at the bottom of a landfill.
a) Effluent
c) Seepage
b) Precipitate
d) Leachate
81. It is an important gas that is convertible to energy produced in sanitary landfills as a result
of anaerobic decomposition of solid waste.
Ozone
c) Nitrogen
Oxygen
d) Methane
82. The purpose of monitoring wells in landfill is
a) For aesthetic purposes
b) To determine if groundwater is contaminated by leachate
c) To provide a means for addition of reagents to the landfill
d) To serve as a means of collecting leachate
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83. The following are among the government agencies composing the National Solid Waste
Management Commission under the Ecological Solid Waste Management Act of 2000.
a) Department of Environment and Natural Resources (DENR)
b) Department of Interior and Local Government (DILG)
c) Metro Manila Development Authority (MMDA)
d) Department of Education (DepEd)
84. Which of the following is not a provision of the Ecological Solid Waste Management Act?
a) Mandatory waste segregation prior to collection
b) Promotion of eco-labeling in local products and packaging materials
c) Prohibition of open dumping and dump sites
d) None of the Above
85. It refers to all discarded household, commercial, non-hazardous institutional and industrial
waste.
a) Toxic Waste
c) Solid Waste
b) Hazardous Waste
d) Agricultural Waste
86. It is one of the simplest and earliest forms of waste disposal where it consists of a mound of
combustible solid wastes piled on bare ground and set on fire.
a) Burn Barrel
c) Moving Grate
b) Burn Pile
d) Rotary Kiln
87. It is known as the Ecological Solid Waste Management Act of 2000.
a) RA 9003
c) RA 9275
b) RA 6969
d) RA 8749
88. It is also known as the Philippines’ Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Waste
Control Act of 1990?
a) RA 9003
c) RA 9275
b) RA 6969
d) RA 8749
89. The following are characteristics of hazardous wastes except
a) Reactivity
c) Ignitability
b) Corrosivity
d) Stability
90. It is any chemical or mixture that may be harmful to the environment and to human health
if inhaled, swallowed or absorbed through the skin.
a) Toxic Substances
c) Household Wastes
b) Agricultural Wastes
d) Solid Wastes
91. The Stockholm Convention was designed to control and eliminate
a) Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)
b) Ozone Depleting Substances (ODS)
c) Greenhouse Gases (GHGs)
d) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
92. PCB is identified as one of the 12 original POPs. PCB means
a) Polycaffeinated Biphenyls
b) Polycarbonated Biphenyls
c) Printed Circuit Boards
d) Polychlorinated Biphenyls
93. It refers to the build up of POPs and other hazardous substances in fats of humans and
animals.
a) Bioaccumulation
c) Bioaugmentation
b) Biomagnification
d) Biostimulation
94. The following are key characteristics of POPs except
a) Persistence
c) Volatility
b) Bioaccumulation
d) Toxicity
95. It is a list of existing and new chemicals that the DENR has determined to potentially pose
unreasonable risk to public health and environment
a) Chemical Control Order
b) Priority Chemical List
c) Pre-Manufacture and Pre-Importation Notification
d) Environmental Compliance Certificate
96. It is a series of International Standards for Environmental Management Systems (EMS).
a) ISO 9000
c) ISO 14000
b) ISO 12000
d) ISO 18000
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97. It is the process of predicting the likely environmental consequences of implementing
projects or undertakings.
a) Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)
b) Environmental Compliance Certificate (ECC)
c) Environmental Compliance Order (ECO)
d) Environmental Impact Survey (EIS)
98. Which of the following is a benefit of establishing EMS?
a) Improve environmental performance
b) Enhance overall productivity
c) Save money and increase profits
d) All of the Above
99. It is a tool for the systematic evaluation of the environmental aspects of a product or
service system through all the stages of its life cycle.
a) Life Cycle Assessment
c) Life Cycle Identification
b) Life Cycle Evaluation
d) Life Cycle Optimization
100. An Environmental Management Systems (EMS) model organizes its components through
this model.
a) Act – Do – Check – Plan
b) Plan – Check – Do – Act
c) Do – Plan – Check – Act
d) Plan – Do – Check – Act
The supreme reality of our time is the vulnerability of our planet.
– John F. Kennedy
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