3rd SCW TEST
1.
The firing cycle steps of a standard weapon are as follows:
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.
The ___________ was established to provide relieving battalions
with a status/condition evaluation of CESE.
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.
Feeding, cocking, locking, firing, extracting.
Loading, chambering, firing, unlocking, extracting, ejecting.
Loading, chambering, locking, firing, unlocking.
Feeding, chambering, locking, firing, unlocking, extracting,
ejecting, cocking.
ARP
BEEP
POL
CREEP
What is the responsibility of the Commanding Officer with regard
to the safety program?
A. Ensure that everyone is advised of and follows policies.
B. Ensures that everyone on the job site wears appropriate
safety equipment.
C. Conducts 5 minute safety lectures.
D. Ultimately responsible for all safety matters within the command.
4.
What is the responsibility of the Executive Officer with regard to
safety?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.
What is the responsibility of the Safety Officer?
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.
To
To
To
To
be responsible for all safety matter within the command.
serve as an advisor to the CO on safety issues.
conduct all safety lectures within the command.
act as the chairman of the Safety Counsel.
What is the responsibility of all hands with regard to safety?
A.
B.
C.
D.
7.
Chairman of the Safety Policy Counsel.
Conducts Project Safety Reports.
Is an advisor to the CO on safety issues.
Writes all command safety instructions.
Follow all established safety policies.
Conduct all safety training.
Distribute safety posters and safety paraphernalia.
None of the above.
What is the purpose of a Mishap Investigation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
To
To
To
To
establish blame so NJP proceedings can be initiated.
establish the cause of the mishap and prevent reoccurrence.
create a paper trail for the Safety Officer.
let the Naval Safety Center know what happened.
1
8.
When is a mishap investigated?
A.
B.
C.
D.
9.
Who is responsible for conducting a mishap investigation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10.
The
The
The
The
injured employee.
shop/project supervisor.
Safety Officer.
Company Chief.
What is a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) used for?
A.
B.
C.
D.
11.
When an individual has been injured to the point of disability.
When a mishap occurs while on duty.
Any time a mishap occurs, on or off duty.
When a mishap results in a death.
Reordering HAZMAT by the Supply Department.
Filing in project packages.
Identifying what items are safe to inhale.
Containing safety information on the product or chemical.
When are personnel required to enter into a hearing conservation
program?
A. When their workspace exposes them to noise levels greater than 104
decibels.
B. When their workspace exposes them to noise levels greater than 84
decibels.
C. When they regularly use or operate heavy equipment.
D. When assigned to shops which have excessively noisy equipment
installed.
12.
State when single hearing protective devices are required.
A.
B.
C.
D.
13.
When using all electrical power tools and cords.
On all office equipment and computer LANs.
On all power tools that doesn’t have a monthly inspection tag.
On all 120/208 volt, 3 phase power sources.
What types of respirators are available, today?
A.
B.
C.
D.
15.
noise levels are between 84 and 104 dB.
noise levels are greater than 104 dB.
noise levels are between 61 and 85 dB.
when equipment has a sign stating it’s required.
When are ground fault circuit interrupters (GFCI) required?
A.
B.
C.
D.
14.
When
When
When
Only
Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus.
Particulate respirator.
Air supplied.
All of the above.
What are the minimum requirements for respirator use?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Know how to identify respiratory hazards.
Know how to properly care for the respirator.
Have a proper fit test and donning procedure training.
All of the above.
2
16.
What is the main purpose of the Navy Recreation, Athletics, and Home
Safety Program?
A. To prevent active duty personnel from playing sports
related activities that might interfere with their Navy duties.
B. To enhance the command safety training program.
C. To prevent any recreational, athletic, or home accidents.
D. To protect personnel from accidental death or injury,
which occur in the home and during recreational activities.
17.
When are steel toed boots required to be worn?
A.
B.
C.
D.
18.
In all shops.
On all project sites.
Both A & B.
When working on a construction sites (except for mechanics).
What is the importance of the Command Asbestos Policy?
A. To eliminate asbestos exposure.
B. To make personnel aware of asbestos hazards.
C. To prevent personnel from working in any area that appears to have
asbestos.
D. All of the above.
19.
What is the Navy’s policy on the use of portable headphones or other
listening devices while on base?
A.
B.
C.
D.
20.
Why are rubber aprons required to complete some tasks safely?
A.
B.
C.
D.
21.
provide protection to the torso when handling chemicals.
keep shirts and pants clean.
provide protection for the feet.
provide protection from airborne bacteria.
Aid given
Emergency
Emergency
Permanent
by trained medical personnel.
care given to a sick or injured person.
care that takes the place of medical care all the time.
assistance given to an injured person.
What is the purpose of first aid?
A.
B.
C.
D.
23.
To
To
To
To
What is the definition of first aid?
A.
B.
C.
D.
22.
May not be used while operating a vehicle.
May not be used when jogging or walking.
Both A & B.
None of the above.
To save lives.
To provide resistance to infection.
To prevent further injury.
All of the above.
What is the ratio of chest compressions to breaths for 2 person CPR?
A.
B.
C.
D.
15 to 1.
1 to 15.
5 to 1.
1 to 5.
3
24.
If an artery is cut, how will blood exit the wound?
A.
B.
C.
D.
25.
If a victim shows signs of shock and the injuries permit, which of the
following actions should you take?
A.
B.
C.
D.
26.
Weak, Bluish, Dry.
Strong, Bluish, Moist.
Weak, Pale, Moist.
Strong, Pale, Dry.
Two major problems of injuries, which include broken skin, are _________
and ___________?
A.
B.
C.
D.
31.
Blood circulation is seriously disturbed.
Too much carbon dioxide in the blood.
Circulatory interference resulting from internal injuries.
Too little oxygen in the blood.
A victim in shock often feels ___________, his skin is _______________,
and feels cold and ____________?
A.
B.
C.
D.
30.
Supporting carry.
Fireman’s carry.
Pack-strap carry.
Saddleback carry.
Shock is defined by which of the following conditions?
A.
B.
C.
D.
29.
Creating nerve damage, paralysis, and death.
Decontamination of chemical agents.
Reversal of the effects of nerve agents.
Sterilization of water.
What method is the easiest for one person to lift and carry a casualty?
A.
B.
C.
D.
28.
Elevate the feet 6 to 12 inches.
Elevate the head 6 to 12 inches.
Elevate the legs to 45 degrees.
Keep the victim flat.
Atropine is a substance used for:
A.
B.
C.
D.
27.
Seeping.
In a steady stream.
Spurting.
The wound should not bleed.
Serious bleeding and loss of function.
Infection and disfigurement.
Loss of function and appearance.
Infection and serious blood loss.
What is a pressure point?
A. A point
B. A place
muscle.
C. A place
bone.
D. A point
where the blood pressure drops low enough to stop bleeding.
where the artery is protected on all sides by bone and
where the artery is close to the skin surface and over a
where an artery is near the wound.
4
32.
How many pressures points, which may be used to control bleeding,
are on each side of the body?
A.
B.
C.
D.
33.
What heat exposure injury results from a loss of excessive amounts of
salt and water?
A.
B.
C.
D.
34.
and
and
and
and
calm.
windy.
windy.
calm.
Magazine fed automatic weapon.
Magazine fed, gas operated, semi-automatic or automatic weapon.
Single load, single shot weapon.
Magazine fed, single shot weapon.
550
400
500
440
meters and 800 meters.
yards and 700 yards.
yards and 800 yards.
meters and 770 meters.
What is the capacity of a M16A2E3 magazine?
A.
B.
C.
D.
38.
dry,
wet,
dry,
wet,
What are the maximum effective ranges of the M16A3E3 for a point and
area target?
A.
B.
C.
D.
37.
Cold,
Cold,
Cold,
Cold,
What type of rifle is the M16A2E3?
A.
B.
C.
D.
36.
Heat exhaustion
Heat stroke.
Sun stroke.
Sun poisoning.
What type of weather causes the most severe cold injuries?
A.
B.
C.
D.
35.
8
9
11
13
25
30
35
40
rounds.
rounds.
rounds.
rounds.
A misfire in a weapon is when a weapon malfunctions and continues to
fire.
A. True.
B. False.
C. Maybe.
39.
Which sites are adjustable on the M16A2E3 rifle?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Front site only.
Rear sites only.
Front and rear sites.
No sites are adjustable.
5
40.
What size ammunition does the M16A2E3 use?
A.
B.
C.
D.
41.
The delay in the functioning of a fired round.
The complete failure of a round to fire.
The strike of a round off target.
When a weapon malfunctions and continues to fire.
After every use.
After every 5 uses.
Monthly.
After each use plus monthly.
What are the shooting positions when qualifying with the M16A2E3 rifle?
A.
B.
C.
D.
47.
yards.
meters.
meters.
yards.
How often should you clean any weapon?
A.
B.
C.
D.
46.
25
50
30
50
A runaway in a weapon is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
45.
7 rounds.
5 rounds.
10 rounds.
15 rounds.
What is the maximum effective range of the M9-pistol?
A.
B.
C.
D.
44.
Fully automatic handgun.
Semi-automatic, recoil operated, magazine fed hand weapon.
Semi-automatic, gas operated, handgun.
None of the above.
What is the maximum capacity of the M9-pistol magazine?
A.
B.
C.
D.
43.
mm.
mm.
mm.
mm.
What type of weapon is the M9-pistol?
A.
B.
C.
D.
42.
6.62
7.62
5.56
7.76
Standing, sitting, and prone.
Standing, sitting, and kneeling.
Sitting, kneeling, and laying.
Sitting and standing only.
Which grenade launcher attaches to the M16A2E3 rifle?
A.
B.
C.
D.
40mm
60mm
80mm
None
grenade launcher.
grenade launcher.
grenade launcher.
of the above.
6
48.
What is the maximum effective range of the M60 machine gun?
A.
B.
C.
D.
49.
How many personnel make up a M60 gun team?
A.
B.
C.
D.
50.
3.
5.
6.
9.
The M67 is what type of grenade?
A.
B.
C.
D.
53.
Before firing.
After firing.
After each cleaning.
It is never checked.
How many different types of grenades are there in use in the NCF?
A.
B.
C.
D.
52.
2.
3.
4.
5.
When should the headspace on the M2HB.50 cal be checked?
A.
B.
C.
D.
51.
900 meters.
1100 meters.
1300 meters.
1500 meters.
Chemical.
Incendiary.
Illumination.
Fragmentation.
The safety pin on the MK1 Illumination grenade can be replaced after
being pulled.
A. True.
B. False.
C. Maybe.
54.
The M57 firing device is used with:
A.
B.
C.
D.
55.
Grenades.
The 80mm mortar.
The M18A1.
None of the above.
What do all grenade bodies have in common?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The are hollow and hold a filler.
The have the same filler.
They have nothing in common.
They are round.
7
56.
The maximum effective range of the M2HB.50 cal machine gun is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
57.
Air
Air
Air
Air
cooled grenade launcher.
cooled, blowback operated, fully automatic machine gun.
cooled, recoil operated, fully automatic machine gun.
cooled, gas operated, semi or full automatic grenade launcher
Ammo pouches.
Canteen.
MCU-2/P.
Suspenders.
Which of the following is the simplest fighting position.
A.
B.
C.
D.
63.
Dummy.
Tracer.
Blank.
Ball.
Which of the following items is NOT normally attached on the web belt of
the 782 gear?
A.
B.
C.
D.
62.
Conventional only
Hand held only.
Both A & B.
None of the above
The MK19 Mod 3 is a _____________________
A.
B.
C.
D.
61.
1.
2.
3.
None
What type of ammunition has a red or orange tip?
A.
B.
C.
D.
60.
machine gun have?
What are the methods of firing the M224 60mm mortar?
A.
B.
C.
D.
59.
meters.
meters.
meters.
meters
How many safeties, other than the gunner, does the M2
A.
B.
C.
D.
58.
1500
6800
1830
1100
Hasty individual position.
Improved one man fighting position.
Improved two man fighting position.
None of the above.
Which action should you take if caught at night in the light of a ground
flare while on a security patrol?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Drop and freeze.
Lay on the ground.
Move out of the area as quickly and quietly as possible.
Move toward the enemy.
8
64.
How many basic colors are used on a military map?
A.
B.
C.
D.
65.
What does the color brown signify on a military map?
A.
B.
C.
D.
66.
Man made features.
All relief features.
Vegetation.
Water features.
How many patrol planning and preparation steps are there?
A.
B.
C.
D.
67.
3.
4.
5.
6.
6.
8.
10.
12.
The objective of defense is to hold ground already occupied, and keep it
clear of the enemy.
A. True.
B. False.
C. Maybe.
68.
What is the first priority of defense in depth?
A.
B.
C.
D.
69.
Which of the following is not an echelon of a defense?
A.
B.
C.
D.
70.
Security area.
Bivouac sites.
Forward defense area.
Reserve area.
Who is responsible for the discipline, appearance, and training of a
squad?
A.
B.
C.
D.
71.
Surprise.
Security.
Unity of Command.
All of the above.
Fire Team Leader.
Rifleman 1.
Squad Leader.
Rifleman 2.
Who carries the M203 Grenade launcher in a squad?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Squad Leader.
Grenadier.
Automatic Rifleman.
Rifleman 1.
9
72.
If you are a prisoner of war, what information do you give to your
captors?
A.
B.
C.
D.
73.
What is the second general order of a sentry?
A.
B.
C.
D.
74.
Your name and rank.
Name, rank, date of birth and unit.
Nothing at all.
Your name, rank, social security numbers and date of birth.
Take charge of my post and all government property in view.
To quit my post only when properly relieved.
To talk to no one except in the line of duty.
None of the above.
When camouflaging, you should camouflage against both ground and air
observation.
A. True.
B. False.
C. Maybe.
75.
The weapons platoon commander is usually whom?
A.
B.
C.
D.
76.
How many combat positions are used in a defense?
A.
B.
C.
D.
77.
3 to 10 miles.
12 to 20 miles.
30 to 60 miles.
up to 3000 miles.
The TA-312/PT telephone has a range of how many miles?
A.
B.
C.
D.
79.
1.
2.
3.
4.
What is the range of the AN/PRC 119A radio?
A.
B.
C.
D.
78.
Master Chief Petty Officer.
Chief Petty Officer.
First Class Petty Officer.
Lieutenant Commander.
8 to 12.
14 to 22.
28 to 33.
38 to 45.
By stacking the SB-22/PT switchboard, how many lines can be
served?
A.
B.
C.
D.
17.
24.
29.
34.
10
80.
What is the least secure means of communication?
A.
B.
C.
D.
81.
When transmitting from your station to another, the
comes back to you with a response of: BEADWINDOW-03.
response be?
A.
B.
C.
D.
82.
Proword.
Precedence.
Cautionary.
Net Control.
Combat Operations Center.
Central Operations Center.
Center of Confusion.
Combat Office Central.
What term is used to identify a security breech of EEFI, (Essential
Elements of Friendly Information), over a clear circuit?
A.
B.
C.
D.
85.
I say again.
Do not answer.
Roger out.
Relay.
The acronym COC stands for:
A.
B.
C.
D.
84.
Precedence.
Roger.
Wilco.
Beadwindow.
Chemical agents are used to produce death, injury and temporary
incapacitating or irritating effects.
A. True.
E. False.
C. Maybe.
86.
Which of the following are anti-personnel agents?
A.
B.
C.
D.
87.
receiving station
What would your
To expedite radio traffic, you use a word or phrase that has been
assigned a specific meaning for radio and telephone transmission
purposes. This word is known as a ___________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
83.
Communication wire.
Radio.
Messenger.
Arm and Hand signals.
Casualty agents.
Non-lethal incapacitating agents.
Harassing agents.
All of the above.
What is a NAAK, Mark 1?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A first aid kit.
A CBR gas mask.
A nerve agent antidote kit.
An incapacitating agent.
11
88.
Which of the following is the standard field protective mask?
A.
B.
C.
D.
89.
The
The
The
The
MK-5.
MCU-2P.
M16A1.
MK-6.
What should all Seabees know about a biological attack?
A. It is normally impossible to recognize or detect.
B. It may be used to supplement other types of attacks.
C. It may be used to cause either delayed death or incapacitation for
strategic purposes.
D. All of the above
90.
How many MOPP levels are there in the NMCB Tactical SOP?
A.
B.
C.
D.
91.
2.
3.
5.
6.
MOPP is a flexible system of protection against chemical agents used to
facilitate mission accomplishment in chemical warfare.
A. True.
B. False.
C. Maybe
92.
How many personnel are required to run an efficient Personnel
Decontamination Station?
A.
B.
C.
D.
93.
How long will the permeable protective clothing provide protection after
exposure to CBR agents?
A.
B.
C.
D.
94.
6.
9.
11.
13.
6 hours.
6 days.
14 hours.
14 days.
The automatic chemical agent alarm will be the primary means of
detecting chemical agents arriving in a unit area from an upwind
chemical attack.
A. True.
B. False.
C. Maybe
95.
Who is responsible for the operation of the Mount Out Control Center
(MOCC)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The
The
The
The
Commanding Officer.
Executive Officer.
Admin Officer.
Alfa Company Commander.
12
96.
What manual governs the handling of hazardous cargo for air, land and
sea movements?
A.
B.
C.
D.
97.
What are the three-color classifications used in determining convoy road
routes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
98.
6.
13.
36.
42.
What is the maximum height cargo can be loaded on a 463L pallet?
A.
B.
C.
D.
100.
Green, yellow and red.
Red, white and blue
Black, brown and white
Green, gray and blue
How many 463L pallets will fit onboard a C-141 Starlifter aircraft?
A.
B.
C.
D.
99.
NAVSUP PUB 485.
NAVFAC PUB 314.
CBPAC/CBLANT INST 4400.3A.
NAVSUP PUB 505.
88 inches.
96 inches.
100 inches.
106 inches.
Which formula is used to determine the center of balance of a vehicle?
A. (W1 x D1) + (W2 x D2)
GVW
B. GW divided by 2
C. (W1 + D1)
GVW
D. (W1 x D1) - (W2 x (D2)
GVW
101.
Minor property is valued between?
A.
B.
C.
D.
102.
Plant property has a useful life of how long?
A.
B.
C.
D.
103.
$1.00 and $50.00.
$1.00 and $100.00.
$300.00 and $1,000.00.
$300.00 and $5,000.00.
6
2
1
3
months to 1 year.
or more years.
to 2 years.
to 6 months.
Every construction project is required to have a Bill of Material (BM).
A. True.
B. False.
C. Maybe.
13
104.
COSAL listings are computed to allow a unit to be self sufficient for
how long?
A.
B.
C.
D.
105.
To
To
To
To
establish Seabee billets onboard ships.
provide amphibious construction support.
repair underwater facilities.
provide minor construction on the beach.
Fix it and maintain it.
Fleet Hospital support or NMCB augment.
Support the self-help programs for Navy Personnel.
Maintenance and repair of real property.
What is the main function of Charlie/Delta Company in a Naval Mobile
Construction Battalion (NMCB)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
111.
Motor pool when returning a vehicle.
Police stations when filing a report.
Shore Patrol facilities when filing a report.
On site before leaving the scene of an accident.
In today's Navy, what is the contingency function of a Construction
Battalion Unit (CBU)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
110.
DD 214
DD 1348
COMCBPAC/COMCBLANT 4400/3
NAVSUP 1149
What is the main function of an Amphibious Construction Battalion
(PHIBCB)?
A.
B.
C.
E.
109.
records?
An operators report of a motor vehicle accident form (SF 91) must be
completed at the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
108.
Delete an item from an allowance list.
Add an item to an allowance list.
Increase/decrease allowance quantities.
All of the above.
What form is used to keep camouflage utility uniform
A.
B.
C.
D.
107.
Days.
Days.
Days or 1,200 construction hours.
days or 1,800 construction hours.
What is the NAVSUP 1220-2 used for?
A.
B.
C.
D.
106.
45
60
60
90
All horizontal construction.
All vertical construction.
Maintenance of all equipment.
All utilities.
What does EDVR stand for?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Enlisted
Enlisted
Enlisted
Enlisted
Data Verification Report.
Distribution and Verification Report.
Data Volume Report.
Distribution Vocational Requirements.
14
112.
What is an EDVR?
A.
B.
C.
D.
113.
yearly statement of an activity's enlisted personnel account.
quarterly statement of an activity's enlisted personnel account.
semi-annual statement of an activity's enlisted personnel account.
monthly statement of an activity's enlisted personnel account.
In which publication will you find the Personnel Readiness Capability
Program (PRCP)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
114.
A
A
A
A
NAVFAC
NAVFAC
NAVFAC
NAVFAC
P-485.
P-458.
P-450.
P-350.
What is the purpose of the PRCP?
A. To provide accurate, up to date personnel information so the NCF can
accomplish its mission.
B. To be used as a management tool ONLY!
C. To provide accurate, up to date information to the company commander.
D. To create more paperwork for the training petty officer.
115.
Which form below is the vehicle trip ticket?
A.
B.
C.
D.
116.
Warehouse equipment.
Weight handling equipment.
Work horses equipment.
Weight hoists equipment.
Battalion
Battalion
Battalion
Battalion
early exit program.
equipment evaluation program.
equipment expectancy program.
equipment exhaust program.
How are causeways transported with an amphibious group?
A.
B.
C.
D.
119.
1970.
1342.
1155.
1149.
What is BEEP?
A.
B.
C.
D.
118.
Form
Form
Form
form
What is WHE?
A.
B.
C.
D.
117.
DD
DD
DD
DD
Air transports.
Side loads on a LST.
Convoy.
All of the above.
What is required before issuing project material?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A
A
A
A
properly
properly
properly
properly
prepared
prepared
prepared
prepared
1348.
1250-1.
1336/3.
1250-2.
15
120.
What are the correct procedures for Rapid Runway Repair?
A. Clean/sweep runway, repair craters, position matting, assemble
matting and paint runway.
B. Identify craters, place fill, clean/sweep runway, repair craters,
position matting and assemble matting, anchor matting and paint
runway.
C. Identify craters, repair craters, deliver stock pile and place select
fill, clean/sweep runway, assembles matting, position matting, anchor
matting and paint runway.
D. Identify craters, deliver stock pile and place fill, repair craters,
position matting, assemble matting, anchor matting and paint runway.
121.
How many personnel need to be trained at battalion level one and two in
order to satisfy the requirements of Rapid Runway Repair (RRR)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
122.
at
at
at
at
level
level
level
level
one,
one,
one,
one,
90
60
26
20
at
at
at
at
level
level
level
level
two.
two.
two.
two.
What is the acronym used for the post, which controls the embarkation
operations?
A.
B.
C.
D.
123.
60
90
40
46
ACOC.
COC.
MOCC.
CMC
Why is it important to have quality control and project safety plans
contained in the project package?
A. To ensure that all materials are used and safety lectures are given.
B. To ensure standards of construction are maintained and work is being
performed in a safe manner.
C. Quality control prevents discrepancies and safety plans are used as a
basis for safety lectures.
D. Safety plans are used as a guide to perform a job safely and Quality
control is used to match the requirements in the plans and
specifications.
124.
Construction activity summary sheets are used to identify all material,
personnel resources, equipment needed and all quality control and safety
requirements.
A. True.
B. False.
C. Maybe.
125.
In the ABFC system, how many parts are contained in volume
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.
3.
4.
5.
16
two?
126.
For each day you anticipate using the straddle trench latrine, how much
deeper should it be dug?
A.
B.
C.
D.
127.
133.
Alignment.
Situating.
Orientation.
Organization.
XO
CO
S4
A6
35
35
30
30
feet.
yards.
yards.
feet.
35 yards.
50 yards.
100 feet.
100 yards.
Radio call signs would be listed in which portion of a five-paragraph
order?
A.
B.
C.
D.
132.
day.
day.
day.
day.
What is the minimum distance a garbage pit can located from water
supplies?
A.
B.
C.
D.
131.
each
each
each
each
What is the minimum distance a garbage pit can be located from messing
facilities?
A.
B.
C.
D.
130.
for
for
for
for
Who directs and controls embarkation operations?
A.
B.
C.
D.
129.
ft.
ft.
ft.
ft.
_______________________is the process of adjusting a map so that north
on the map faces true north and is performed with the aid of a compass.
A.
B.
C.
D.
128.
1
2
3
4
Situation
Mission
Execution
Command and signal
What minimum treatment is required for collected rainwater that is to be
used as a water source?
A. Filtration only.
B. Disinfection only.
C. Filtration and Disinfection.
D. Aeration and Filtration.
How many feet of detonation cord come with the M18A1 Claymore mine?
A.
B.
C.
D.
30 ft.
50 ft.
80 ft.
100 ft.
17
134.
Normally, how long should a generator be allowed to warm up before a
load is applied?
A.
B.
C.
D.
135.
When designating a point on a map grid, you read:
A.
B.
C.
D.
136.
Signal aircraft.
Signal friendly troops.
Illuminate the battle area.
Warn of infiltrating enemy troops.
What power the TA-1PT field phone?
A.
B.
C.
D.
138.
Left then down.
Right then up.
Left then up.
Right then down.
The primary use of surface trip flares is to __________________________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
137.
5 minutes.
15 minutes.
30 minutes.
1 hour.
Voice.
Batteries.
Field wire.
Solar cells.
While on patrol, you encounter an enemy trinket in the roadway, you
should pick it up as a souvenir.
A. True.
B. False.
C. Maybe.
139.
When a patrol encounters a mine or booby trap they should _____________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
140.
What are the three fire team formations commonly used in patrolling?
A.
B.
C.
D.
141.
Mark and report it.
Mark and destroy it.
Destroy it.
Defuse it.
Flanking, Wedge, Frontal.
Wedge, Column, Skirmisher.
Skirmisher, Column, Assault.
Column, Skirmisher, Security.
Which type of organization is considered ideal for security patrols?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Squad.
Platoon.
Company.
Fire team.
18
142.
Which rally point is within friendly areas where the patrol can
reassemble if it becomes dispersed before departing?
A.
B.
C.
D.
143.
Objective.
Secondary.
Initial.
Enroute.
Once the danger area is cleared, all personnel cress the area at same
time.
A. True.
B. False.
C. Maybe.
144.
Hardening of a vehicle provides personnel with some degree of
protection.
A. True.
B. False.
C. Maybe.
145.
In a tactical convoy, no vehicles need to be hardened.
A. True.
B. False.
C. Maybe.
146.
The senior POW, regardless of service, must accept command.
A. True.
B. False.
C. Maybe.
147.
When searching detainees/EPWs, two persons should be present, one to
guard and one to search.
A. True.
B. False.
C. Maybe.
148.
Minor burns are __________ degree burns.
A.
B.
C.
D.
149.
First.
Second.
Third.
Fourth.
A broken blister should be treated as an open wound.
A. True.
B. False.
C. Maybe.
150.
To treat snakebite, cut open the wound and suck out the venom to prevent
it from spreading.
A. True.
B. False.
C. Maybe.
19