Answer to Quiz #1 1. What is the impedance of free space? b) 120 (376.991) ohms Impedance is defined as the square root of the ratio of the permeability (mu, ) to the permittivity (epsilon, ) - in this case of free space. 0 = 1/(36 ) * 10-9 F/m 0 = 4 * 10-7 H/m z0 = sqrt [0 / 0] = sqrt [4 * 10-7 * 36 * 109] = sqrt [144 * 102 * 2] = 120 = 376.991 (377) . 2. What happens to the noise figure of a receiver when a 10 dB attenuator is added at the input? a) Noise figure increases by 10 dB The formula for cascaded noise figure is: NF(M stages) = 10*log [nf1 + (nf2-1)/(gain1) + (nf3-1)/(gain1*gain2) + ... + (nfM1)/(gain1*gain2*...*gainM-1)]; where each "nf" and "gain" value is expressed as a ratio rather than in dB, and M is the total number of stages. The noise figure of an attenuator is equal to its insertion loss (10 dB in this case). Note that per the equation that the noise figure of the first element in the chain is not modified by the gain of preceding stages - as are the subsequent stages' noise figures. Therefore, any noise figure added to the front end adds directly to the overall system noise figure - in this case an increase of 10 dB. 3. An RF system has a linear throughput gain of +10 dB and an output 3rd-order intercept point (OIP3) of +30 dBm. What is the input 3rd-order intercept point (IIP3)? a) +20 dBm A system's 3rd-order intercept points are determined by the components between its input and output. As with the input signal power, the system's gain modifies the output intercept point values. Simply add the gain to the IIP3 to arrive at the OIP3. +30 dBm - 10 dB = +20 dBm. 4. Which filter type has the greatest selectivity for a given order (i.e., N=5)? b) Chebychev (ripple=0.1 dB) Many texts exist that list the transfer functions of the major filter types. Rather than attempt to reiterate them all here, the following list presents them in order of increasing selectivity. The price to be paid for increased selectivity is a greater slope in the group delay near the band edges (bad for digital communications). 1. Bessel (Bessel-Thompson) 2. Gaussian (only slightly greater than Bessel) 3. Butterworth 4. Chebychev 5. Elliptic (a.k.a. Cauer-Chebychev, or CC) 5. Which mixer spurious product is a 5th-order product? c) 3*LO - 2*IF The order of any product is (±j*LO ±k*IF) simply the sum of the harmonic orders of the two signals that create it. In this example, the 3rd harmonic of the LO (local oscillator) and the 2nd harmonic of the IF (intermediate frequency) combine to generate the 5th-order product. The mathematical sign of the operation does not affect the order so that Order = | j | + | k |. Order = | 3 | + | -2 | = 5. 6. A 2.8 GHz oscillator is phase-locked to a 10 MHz reference oscillator that has a single-sided phase noise of -100 dBc at 1 kHz offset. What is the single-sided phase noise of the 2.8 GHz oscillator at 1 kHz offset? a) -48.6 dBc When an oscillator (2.8 GHz in this case) is phase-locked (PLO) to a reference source (10 MHz in this case), the phase noise is increased in amplitude by an amount equal to 20*log(fPLO/fRef) + 2.5 dB, where the additional 2.5 dB (rule of thumb) is due to phase noise added by the phase locking circuitry. This explains why an extremely low phase noise reference oscillator is required when being used with a microwave frequency PLO. -100 dBc + [20*log (2800/10) + 2.5] dB = -48.6 dBc. 7. What is the power of a 2 Vpk-pk sine wave across a 50 ohm load? b) +10.0 dBm Power in a sine wave is based on its rms voltage and the impedance it is imposed across. The rms value of a sine wave's peak-to-peak value is equal to its peak value divided by the square root of two. Rather than trying to remember whether to use 20*log or 10*log for conversion to decibels (a real stumbling point for a lot of people), just remember to always use 10* log when dealing with power and calculate power first using Ohm's Law (V^2 / R). Since the answer will be in watts, you'll need to either convert to milliwatts prior to converting to dBm, or add 30 dB to the result. Vrms = 2 / 2 / sqrt (2) = 0.7071 P = sqr (0.7071) / 50 = 0.01 W (0.01 * 1000 = 10 mW) 10*log (0.01) = -20 dBW + 30 dB = +10 dBm 10*log (0.01 * 1000) = +10 dBm. 8. Which 2-port S-parameter is commonly referred to as "reverse isolation" in an amplifier? c) S12 Common names for each of the four 2-port S-parameters are: S11 S21 S12 S22 : : : : input return loss forward gain reverse isolation (or reverse gain) output return loss 9. What are the minimum and maximum combined VSWR limits at an interface characterized by a 1.25:1 VSWR and a 2.00:1 VSWR? b) 1.60:1 (min), 2.50:1 (max) When a signal interface is composed of two elements with differing complex impedances, part (maybe all) of the incident signal will be reflected. Since VSWR is a scalar value, the phase information of the reflection coefficient is lost in the conversion. Therefore a best case and a worst case total combined VSWR is calculated as follows: VSWR (max) = [ VSWR1 * VSWR2 ] : 1 VSWR (min) = [ VSWR1 / VSWR2 ] : 1, where VSWR1 > VSWR2. VSWR (max) = [2.00 * 1.25] : 1 = 2.50 : 1 VSWR (min) = [2.00 / 1.25] : 1 = 1.60 : 1. 10. An ideal directional coupler has a directivity of 25 dB and an isolation of 40 dB. What is its coupling value? c) 15 dB A directional coupler is characterized by five main parameters as follows: 1. Frequency band of operation. 2. Power coupling expressed as dB down from the input power level. 3. Isolation of the coupled port from the output port (essentially coupling factor from the output port to the coupled port) 4. Directivity, which is mathematically the difference between the magnitudes of the isolation and the coupling. If the coupler in this case had 0 dBm signals applied to both the input and output ports, the coupled port would see -15 dBm from the input port and -40 dB from the output port, hence, an isolation of 25 dB. Coupling = 40 dB - 25 dB = 15 dB. Answer to Quiz #2 1. On a Smith chart, what does a point in the bottom half of the chart represent? b) A capacitive impedance Points in the bottom half of the Smith chart represent capacitive impedances while points in the top half represent inductive impedances. Both cases include a resistive component, also. Points that lie along the center horizontal represent pure resistances. 2. While we're on the subject of Smith charts, what is the impedance of the point at the far left edge of the center horizontal line? b) Zero ohms (short circuit) The Smith chart's bordering circle is the locus of points whose reflection coefficients are of magnitude one. Here are a few of the major points on the Smith chart (50 system): 1. Left center : short circuit (0 ± j0 ). 2. Top center : pure inductive reactance (0 + j50 ). 3. Right center : open circuit (0 ± j ). 4. Bottom center : pure capacitive reactance (0 - j50 ). 5. Dead center : pure 50 ohms (50 ± j0 W). 3. A single-conversion downconverter uses a high-side local oscillator (LO) to translate the input radio frequency (RF) to an intermediate frequency (IF). Will spectral inversion occur at IF? a) Yes, always Spectral inversion occurs when high frequencies within the input signal bandwidth are translated to low frequencies in the output bandwidth, and vice versa. Since a downconversion is being performed, the lower sideband of the mixing process is extracted, hence the difference between the LO frequency and the RF frequency is desired. Consider the following parameters and how spectral inversion occurs. RF input frequency band : fc = 1250 MHz, BW = 100 MHz (1200 - 1300 MHz). LO frequency : 1600 MHz. IF output frequency band : fc = 350 MHz, BW = 100 MHz (300 - 400 MHz). When the lower frequency of the input band is subtracted from the LO frequency (1600 MHz 1200 MHz = 400 MHz) a larger frequency is obtained than when the higher frequency of the input band is subtracted from the LO frequency (1600 MHz - 1300 MHz = 300 MHz). This means that the output spectrum is the mirror image of the input spectrum. How to avoid spectral inversion? Always use a low-side LO (LO frequency below RF input frequency band) for mixing, or ensure that an even number of spectral inversions are performed in the converter (i.e., two stages of conversion with high-side LO's). 4. What happens to the noise floor of a spectrum analyzer when the input filter resolution bandwidth is decreased by two decades? b) 20 dB decrease The input filter bandwidth determines the amount of power that will be present at the detector circuitry. Since the detector performs a power integration function, it sums all of the incident power across the band. Decreasing the bandwidth by a factor of 100 (two decades) allows one one-hundredth of the amount of power to reach the detector, which in term of decibels is: 10*log( 1/100) = -20 dB. 5. What is a primary advantage of a quadrature modulator? c) Single-sideband output A quadrature modulator is comprised of two mixers, each of which receives input data and local oscillator (LO) signals that are shifted 90 degrees relative to each other. The outputs are summed together to generate the single-sideband signal. Deviation of the phases from the ideal 90 degrees and deviations from equal amplitudes going into the mixers will result in less than perfect undesired sideband cancellation. Which sideband gets canceled depends on the phase relationship of the signals entering the mixers. The two mixer outputs are: m1 (t) = cos (L*t) * cos (I*t) = 1/2 * cos (L*t - I*t) + 1/2 *cos (L*t + I*t) m2 (t) = cos (L*t - pi/2) * cos (I*t -pi/2) = sin (L*t) * sin (I*t) = 1/2 * cos (L*t - I*t) - 1/2 *cos (L*t + I*t) Now sum the m1 (t) and m2 (t) outputs: f (t) = 1/2 * cos (L*t - I*t) + 1/2 *cos (L*t + I*t) + 1/2 * cos (L*t - I*t) - 1/2 *cos (L*t + I*t) f (t) = cos (L*t - I*t) Note that what remains is the lower sideband. Upper sideband cancellation can be achieved by rearranging the 90 degree power splitters. If the data input is digital, the data streams can be digitally shifted by 90 degrees and the first 90 degree power splitter can be eliminated. 6. What is meant by dBi as applied to antennas? c) Gain relative to an isotropic radiator An isotropic radiator (antenna) emits electromagnetic energy equally in all directions as if it were originating from a point source. Equipotential surfaces are spheres with the isotropic radiator at the center. If the antenna is designed to concentrate a majority of its energy in one or more directions, it is said to be directional. Since the directional antenna radiates the same total power as it would if it were an isotropic radiator, gain exists in the direction(s) of power concentration. That gain is measured in decibels relative to an isotropic radiator (dBi). 7. What is the power dynamic range of an ideal 12-bit analog-to-digital converter (ADC)? c) 72.25 dB An ideal 12-bit ADC can assume 212 (4,096) unique voltage levels. Since power is proportional to the square of the voltage, the maximum power sample value is 40962 (16,777,216) times the minimum power sample value. Therefore the dynamic range is 10*log (16,777,216) = 72.25 dB. A rule of thumb is 6 dB per bit. 8. An ideal 10 dB attenuator is added in front of a load that has a 2.00:1 VSWR. What is the resulting VSWR of the load + attenuator? a) 1.07:1 VSWR is related to return loss (RL) according to VSWR = [10^(RL/20) + 1] / [10^(RL/20) - 1]. It follows that increasing the return loss will result in a lower VSWR. The RL of a 2.00:1 VSWR is 9.542 dB. Add the 10 dB attenuator for a total RL of 2*10 dB + 9.542 dB = 29.542 dB. Convert back to VSWR using the given formula for a value of 1.07:1. Why add twice the attenuator value to the return loss? Return loss is the total decrease in signal strength in passing through the attenuator and being reflected back through the attenuator. Hence, the signal is decreased by twice the attenuator value. 9. What is the thermal noise power in a 1 MHz bandwidth when the system temperature is 15 °C (assume gain and noise figure are 0 dB)? a) -114.0 dBm (in a 1 MHz BW) Thermal noise power density is governed by the equation 10*log (k*T*B*1000) dBm, where k is the Boltzmann constant. T is the temperature in degrees Kelvin, and B is the bandwidth in Hertz. Multiplication by 1000 is to convert watts to milliwatts. A rule of thumb for temperatures near 15 °C is to begin with a thermal noise density of -174 dBm/Hz, and scale accordingly (add 10 dB per decade of increased bandwidth). 10. Two equal amplitude tones have a power of +10 dBm, and generate a pair of equal amplitude 3rd-order intermodulation products at -20 dBm. What is the 2-tone, 3rd-order intercept point (IP3) of the system? b) +25 dBm 2-tone, 3rd-order intermod products increase 3 dB in power for every 1 dB increase in tones that produce them. That means the intermods increase in power at a rate of 2 dB per 1 dB relative to the tone power. The 2-tone, 3rd-order intercept point is defined as the theoretical point where the two original tones and the two 3-rd-order products would have equal power (not possible in real systems due to saturation limits). If the two original tones have a power of +10 dBm and the 3rd-order products have a power of -20 dBm, then the intercept point will be at +10 dBm + [(+10) - (-20)]/2 dB = +10 dBm + 15 dB = +25 dBm. Answer to Quiz #3 1. What is a primary advantage to using 90 ° (quadrature) hybrid couplers in amplifier designs? c) Input/output impedance not dependent on devices as long as device impedances are equal. Due to the physical construction of the quadrature coupler, as long as the two devices between the couplers exhibit identical impedances the input and output impedances will exhibit the intrinsic coupler impedance. For example, if matched transistors with input impedances of 12 j5 are connected between to quadrature couplers that have an intrinsic impedance of 50 + j0 , then a 50 + j0 impedance would be exhibited at the circuit input (similar for the output). Why not always use quadrature couplers? The answer is that insertion loss, physical size and/or cost are often intolerable. 2. Why is there a frequency term in the equation for free-space path loss? c) Antenna geometry requires it. Antennas are an indispensable part of all wireless systems. There is no frequency dependency in the free-space power density equation as emitted from an isotropic radiator. Free-space power flux density decreases with distance due to energy being spread over the surface of a sphere, hence: P[density] = P[transmitter] / (4 * d2) [W / m2], where d is the distance in meters from the origin. However, the gain of the receiving antenna, including its effective area (Ae) is: G = G[receiver] * l2 / (4 ) Total path loss = 20 * log (4 * d / l) [dB]. 3. If an amplifier has a noise temperature of 60K, what is its noise figure for an ambient temperature of 290K? c) 0.82 dB. Conversion from noise temperature to noise figure is a straightforward process. NF = 10 * log [(NT / Ta) + 1] dB, where Ta is the ambient temperature. 4. What is a primary advantage of offset-quadrature-phase-shift-keying (OQPSK) over standard QPSK? c) More constant envelope power. OQPSK shifts the in-phase (I) and quadrature (Q) components of the digital data by half a bit so that the I and Q data never change at the same moment in time. This maintains a more constant output power. 5. A mixer has the following input frequencies: RF = 800 MHz, LO = 870 MHz. The desired output frequency is 70 MHz. What is the image frequency? a) 940 MHz. By definition, the image frequency for any combination of input and LO frequencies is: fimage = 2 * fLO - finput. For any mixer, there are two input frequencies that, when mixed with the LO frequency, will generate the desired output frequency. In this example, the 70 MHz output can be generated either by taking 870 MHz - 800 MHz (desired), or by taking 940 MHz - 870 MHz (undesired). 6. What is the spurious-free dynamic range of a system with IP3 = +30 dBm and a minimum discernible signal (MDS) level of -90 dBm? b) 80 dB. Spurious-free dynamic range (SFDR) is the maximum signal power above the minimum discernible signal (MDS) power level where two tones generate 2nd-order intermodulation products equal in power to the MDS. Input signals above that level will generate 2nd-order products that are greater in power than the MDS power level. MDS is generally defined as the noise power plus the minimum signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) One form of the equation is: SFDR = 2 / 3 * (IP3 - MDS) dB. 7. A spectrum analyzer displays a component at 10 MHz @ 0 dBm, 30 MHz @ -10 dBm, 50 MHz @ -14 dBm, 70 MHz @ -17 dBm, and all of the other odd harmonics until they disappear into the noise. What was the most likely input signal that caused the spectrum? a) A 10 MHz square wave (0 Vdc). The Fourier series for a square wave with a 0 Vdc bias is the fundamental frequency and all of its odd harmonics. Amplitudes are scaled as the reciprocal of the harmonic number; in terms of power, the amplitudes are scaled according to 20 * log (1 / N) dB. A 10 MHz triangle wave also contains the odd harmonics, but amplitudes fall off according to the reciprocal of the square of the harmonic number, 40 *log (1 / N) dB. 8. On which side of a rectangular waveguide is an E-bend made? b) The short dimension. In a rectangular waveguide, the E-plane is in the direction of the short dimension while the Hplane is in the direction of the long dimension. The type of bend is determined by which side is curved for the bend. A useful mnemonic is the short dimension is the [E]asy side to bend, while the long dimension is the [H]ard side to bend. 9. During a network analyzer calibration, why are both a short circuit and an open circuit used? b) To determine the characteristic impedance of the measurement system. In order for the network analyzer (N/A) to make an accurate measurement, it must know what the impedance of the measurement system is. Characteristic impedance is mathematically the square root of the product of the short circuit impedance and the open circuit impedance. The S/A exploits this relationship. 10. What is the first harmonic of 1 GHz? a) 1 GHz. Harmonic number is often mistaken for overtone number. The second harmonic of 1 GHz is 2 GHz, while the first overtone frequency of 1 GHz is 2 GHz. In other words, Nharmonic = Novertone + 1. The first harmonic of any frequency is its fundamental frequency. Answer to Quiz #4 1. Which of the following can cause frequency intermodulation products in a system? c) Both a) and b) Intermodulation products are generated whenever currents of different frequencies flow in a nonlinear junction. Dissimilar metals and impurities at connector interfaces and in cable dielectric materials form nonlinear junctions. Ferromagnetic materials in isolators and circulators enter into a nonlinear region when in saturation. At low powers, the products all have powers below thermal noise, but when used in high power transmission systems, these Passive Intermodulation (PIM) products can and often do fall within the receiver band. Read more here. 2. What is the melting temperature of standard 60/40, tin/lead solder? c) 186°C (386°F) Knowing the melting temperature of the solder you use all the time is useful information. Look here for a list of other solder alloy melting temperatures. 3. What is the frequency band for the 900 MHz GSM cellular band? a) Tx: 880-915 MHz / Rx: 925-960 MHz Click here for a matrix of wireless communications bands and protocols. 4. What does GSM stand for? c) Global System for Mobile Communications Click here for a matrix of wireless communications bands and protocols. * GSM originally stood for Groupe Spécial Mobile - thanks to Eric for this info. 5. What does POTS stand for (in communications)? a) Plain Old Telephone System Maybe it's too simple to be true, but it is. 6. Which of these pairs of materials in the triboelectric series have the greatest charge transfer potential? c) Glass & Hard Rubber The triboelectric series is a list of materials that, when rubbed together, transfer charge from one to the other. The farther apart the two materials are on the series, the greater the charge that is transferred. See here for a table of common materials. 7. Along which side of rectangular waveguide is an "E" bend made? b) Shorter side A common mnemonic employed to help remember is that an E-Bend is bent in the Easy direction (along the short side). This is the direction of the E-field in the TE10 mode. Conversely, An H-Bend is bent in the Hard direction (along the long side). This is the direction of the H-field in the TE10 mode. 8. What is the lowest modulation index at which an FM carrier is suppressed? a) 2.40 Depending on the modulation index (m) chosen, the carrier and certain sideband frequencies may actually be suppressed. Zero crossings of the Bessel functions, Jn(b), occur where the corresponding sideband, n, disappears for a given modulation index, b. The carrier is the 0th sideband, so n=0. The next time the carrier disappears is for m=5.49. Here is more information. 9. How much current is required through the human body to cause an onset to muscular paralysis during electrocution? b) 21 mA Most non-EE's think voltage causes electrocution, but we know better (don't we?). A higher voltage causes a higher current to flow, but ultimately it is the current that cause body tissues to react. Click here for more current levels. 10. At what frequency is electromagnetic energy maximally absorbed due to oxygen in the atmosphere? c) 63 GHz Both water and oxygen absorb electromagnetic energy in the atmosphere. Oxygen has its first peak at around 22 GHz, but a much larger peak occurs at 63 GHz due to oxygen. Secure communications between satellites in orbit use the 63 GHz band to prevent interception by terrestrial receivers. Clever - eh? Check out this absorption chart. Answer to Quiz #5 Agilent Technologies Channel Microwave Maury Microwave Sage Labs National Instruments Synergy Microwave Rohde & Schwarz Piconics Scientific Atlanta Marki Microwave Anadigics Andrew Corporation Analog Devices Connecticut Microwave Hittite Microwave Datel RF Micro Devices Power Cube Miteq Power One National Semiconductor Vicor Remec Cinch Stanford Microdevices Delta Texas Instruments Huber+Suhner Atlantic Microwave Ansoft Merrimac Industries Intusoft Trilithic Applied Radio Labs American Technical Ceramics (ATC) General Microwave Dielectric Laboratories Cypress Semiconductor Johanson Dielectrics GHz Technology Voltronics Dallas Semiconductor Answer to Quiz #6 1. Which of the following WLAN standards is on a different frequency band than the others? a) 802.11a 802.11b/g/n are all in the 2.4 GHz ISM band, 802.11a is in the 5 GHz ISM band. 2. What does the term "ruggedness" refer to in wireless power amplifiers? c) Ability to withstand load mismatch A typical ruggedness spec is no damage into a 10:1 VSWR load 3. Which FCC regulation governs the unlicensed ISM band? a) Part 15 FCC Part 15 governs the unlicensed ISM band for intentional, unintentional, and incidental radiators. 4. In which semiconductor technology are the majority of cellphone PAs manufactured? c) GaAs/InGaP Many WLAN PAs are built in SiGe and Si, and one or two experimental phone PAs are being built in Si, but the vast majority of phone PAs are built in GaAs HBT or InGaP HBT. 5. What is a major advantage of LTCC substrates? d) All the above Because of the high dielectric constant of the material, relatively large distributed components can be integrated into the substrate, which decreases the number of discrete components needed. The higher thermal conductivity also helps with heat dissipation. 6. Which phone standard supports the highest data rate? c) EDGE iDEN=64kbps, GPRS=21.4kbps/time slot, EDGE=384kbps, GSM=14.4kbps 7. Which component is typically not part of a front-end module (FEM)? a) Power amplifier Transmit modules (TxM) incorporates a FEM + PA 8. Which two systems are most likely to experience concurrent operation problems? b) Bluetooth + WLAN Bluetooth and WLAN (802.11b/g/n) both operate on the 2.5 GHz ISM band. 9. An isolator is typically required at the output of the PA for which transmitter system d) CDMA/W-CDMA CDMA/W-CDMA power amplifiers, due to their highly linear region of operation, cannot tolerate a very high mismatch (VSWR) and must be protected with an isolator. 10. What is the commonly claimed nominal operational range for Bluetooth? d) All the above Sure it's stupid (and true), but a little levity in an interview can lighten the load. Answer to Quiz #7 1. What is a “radar mile?” c) 12.36 µs A radar mile is the time required for a signal leaving the antenna to go out and back one nautical mile (6076 feet). 2 * 6076 ft / [9.8356e8 ft/s] = 12.36 µs 2. Which best describes a bi-static radar? a) Fixed transmitter and fixed receiver at different locations Many bi-static systems use multiple receiving sites to be able to pick up weaker reflected signals and to correlate position information with more certainty. 3. What is a radar cross-section (RCS)? b) A target’s reflecting capacity equivalent to a perfectly reflecting surface of the same area For radar evasion (stealth), a low RCS is desirable. To guarantee being detected (general & commercial aviation, a high RCS is desirable. A B-52 bomber has an RCS of about 100 m2 (20 dBsm, whereas an F-117 Stealth Fighter has about a 0.003 m2 RCS (which at X-band puts it in the realm of birds). 4. What are common units of radar cross-section (RCS)? a) dBsm Decibels relative to a square meter. 5. Who is known as ”The Father of Radar?” a) Robert Watson-Watt Sir Robert Watson-Watt, with the help of his assistant Arnold Wilkins, drafted, in February 1935, a report titled "The Detection of Aircraft by Radio Methods." Walter Eugene O'Reilly was "Radar" from the television show M*A*S*H. 6. Which flying (movement) condition will always result in a Doppler speed of 0 m/s? b) Perfect concentric circle around antenna at constant altitude Doppler speed is manifested on the boresight radial line (main radiation lobe) so, neglecting “blind speeds,” the only way to be moving and have the Doppler speed at 0 m/s is to not have any motion relative to the boresight radial line. 7. What does “MTI” stand for? c) Moving Target Indication Moving Target Indication (MTI) uses a cancellation system that blanks out stationary targets to permit only moving targets to be displayed on the display. Doing so greatly reduces the clutter and allows relatively weak moving targets to be seen in the midst of buildings, trees, etc. 8. Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) radar is mostly likely to be located on which platform? c) Airplane Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) relies on the motion of the platform to produce the “scan” that would otherwise be provided by a rotating or steerable antenna. 9. Which feature of a “stealth” aircraft is most responsible for its low observability? b) Multi-faceted surfaces The angle of a signal’s reflection form a surface is equal to the angle of its incidence on the surface. By minimizing the area presented perpendicular to any given direction (particularly those direction most likely to be illuminated, like from below and the side), a minimum amount of incident radar signal energy will be reflected back in the direction from which it originated (the radar). 10. What kind of radar did the webmaster of RF Cafe work on while in the U.S.A.F? a) MPN-14 In the U.S. government system designation standard, the "M" stands for ground Mobile, the "P" stands for Radar, and the "N" stands for Navigational aides. The "-14" designates position in a series. Answer to Quiz #8 1. In which decade was the transistor invented? a) 1940s On December 23, 1947, William Shockley, Walter Brattain and John Bardeen, of Bell Labs, announced their discovery of the point-contact germanium transistor to management. 2. In which decade was the telegraph invented? b) 1840s On May 24, 1844, Samuel Morse send his famous message, "What hath God wrought?" 3. In which decade was the Internet first implemented? b) 1960s The first message ever sent over what is now called the Internet took place at 10:30PM on October 29, 1969. Back then, the Department of Defense called it ARPAnet (Advanced Research Projects Agency network). 4. In which decade was the first solid state integrated circuit demonstrated? a) 1950s On September 12, 1958, Jack Kilby demonstrated the first working IC while working for Texas Instruments, although the U.S. patent office awarded the first patent for an integrated circuit to Robert Noyce of Fairchild. 5. In which decade were the first successful diode and triode vacuum tubes invented? c) 1900s In 1904, John Ambrose Fleming invented the first practical electron tube called the 'Fleming Valve', which is a diode rectifier. In 1906, Lee de Forest invented the audion later called the triode, which provided signal amplification. 6. In which decade was the telephone invented? c) 1870s Alexander Graham Bell's notebook entry of 10 March 1876 describes his successful experiment with the telephone. Speaking through the instrument to his assistant, Thomas A. Watson, in the next room, Bell utters these famous first words, "Mr. Watson -- come here -- I want to see you." 7. In which decade was the AEEE (now the IEEE) founded? a) 1880s The IEEE (Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers) was formed in 1963 by the merger of the Institute of Radio Engineers (IRE, founded 1912) and the American Institute of Electrical Engineers (AIEE, founded 1884). 8. In which decade with the first transatlantic radio broadcast occur? c) 1900s On December 12, 1901, a radio transmission received by Guglielmo Marconi resulted in the first transmission of a transatlantic wireless signal (Morse Code) from Poldhu, Cornwall, to St. John's, Newfoundland. 9. In which decade was the SPICE simulator introduced? b) 1970s SPICE (Simulation Program with Integrated Circuit Emphasis) was introduced in May 1972 by the University of Berkeley, California. 10. In which decade was the ARRL founded? a) 1910s On April 6, 1914, Hiram Percy Maxim proposed the formation of the American Radio Relay League. Answer to Quiz #9 1. Where did Bluetooth™ get its name? b) In honor of Harald Blåtand, once king of Denmark Bluetooth was named by Ericsson (inventor of BT) after Danish King, Harald Blåtand (Bluetooth in English), who lived in the latter part of the 10th century. According to lore, he ate so many blueberries that his teen turned blue (no kidding). 2. Where did ZigBee get its name? b) From the zigzag path of a bee According to authorities on the matter, the system was so named because it allowed networked devices to swarm around each other and stay connected, like worker bees around a hive. 3. Who is credited with conceiving of spread spectrum radio communications? c) Actress Hedy Lamarr 1930s actress Hedy Lamarr, “The Mother of Spread Spectrum,” is widely credited with having introduced the concept of spread spectrum radio communications as an application for thwarting jamming on guided torpedoes during WWII. The work of Lamarr’s (and her piano instructor George Antheil) culminated in U.S. Patent 2,292,387, “Secret Communication System,” granted on August 11, 1942. Those were the days when Hollywood stars were patriotic and heroic, rather than being the cowardly traitors of today. 4. What is meant by the front-to-back ratio of a Yagi antenna? c) Power radiated in the front main lobe vs. power in opposite direction The series of driven (radiator) and reflector (director) elements in the Yagi design produce a radiation pattern that is concentrated in one direction (directivity). 5. In an FM modulator with a 10 kHz deviation and a 5 kHz maximum modulating frequency, what is the total occupied bandwidth? d) 30 kHz The maximum excursion on either side of carrier frequency (both above and below) is the sum of the deviation and the modulating frequency (10 kHz + 5 kHz = 15 kHz), so, total occupied bandwidth is twice that amount (lower + upper) of 30 kHz. 6. Which WLAN standard provides the highest data rate? d) IEEE802.11n (2.4 GHz RF) The spec data throughputs are as follows: 802.11a = 54 Mbits/s, 802.11b = 11 Mbits/s, 802.11g = 54 Mbits/s, 802.11n = 100+ Mbits/s (Pre-n systems delivering this rate, but yet-tobe-finalized spec calls for up to 600 Mbits/s). 7. Why might the mounting orientation of a surface mount capacitor affect frequency response? a) The plates in the body could be either parallel to or perpendicular to the PCB, affecting coupling Most surface mount capacitors are of multi-layer construction with alternating conductive plates and insulating (dielectric) layers. Edge fringing effects and the proximity to adjacent components (including the substrate) will affect the effective capacitance depending on whether the plates happen to be mounted parallel to or perpendicular to the those components. 8. If you were handed an unprocessed wafer of gallium arsenide (GaAs), silicon (Si), silicongermanium (SiGe), and gallium nitride (GaN), how would you know which is GaN? a) GaN is transparent and the others are not The wide band gap energy of GaN renders it transparent to visible light – it looks like glass. The other wafers are all very dark in color. 9. The Smith Chart plot of a 50 ohm cable (in a 50 ohm system) spirals inward as the impedance is plotted through multiple cycles. What is that indicative of? a) A lossy cable Attenuation in the cable increases the resistive component of the cable as the length increases. 10. What are the three primary JEDEC models used for ESD testing? c) Human Body (HBM), Machine (MM), and Charged Device (CDM) Model JEDEC (Joint Electron Device Engineering Council) specifies the Human Body Model in EIA/JESD22-A114-x (electrically simulates the discharge RC network of the human body), the Machine Model in EIA/JESD22-A115-x (the discharge path of a grounded machine), and the Charged Device Model in EIA/JESD22-C101-x (the discharge path of device isolated by its package). Answer to Quiz #10 1. What format would a near-filed communications (13 MHz variety) antenna most likely take? a) Inductive coil. Most devices on the market today use an inductive coil to exploit the principle of magnetic induction whereby a current-carrying conductor in motion relative to another conductor induces a similar current. 2. What does SOLT stand for? c) Short, Open, Load, Through. In order to perform a full 2—port calibration on a vector network analyzer (VNA), it is necessary to calibrate with both test cables using a certified set of adapters and terminations that meet industry specifications. The VNA then calculates the set of 12 error correction terms necessary to subtract out the effects of the system, including the test cables. 3. Which instrument would be best to use to locate a defective waveguide joint? d) Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR). The TDR sends a pulse of energy down the line and measures the length of time the reflected signal takes to return. A region of poor VSWR will reflect a portion of the signal energy that is dependent upon the degree of mismatch. If the entire length of waveguide and the termination are properly matched, there will be no returned (reflected) signal. Many network analyzers have this built-in capability. 4. Which entity in the U.S. determines whether an RF energy-emitting device is allowed to be operated? a) The Federal Communications Commission (FCC). Whether the radiation be intentional or unintentional, all products for commercial and private use must pass emissions testing as specified by the FCC. 5. What does 2G, 2.5G, 3G, etc., mean in reference to cellphones? b) The “generation” of the technology. 1G was the original analog phones. 2G introduced digital technology. 3G ushered in high bandwidth data along with voice, but it was late to arrive, so 2.5G filled the gap. 4G is now in the works. 6. Where would you be likely to find a free wireless Internet connection? d) All the above. "a" and '"b" are obvious. See my Factoid for "c." 7. Who hosts the MTT-S International Microwave Symposium? d) The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE). Since 1958, the IEEE Microwave Theory and Techniques Society (MTT-S), has put on the show. 8. What is the “rule of thumb” for estimating RF signal propagation distance vs. time in free space? c) 1 foot per nanosecond. Electromagnetic energy travels about one foot in one nanosecond in free space (actually 1.01670336 ns), and in one nanosecond, it travels about one foot (actually 0.98357106 ft). The other three choices do not produce such close approximations (1 mm = ,3.3 ps, 1 m = 3.3 ns, 1 in = 85 ps). 9. What is the “rule of thumb” for estimating RF frequency vs. wavelength in free space? a) 300 MHz = 1 meter. More precisely, 300 MHz has a wavelength of 0.999308193 meters, but the error is about 0.07% - close enough. 100 MHz ≈ 3 m, 300 MHz ≈ 3.28 ft, 100 MHz ≈ 9.84 ft. 10. What is the most unique feature of a Helmholtz coil? b) Magnetic field lines are extremely uniform within the coil. This property makes the Helmholtz coil configuration very useful when testing magnetic properties since a device under test can be placed within the coil to free it from influences of outside magnetic field variations. If you chose “A,” you are thinking of a Tesla Coil.