Veterinary Science Career Development Event
Purpose:
This contest is designed to assess student knowledge & abilities in the area of small & large
animal veterinary medicine. Teams will be composed of 1 to 4 FFA members.
Event Information:
The event will take approximately 3 - 3.5 hours. Each student will be required to bring the
following materials to the event: business dress (no jeans with holes and a collared shirt), clip
board, pencils, & a calculator (cell phones not allowed).
General Exam: 30 Minutes
There will be 50 multiple choice questions worth two points each. Please see appendix for test
bank of questions.
Breed Identification: 30 minutes
Students must identify 50 breeds of animal taken from the breed list will be presented to
contestants to identify as photographs. Students will be provided the breed list during the
competition & asked to place the number corresponding to a certain breed on the answer sheet.
Each breed identified will be worth two points. Breed identification slides will include the
average size of the breed or species so that students will be able to accurately identify the animal
from a picture.
Please see the appendix for the breed list.
Practicums: 60 minutes
Six practicums will be run each year. Each student will complete both practicum A and B.
Practicums may be performing the skill or answering questions related to performing that skill
(Example: properly filling a syringe & administering medication may be reading how much
medication is in a syringe or if a medication is being administered using the right route rather
than actually using a needle & syringe). Practicums C, D, E and F will be completed by only one
team member. Each team member will choose one of these 4 remaining practicums. No two team
members can choose the same practicum. Students will choose the appropriate practicum at
check in.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
Surgical & animal care equipment, tools & feed identification - all team members **
Parasitology Identification (adults & eggs) – all team members **
Patient History & filling out medical record – one team member *
Set up a fecal flotation – one team member *
Properly fill a syringe and administer a medication – one team member *
Demonstrate a gauze/nylon muzzle application & quick release knot – one team member *
* See appendix E for rubric & chart.
** See appendix B and D
1
Scoring:
Individual & team scores will be calculated for the event. The individual score will be calculated
as follows:
General Exam
Breed Identification
3 Practicums @ 25 points each
100 points
100 points
75 points
275 points total
In event of an individual tie, the placing will be determined by the general exam score, the breed
identification score, & the first practicum score in that order.
The team score will be calculated as follows:
Three top individual scores @ 275 points
825 points
References:
The following are suggested references to use in preparation for this CDE.
Small Animal Care
Small Animal Care & Management by Dean M. Warren, Delmar Publishing
Small Animal Handling & Restraint Handbook Introduction to Livestock and Companion Animals –Interstate Publishing
Large Animal Care
Agripedia—University of Kentucky-- http://www.ca.uky.edu/Agripedia/
Handbook of Livestock Management by Richard A. Battaglia
Modern Livestock & Poultry Production by James R. Gillespie
Veterinary Medicine
Principles & Practice of Veterinary Technology by Paul W. Pratt
The Merck Veterinary Manual – Merck & Co. or http://www.merckvetmanual.com/
Veterinary Science Teachers Guide – Team Ag Ed & Cornell Educational Resources Program,
2003. (CDROM)
Parasitology Identification Tutorial-- http://cvm.msu.edu/courses/mic569/docs/parasite/
Veterinary Medical Terminology by Dawn Christenson
Veterinary Surgical Instruments-- http://207.62.207.35/vet01/vett53a/vett53Anotes/notes03a.htm
Breed References
Breeds of Livestock—Oklahoma State University-- http://www.ansi.okstate.edu/breeds/
American Kennel Club – The Complete Dog Book & www.akc.org
Cat Fanciers Association – www.cfa.org
American Rabbit Breeders Association – www.arba.net
American Cavy Breeders Association – www.acbaonline.com
Anatomy and Physiology
Introduction to Veterinary Science – Delmar
Dog & Cat Anatomy Flashcards – www.bryanedwards.com
Revised March 2010
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Appendix A: Breed List
Dogs:
1. Basset Hound
2. Beagle
3. Border Collie
4. Boxer
5. Bulldog
6. Chihuahua
7. Chinese Shar-Pei
8. Cocker Spaniel
9. Collie
10. Dachshund
11. Doberman Pinscher
12. English Setter
13. German Shepherd Dog
14. German Shorthaired Pointer
15. Golden Retriever
16. Great Dane
17. Great Pyrenees
18. Greyhound
19. Labrador Retriever
20. Maltese
21. Miniature Schnauzer
22. Pembroke Welsh Corgi
23. Pomeranian
24. Poodle
25. Pug
26. Rottweiler
27. Saint Bernard
28. Shih Tzu
29. Siberian Husky
30. Yorkshire Terrier
Cats:
1. Abyssinian
2. American Shorthair
3. Bengal
4. Birman
5. Burmese
6. Cornish Rex
7. Maine Coon
8. Manx
9. Persian
10. Scottish Fold
11. Siamese
12. Turkish Angora
3. English Angora
4. Flemish Giant
5. Himalayan
6. Jersey Wooly
7. Mini Lop
8. Mini Rex
9. Netherland Dwarf
10. Polish
11. Satin
12. New Zealand
13. Tan
Pocket Pets:
1. Abyssinian (Guinea Pig)
2. American (Guinea Pig)
3. Peruvian (Guinea Pig)
4. Texel (Guinea Pig)
5. Chinchilla
6. Hamster
7. Gerbil
8. Degus
9. Ferret
10. Hedgehog
11. Mouse
12. Rat
Equine:
1. Appaloosa
2. Arabian
3. Belgian
4. Clydesdale
5. Haflinger
6. Miniature Horse
7. Morgan
8. Donkey
9. Paint
10. Percheron
11. Quarter Horse
12. Standardbred (w/cart)
13. Tennessee Walker
14. Thoroughbred (w/ jockey or
saddle)
Rabbits:
1. Californian
2. Dutch
3
Appendix A: Breed List
Dairy Cattle
1. Ayrshire
2. Brown Swiss
3. Guernsey
4. Holstein
5. Jersey
6. Milking Shorthorn
Beef Cattle
1. Angus
2. Belted Galloway
3. Brahman
4. Charolais
5. Hereford
6. Limousin
7. Maine-Anjou
8. Texas Longhorn
9. Shorthorn
10. Simmental
11. Scottish Hilander
Swine
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Berkshire
Chester White
Duroc
Hampshire
Landrace
6. Poland China
7. Spotted
8. Yorkshire
Sheep
1. Cheviot
2. Columbia
3. Dorset
4. Hampshire
5. Montendale
6. Merion
7. Jacob
8. Rambouillet
9. Southdown
10. Suffolk
Goats
1. Alpine
2. Boer
3. LaMancha
4. Nubian
5. Pygmy
6. Saanens
7. Toggenburg
8. Angora
9. Oberhase
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Appendix B: Parasite Identification & Disease List
Parasite Identification (Adults &
Eggs)
1. Bots
2. Coccidia
3. Dipylidium Tapeworm (Flea
tapeworm)
4. Fleas
5. Giardia
6. Hookworm
7. Heartworm microfilaria
8. Heartworms
9. Lice
10. Liver Fluke
11. Mites
12. Roundworm
13. Strongyles
14. Taenia Tapeworm
15. Ticks
16. Whipworm
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Appendix C: Test Bank
1. What is the correct genus for Goats
a. Ovine
b. Caprine
c. Bovine
d. Porcine
2. What is the correct genus for Cattle
a. Avian
b. Caprine
c. Bovine
d. Ovine
3. Ovine is the correct genus for what animal
a. Goat
b. Cattle
c. Sheep
d. Horses
4. A young female horse under three is called a
a. Filly
b. Colt
c. Mare
d. Foal
5. A newborn horse is called a
a. Filly
b. Foal
c. Colt
d. Mare
6. A mature female pig that has had a litter is called a
a. Sow
b. Gilt
c. Ewe
d. Boar
7. A mature female sheep is called a
a. Heifer
b. Doe
c. Sheep
d. Ewe
6
8. A mature female goat is called a
a. Ewe
b. Heifer
c. Doe
d. Wether
9. A pullet is a:
a. Mature female chicken
b. Mature male chicken
c. Young female chicken
d. Young male chicken
10. A wether is a
a. Castrated Goat
b. Intact male Sheep
c. Castrated Chicken
d. Castrated Horse
11. Mature female cattle are called
a. Heifers
b. Cows
c. Steers
d. Calfs
12. A mature intact male horse is called a
a. Stallion
b. Gelding
c. Stud
d. Steer
13. A young male chicken is called:
a. Roster
b. Cock
c. Pullet
d. Cockerel
14. A gelding is a
a. Stud
b. Castrated Horse
c. Castrated Goat
d. Castrated Chicken
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A
15. What does the label A represent on the Canine skeleton?
a. Skull
b. Scapula
c. Pelvis
d. Vertebrae
16. What does the label B represent on the Canine skeleton?
a. Tibia
b. Fibula
c. Femur
d. Humerus
D
C
B
E
17. What does the label C represent on the Canine skeleton?
a. Radius
b. Ulna
c. Pelvis
d. Fibula
18. What does the label D represent on the Canine skeleton?
a. Ribs
b. Vertebrae
c. Skull
d. Pelvis
19. What does the label E represent on the Canine skeleton?
a. Phalanges
b. Scapula
c. Tibia
d. Ulna
20. A Collie is in what grouping of dogs
a. Working
b. Herding
c. Toy
d. Sporting
21. Which of the following breeds is in the Non-Sporting group?
a. Pug
b. Poodle
c. Labrador
d. German Sheppard
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22. Bone is made up of:
a. Calcium, phosphorus, and collagen fibers
b. Vitamins A, B, and C
c. Marrow, cartilage, and tendons
d. Nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium
23. What is the function of bone marrow?
a. Produces blood cells.
b. Provides support
c. Provides movement
d. All of the above
24. Where is bone marrow found?
a. In the hollow shaft of long bones
b. In the hollow shaft of flat bones
c. In the hollow shaft of short bones
d. In the hollow shaft of joints
25. X-rays are used to take a special photograph called a
a. Photograph
b. Radiograph
c. X-ray
d. Bone Scan
26. Swine and Humans have what type of digestive systems?
a. Monogastric
b. Monogastric rumination
c. Ruminant
d. Hindgut fermenters
27. Rabbits and Horses have what type of digestive system?
a. Avian digestion
b. Hindgut rumination
c. Hindgut fermenter
d. Ruminant
28. Cattle have what type of digestive systems?
a. Monogastric
b. Ruminant
c. Hindgut Fermentor
d. Monogastric Rumination
9
29. Which one of these digestive organs is found only in the bird?
a. Cecum
b. Stomach
c. Crop
d. Gall Bladder
30. The muscular tube connecting the mouth to the stomach is called the
a. Stomach
b. Esophagus
c. Pharynx
d. Trachea
31. The majority of absorption of nutrients takes place here
a. Stomach
b. Rumen
c. Omasum
d. Small Intestine
32. The major role of this organ in the digestive process is to provide bile salts to the small
intestine and detoxify the blood.
a. Gall Bladder
b. Pancreas
c. Liver
d. Kidney
33. Simple stomachs are called
a. Monogastrics
b. Singular Stomachs
c. Ruminants
d. Gastritis
34. In the ruminant which compartment of the stomach looks like a honeycomb
a. Abomasum
b. Reticulum
c. Cecum
d. Rumen
35. Continuous regurgitation, chewing and swallowing is called
a. Digestion
b. Rumination
c. Eructation
d. Mastication
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36. Very muscular organ, used to grind food in birds is called the
a. Crop
b. Gizzard
c. Beak
d. Proventiculus
37. Wavelike motions that propel food through the esophagus are called what?
a. Peristalsis
b. Rumination
c. Eructation
d. Anastalsis
38. How many stomachs does a cow have?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
39. What is mastication and why is it important?
a. Chewing; to increase surface area of food for easier digestion
b. Chewing; to decrease surface area of food for easier digestion
c. Swallowing; to increase wavelike motions
d. Swallowing; to decrease wavelike motions
40. This is produced excessively in anticipation of food.
a. Bile
b. Saliva
c. Mucous
d. Acid
B
41. What does the label B represent on the Avian digestive system?
a. Crop
b. Proventiculus
c. Gizzard
d. Ceca
42. What does the label A represent on the Ruminant digestive system?
a. Abomasum
b. Omasum
A
c. Rumen
d. Reticulum
43. What does the label C represent on the Monogastric digestive system?
a. Pancreas
b. Stomach
c. Large Intestine
d. Liver
C
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44. What does the label D represent on the Hindgut fermenter digestive system?
a. Cecum
b. Large Intestine (Colon)
c. Stomach
D
d. Rumen
45. What is the main function of carbohydrates?
a. Growth and repair of cells
b. Provide Energy
c. Assist in taste recognition
d. Medium for chemical reactions
46. Accounts for 70% or more of the composition of animals?
a. Blood
b. Skin
c. Fat
d. Water
47. Corn, wheat, oats, and barley are considered what type of carbohydrates?
a. Protein carbohydrates
b. Fatty carbohydrates
c. Simple carbohydrates
d. Complex carbohydrates
48. Which nutrient contains the greatest amount of energy?
a. Water
b. Minerals
c. Fats
d. Vitamins
49. This nutrient is essential because it is needed throughout life for growth and repair and is
used for energy only if needed.
a. Carbohydrates
b. Protein
c. Fats
d. Minerals
50. Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?
a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin A
c. Vitamin B6
d. Vitamin B12
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51. Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?
a. Vitamin E
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin A
d. Vitamin C
52. Protein consists of strings of building blocks called?
a. Amino chains
b. Amino acids
c. Acetic acids
d. RNA
53. Which of the following is a trace mineral?
a. Zinc
b. Sodium
c. Calcium
d. Phosphorus
54. Which of the following is a macro mineral?
a. Sodium
b. Zinc
c. Copper
d. Selenium
55. Label A represents what on the example feed tag?
a. Name of Feed
b. Use of Feed
B
c. Ingredients
d. Manufacturer
C
56. Label B represents what on the example feed tag?
a. Guaranteed Analysis
b. Name of Feed
c. Use of Feed
d. Manufacturer
57. Label C represents what on the example feed tag?
a. Use of Feed
b. Manufacturer of Feed
c. Ingredients
d. Manufacturer
A
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58. The entire coat of wool shorn from the sheep at one time is called
a. Fiber
b. Staple
c. Fleece
d. Wool
59. What does the label A represent on the sheep?
a. Loin
b. Hip
c. Wither
d. Neck
B
A
C
60. What does the label B represent on the sheep?
a. Poll
b. Face
c. Muzzle
d. Neck
D
61. What does the label C represent on the sheep?
a. Twist
b. Dock
c. Loin
d. Rump
62. What does the label D represent on the sheep?
a. Cannon Bone
b. Pastern
c. Hoof
d. Hock
63. What is the most popular breed of sheep in the United States?
a. Southdown
b. Hampshire
c. Suffolk
d. Jersey
64. What is the purpose of the marking harness?
a. Identifies which rams are ready for breeding
b. Provides proof of which ewes were bred and when
c. For cosmetic purposes
d. Identifies which ewes are ready for breeding
65. What is the purpose of docking the tails of sheep?
a. Sheep do not have tails naturally.
b. To help keep the sheep clean from manure
c. For appearance only
d. In order to show sheep at shows
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66. What does the label A represent on the chicken?
a. Breast
b. Wattle
c. Comb
d. Saddle
67. What does the label B represent on the chicken?
a. Breast
b. Wattle
c. Comb
d. Saddle
D
A
B
68. What does the label D represent on the chicken?
a. Breast
b. Wattle
c. Comb
d. Saddle
E
69. What does the label E represent on the chicken?
a. Breast
b. Wattle
c. Comb
d. Saddle
70. Chickens raised for meat production are called:
a. Cornish Game
b. Layers
c. Broilers
d. Poultry
71. When chicks become too hot they:
a. They lay down or pile into corners of the brooder
b. They chirp a lot and huddle together
c. They are evenly spaced under the heat lamp
d. They chirp a lot and pile into the corners of the brooder
15
72. What does the label A represent on the hog?
a. Ham
C
b. Jowl
c. Loin
d. Stifle
A
73. What does the label B represent on the hog?
a. Ham
b. Rump
c. Jowl
d. Back
74. What does the label C represent on the hog?
a. Ham
b. Rump
c. Stifle
d. Back
B
75. In the universal ear notching system of hogs, what does the right ear number represent?
a. Individual Pig number
b. The Sows number
c. Litter number
d. Number of piglets in the litter
76. Name the type of hog operation that raises hogs from birth to slaughter weight
a. Breeding Stock
b. Farrowing Operations
c. Finishing Operations
d. Farrow to Finish
77. Name the type of hog operation that purchases weaned piglets and raises them to market
weight
a. Seedstock
b. Farrowing Operations
c. Finishing Operations
d. Farrow to Finish
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Sassy is an 18-month-old (1 ½ years) female horse who measures 10 hands. Please answer
the following three questions regarding Sassy.
78. How many inches is Sassy?
a. 14 inches
b. 24 inches
c. 40 inches
d. 42 inches
79. At this size what type of horse would Sassy be considered
a. Horse
b. Short Horse
c. Pony
d. Draft
80. According to her age and sex Sassy would be called a?
a. Filly
b. Mare
c. Stallion
d. Gelding
81. Measurement term used in horses from ground to withers.
a. Foot
b. Hand
c. Yard
d. Inches
82. A pony can not be greater than:
a. 14 hands
b. 14.2 hands
c. 12 hands
d. 10 hands
83. The breed of horse commonly used for harness racing in Michigan.
a. Quarter horse
b. Thoroughbred
c. Standardbred
d. Arabian
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84. What does the label A represent on the horse?
a. Shoulder
b. Chest
c. Forearm
d. Neck
85. What does the label B represent on the horse?
a. Gaskin
b. Cannon bone
c. Pastern
d. Coronet
D
E
C
A
B
86. What does the label C represent on the horse?
a. Withers
b. Croup
c. Loin
d. Hock
87. What does the label D represent on the horse?
a. Loin
b. Croup
c. Back
d. Withers
88. What does the label E represent on the horse?
a. Stifle
b. Gaskin
c. Fetlock
d. Croup
89. The term for away from the midline is
a. medial
b. lateral
c. proximal
d. distal
90. The term that refers to the back is
a. ventral
b. dorsal
c. cranial
d. caudal
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91. The term that means toward the head is
a. ventral
b. dorsal
c. cranial
d. caudal
92. Disease of heart muscle is
a. cardiopathy
b. cor pulmonale
c. cardiovalvopathy
d. cardiomyopathy
93. Heart enlargement is
a. cardiac swelling
b. cardiac augmentation
c. cardiac dilation
d. cardiomegaly
94. The blood vessels that carry blood from the heart to
the lungs are the
a. pulmonary veins
b. pulmonary arteries
c. vena cava
d. aorta
95. The contraction phase of the heartbeat is the
a. septum
b. diastole
c. systole
d. tachvcardia
96. The myocardium receives its blood supply from the
a. aorta
b. coronary arteries
c. vena cava
d. subclavian artery
97. The organism that causes heartworm is:
a. Dirofilaria immitis
b. Taenia pisiformis
c. Giardia
d. Protozoa
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98. The most common endoparasite of puppies and kittens is:
a. flea
b. roundworm
c. mite
d. protozoa
99. What parasite transmits Lyme disease?
a. Dirofilaria immitis
b. Heartworm
c. Lice
d. Tick
100. To remove a tick you should:
a. Use a match to burn the tick off
b. Cut the tick off with a knife
c. Pour alcohol on the tick, then pull it off
d. Use tweezers to grasp the head and pull straight out
101. Label this external parasite.
a. Flea
b. Demodex
c. Walking Dandruff
d. Ear mite
102. Which phylum does the flea belong to:
a. Platyhelminthes
b. Nematoda
c. Arthropoda
d. Sacrodina
103. Which of the following is not a mite?
a. Otodectes
b. Cheyletiella
c. Demodex
d. Ixodes
104. What is the intermediate host of Taenia?
a. Mice
b. Flea
c. Ticks
d. Mite
20
105. The suffix -cyte means
a. Cell
b. Water
c. Breathing
d. Disease
106. The abbreviation ‘stat’ means
a.
b.
c.
d.
Difficulty
Immediately
New
Many
107. The prefix ‘Hydr/o’ means
a.
b.
c.
d.
Ear
Lake
Water
Eating/swallowing
108. The abbreviation ‘DOB’ means
a. Date of Belonging
b. Death of Bunny
c. Date of Birth
d. Dead on Birth
109. The abbreviation ‘DSH’ means
a. Domestic Short Hair
b. Dog Short Hair
c. Do Save Horse
d. Domestic Soft Hair
110. The suffix ‘–lysis’ stands for what
a. Pertaining to
b. Destruction of
c. Deficiency of
d. Many
111. The suffix ‘–penia’ stands for what
a. Pertaining to
b. Destruction of
c. Deficiency of
d. Many
21
112. The abbreviation ‘ml’ also could be stated as
a. cl
b. cc
c. cd
d. mc
113. The term ‘ad lib’ means
a. many
b. pertaining to
c. as many as you want
d. in the water
114. The prefix ‘post’ means
a. before
b. during
c. after
d. next day
115. The hormone testosterone is produced by the:
a. Epididymis
b. Leydig cells
c. Scrotum
d. Seminiferous Tubules
116. The hormone that is produced by the developing follicles on the ovary.
a. Estrogen
b. Prostaglandins
c. Progesterone
d. Testosterone
117. Meiosis in male for sperm production takes place here:
a. Prostate
b. Seminiferous tubules
c. Epididymis
d. Vas deferens
118. Prostaglandins are released from what organ if fertilization does not take place.
a. Uterus
b. Oviduct
c. Infundibulum
d. Ovary
119. Name the stage of estrous in which the egg is released into the infundibulum.
a. Proestrus
b. Estrus
c. Metestrus
d. Diestrus
22
120. Squeeze chutes are a form of restraint most often used with _______________.
a. Cattle, horses, and sheep
b. Cats
c. Cats and dogs
d. reptiles
121. __________________ is a steam-pressure sterilizer that uses heat to destroy
microorganisms on instruments.
a. A retort
b. A radiator
c. An asepsis
d. An autoclave
122. The root word or combining form of the medical term that regers to the lung is
__________.
a. Derm or dermat
b. Cardi
c. Pulmo or pulmon
d. Thorac
123. Docking is the removal of an animal’s _______________.
a. Testicles
b. Tail
c. Horns
d. Claws
124. Baby dogs are born in groups of 1 to 10 puppies, known as ____________________.
a. Broods
b. Orphans
c. Litters
d. Bitches
125. _________________ exams are often used to determine the presence of internal parasites
in dogs.
a. Fecal
b. Mouth
c. Ear
d. Skin
126. Which type of tissue covers body surfaces and lines body cavities as skin?
a. Nervous tissue
b. Connective tissue
c. Muscular tissue
d. Epithelial tissue
23
127. Bone that has the appearance of visible spaces within it is known as _________ bone.
a. Cancellous
b. Woven
c. Haversian
d. Compact
128. The study of the functions of the cells, tissues, organs, and systems of an organism is
_______________.
a. Anatomy
b. Physiology
c. Homeostasis
d. Botany
129. Cell ______________ is the differences that allow cells to perform unique activities.
a. Multiplication
b. Physiology
c. Division
d. Specialization
130. A cat should be ___________ to protect it against diseases such as rabies and feline
leukemia.
a. Spayed
b. Neutered
c. Vaccinated
d. Washed
131. Which of the following is a multicellular organism that lives in or on another animal,
from which it receives its nutrients?
a. A bacteria
b. A parasite
c. A protozoa
d. A virus
132. A balling gun is used to deliver medications ______________.
a. Orally
b. Rectally
c. Topically
d. Subcutaneously
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133. _______________ are immune substances produced in the body, allowing animals to
withstand exposure to disease.
a. Biologicals
b. Disinfectants
c. Antibodies
d. Antibiotics
134. Which of the following types of disease is related to a physical injury to the animal?
a. Contagious
b. Nutritional
c. Morphological
d. Physiological
135. Soaking items in a chemical disinfectant until they are used is called ___________.
a. Ultrasound
b. Cold sterilization
c. Filtration
d. Cleaning
136. Removing particles from the air using physical barrier is called _________.
a. Ultrasound
b. Cold sterilization
c. Filtration
d. Cleaning
137. Passing high frequency sound waves through a solution to create a vibration that scrubs
an object to remove debris is called ____________________.
a. Ultrasound
b. Cold sterilization
c. Filtration
d. Cleaning
138. ___________ are biohazard materials such as needles, scalpel blades, and syringes that
must be disposed of in red, sealed containers labeled with the biohazard symbol.
a. Radioactive material
b. Dosimeters
c. MSDS
d. Sharps
25
139. ____________________ lists information about a chemical including manufacturer
information, hazard ingredients, physical and chemical characteristics, fire and explosion
hazard data, health hazard data, precautions for safe handling and use and control
measures.
a. Pesticide Label
b. Material Safety Data Sheet
c. Inventory Sheet
d. Order sheet
140. To remove a tick you should ______________.
a. Use a match to burn the tick off
b. Cut the tick off with a knife
c. Pour alcohol on the tick, then pull it off
d. Use tweezers to grasp the head and pull straight out
141. The clinical signs of heartworm are: __________.
a. Vomiting, deep cough, anemia
b. Anemia, deep cough, irregular heart beat
c. Deep cough, irregular heart beat, exercise intolerance
d. Irregular heart beat, anemia, exercise intolerance
142. One disease that is transmitted by the tick is called _________.
a. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
b. Toxoplasmosis
c. Salmonella
d. Ringworm
143. What parasite transmits Lyme disease?
a. Dirofilaria immitis
b. Heartworm
c. Lice
d. Tick
144. The organism that causes heartworm is called _________.
a. Dirofilaria immitis
b. Taenia pisiformis
c. Giardia
d. Protozoa
145. The most common endoparasite of puppies and kittens is called _________.
a. Flea
b. Roundworm
c. Mite
d. Protozoa
26
Appendix D: Equipment Identification
(Practicum A)
Vet Office and Surgical Equipment
1. Backhaus Towel Clamp
2. Carmalt
3. Catheter- Urinary
4. Forceps- Adson Tissue
5. Forceps- Kelly
6. Needle Holder -Olsen Hagar
7. Needles: 18, 22, & 25 gauge
8. Ophthalmoscope
9. Otoscope
10. Scalpel Handle
11. Scissors- Bandage
12. Scissors- Mayo
13. Spay Hook
14. Stethoscope
15. Surgical Tray
16. Suture Material
17. Suture Needles
18. Syringe- Leur lock
19. Syringe- Slip tip
20. Thermometer
Grooming Equipment (Horses and Dogs)
1. Brush- Dandy
2. Brush- Slicker
3. Clippers
4. Comb- Curry
5. Comb- Scotch
6. Nail Trimmers
7. Shedding Blade
8. Hoof Knife
9. Hoof Nipper
10. Hoof Pick
11. Hoof Rasp
12. Hoof Trimmers
13. Pin Brush
14. Gulitine Nail Clippers
15. Plier Nail Clippers
27
Livestock Equipment
1. Automatic syringe revolver
2. Balling Gun
3. Bands
4. Dehorner- Barnes
5. Dehorner- Electric
6. Dehorner- Scoop or Tube
7. Drench gun
8. Ear notcher
9. Ear Tag
10. Ear Tag Pliers
11. Elastrator
12. Emasculatome
13. Hog Snare
14. Obstetrical Chain and Handle
15. Paste Gun
16. Pig tooth nippers
17. Rumen magnet
18. Tattoo pliers
19. Weight tape
20. Sheep Shears
21. Chure
22. Twitch
23. Halter
24. Muzzle
28
Appendix E: Practicum C-F Scoresheet
Official FFA Pet Health Record
Today’s Date__________________
Client Name: _____________________________Address _________________________
_________________________________________Phone:_________________________
Employment_______________________________________Phone_________________
Animal's Name____________Breed_____________Color____________Species______
DOB__________Age______Sex______Altered________Date___________
Vaccination History
Fecal Exams
Date
Vaccination
Revaccination
Date
Results
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
Dental Care
Allergies
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
Reason for Visit
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
Weight____________________
Temperature________________
29
Team ID:____________ Code:___________
Name:____________ Chapter:_____________
Procedure: Pet Health Records
(Time: 5 minutes)
Possible
allocated
1. Owner's name, address phone number & employment information:
3= All information collected and spelled correctly
2= One piece of information missing or name misspelled
1=Name misspelled and one an/or more pieces of info missing
0=No information gathered
2. Pet's name:
2=Collected and spelled correctly
1=Collected but misspelled
0=Not collected
3. Breed/Dominant Breed if mixed and Species – written in scientific terms:
3=Breed and Species correctly identified (scientific name of species)
2= Breed and Species correctly identified (not scientific species)
1=One piece of info missing or incorrect
0=No information gathered
4. Age/birth date:
2= All information collected
1= DOB or Age missing or incorrect
0= Both DOB and Age missing or incorrect
5. Sex, castrated or spayed:
2= All information collected
1= Sex or Altered missing or incorrect
0= Both Sex and Altered missing or incorrect
6. Date of visit:
2=Collected correctly
0=Not collected or incorrect
7. Determined reason for visit during:
5=All underlined pieces of information collected (7)
4=5/7 pieces of info collected
3=3/7 pieces of info collected
2=1/7 pieces of info collected
1=Information collected but does not include underlined information
0=No information collected
8. Recorded weight and vaccination history
2= All information collected
1= Weight or vaccination missing or incorrect
0= Weight and vaccination missing or incorrect
10.File completed legibly.
4=Information is written clearly with no misspellings
3=Information is written clearly but spelling errors are frequent
2=Information is difficult to read
1=Information is difficult to read and spelling errors are frequents
0=Information is impossible to read
TOTAL POINTS
3
2
3
2
2
2
5
2
4
25
**If a competitor jeopardizes the patient's or his/her own safety or fails to perform a
critical step and does not take immediate action to correct the error, the total points for
the procedure or specific subpart(s) of the procedure will be deducted by the judge(s).
30
Team ID:____________ Code:___________
Name:____________ Chapter:_____________
Procedure: Simple Fecal Floatation
(Time: 5 minutes)
Possible
Allocated
Used alcohol-based handrub for hand hygiene. yes=1, no=0
Applied latex gloves. yes=1, no=0
Assembled equipment and supplies. yes=2, no=0
Placed approximately 2 – 5 g of feces in the fecalyzer base.
yes=3, no=0
Add floatation solution up to the green arrow. yes=2, no=0
Rotate green insert vial back and forth to mix thoroughly. yes=2,
no=0
Insert green vial firmly with tongue depressor or thumb. yes=2,
no=0
Filled the holder completely to form a meniscus with additional
flotation solution. yes=2, no=0
Placed a cover slip on top of the meniscus. yes=2, no=0
Verbalized leaving the cover slip in place for 10 – 20 minutes.
yes=2, no=0
Verbalized to transfer cover slip to slide for microscope
examination.
yes=2, no=0
Close cap and dispose of fecalyzer. yes=2, no=0
Removed gloves and used alcohol-based handrub for hand
hygiene. yes=2, no=0
1
1
2
3
TOTAL POINTS
25
Score
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
**If a competitor jeopardizes the patient's or his/her own safety or fails to perform a
critical step and does not take immediate action to correct the error, the total points for
the procedure or specific subpart(s) of the procedure will be deducted by the judge(s).
31
Team ID:____________ Code:___________
Name:____________ Chapter:_____________
Procedure: Drawing Syringe and Injection
(Time: 10 minutes)
Possible
Allocated
Used alcohol-based handrub for hand hygiene. yes=2, no=0
Applied latex gloves. yes=2, no=0
Assembled equipment and supplies. yes=3, no=0
Properly read medication label & calculate amount to be given
yes=4, no=0
Properly draw up the proper amount of liquid. yes=4, no=0
Properly inject the liquid using the appropriate method given on
the medication label. yes=4, no=0
Verbally describe the procedures as they are doing them.
yes=4, no=0
Removed gloves and used alcohol-based handrub for hand
hygiene.
yes=2, no=0
2
2
3
4
Total Points
25
Score
4
4
4
2
**If a competitor jeopardizes the patient's or his/her own safety or fails to perform a
critical step and does not take immediate action to correct the error, the total points for
the procedure or specific subpart(s) of the procedure will be deducted by the judge(s).
32
Team ID:____________ Code:___________
Name:____________ Chapter:_____________
Procedure: Apply/Remove Gauze Restraint Muzzle
(Time: 15 minutes)
Possible
Allocated
Used alcohol-based handrub for hand hygiene yes=2, no=0
2
2
2
2
Assembled supplies
yes=2, no=0
Spoke to dog in calm, affectionate tone throughout procedure. yes=2,no=0
Using a 4-foot long piece of gauze, make a loop by tying an overhand
knot that is not tightened down. yes=2, no=0
Have the dog either restrained by the scruff of the neck or by a leash.
yes=2, no=0
Stood slighted to the right or left of the dog’s head, just out of its reach,
and slid the loop around the dog’s muzzle. yes=2, no=0
Quickly tightened by pulling on ends of gauze. yes=2, no=0
Tied another overhead knot under the dog’s chin. yes=2, no=0
Brought ends of muzzle up behind dog’s ears and tied using a bowknot.
yes=3, no=0
Kept hands scissors close by in case the muzzle must be quickly cut off.
yes=2, no=0
Removal: Untied the bowknot and gently pulled off the muzzle.
yes=2, no=0
Was careful that the dog did not bite, that the head was restrained
carefully. yes=2, no=0
TOTAL POINTS – PROCEDURE
2
2
2
2
3
2
2
2
25
**If a competitor jeopardizes the patient's or his/her own safety or fails to perform a critical step and does
not take immediate action to correct the error, the total points for the procedure or specific subpart(s) of
the procedure will be deducted by the judge(s).
33