3. The time of hardening for Dentin paste as a temporary filling is:
A. 8 min.
B. 25 min.
C. 1 hour
D. 40 min.
E. 2-3 hours
4. What liquid should be used for mixing of the powder of the Artificial dentin?
A. Polyacrylic acid
B. Orthophosphoric acid.
C. Methylmethacrylate
D. Eugenol.
E. Distilled water
6. Which of the enumerated materials can be used as temporary fillings:
A. Silico-phosphate, composite
B. Compomers
C. All cements
D. Silicate cements
E. Zinc-eugenol cements
11. Pulpal SENSITIVITY is caused primarily by:
A. Vibration from cavity preparation
B. Thermal trauma
C. Electrical trauma
D. All of answers are correct
E. Chemical irritation from bacteria
12. CHRONIC INFLAMMATION is caused primarily by:
A. Mechanical inflammation
B. Microleakage of endotoxins
C. Thermal trauma
D. All of the metioned factors
E. Chemical irritation from dental materials
13. The DENTIN SMEAR LAYER increases:
A. Chemical adhesion for varnishes
B. Mechanical adhesion for liners
C. Thermal insulation for the pulp
D. Coverage of tubule openings
E. Formation of reparative dentin
14. What is the THICKNESS of thermal insulation required for pulpal protection?
A. 1000-2000 mm (1.000-2.000 mm)
B. 10-50 mm (0.010-0.050 mm)
C. 50-200 mm (0.050-0.100 mm)
D. 200-1000 mm (0.200-0.500 mm)
E. 2-5 mm (0.002-0.005 mm)
16. Dental materials that are designed as PULPAL MEDICAMENTS contain:
A. Calcium hydroxide or Eugenol
B. Calcium phosphate or Eugenol
C. Calcium hydroxide or Methyl Salicylate
D. Zinc oxide or Eugenol
E. Calcium hydroxide or Zinc Oxide
18. Which intraoral component is required to start the setting of DYCAL?
A. Ca ions from tooth structure
B. Higher temperatures of the intraoral tissues
C. Denatured proteins in the smear layer
D. Monovalent ions from saliva
E. Moisture for calcium hydroxide dissociation
27. What are indications for use for the Zinc-phosphate cements?
A. Fixation of the intracanal metal posts
B. All varients are correct
C. Root canals filling
D. Fixation of the crowns
E. As a base material
28. During the treatrment of profound caries Zinc-Oxide eugenol base has been used. Which of the
innumerated materials can be fixed over this base?
A. Composite resin
B. Cements for permanent filling
C. Microhybrid Composites
D. Light-cured Composite resin
E. All answers are correct
30. Silicate cements differ from Zinc-phosphate mainly by the composition of:
A. Supplements
B. Heat-conductability
C. Liquid
D. Powder
E. All answers are correct
31. The main difference between Carboxylate cements and Zn-eugenol cements is:
A. Composition of the powder
B. Composition of the liquid
C. Shrinkage
D. Solubility
E. Thermal conductivity
39. Contaminated or overly wet tooth surfaces interfere with the:
A. Adaptation of the cement for chemical bonding
B. Initial setting reaction
C. Final setting reaction
D. Release of fluoride ion
E. Color of the final cement
42. Which one of the following is NOT a major use for glass ionomers?
A. Class V filling material
B. Liner
C. Base
D. Cement
E. Tunnel preparations
43. Which application takes best advantage of chemical adhesion of glass ionomers?
A. Class V filling material
B. Liner
C. Base
D. Cement
E. Tunnel preparations
44. Which application takes best advantage of the fluoride release of glass ionomers?
A. Liner
B. Base
C. Root caries restorations
D. Retrograde filling material
E. Core
46. What is the mechanism of reinforcement of metal-modified GIs?
A. Addition of stronger powder particles
B. Addition of particles which can be chelated by matrix
C. Addition of particles which can dissolve and affect reaction
D. Addition of particle that accelerate fluoride release
E. Addition of insoluble particles
47. What is the major difference between chemically-cured and light-cured (LC) GIs?
A. LC produces second matrix
B. LC version has no acid-base reaction
C. LC versions accelerate release of F from aluminosilicate glass
D. LC eliminates all moisture sensitivity of material
E. LC version increases adhesion to tooth structure
48. Which one of the following is not part of a "multiple-curing" GI system?
A. Ca++ ion crosslinking of acid-functional polymer chains
B. Al+++ ion replacement of Ca++ crosslinking
C. Visible light polymerization of matrix monomers into polymer
D. Chemical curing of matrix monomers into polymer
E. F ion crosslinking of polymer chains
53. Which of the following re-charging sources is the most effective?
A. Topical fluoride treatments
B. Daily fluoride mouth rinses
C. Fluoride-containing toothpastes
D. Ice tea
E. Fluoride supplements
54. How long does re-charging of glass ionomer materials effect F-release?
A. 1-2 minutes
B. 1 -2 days
C. 1 -2 weeks
D. 1-2 months
E. 1 -2 years
55. Dental amalgam is DEFINED as:
A. A mixture of mercury with any metal
B. A mixture of mercury with silver
C. A mixture of mercury with silver and tin
D. A mixture of mercury with any zinc alloy
E. The alloy for mixing with mercury
58. What COMPONENTS are typical in LOW COPPER dental amalgam alloy?
A. Ag-Sn
B. Ag-Sn-(Cu)-(Zn)
C. Sn-Cu-Zn
D. Ag-Sn-Cu-(Zn)
E. Ag-Sn-Cu-Zn
63. NEW TRUE DENTALLOY dental amalgam alloy is made as what type of powder?
A. Irregular
B. Irregular + Irregular
C. Irregular + Spherical
D. Spherical + Spherical
E. Spherical
66. What is the reason Cu is included in a dental amalgam alloy?
A. Corrosion protection
B. Increased ductility
C. Prevention of tarnishing
D. Reduction in amalgamation speed
E. Improved condensability
70. Which one of the following variables does NOT influence the amount of DIMENSIONAL
CHANGE during setting of dental amalgams?
A. Alloy particle size or shape
B. Hg/alloy ratio
C. Trituration time
D. Condensation method
E. Burnishing technique
71. What does the batch (or lot) number code of "040501" on an amalgam alloy mean?
A. It was produced on January 5, 2004
B. It was shipped on January 5, 2004
C. It is no longer acceptable after January 5, 2004
D. That it contains 4Sn-5Cu-1Zn in the alloy
E. That it should not be used before January 5, 2004
73. Which one of the following produces the MOST mercury-rich matrix removal?
A. Condensation late in the working time
B. Use of the largest condenser tip
C. Use of the most load during condensation
D. Non-overlapping condensing strokes
E. Burnishing
76. Which one of the following mechanisms of FAILURE is most common for HIGH COPPER
dental amalgam?
A. Excessive tarnish
B. Bulk fracture
C. Intergranular corrosion of the occlusal surface
D. Enamel wall fracture from thermal expansion stresses
E. Marginal fracture
77. MARGINAL FRACTURE of dental amalgam is NOT associated with this property.
A. Compressive strength
B. Creep
C. Mercury content
D. Electrochemical properties
E. Thermal conductivity
78. Which one of the following does NOT affect the strength of dental amalgam?
A. Time between trituration and condensation
B. Mercury content
C. Zinc content
D. Condensation effectiveness
E. Porosity
79. Which ONE of the following is NOT a reason for utilizing composite technology in dentistry?
A. Metal, ceramic, or polymer alone does not have the correct properties to replace tooth structure
B. In situ molding requires a fluid phase for flow
C. In situ adhesion requires a fluid phase for physical and/or chemical bonding
D. In situ setting avoids built in mechanical stresses
80. The major shortcoming of the rule-of-mixtures is that it accounts for only ONE of the following
factors, which is:
A. Arrangement factors
B. Bonding factors
C. Composition factors
D. Defect factors
81. Which ONE of the following is NOT a stage in chain reaction polymerization?
A. Activation
B. Initiation
C. Configuration
D. Propagation
E. Termination
82. Which ONE of the following species is comparatively high concentration in the average composite
composition?
A. Colorants
B. Initiator
C. Accelerator
D. UV stabilizer
E. Low MW monomer
87. Which of the following is not present in an auto-polymerizing dental composite?
A. BIS-GMA
B. BPO
C. DHPT
D. Silane
E. PMMA
89. Which of the following does not impact the viscosity of a unset composite?
A. Volume fraction of filler
B. Viscosity of the resin
C. Surface area-to-volume ratio of the filler
D. Benzoyl peroxide concentration
90. Which ONE of the following potential fillers can NOT be silanated?
A. Quartz
B. Aluminosilicate glass
C. Lithium aluminosilicate glass
D. Silica
E. Barium sulfate
92. What types of fillers are mixed together in standard hybrid composites?
A. Midifiller and Minifiller
B. Minifiller and Microfiller
C. Microfiller and Nanofiller
D. Midifiller and Microfiller
E. Minifiller and Nanofiller
93. What types of fillers are mixed together in mini-hybrid composites?
A. Midifiller and Minifiller
B. Minifiller and Microfiller
C. Microfiller and Nanofiller
D. Midifiller and Microfiller
E. Minifiller and Nanofiller
94. What types of fillers are mixed together in nano-hybrid composites?
A. Microfiller and Nanofiller
B. Minifiller and Nanofiller
C. Microfiller and Nano-clusters
D. Microfiller and Nanomers
E. Nanomers, Nanoclusters, and Midifiller
96. Which one of the following statements characterizes second generation flowable composites?
A. Much better flow than first generation products.
B. All products are almost the same strength as standard hybrid composites.
C. Much greater depth of cure than regular composites.
D. Do not adapt well to bonded dentin surfaces.
E. Are more difficult to cure with visible light than other composites.
97. What is the reason for applying several coats of primers, self-etching primers, or self-etching
adhesives during bonding procedures?
A. Insure adequate film formation after solvent loss
B. Increase the strength of the bonding layer
C. Increase the water resistance of the cured film
D. Increase the fatigue resistance of the adhesive
E. To minimize oxygen inhibition during VL curing
98. What is the typical solvent level range for dentin bonding systems?
A. 10-30%
B. 20-50%
C. 45-50%
D. 55-60%
E. 60-90%
102. What is the minimum output expected for standard QTH visible light curing units?
A. 100 mW/cm2
B. 200 mW/cm2
C. 300 mW/cm2
D. 400 mW/cm2
E. 600 mW/cm2
104. What is the standard output for third-generation LED visible light curing units?
A. 100 mW/cm2
B. 200 mW/cm2
C. 300 mW/cm2
D. 600 mW/cm2
E. 800-1000 mW/cm2
106. What is the largest volume of glass ionomer sold in the world today?
A. Giomer
B. Compomer
C. Resin-modified glass ionomer
D. Conventional glass ionomer
E. Resin-reinforced glass ionomer for ART technique
107. The principal goal(s) of bonding are:
A. Sealing and retention
B. Esthetics and reduction of postoperative sensitivity
C. Retention and reduction of tooth flexure
D. Strengthening teeth and esthetics
E. Sealing and thermal insulation
108. Which one of the following applications does NOT involve an adhesive joint?
A. Enamel bonding system
B. Pit-and-fissure sealant
C. Dentin bonding system
D. Amalgam bonding system
E. Composite cement
109. Which one of the following applications does NOT involve an adhesive joint?
A. Surface sealant
B. Composite resin cement
C. Dentin bonding system
D. Amalgam bonding system
E. Orthodontic bonding system
110. Which ONE of the following is NOT a major requirement for development of good adhesion?
A. Clean adherend
B. Calcium ions present for bonding
C. Good wetting
D. Intimate adaptation
E. Good curing
114. Which category of factors is most important in determining clinical performance?
A. Operator factors
B. Tooth factors
C. Location factors
D. Materials factors
E. Patient factors
116. At which location in enamel is the density of enamel crystals the lowest?
A. Prismless enamel
B. DEJ
C. Center of enamel prisms
D. Edges of enamel prisms
E. Facial enamel
119. In normal dentin, how far does an odontoblastic process extend from the cell?
A. 10-20 |im
B. 0.5 mm
C. 1 mm
D. Half way to the DEJ
E. Most of the way to the DEJ
120. What is the typical volume of dentin occupied by dentinal tubules in the outer third of dentin?
A. 50%
B. 40%
C. 25%
D. 14%
E. 5%
122. Which one of the following is most important event for dentin bonding?
A. Smear layer removal
B. Smear plug removal
C. Peritubular dentin decalcification
D. Intertubular dentin decalcification
E. Collagen denaturation
124. Which of the following products was the first to represent a 1-component DBS?
A. Prompt L-Pop
B. SingleBond
C. Optibond Solo
D. One-step
E. Clearfil Liner Bond
125. When a ceramic inlay is bonded, which of the following interfaces does NOT involve chemical
bonding as part of the joint?
A. Enamel/Bonding Agent
B. Bonding Agent/Composite Cement
C. Composite Cement/Coupling agent
D. Coupling Agent/Ceramic
126. When a ceramic inlay is bonded, which of the following do NOT involve micro- mechanical
bonding in the joint?
A. Enamel/Bonding Agent
B. Dentin/Bonding Agent
C. Bonding Agent/Composite Cement
D. Composite Cement/Ceramic
129. Which ONE of the following is NOT a component of bonding agents used with composite
restorations?
A. Reinforcing filler
B. Inhibitor
C. Initiator
D. Low MW monomer
E. BIS-GMA
130. Which ONE of the following methods is NOT used to categorize composite restorations?
A. Weight percent filler level
B. Volume percent filler level
C. Method of matrix activation
D. Filler particle size (or distribution)
E. Composite shade
131. Earlier generations of composites (macrofills) contained which ONE of the following volume
percent levels of filler?
A. 30 v/o
B. 40 v/o
C. 50 v/o
D. 60 v/o
E. 70 v/o
132. Which ONE of the following products contains the MOST filler?
A. Macrofill Composites
B. Pit-and-Fissure Sealants
C. Microfill Composites
D. Heterogeneous Microfills
E. Hybrid Composites
134. Which one of the following systems is currently NOT used for curing composites?
A. Ultraviolet-light curing
B. Visible-light curing
C. Chemical curing
D. Dual curing
E. Very high intensity light curing
136. In which of the following categories is dentin bonding of critical importance?
A. Class III and IV restorations
B. Class V and Erosion-Abrasion Restorations
C. Class I and II restorations
137. Which ONE of the following does not affect the depth-of-cure of double bonds in composites?
A. Method of activation
B. Incremental addition
C. Post-curing
D. Composite Color
E. Finishing Procedure
139. What is the minimum acceptable level for visible curing light outputs?
A. 50 mW/cm2
B. 150 mW/cm2
C. 300 mW/cm2
D. 550 mW/cm2
E. 1500 mW/cm2
140. Which one of the following materials is not a retarders or inhibitors of chain reaction
polymerization?
A. Eugenol
B. Calcium Hydroxide
C. Water
D. Air
E. Hydroquinone
142. What is the main reason for avoiding the use of green stones, white stones, or coarse diamond
burs for finishing a composite?
A. Heat generation
B. Battering of enamel margins
C. Poor abrasivity
D. Scratch width
E. Discoloration of the composite
143. What range of scratches would be considered FINE finishing?
A. 100-1000 μm
B. 10-100 μm
C. 1 -10 μm
D. 0.1-1 μm
E. 0.01-0.1 μm
144. Which ONE of the following "finishing" procedures produces the smoothest surface on a
composite?
A. Talc
B. Soflex discs
C. Finishing strips
D. Fine diamonds
E. Carbide burs
145. Which ONE of the following "finishing" procedures produces the smoothest surface on a
composite?
A. Talc
B. Finishing strips
C. Diamond finishing burs
D. Carbide burs
E. Diamond finishing pastes
148. What is depth-of-cure possible for an A2 shade of hybrid composite ?
A. 5-10 mm
B. 4-5 mm
C. 2-3 mm
D. 1-2 mm
E. 1 mm
152. In the indication for use of the composite it is written that the size of particle is less than 0,04
mcm. In what classes of cavities it can be used?
A. I-II classes
B. III-II classes
C. V-I-II classes
D. III-V classes
E. III-V classes
154. What type of drills is used for final preparation of the filling?
A. Diamomnd and carbide drills
B. Fine grinded and carbide drills
C. Medium grinded diamond drills
D. 6-blanded carbide drills
E. Course and medium diamond drills
156. During which stage of treatment the operator should choose the colours of future filling?
A. After the preparation of carious cavity
B. Before the preparation
C. After the placement of isolation base
D. After bonding procedure
E. After the etching procedure
157. Step by step restoration technigue ebsure:
A. Compensation of the occlusal loading
B. Before fixation of the filling
C. Esthetic restoration
D. A+C
E. All answer are wrong
158. What elements does the „tooth cavity” include?
A. pulp chamber, root canal system
B. pulp chamber, basic root canal, additional root canals, apex
C. pulp chamber, basic root canal, additional root canals, apical delta, apex
D. pulp chamber
160. What formations contain the epithelial cells?
A. Pulp-dentin complex
B. Pulp-periapical complex
C. Pulp
D. No one
162. What classes according Black classification are the most rare that cause the pulp inflammation?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. V
163. What elements does the root canal system consist of?
A. Basic canal
B. Second basic canal in the same root
C. Additional canals
D. Аpical deltas
E. Transversal canals
164. How often the apical opening does not coincide with the tooth root apex? Name the percentage.
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
168. Name the percentage of cases when 4 canals in the 1-st lower molar can be observed?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 20%
D. 30%
170. The examination of a patient revealed the insufficient tooth pulp development. What embryonal
source was damaged?
A. Endoderm
B. Epithelium of the mouth
C. Mesenchyma
E. Ectoderm
173. Capillaries are found throughout the entire pulp, but the majority of them is in:
A. pulp cusps
B. central pulp
C. subodontoblastic layer
D. in the root region
174. Root canal obliteration:
A. usually the prognosis as to the tooth saving in not comforting
B. can be removed with a drill
C. in most cases it happens in patients with pathology of development
D. it may need a complex special measures in treatment
176. Localization of the access cavity on the occlusial surface concerning another surface:
A. А
B. В
C. С
178. The most frequent clinical mistake in the lower incisor pulp chamber opening is:
A. lingual perforation
B. labial perforation
C. incisor is broken
D. lateral perforation
180. What canal is the most lower in molar canal?
A. MB canal
B. ML canal
C. DB canal
D. DL canal
182. What is the main purpose of access forming in the pulpectomy?
A. To localize the orifice and provide straight access to the root canal
B. To make a coronal pulp amputation
C. To widen the cavity including the pulp chamber
D. To widen the cavity including the pulp chamber and localize peep-holes
185. The shapes of the central and lateral upper incisors access cavities most often are:
A. similar due to the likeness of their crowns and roots
B. triangle, and located in the incisor in the direction of the enamel tubercle paracervical on the palatal
tooth surface
C. triangle and oval
D. execute with a fissure-staight drill
186. The 1-st upper molar mesio-buccal root can include:
A. usually 1 root canal
B. in most cases 2 root canals
C. has the second root canal peep-hole, which is located towards the MD peep-hole
D. has the second root canal peep-hole, which is located towards the P root canal peep-hole
187. The second upper molar morphologically differs from the second upper molar in:
A. divergent buccal roots
B. there are no parallel root canals
C. three roots, which are located with each other
D. the right-angled shape of the tooth cavity bottom
191. How can it be confirmed that the second canal is available?
A. To make an additional x-ray film in mesial or distal horizontal angle
B. To change the access forming
C. To make the the x-ray angle larger in vertical plain
D. to make an additional intra-oral x-ray of teeth and jaw in occlusion
193. What endodontic tool will be used primarily and secondarily in case of manual root canal
preparation?
A. К-file No15
B. К-reamer No10
C. GT-file 35/12
D. Н-file No15
195. When is the highest risk of endodontic tool fracture in the full-round root canal preparation?
A. Manual
B. Rotary speed is 200 revolutions per minute
C. Rotary with a programmed round control
D. It is important
196. For what endodontic tool a full revolution is unacceptable?
A. К-file
B. К-reamer
C. С-file
D. Н-file
197. For what endodontic tool the «balance forces» method is the most dangerous?
A. К-file
B. К-reamer
C. GT-file
D. Н-file
202. Endodontic tool of size No 30 is marked:
A. red
B. blue
C. black
D. violet
E. white
505. To perform the root canal probing it should be used:
A. Miller needle
B. Н-file No15
C. К-file No10
D. H-file No15
206. All of the following endodontic instruments are designed to remove dentin except which one:
A. K-file
B. reamer
C. broach
D. Hedstrom
207. The endodontic "triad" consists of which of the following:
A. access, biomechanical instrumentation, and obturation
B. rubber dam placement, access, and obturation
C. biomechanical instrumentation, obturation, and restoration
D. access, obturation, and restoration
208. All of the following are true about Hedstrom files except which one:
A. they work best by rotation
B. they are made from a circular wire
C. they are manufactured in uniform sizes
D. they are made from either stainless steel or nickel titanium metal
209. Which of the following is a chelating agent, helping to loosen calcific obstructions in the root
canal:
A. gutta-percha
B. Roth's 801
C. sodium hypochlo-rite
D. EDTA
213. What definition as to the barber broach is correct?
A. barber broach can be used in curved canals
B. barber broach is carried out (put into operation) in the full length
C. barber broach can be carried out with press into the root canal
D. the size of barber broach makes it possible to extract the pulp, avoiding the root canal walls
214. Barber broach is a flexible manual endodontic tool with sharp hooks and is used for:
A. extraction of the roof of the pulp chamber
B. extraction of the pulp tissue from the root canal
C. finishing the root canal dentin
D. making the apical barrier in the root canal apex
215. What is the difference between K-file and K-reamer?
A. Do instruments make the square cuts prior to preparation, twist method
B. In the same length the spiral amount is different
C. All the reamers make the triangular cuts prior to preparation
D. K-file can be used as mechanical and manual endodontic tools
217. The important factor in case of the endodontic tool fracture in the root canal is:
A. length
B. diameter
C. localization
D. flexibility
218. In the majority cases the H-file is used for:
A. widening the root canal from apex to the root canal entrance
B. making the round shaped form in the apical 1/3 length
C. preparing the canal for restoration with a pin
D. for the dentin cutting with a rotary movement
219. Mechanical 3-th size piesoreamer is used for:
A. extraction of the rest of the pulp and tissues
B. instrumental preparation of the apical and medium parts of the root canal
C. finishing and polishing of all the canal walls
D. finishing and widening the crown 1/3 length of the root canal
221. For how long does the hot gutta percha possess its ability to condensation?
A. 5 sec
B. 30 sec
C. 1 min
D. 2 min
223. Which of the assertions as to the silver points is true?
A. Silver content in them is equal to 70%
B. Texture of their surface does not influence on the sealer adhesion
C. They prove to be the least toxic in endodontics
D. They can be exposed to corrosion that has cytotoxic affect
224. Standard gutta percha post are used as the basic posts, because they are:
A. long, cone-shaped and thermoplastic
B. they can easily penetrate into the narrow, curved, canals
C. of the same diameter and cone-shaped with instruments used for root canals
D. tough, strong and are easily inserted into the canal
225. If the roentgenography (X-ray) reveals that the standard point is too short, than the dentist can:
A. use the lubricant for its deeper insertion
B. widen the canal by H-file (its dimensions corresponds to master file) and repeat the insertion of the
point
C. use the new point but with smaller dimension
D. apply it with apical effort
226. In case the X-ray shows that the standard gutta percha point is a little bit shorter (up to 0,5 mm),
than the dentist can:
A. select the most suitable point among the rest of the same size
B. widen the canal with a help of K-file with a proper size
C. use the lubricant for inserting the post with the apical effort
D. use it, taking into account the necessity in filling a gap with a sealer
227. In case the post is too long, the dentist can:
A. select the point of greater size
B. make shorter for 1 mm
C. make shorter with, using the Maillefer caliber-rule
D. insert point against the stop and shorten its excess according to the X-ray showings
229. In what cases the obturation by a single gutta percha sealer point with sealer is indicated?
A. narrow (20-25) and curved canal after preparation
B. slightly curved canal of the lateral upper incisor
C. an undeveloped canal in children
D. in all above-mentioned cases
230. In what cases the obturation of a canal by lateral condensation method is recommended?
A. narrow (20-25) and curved canal after preparation
B. slightly curved canal of the upper lateral incisor
C. an undeveloped canal of the upper lateral incisor
D. in all above-mentioned cases
E. in all above-mentioned cases except for ….. A
232. Which of the belowmentioned demands as to the form of the canal preparation proved to be
unnecessary for the tooth filling by lateral condensation?
A. Apical narrowing
B. Apical projection
C. Even cone-shaping
D. Smooth walls
E. Round or oval form on transversal incision
233. How is the sealer introduced in lateral condensation?
A. By a canal filler with 200 rotations per minute that completely fills the canal
B. A small amount of sealer is introduced into the canal with a help of canal filler (200 rotations per
minute)
C. A small amount of sealer is introduced into the canal with a help of manual canal filler
D. Method of introduction and amount of sealer are not important
234. The characteristics of obturation of the canal system in case of proper lateral condensation. Which
of the below enumerated judgements are incorrect?
A. There is no material in the lateral canals
B. Sealer is in the lateral canals
C. Gutta-percha is in the lateral canals
D. Magistral canal is filled geometrically
236. Which of the enumerated instruments and materials proved to be unnecessary for the vertical
condensation?
A. Sealer
B. Gutta-percha based
C. Spreader – heat carrier
D. Plugger
E. Over for the gutta percha heater
238. Which of the enumerated statements, as to the form of the canal that is to be prepared, is
obligatory for the cervical condensation of the canal?
A. The presence of retention in the apical part of the canal
B. Even cone-shaping
C. Smooth walls
D. Round or oval form on the transversal incision
240. Which of the enumerated instruments and materials proved to be unnecessary for filling with
thermafil?
A. Sealer
B. Carrier of gutta percha – thermofil
C. Spreader – heat carrier
D. Over for gutta percha heating
241. What method of gutta percha filling the thermafil-based obturation is referred to?
A. The application of cold gutta percha
B. The application of gutta percha softened by chloroform
C. The application of gutta percha softened by intracanal heat
D. The application of gutta percha softened by extracanal heat
241. What method of obturation the thermofil-filling is referred to?
A. Method of lateral condensation
B. Method of central condensation
C. Method of vertical condensation
244. The main purpose of canal obturation is:
A. to keep the balance of both the post material and root cement in the canal
B. three-dimensional filling of the canal space
C. the isolation of the basic canal from the tissue liquids
245. What is the obturation purpose?
A. Balancation of filler and sealer amount in the root canal
B. Root canal 3D obturation
C. Basic root canal isolation from surrounded tissue liquid
D. Filling the lateral and periapical endodontic lesions
247. The best canal cement used with a semisolid point:
A. fills the roughness between the filling and canal walls
B. as a rule, irritates the periapical tissues
C. is radiopaque on applying, but not in final hardening
D. influences insignificantly on the final result of treatment
248. Standard gutta percha posts are used as the main post because they:
A. are long, cone-shaped and soluted in the chloroform
B. penetrate easily into the narrow curved canals
C. their diameter and form is similar to the diameter and form of the instruments used for root canals
250. The main gutta percha post must be closely inserted into the canal:
A. apical 1/3 length
B. in the 1/3 length
C. throughout the entire canal
D. all over the canal
251. The main compound for the majority root cements is:
A. epoxy resin
B. polivynil resin
C. zinc-oxide-eugenol
D. precipitated silver
252. At present, the most commonly used root canal cement (sealer) is:
A. Rikert’s sealer
B. Vakha’s sealer
C. chloropercha
D. Grossman’s type sealers
253. Prior to gutta percha filling, the canal is prepared with due regard to its walls:
A. they are to be parallel lengthwise
B. they are slightly converged to apical narrowing
C. they extend to apical opening
D. they are the widest in the apical and mesial 1/3 length of the root
254. The most preferable vertical level is:
A. Rgh apex
B. 0,5 mm deeper then rgh apex
C. 0,5 mm less than rgh apex
D. 0,5-1,0 mm less than rgh apex
255. Indications to canal preparation with silver points are:
A. narrow curved canals, which are not to be widen with dental instruments; their size should not be
larger than No 20-25
B. wide canals of the upper frontal teeth
C. in cases that demand surgical intervention, e.g. root resection
257. Which of the statements, concerning silver points is true?
A. The content of silver in them is approximately about 70%
B. Texture of their surface does not influence on the root canal adhesion
C. They prove to be the least toxic in endodontics
D. They can be exposed to corrosion, that possesses the cytotoxic effect
258. What statement about the silver points is true?
A. Silver points contain 70% of silver
B. The surface of pin do not effect on sealler adhesion
C. They are the least toxic materials in endodontics
D. Silver points corrosion can be cytotoxic
259. Free eugenol in the root canal sealer increases:
A. space stability
B. hardening time
C. cytotoxic effect
D. firmness
260. Standard gutta-percha posts are used as the main post because they:
A. are long, cone-shaped and dissolved in the chloroform
B. penetrate easily into the narrow cursed canals
C. their diameter and form is similar to the diameter and form of the instruments for root canals
261. Standartizated gutta-percha points are used as master points because:
A. they are long, taped and can be dissolved in chloroform
B. can be easily adapted in curved root canals
C. have the same diameter and shape as root canals endodontic tools
D. they are hard,straight and can be adapted easily in the root canal
262. The main gutta-percha post must be closely inserted into the canal:
A. apical 1/3 length
B. in the 1/3 length
C. throughout the entire canal
D. all over the canal
263. The main compound for the majority root cements is:
A. epoxy resin
B. polyvynil resin
C. zinc-oxide-eugenol
D. precipitated silver
264. At present, the most commonly used root canal cement (sealer) is:
A. Rikert’s sealer
B. Vakha’s sealer
C. chloropercha
D. Grossman’s type sealers
265. Prior to gutta percha filling, the canal is prepared with due regard to its walls:
A. they are to be parallel lengthwise
B. they slightly converged to apical narrowing
C. they extend to apical opening
D. they are the widest in the apical and mesial 1/3 length of the root
266. Which of statements about gutta percha is true?
A. Gutta-percha-based posts contain 20% of it
B. Its molecular elastic properties improve the hermeticity of the canal filling
C. The use of gutta-percha alongwith chemical solved possesses the space stability
267. Which of the statements, concerning silver points is true?
A. The content of silver in them is approximately about 70%
B. Texture of their surface does not influence on the root canal adhesion
C. They prove to be the least toxic in endodontics
D. They can be exposed to corrosion, that possesses the cytotoxic affect
268. What statement about the silver points is true?
A. Silver points contain 70% of silver
B. The surface of pin does not effect on sealler adgesion
C. They are the least toxic materials in endodontics
D. Silver points corrosion can be cytotoxic
269. Free eugenol in the root canal sealer increases:
A. space stability
B. hardening time
C. cytotoxic effect
D. firmness
270. Paraformaldehyde-containing cements of root canals can be used in:
A. temporary pulpotomy
B. treatment of necrotic pulp
C. root canal filling
272. Which of the assertions as to the silver points is true (correct)?
A. Silver content in them is equal to 70%
B. Texture of their surface does not influence on the sealer adhesion
C. They prove to be the least toxic in endodontics
D. They can be exposed to corrosion that has cytotoxic affect
273. Standard gutta-percha post are used as the basic posts, because they are:
A. long, cone-shaped and thermoplastic
B. they can easily penetrate into the narrow, curved, cursed canals
C. of the same diameter and cone shaping with instruments used for root canals
D. tough, strong and are easily interested into the canal
274. In case the X-ray shows that the standard gutta-percha point is a little bit shorter (up to 0,5 mm),
then the dentist can:
A. select the most suitable point among the rest of the same size
B. widen the canal with a help of K-file with a proper size
C. use the lubricant for inserting the post with the apical effort
D. use it, taking into account the necessity in filling a gap with a sealer
275. Which of the mentioned instruments and materials proved to be unnecessary for the lateral
condensation?
A. Sealers
B. Standard gutta percha post
C. Spreaders
D. Pluggers
276. How is the sealer introduced in lateral condensation?
A. By a canal filler with 200 rotations per minute that completely fills the canal
B. A small amount of sealer is introduced into the canal with a help of canal filler (200 rotations per
minute)
C. A small amount of siler is introduced into the canal with a help of manual canal filler
D. Method of introduction and amount of sealer are not important
278. Which of the enumerated instruments and materials are unnecessary for filling with thermofil?
A. Sealer
B. Carrier of gutta-percha – thermofil
C. Spreader – heat-carrier
D. Over for gutta-percha heating
279. The best facilities for gutta-percha sterilization are the use of:
A. 90% alcohol
B. 3% hydrogen peroxide
C. 70% alcohol
D. 5,25% sodium hypochloride
280. For gutta-percha sterilization it is better to use:
A. 90% alcohol
B. 3% H2O2
C. 70% alcogol
D. 5,25% NaOCl
282. The ideal canal cement used with a semisolid point:
A. fills the roughness between the filling and canal walls
B. as a rule, irritates the periapical tissues
C. is radiopaque an applying, but not in final hardening
D. influences insignificantly on the final result of treatment