Science 10 Final Exam
Student Name _____________________
Teacher Name _____________________
INSTRUCTIONS: For each question, select the best answer.
Life Science
1.
Cells and Genetics
Cytoplasm converts chemical energy into useable energy in the cell.
A. True
B. False
2.
Centrioles are in animal cells.
A. True
B. False
Match each Term on the left with the Descriptor on the right.
Each Descriptor may be used as often as necessary.
Term
Descriptor
3. nucleus
A. carries out photosynthesis
4. chloroplast
B. permeable outer layer of a cell
C. controls the functions of a cell
D. site of protein assembly in a cell
E. provides structural support for a cell
5.
Which of the following is in a plant cell, but not a skin cell?
A.
B.
C.
D.
vacuole
nucleus
cell wall
mitochondria
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6.
What happens to the surface area-to-volume ratio of a growing cell?
A.
B.
C.
D.
7.
It increases.
It decreases.
It remains the same.
It increases and then decreases.
An animal cell will expand in size if placed in salt water.
A. True
B. False
8.
What is the function of a vacuole in an animal cell?
I
II
III
A.
B.
C.
D.
provide structure for the cell
control protein synthesis in the cell
storage of water and nutrients for the cell
I only
II only
III only
I and II only
Use the following diagram to answer question 9.
The diagram below shows a water tank with a permeable membrane between
water containing food colouring particles and fresh water. The diagram shows
how the food colouring particles move to different parts of the tank through the
membrane.
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9.
What process is shown in the diagram?
A.
B.
C.
D.
osmosis
diffusion
interphase
respiration
Use the following pie graph to answer question 10.
Graph Showing the Life Cycle of a Cell
95%
5%
10.
Interphase occurs in X.
A. True
B. False
Use the following diagrams of stages in cell reproduction to answer
questions 11 to 13.
I
II
Select A if the statement is supported by the diagrams.
Select B if the statement is refuted by the diagrams.
Select C if the statement is neither supported nor refuted by the diagrams.
11.
Diagram I shows a cell in anaphase.
A B C
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12.
The phase shown in diagram II occurs after the phase shown in diagram I.
A B C
13.
The diagrams show phases of cell division for an animal cell.
A B C
________________________________________________________________
14.
Which of the following types of asexual reproduction require the cell to split into
two equal pieces?
A.
B.
C.
D.
15.
Which of the following is a disadvantage of asexual reproduction compared with
sexual reproduction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
16.
budding
regeneration
binary fission
vegetative reproduction
Only one parent is required for reproduction.
Great numbers of offspring can be produced.
Only two parents are required to reproduce offspring.
All offspring are identical and a single disease could affect entire population.
Consider the following diagram.
The diagram illustrates asexual reproduction.
A. True
B. False
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17.
Which of the following describes a genotype?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
A.
B.
C.
D.
18.
pp x pp
Pp x pp
Pp x Pp
PP x pp
How is the sex of a human offspring determined?
A.
B.
C.
D.
20.
I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
II and IV only
Which of the following crosses would result in only homozygous offspring?
A.
B.
C.
D.
19.
TT
a short-haired cat
the kinds of alleles an individual organism has for a particular trait
the physical appearance of an organism with respect to a particular trait
The egg from the mother contains two Y chromosomes.
The sperm from the father contains two Y chromosomes.
The egg from the mother contains an X or a Y chromosome.
The sperm from the father contains an X or a Y chromosome.
Which of the following is found only in males?
A.
B.
C.
D.
X chromosome
Y chromosome
dominant traits
recessive alleles
Use the lettered spaces in the following Punnett square to answer questions 21 to 23.
P
Q
R
S
T
U
V
W
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21.
What lettered spaces in the Punnett square would show the probable genotypes of
this cross?
A.
B.
C.
D.
22.
In which of the lettered spaces of the Punnett square would the gametes of the
parents be shown?
A.
B.
C.
D.
23.
R, S, V, W
P, Q, R, U
S, T, V, W
P, Q, S, T
P, Q, R, U
S, T, V, W
P and Q only
R and U only
In which of the lettered spaces of the Punnett square should there be two letters to
represent the alleles?
A.
B.
C.
D.
R, S, U, V
P, Q, S, T
P, Q, R, U
S, T, V, W
________________________________________________________________
24.
A white male guinea pig is mated with a black female guinea pig. What would
best describe the genotype of the male parent if all the offspring were white?
A.
B.
C.
D.
25.
homozygous recessive
heterozygous dominant
homozygous dominant
heterozygous recessive
The trait for purple skin is dominant over the trait for brown skin in a species of
slug. What would the results be for a cross between a homozygous purple slug
and a homozygous brown slug?
A.
B.
C.
D.
all brown
all purple
half purple, half brown
75% purple, 25% brown
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26.
Which of the following would have the least affect on fetal development?
A.
B.
C.
D.
27.
The month the baby was conceived.
The mother’s exposure to cigarette smoke.
The type of prescription drugs the mother takes.
The amount of alcohol consumed by the mother.
Scientists have discovered a species of fish that live in caves and outdoor ponds.
The cave fish live with absolutely no light. The genes controlling the
development of the fish’s eyes have been turned off through many generations.
Their sensitivity to smell, however, is much better than the outdoor fish.
This is an example of a neutral mutation.
A. True
B. False
Physical Science
Refer to the
Data Booklet
28.
Chemicals and Reactions
For this section of the examination, refer to:
Names, Formulae and Charges of Some Common Ions on
page 1
Alphabetical Listing of the Elements on page 2
The Periodic Table on page 3
Ions are neutral.
A. True
B. False
29.
The element illustrated below has a mass number of 13.
A. True
B. False
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30.
Which of the following best describes an electron?
A.
B.
C.
D.
31.
0
1
2
3
Which of the following represents the Bohr model electron arrangement of the
noble gas argon?
A.
B.
C.
D.
34.
proton
nucleus
neutron
electron
How many electrons does potassium have in its outermost shell?
A.
B.
C.
D.
33.
Location
in nucleus
orbiting nucleus
in nucleus
orbiting nucleus
Which of the follow has a negative charge?
A.
B.
C.
D.
32.
Mass
large
large
very small
very small
2, 16
2, 18
2, 8, 6
2, 8, 8
Which of the following is a common characteristic of an alkaline earth metal?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 electron in the outermost shell
2 electrons in the outermost shell
7 electrons in the outermost shell
8 electrons in the outermost shell
Science 10 Final Exam
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Use the following information to answer question 35.
16
?
? represents the symbol of the element.
8
35.
Which of the following is the name and the subatomic particle arrangement for a
neutral atom of the element?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Element
sulphur
sulphur
oxygen
oxygen
Subatomic Particles
16 protons, 8 neutrons
8 electrons, 16 neutrons
8 protons, 8 neutrons
16 electrons, 8 neutrons
________________________________________________________________
36.
Which ion has 25 protons, 30 neutrons, and 23 electrons?
A.
B.
C.
D.
37.
zinc
gallium
vanadium
manganese
Noble gases easily combine with other elements.
A. True
B. False
38.
Which neutral atom has 16 neutrons and 15 electrons?
A.
B.
C.
D.
silicon
sulphur
gallium
phosphorus
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39.
Which of the following statements about Na+1 are true?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sodium has lost an electron.
Sodium has gained an electron.
It symbolizes a sodium ion.
It symbolizes a sodium atom.
I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
II and IV only
Use the following to answer question 40.
A new element Px has just been discovered. It forms the following compounds:
PxS, PxCrO4, Px(MnO4)2
40.
The combining capacity for Px is +2.
A. True
B. False
__________________________________________________________________
41.
CaCl2 is a molecular compound.
A. True
B. False
For the chemical compound ammonium dichromate, match the Element on
the left with the Number of Atoms on the right. The Number of Atoms may
be used as often as necessary.
(NH4)2Cr2O7
Element
Number of Atoms
A. 4
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
42. hydrogen
43. oxygen
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44.
What is the formula for copper (II) chloride?
A.
B.
C.
D.
45.
CuCl
Cu2Cl
CuCl2
Cu2Cl2
Which of the following is the correct Bohr model for a magnesium atom?
A.
B.
12p
12n
C.
46.
12p
12n
2
6
8
12p
12n
2
D.
12p
12n
2
2 8
2 10
Which of the following correctly describes ionic bonding?
A.
B.
C.
D.
47.
6
Charge on Ion
+
+
0
Charge on Ion
+
Which of the following represents the compound formed by sodium and oxygen?
A. NaO
B. Na2O
C. NaO2
D. Na2O3
48.
Covalent bonds result from sharing electrons.
A. True
B. False
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49.
What is the correct formula for calcium hydroxide?
A.
B.
C.
D.
50.
Which of the following equations is balanced?
A.
B.
C.
D.
51.
KClO3 KCl + O2
KClO3 KCl + 3O2
2KClO3 2KCl + 3O2
2KClO3 3KCl + 3O2
Which of the following is a single replacement reaction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
52.
CaOH
Ca2OH
Ca(OH)2
CaOH2
P4O10
P4 + 5O2
Zn + 2HCl ZnCl2 + H2
2Mg + O2 2MgO
2NaClO3
2NaCl + 3O2
Which of the following is not a chemical reaction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Liquid water turns to steam.
Metal turns brownish-red as it rusts.
Light is produced by a burning candle.
An apple slowly becomes rotten.
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Physical Science
Refer to the
Data Booklet
53.
Electricity and Magnetism
For this section of the examination, refer to:
Units and Abbreviations on page 4
Formulae on page 4
The Electromagnetic Spectrum on page 4
An electroscope measures the quantity of static charge.
A. True
B. False
54.
Current electricity requires an energy source; static electricity does not.
A. True
B. False
55.
When a rubber balloon is rubbed against a student’s hair, the balloon becomes
negatively charged. Which of the following best describes why this happens?
A.
B.
C.
D.
56.
Protons are transferred from the hair to the balloon.
Protons are transferred from the balloon to the hair.
Electrons are transferred from the hair to the balloon.
Electrons are transferred from the balloon to the hair.
A long-haired cat walks across a thick wool carpet and its fur stands on end.
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the reaction of the cat’s
fur?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Electrons in the carpet are attracting the cat’s fur.
Repulsive forces of excess electrons are in the cat’s fur.
Attractive forces of excess electrons are in the cat’s fur.
Excess protons in the carpet are repelling the cat’s fur.
Science 10 Final Exam
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Match each Term on the left with the best Descriptor on the right.
Item
Description
57. amperes
A. A measure of the power used in a circuit
58. ohms
B. A measure of the energy required in a circuit
C. A measure of the resistance in a circuit
D. A measure of the number of electrons in a circuit
E. A measure of the amount of charge per unit of time
59.
Which of the following are examples of static electrical discharge?
I.
A lightning bolt
II.
The spark from a Bunsen burner lighter flint
III.
Clothes sticking together as they are taken from the dryer
IV.
Walking across carpet and getting shocked by a metal door knob
A.
B.
C.
D.
60.
Several dry cells in a circuit are connected in series, with the positive terminal of
each cell connecting to the negative terminal of the next cell. If another cell is
added to the circuit in the same manner, what will happen?
A.
B.
C.
D.
61.
I, II, and III
I, III, and IV
I, II, and IV
II, III, and IV
The voltage will increase.
The current will decrease.
The voltage will remain the same.
The current will remain the same.
What does an ammeter measure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
How fast the electrons are moving
How many electrons are in the wire
The amount of electric charge moving past a given point in a wire in one second
How much energy the electrons have as they move through the wire
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Match each Term on the left with the best Descriptor on the right.
Item
Description
62. voltage
63. current
A. Changes chemical energy into electrical energy
B. A measure of the amount of electrical energy carried by
a particle
C. Unit of electrical charge
D. The rate of flow of electrons in a wire
E. A pathway through which electricity can flow
64.
How is the voltage affected when three dry cells are connected in parallel?
A.
B.
C.
D.
65.
The voltage will be the same as that of a single cell.
The voltage will be twice that of a single cell.
The voltage will be one third the voltage of a single cell.
The voltage will be three times the voltage of a single cell.
Each cell in the diagram below is 3.0 V. What is the total voltage of the cell
combination?
A. 3.0 V
B. 6.0 V
C. 9.0 V
D. 18.0 V
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.0 V
6.0 V
9.0 V
18.0 V
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Use the circuit diagram below to answer question 66.
30 V
20 10 66.
10 10 What current would be read in the ammeter for the above circuit?
A.
B.
C.
D.
.6 A
1.8 A
6.0 A
1500 A
________________________________________________________________
67.
A voltmeter is to voltage, as an ammeter is to ___________________.
A. voltage
B. resistance
C. current
D. insulation
68.
A lamp is to light, as a battery is to __________________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
69.
voltage
resistance
current
conduction
Increasing the current through a solenoid will result in a decrease of the magnetic
field.
A. True
B. False
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Use the following diagram to answer question 70.
Arrows show
direction of
electron flow
70.
Suppose a compass was placed in the position marked by the circle. How would
the needle of the compass orient itself?
A.
B.
C.
D.
__________________________________________________________________
71.
The diagram below illustrates a magnetic field for a wire with current (electron
flow) coming out of the page.
A. True
B. False
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Use the following diagram of a circuit to answer question 72.
30 V
2.0 A
72.
What is the resistance of this circuit?
A.
B.
C.
D.
.07 15 60 600 _________________________________________________________________
73.
Ohm’s law states that the amount of current in a circuit depends on the amount of
voltage in the circuit.
A. True
B. False
74.
To correctly measure the current passing through a lamp, an ammeter should be
connected in parallel with the lamp.
A. True
B. False
75.
How much current does a 600-W heater draw when connected to a 240-V
household circuit?
A.
B.
C.
D.
.4 A
2.5 A
600 A
144 000 A
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76.
A 240-V hot tub draws 45 A of current. How much electrical energy is consumed
if the hot tub is used for two hours?
A.
B.
C.
D.
77.
Which of the following best describes a step-down transformer?
A.
B.
C.
D.
78.
10 800 J
21 600 J
1 296 000 J
77 760 000 J
It decreases the resistance in a wire.
It changes high current to low current.
It changes high voltage to low voltage.
It changes low voltage to high voltage.
Energuide labels indicate the amount of voltage required to operate an appliance.
A. True
B. False
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Physical Science
Refer to the
Data Booklet
79.
Radioactivity
For this section of the examination, refer to:
The Periodic Table on page 3
The Electromagnetic Spectrum on page 4
Common Isotope Pairs on page 6
Half life is the time it takes for radioactive material to decay to half its original
size.
A. True
B. False
80.
81.
Which of the following shows the decay curve for a radioactive element?
A.
B.
C.
D.
TV waves are shorter than AM radio waves.
A. True
B. False
82.
Microwaves have more energy than ultraviolet light.
A. True
B. False
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83.
Alpha radiation can pass through your hand.
A. True
B. False
84.
In gamma decay (), a neutron breaks down into an electron and a proton.
A. True
B. False
85.
Which of the following is not part of the electromagnetic spectrum?
A.
B.
C.
D.
colour
sound
radio waves
infrared heat
Match the Decay Type on the left with the Equation on the right.
Decay Type
Nuclear Equation
86. alpha decay
A.
234
90
B.
24
12
C.
226
88
D.
7
4
87. beta decay
Science 10 Final Exam
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Th 234
91
Mg * Ra Be +
0
1
Pa +
24
12
222
86
0
1
e
Mg + 00 ã
Rn + 42 He
e 73 Li
Science Foundation 10
Use the following graph to answer questions 88 and 89.
Percent of Original
Isotope
Decay Graph of a Radioactive Isotope
100
75
50
25
0
0
10
20
30
40
50
60
70
80
Time (millions of years)
88.
How many complete half-lives has the sample gone through after 40 million years?
A.
B.
C.
D.
89.
0
1
2
3
What percentage of the parent material is left after 60 million years?
A.
B.
C.
D.
75%
50%
25%
12.5%
Use the information below to answer question 90.
I.
II.
III.
IV.
90.
Application of Radiation
X-rays
television sets
smoke detectors
microwave ovens
Which of the following technological applications of radiation is not designed for
use in the home?
A.
B.
C.
D.
I
II
III
IV
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Earth and Space Science
Refer to the
Data Booklet
91.
Earth Forces
For this section of the examination, refer to:
Geologic Time Scale on page 5
Tectonic Plate Boundaries Map on page 7
Mapping the types of rock on the Earth’s surface is an example of geological field
work.
A. True
B. False
92.
The lithosphere allows the plates of the asthenosphere to move around on the
Earth’s surface.
A. True
B. False
93.
How did geologists determine where the different layers of the Earth were
located?
A.
B.
C.
D.
geological field work
observing volcanoes
drilling into Earth
analyzing earthquake waves
Science 10 Final Exam
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Use the diagram below to answer questions 94 and 95.
Match each Layer on the left with correct Number
from the Diagram on the right.
Layer
Number from Diagram
94. mantle
A. W
B. X
95. outer core
C. Y
D. Z
96.
A rock contains the three fossils shown below.
In which of the following periods did the rock likely form?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Triassic
Permian
Silurian
Ordovician
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Match each Event on the left with best Era on the right.
Event
Era
97. break up of Pangaea
A. Paleozoic
98. formation of the Grand Canyon
B. Cenozoic
C. Mesozoic
D. Precambrian
99.
Which of the following periods was the longest?
A.
B.
C.
D.
100.
Cretaceous
Jurassic
Triassic
Permian
Composite volcanoes are the result of alternating layers of ash and lava.
A. True
B. False
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Use the following diagram to answer question 101.
101.
What is the correct order of events from oldest to youngest?
A. H, K, J, L
B. K, L, J, H
C. J, L, H, K
D. L, K, J, H
___________________________________________________________
102.
Comparing one layer to the position of another layer is called relative dating.
A. True
B. False
Use the following cross-section to answer question 103 and 104.
103.
Which of the following describes when feature Z formed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
before B
before N
after P
after N
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104.
Which principle is used to determine the relative age of Z?
A.
B.
C.
D.
the principle of superposition
the principle of sedimentation
the principle of original horizontality
the principle of cross-cutting relationships
Use the following cross-section to answer question 105.
105.
What is the sequence of geological features from oldest to youngest?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Oldest
R
V
V
T
W
R
T
W
Youngest
T
T
R
R
V
W
W
V
Use the following graph to answer question 106.
106.
How much of the daughter product is present after 27 million years?
A.
B.
C.
D.
25%
27%
75%
100%
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107.
If a sample of rock originally contained 120 g of radioactive material, how much
would remain after three half-lives?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3g
15 g
40 g
360 g
Use the following block diagram to answer questions 108 and 109.
108.
Which of the following describes the feature at Z?
A.
B.
C.
D.
109.
rift
ridge
trench
fracture
This area is a subduction zone.
A. True
B. False
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Use the diagram below to answer 110 and 111.
Magma rises to surface
Source of magma
110.
What name is given to this tectonic environment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
111.
hot spot
subduction zone
diverging plate boundary
transform plate boundary
Mount Kilauea on the Big Island of Hawaii has been erupting constantly for over
20 years with no loss of life. What characteristics of the volcano have made that
possible?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The volcano only releases ash clouds.
The Big Island has very few people on it.
The magma is thin and does not erupt violently.
The volcano always gives warnings of lava flows.
Science 10 Final Exam
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Use the photograph below of Gleebruk, Indonesia, to answer question 112.
Photo courtesy of NASA http://earthobservatory.nasa.gov/Newsroom/NewImages/images.php3?img_id=16782
112.
The photograph shows the damage caused by a tsunami that hit this area on
December 26, 2004. What geologic event causes a tsunami?
A.
B.
C.
D.
extremely high tides
hurricane-force winds
rapid sinking of coastline
an underwater earthquake
END OF EXAMINATION
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