General Orientation Quiz – ANSWER KEY
PRINT Name: _______________________________
Date: _________________________
SIGNATURE: ________________________________
UNIT/Dept: ____________________
To be completed by Educator: __________________________
Score: ______/ 50
PASS (80%)
FAIL (indicate remediation plan)_______________________________
1. Which of the following examples should be referred to the Facility Privacy Officer/HIM Manager?
a. All requests for patient information, including copies of any part of the medical record, open or closed
b. All complaints, concerns, and requests related to patient information, the medical record, and
confidentiality
c. All possible breaches or risks of such
d. All of the Above
2. Violation of patient, employee, or company confidentiality, and any violation of LifeCare privacy and security
policies, and/or any component of related state and federal laws may result in disciplinary action, up to
termination of employment. Violations may also result in patient notification, and notification to state and
federal agencies as required by law.
a. True
b. False
3.
Compliance issues can be reported to the Compliance Line 24 hours/7 days per week anonymously.
a. True
b. False
4. LifeCare has zero tolerance for disruptive behavior.
a. True
b. False
5. Which of the following is not true regarding Cell Phones & Electronic Devices?
a. Only use on breaks in non-patient areas
b. Texting patient-related information is prohibited
c. Cell phone photos are not permitted in any circumstance
d. All of the above are TRUE
6. Which of the following are considerations for the care of all ages of adults?
a. Institute measures to prevent physical injuries due to unfamiliar environment
b. Encourage participation in care
c. Institute measures to preserve skin integrity
d. Assess level of comfort regularly
e. All of the above
7. OSHA’s “Right to Know” law requires that you:
a. Have both a need and a right to know the hazards and the identities of the chemicals they are exposed
to when working
b. Know what protective measures are available to prevent adverse effects from occurring with hazardous
materials
c. Both of the above
8. In the event of a hazardous material spill, you should:
a. Secure the spill – block off the area
b. Protect people from the spill
c. Inform others and dial the hospital’s emergency phone number
d. Leave clean-up to the response team - get the MSDS
e. All of the above
9. What color are the outlets that supply emergency power in the event that we lose electricity?
a. Brown
b. Cream
c. Red
d. Black
10. LifeCare’s Fire Safety Plan requires that you:
a. Do NOT store items so that they block a fire extinguisher, pull station, oxygen shut-off valve, light switch
or mechanical equipment
b. Never wedge or prop open doors
c. Do not store items on the floor or within 18 inches from the bottom of a sprinkler head
d. All of the above
11. Which of the following statements is not true regarding the storage of portable oxygen cylinders:
a. They must be in a secure device at all times
b. They cannot be stored in a clean utility room with equipment that is plugged in for battery charging
c. They may be stored on wheelchairs and stretchers that are not in use
d. They may only be stored in designated Oxygen Storage Areas
12. What are the essential steps to take if you discover smoke or a fire?
a. Alarm and Rescue
b. Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish
c. Rescue, Alarm, and Contain
d. Rescue
13. Which of the following are methods for activating the fire alarm system?
a. Call the hospital’s emergency response number
b. Manually pull the fire pull station
c. Smoke detector or sprinkler system activation
d. All of the above
14. What is the best way for you to contain a fire?
a. Extinguish it with a fire extinguisher
b. Smother the fire with a fire blanket
c. Close the doors in the area of the fire
15. If the fire alarm is activated and you are in a patient care area but you do not see any signs of smoke or fire, how
should you respond?
a. Remain where you, do not walk through any exit or corridor doors
b. Close all doors within the patient care area
c. Terminate any non-essential calls
d. Remain calm and wait for instruction from the person in charge
e. All of the above
16. Which of the following are the most appropriate steps for operating the fire extinguisher?
a. Pull the pin, aim nozzle at the top of fire, squeeze the handle, then sweep in a left to right motion
b. Pull the pin, aim nozzle at the base of fire, squeeze the handle, then sweep in a left to right motion
c. Aim nozzle at the base of fire, pull the pin, squeeze the handle, then sweep in an up and down motion
d. Pull the pin, aim nozzle at the base of fire, squeeze the handle, then sweep in an up and down motion
17. Which of the following would be an example of when the Emergency Disaster Plan would be activated:
a. Garbage can fire
b. Patient physically attacks another patient and security is needed STAT
c. Bioterrorist threat
d. Patient Cardiac Arrest
18. According to our Bioterrorism Plan, if you suspect that a package or piece of mail may be contaminated with a
dangerous agent, what should you do?
a. Do not touch or handle the package/piece of mail
b. Activate the Hospital’s Emergency Response Team
c. Immediately secure the area
d. All of the above
19. Which type of evacuation refers to the lateral movement of patients from an affected area to a safe area on the
same level?
a. Immediate Evacuation
b. Horizontal Evacuation
c. Vertical Evacuation
d. Complete Building Evacuation
20. Which type of evacuation refers to the movement of patients from an affected area to a safe area up or down
levels?
a. Immediate Evacuation
b. Horizontal Evacuation
c. Vertical Evacuation
d. Complete Building Evacuation
21. Which of the following is the FIRST priority in preventing infections when providing care for a patient?
a. Hand washing
b. Wearing gloves
c. Wearing gowns and goggles
d. Keeping the environment clean
22. Alcohol-based hand rinse SHOULD NOT be used:
a. Prior to patient contact
b. If fingernails are chipped
c. If the patient has a respiratory infection
d. If hands are visibly dirty
23. I should wash my hands:
a. Before handling or preparing food
b. After taking off gloves, a mask and/or gown
c. Before going into a patient’s room and after coming out
d. At the beginning and end of my shift
e. All of the above
24. Standard Precautions include all of the following except:
a. The use of sterile gloves when possibly coming into contact with blood or bodily fluids
b. Use of gowns if clothing is likely to be soiled
c. Protective eyewear during a procedure that may produce splashing
d. The use of an N95 mask when in contact with a patient in Airborne Precautions
25. Wearing gloves eliminates the need to wash hands.
a. True
b. False
26. Which of the following is required when caring for a patient in Airborne Precautions?
a. N-95 Mask or PAPR
b. Negative Air Pressure Room
c. Both of the above
27. Regardless of the task (for example – mopping the floor, turning off an alarm, answering a call light/bell, etc.), if
you are entering an isolation room, you must wear the appropriate personal protective equipment.
a. True
b. False
28. You can be exposed to blood borne pathogens at work if a contaminated sharp punctures your skin or if blood or
other infectious materials splashes your broken skin or mucous membranes.
a. True
b. False
29. Early symptoms of Tuberculosis are fatigue, loss of appetite, and weight loss.
a. True
b. False
30. Potentially infected bodily fluids include blood and each of the following except:
a. Drainage from wounds, secretions/excretions
b. Semen
c. Tears, sweat, and saliva
d. Urine
31. If your skin or mucous membranes come into direct contact with blood or body fluids you should:
a. Wash or flush with large amounts of water as soon as possible (Basic First Aid)
b. Notify the Nurse in Charge or your Direct Supervisor
c. Complete the Employee Injury Report
d. All of the above
32. Which of the following are measures you should take to prevent an injury with sharps?
a. Use a Biohazard puncture resistant container for sharps disposal and remove the container when it is
2/3 full
b. Never bend, break, or recap a needle
c. Always engage the needle’s engineered safety device
d. All of the above
33. Which of the following should not be disposed of in a Red Biohazard bag?
a. Any item with blood or bodily fluids on it (including blood transfusion products/bags)
b. Body fluid collection containers (i.e. suction, wound VAC, and chest tube canisters)
c. Hemodialysis products
d. Perineal (urine/feces) garbage from a patient in isolation precautions
34. Which of the following can aid in reducing work related injuries?
a. A clutter-free environment
b. Using equipment and movement aids to bear most of the load
c. Always using proper body mechanics
d. All of the above
35. Would you complete an incident report for the malfunction of a piece of medical equipment that resulted in an
electrical shock to a patient?
a. Yes
b. No
36. Would you complete an incident report for criminal or illegal activity (for example: assault, sexual assault,
abduction, etc.)?
a. Yes
b. No
37. Who is responsible for completing an Incident Report?
a. The nursing supervisor
b. The employee who has the best knowledge of the event
c. The Registered Nurse
d. The Department Manager
38. What information should be included on the Incident Report?
a. A description of the incident or event (how, where, and when of the event)
b. The patient’s explanation of the event in their own words
c. Corrective action taken to prevent a reoccurrence of the event
d. All of the above
39. If you receive a complaint or grievance from a patient or family member, you should report it to the appropriate
supervisor as soon as possible so that proper documentation and follow-up may be completed promptly.
a. True
b. False
40. What form should you complete for suspected or actual allegations of abuse?
a. Incident Report
b. Grievance Report
c. Both of the above
41. A patient told the nurse that he didn’t get the correct menu. Is this an example of a complaint or grievance?
a. Complaint
b. Grievance
42. The nurse receives a call from a family member who reports that his mom was “treated rudely by another
healthcare provider.” Is this an example of a complaint or grievance?
a. Complaint
b. Grievance
43. You have the responsibility to report any witnessed or allegations of abuse or neglect of a patient.
a. True
b. False
44. Threats of harm, saying things to frighten a person, telling a person he will never see his family again, being
“mean” or “rude” are examples of which type of abuse?
a. Verbal
b. Physical
c. Neglect
d. Sexual
45. Slapping, bruising, cutting, burning, or physically restraining without justification are examples of which type of
abuse?
a. Verbal
b. Physical
c. Neglect
d. Sexual
46. Harassment, (improper language, jokes), fondling, inappropriate touching or exposure are examples of which
type of abuse?
a. Verbal
b. Physical
c. Neglect
d. Sexual
47. Which of the following may be signs and symptoms of neglect?
a. Evidence of poor care
b. Contractures
c. Decubiti, poor skin hygiene, excoriation, urine burns
d. Malnutrition, dehydration, stool impaction
e. All of the above
48. If you suspect abuse the first thing you should do is notify the supervisor, then protect the patient from harm.
a. True
b. False
49. You may access all of LifeCare’s policies and procedures on the ICARE Intranet from any network computer
within the hospital 24 hours per day/7 days per week.
a. True
b. False
50. Hospital computers are for work related use only.
a. True
b. False
Clinical Orientation Quiz – ANSWER KEY
PRINT Name: _______________________________
Date: _________________________
SIGNATURE: ________________________________
UNIT/Dept: ____________________
To be completed by Educator: __________________________
Score: ______/ 20
PASS (80%)
FAIL (indicate remediation plan)_______________________________
1. A physical restraint is any manual, physical, or mechanical device, material or equipment attached or adjacent to
the patient’s body that he/she cannot easily remove that restricts their freedom of movement or normal access
to one’s body.
a. True
b. False
2. The involuntary confinement of a person in a room or area where the person is physically prevented from leaving
is known as:
a. A medical physical restraint
b. A chemical restraint
c. A behavioral restraint
d. Seclusion
3. Which of the following are examples of alternatives that you may attempt before applying a restraint?
a. Distracting activities (activity aprons, 1:1 conversations, etc.)
b. Pain relief (medication, massage, repositioning, etc.)
c. Increased observation and reorientation to the environment
d. All of the above may be examples of alternatives to restraints
4. A healthcare worker has a disagreement with a patient and places the patient in restraints as a form of
punishment. Is this an appropriately justified use of a restraint?
a. Yes
b. No
5. When choosing a restraint, you must always choose:
a. The most restrictive restraint possible for the least amount of time
b. The least restrictive restraint possible for the least amount of time
c. The most restrictive restraint possible for the most amount of time
d. The least restrictive restraint possible for the most amount of time
6. The prevention of falls is the responsibility of every staff member.
a. True
b. False
7. All of the following are examples of risk factors for having a fall except:
a. A prior fall history
b. Mobility limitations such as ambulating w/assistance or using an assistive device
c. Cognitive impairment/Mentation such as periodically confused or refusing to call for help
d. Medication regimen that includes psychotropic's, sedatives, or diuretics
e. Being independent w/elimination
8. Standard fall precaution interventions are provided for all patients and include each of the following except:
a. Maintaining a safe unit environment (i.e. removing clutter, securing loose cords/wires, keeping the floor
dry)
b. Wrist Restraints
c. Keeping the bed in its lowest position with the brakes locked at all times
d. Ensuring that the patient’s call bell is always within reach and answering call lights promptly
e. Ensuring that the patient uses non-skid footwear when ambulating out of bed
9. The essential steps that are required after a fall include:
a. Immediate thorough post fall assessment
b. Critical analysis of contributing factors
c. Timely notification to the physician and other key individuals
d. Ongoing assessment/interventions for the patient after the fall
e. Complete specific documentation of all of the above
f. All of the above
10. If a patient were to fall and there is no apparent injury, you are not required to report the event.
a. True
b. False
11. It is the policy of LifeCare Hospitals to assure that pain is recognized and addressed appropriately in all patients.
a. True
b. False
12. Which of the following could be a potential barrier to effective pain management?
a. Age
b. Culture
c. Religious beliefs
d. Cognitive limitations
e. Family beliefs & values
f. All of the above
13. Which of the following should be considered when assessing a patient for pain?
a. Location/site of pain
b. Duration of pain
c. Type/quality of pain
d. Onset of pain
e. All of the above
14. You walk into the patient’s room and the patient is unresponsive and has no pulse and no respirations. Which
type of code would you call?
a. Code BLUE
b. Rapid Response Team
c. I would not call a code for this condition
15. You are assisting your patient to the restroom and the patient passes out and collapses. The patient is not
responsive, but has a pulse. Which type of code would you call?
a. Code BLUE
b. Rapid Response Team
c. I would not call a code for this condition
16. When a death is expected, all grieving is done in advance.
a. True
b. False
17. Where in the patient’s medical record is it acceptable to use an abbreviation from The Joint Commission’s “Do
Not Use Abbreviations List:”
a. In the narrative section of daily documentation forms
b. Physician Order Forms
c. On non-permanent patient chart items/forms (i.e. allergy stickers)
d. It is not acceptable to use these abbreviations on any part of the patient’s medical record
18. According to The Joint Commission's "Do Not Use Abbreviations" list, "u," "QD,” and "QOD" are not permitted in
the medical record.
a. True
b. False
19. Authenticating forms is required for medical records. This includes:
a. Ensuring the patient’s name is on each page, either handwritten or a patient label
b. The date and time are in each area where indicated
c. You legibly sign each entry with your full name, professional credentials, and initials (when appropriate)
d. All of the above
20. When an event occurs, it is acceptable to document “See Incident Report” in the Narrative Note of your
documentation.
a. True
b. False
Nursing Orientation Quiz – ANSWER KEY
PRINT Name: _______________________________
Date: _________________________
SIGNATURE: ________________________________
UNIT/Dept: ____________________
To be completed by Educator: __________________________
Score: ______/ 25
PASS (80%)
FAIL (indicate remediation plan)_______________________________
1. When you sign your name to an order (“sign-off” the order) you are responsible to ensure that the order is 100%
complete and transcribed completely and accurately.
a. True
b. False
2. If you assess that the patient’s Braden Score is “14,” which skin care algorithm should you initiate?
a. Low Risk
b. Moderate Risk
c. High Risk
3. Upon admission, if the patient arrives with wounds, who is responsible for assessing the wound including
measurements, photos, and basic wound/tissue assessment?
a. The Admitting Nurse
b. The Wound Care Nurse
c. The Nurse in Charge
d. The Patient Care Technician
4. When is it appropriate to document evaluation/updates to the Plan of Care?
a. Upon initiation of an intervention
b. At team conference meetings
c. When the patient’s condition changes
d. When an intervention or problem is resolved
e. When an intervention or problem has to be re-initiated
f. All of the Above
5.
Which Plan of Care is initiated for ALL patients?
a. Cardiopulmonary
b. Speech
c. Safety
d. Psychosocial
6. It is imperative to document that medical equipment alarms are turned “ON” and are audible.
a. True
b. False
7. A Pain Assessment is required at every __shift_ and ___before _____ and __after_______
administering/providing pain relieving measures.
8. Medications must ALWAYS be locked if out of the nurses’ sight.
a. True
b. False
9. By always ensuring that you have verified the 7 rights of medication administration you can feel confident that
you are safely administering those medications.
a. True
b. False
10. Which of the following best describes how you should verify that you are administering medications to the
correct patient?
a. Upon entering the patient’s room you state: “Good morning, Mr. Jones” and the patient responds
“Hello.”
b. Upon entering the patient’s room you look at their arm band and say, “Can you state your name for me
please?”
c. You take your MAR or Patient Identification Label into the patient’s room and compare it to the
patient’s arm band verifying that the patient’s full name and medical record number are identical.
d. When you began to prepare medications you opened the MAR book to room 410 -2 therefore those are
the pills you give to the patient in room 410-2.
11. To ensure that you are preparing and administering the right dose of the right medication via the right route, it
is recommended that you check your medication:
a. When taking it out of the patient drawer or automating dispensing unit
b. Compare the medication against the MAR
c. Just prior to administering the medication to the patient
d. All of the above
12. If you discover a medication error you should (select all that apply):
a. Notify the nurse in charge
b. Notify the patient’s physician
c. Complete an Incident Report
d. Document “Medication Error Occurred- see Incident Report” in the narrative section of the Daily Nursing
Documentation Form
13. High alert medications are error prone or pose significant hazard to the patient if not handled right. Therefore,
all high-alert medications are identified on the MAR as “high alert” and will require two nurses to sign the MAR
to indicate the verification of the 7 patient rights.
a. True
b. False
14. You must have your MAR with you at the Automated Medication Dispensing Unit each time you dispense
medication from it to verify the 7 rights of medication administration.
a. True
b. False
15. The registered nurse is responsible for obtaining informed consent for blood transfusions.
a. True
b. False
16. Which of the following is an appropriate way to handle and store blood products?
a. Store the blood in a refrigerator or freezer until you are ready to administer it
b. Allow the blood to warm to room temperature before administering
c. Keep the blood packed under the ice it was shipped in until ready to use or go directly from the blood
bank to administering at the bedside
d. All of the above
17. Prior to connecting the blood to the patient, two nurses are required to check the Blood Product tag against the
Patient’s armband verifying (Select all that apply):
a. Patient’s full name and date of birth
b. Compare the ABO and RH of the patient and the blood unit
c. Blood unit number
d. Expiration date of the blood
18. Which of the following statements is not true regarding a blood transfusion:
a. The nurse must remain with the patient for the first 15 minutes after the initiation of a blood
transfusion to monitor the patient
b. When using a Y-type set, use the blood product to prime the administration IV tubing
c. Change the blood or blood component administration set after each unit is infused or after 4 hours
d. A transfusion reactions can occur during a transfusion or within 96 hours after a transfusion
19. During a blood transfusion, vital signs are required to be measured:
a. Prior to the start of the transfusion, 15 minutes after the transfusion is started, one hour after the
transfusion is started, at the completion of the transfusion and one hour post transfusion
b. Prior to the start of the transfusion, 15 minutes after the transfusion is started and every 15 minutes
for one hour then every 30 minutes for one hour then every hour until the completion of the
transfusion
c. Prior to the start of the transfusion, 15 minutes after the transfusion is started and then every hour
until the transfusion is completed
20. After completion of the transfusion, document:
a. Time of completion
b. Tolerance of infusion
c. Amount of blood product and saline received on the graphic sheet and I&O sheet
d. Any transfusion reaction
e. All the above
21. If there is a suspected transfusion reaction, you must :
a. Stop the transfusion, maintain access with normal saline using all new tubing
b. Notify the physician who ordered the transfusion
c. Notify the supervisor and laboratory
d. Complete the transfusion reaction paperwork and send with the unit and tubing
e. All of the above
22. The Central Line Bundle includes (select all that apply):
a. Constant, meticulous hand hygiene
b. Maximum barrier precautions
c. Chlorhexidine skin antisepsis
d. Optimal site selection
e. Daily review of line necessity
23. If a patient is admitted with existing central line:
a. The site must be assessed upon admission and the dressing changed according to our hospital policy
b. If there is no date or no Bio Patch or no stat lock the dressing must be changed and dressed according to
our policy
c. A & B
d. Central lines are not invasive and we don’t need to worry about infections
24. Which of the following is not true regarding when you should replace IV tubing?
a. The administration set is used continuously no more frequently than 96 hours
b. Blood/blood products are administered at least every 4 hours
c. Within 24 hours of initiating a fat emulsions infusion
d. Every 6-12 hours when the vial is changed when Propofol is infusing
e. All of the Above are true
25. A swab cap eliminates the need to “scrub the hub.” For example, after removing the swab cap, it is not
necessary to cleanse the positive pressure cap with an alcohol swab in-between flushing and accessing the line
for administering a medication.
a. True
b. False
Nursing Assistant Orientation Quiz – ANSWER KEY
PRINT Name: _______________________________
Date: _________________________
SIGNATURE: ________________________________
UNIT/Dept: ____________________
To be completed by Educator: __________________________
Score: ______/ 25
PASS (80%)
FAIL (indicate remediation plan)_______________________________
1. How long should the patient remain at a 45 angle after completing a meal?
a. 20 – 30 minutes
b. 2 – 3 hours
c. 10 minutes
d. 5 minutes
2. Which utensil is best to use when feeding a patient?
a. Fork
b. Tablespoon
c. Teaspoon
d. Knife
3. You are feeding your patient and the patient begins coughing frequently during the meal, especially while
drinking liquids. What is the most appropriate action for you to do next?
a. Call the dietary department and request for the patient’s remaining meals to be pureed
b. Obtain a pre-thickened liquid and provide it to the patient and assess if the patient continues to cough
c. Wait for the patient to stop coughing and continue feeding them their meal
d. Stop feeding the patient and immediately report your findings to the appropriate nurse
4. When a patient is on a calorie count, it is very important for you to accurately record ALL liquids and solids the
patient consumes both during and in-between meals.
a. True
b. False
5. When a patient is on tube feedings, which of the following interventions should the CNA/PCT provide?
a. Accurately weigh the patient once per week unless ordered otherwise
b. Elevate the head of the bed 45 degrees or greater during feeding administration
c. Provide mouth care at a minimum of every shift
d. All of the above
6. An accurate patient weight is extremely important because:
a. Medication regimens may need to be changed if weight fluctuates
b. Dietary requirements may need to be altered if weight changes
c. Weight changes may indicate need to reassess and change additional treatment plans
d. All of the above
7. You are assigned to obtain a patient’s weight. You should:
a. Weigh the patient on any scale available
b. Determine what type of scale was previously used, make sure the patient is dry, and record the weight
on the appropriate form ASAP
c. Ask the patient how much they weigh
d. All of the above
8. To prevent pulling, ensure that the catheter tubing is fastened to the patient’s leg using a leg-strap device.
a. True
b. False
9. How often should you provide peri-care for the patient with an Indwelling Catheter?
a. Daily
b. Twice a day
c. Twice a day and when soiled
d. When soiled
10. It is important that the urinary drainage bag remains below the level of the bladder when:
a. The patient ambulates
b. The patient is sitting up in the bed or a chair
c. The patient is lying down
d. All of the above
11. You notice a reddened area on a patient’s heel while bathing his foot. You should:
a. Apply lotion to the area
b. Gently massage the area
c. Report the observation to the nurse
d. Remember to check the area tomorrow
12. The first sign of pressure ulcer may be:
a. A break in the skin
b. Drainage from the wound
c. White or reddened area of skin
d. Swelling of a limb
13. Of the following, which part(s) of the body are at greatest risk for developing pressure ulcers?
a. The soft, well-padded areas of the body
b. The areas over bony parts of the body
c. Along the walls of the cheeks in the mouth
d. Inside of the stomach
14. Which of the following measures does not help prevent pressure ulcers?
a. Repositioning the patient every 2 hours
b. Applying lotion to dry skin
c. Scrubbing the skin vigorously during bathing
d. Keeping bed linens clean, dry, and free of wrinkles
15. Which of the following is not true?
a. Regardless of the bed surface (including low-air-loss mattresses & Clinitron beds) used, patients must be
re-positioned at least every two hours
b. I cannot use a cloth chux or plastic diaper on a low-air-loss mattress; only use disposible paper chux
c. I always elevate the heels of the patient off of the mattress using either a pillow or pressure relieving
boots
d. When bathing a patient, hot water is more preferable
16. If you are having difficulty obtaining a particular vital sign measurement you should:
a. Document the approximate measurements that you are fairly certain are correct
b. Record the measurements that were previously obtained
c. Ask another person (a nurse or PCT) to attempt the vital sign measurement(s)
d. Make-up and record your own results
17. Your patient is not able to tightly close their mouth around the probe of the thermometer to accurately obtain
an oral temperature. You should:
a. Obtain an axillary temperature
b. Obtain a rectal temperature
c. Continue to obtain the oral temperature
d. Do not obtain the temperature
18. If the patient is on a cardiac monitor/telemetry, you do not need to palpate and count the pulse. It is acceptable
to record the heart rate from the heart monitor.
a. True
b. False
19. Which of the following is not true regarding obtaining a respiratory rate?
a. You do not need to record a respiratory rate if the patient is on a ventilator
b. One cycle of the chest rise and fall of the patient’s chest is one respiration
c. While counting the respirations, be discrete, the rate may change if the patient begins to think about
how fast or slow they are breathing
d. A normal respiratory rate is 16 - 20 breaths per minute(bpm)
20. To obtain an accurate blood pressure, you should:
a. Use the appropriate size cuff
b. Place the cuff so that the artery marker is placed correctly over the brachial artery
c. Apply the cuff snugly so that you can only fit 2 fingers between the cuff and the patient's arm
d. Keep the upper arm at heart level
e. All of the above
21. Which of the following vital sign reports is abnormal?
a. HR: 90 bpm, RR: 22 resp/min, BP: 110/70 mm/Hg
b. HR: 66 bpm, RR: 22 resp/min, BP: 150/90 mm/Hg
c. HR: 88 bpm, RR: 20 resp/min, BP: 112/66 mm/Hg
d. HR: 74 bpm, RR: 18 resp/min, BP: 112/80mm/Hg
22. Which of the following vital sign reports is abnormal?
a. HR: 88 bpm, RR: 16 resp/min, BP: 110/72 mm/Hg
b. HR: 66 bpm, RR: 20 resp/min, BP: 118/78 mm/Hg
c. HR: 46 bpm, RR: 30 resp/min, BP: 106/60 mm/Hg
d. HR: 74 bpm, RR: 18 resp/min, BP: 116/64mm/Hg
23. You are assigned to obtain vital signs on 10 patients on the unit. The first patient you assess the following vital
sign measurements: Temp: 98.9, HR: 96, RR: 24, BP: 166/94. What should you do next?
a. Immediately report the results to the appropriate nurse
b. Re-measure the vital signs, if results remain consistent, immediately report them to the appropriate
nurse
c. Complete the vital sign measurements on your remaining 9 patients, then report the abnormal results to
the appropriate nurse
d. The results were normal, therefore you document them and go to your next patient
24. Which of the following is the best description of orthostatic blood pressure monitoring?
a. It is completed routinely on medical patients
b. Requires you to document the blood pressure first lying, then sitting, then standing
c. Requires you to obtain the blood pressure lying, sitting, standing, in whichever order is most
comfortable for the patient
d. All of the above
25. Vital Sign equipment (stethoscope, thermometer, blood pressure cuffs) cannot be shared between isolation and
non-isolation patients. If the patient is in isolation precautions, they should have their own designated
thermometer, blood pressure cuff and stethoscope.
a. True
b. False