EXAMPLE
Exam Cell Biology and Health (CBI-20306)
1. This schematic drawing of the white pulp of spleen indicate 5 different types of
macrophages (m) or lymphocytes (l). What is the correct answer for the position 1-5?
[ ] 1. B cells (l); 2. T cells (l); 3. Metallophilic m.; 4. Marginal zone m.; 5. Red pulp m.
[ ] 1. T cells (l); 2. B cells (l); 3. Metallophilic m.; 4. Marginal zone m.; 5. Red pulp m.
[ ] 1. T cells (l); 2. B cells (l); 3. Marginal zone m.; 4. Metallophilic m.; 5. Red pulp m.
[ ] 1. B cells (l); 2. T cells (l); 3. Red pulp m.; 4. Marginal zone m.; 5. Metallophilic m.
2. Indicate all right characteristics for monoclonal antibodies (mAb).
[ ] Recognize one epitope; eternal source of the same Ab; produced by a hybridoma
[ ] Recognize more epitopes; has to be selected frequently; isolated from serum
[ ] Recognize more epitopes; eternal source of the same Ab; produced by a hybridoma
[ ] Recognize one epitope; has to be selected frequently; isolated from serum
3. In which response is IgM, IgG, IgA or IgE (respectively) the main Ig class produced?
[ ] Secondary serum response; prim. serum response; anti-parasite resp.; mucosal resp.
[ ] Mucosal response; secondary serum resp.; allergic response; prim. serum response
[ ] Primary serum response; mucosal response; anti-parasite response; sec. serum resp.
[ ] Primary serum response; sec. serum response; mucosal response; allergic response
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4. Which complement factor has a central role in the start of all complement pathways
and which one is finally responsible for the lysis of the foreign cells?
[ ] C5 and C9
[ ] C3 and C9
[ ] C3b and C5b
[ ] C3b and C5b
5. Which antigens are recognized by the following Toll-like Receptors: TLR2; TLR4;
TLR9
[ ] TLR2: LPS; TLR4: Lipoproteins; TLR9: DNA (CpG)
[ ] TLR2: DNA (CpG); TLR4: LPS; TLR9: Lipoproteins
[ ] TLR2: Lipoproteins; TLR4: DNA (CpG); TLR9: LPS
[ ] TLR2: Lipoproteins; TLR4: LPS; TLR9: DNA (CpG)
6. Which of the following immunological factors belong to the induction of allergy?
[ ] Th2 response; increased IL-4/IL-5; antigen-specific IgE response; mast cell activation
[ ] Th1 response; increased IFNγ; antigen-specific IgE response; neutrophil activation
[ ] Th2 response; increased IFNγ; antigen-specific IgG resp.; Fc-receptors upregulation
[ ] Th2 response; increased IL-4/IL-5, antigen-specific IgE resp.; macrophage activation
7. Which of the following remarks belong to natural killer cell nature/function
[ ] Granular lymphoid cells; inhibiting MHC I recognizing receptor (KIR); microbe
recognizing activating receptor
[ ] A-granular lymphoid cells, inhibiting MHC I recognizing receptor, microbe
recognizing activating receptor
[ ] A T-killer cell; CD8 recognizing MHC I, TCR not reacting with self MHC I
[ ] Granular lymphoid cells; inhibiting MHC II recognizing receptor, virus recognizing
activating receptor
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8. Which of the following statements about cytokines is NOT correct?
[ ] They function as communication molecules between cells and can e.g. can activate B
cells.
[ ] They are secreted by different cells of the immune system.
[ ] They bind to antigen with high specificity.
[ ] The effect of these molecules is through specific receptors on the target cells.
9. The following flow cytometric dotplots (Fig.1: FSC/SSC; Fig. 2: FL1/FL2) are
obtained from a mammalian leukocyte suspension using a B cell staining (green:
FL1) and a T cell staining (red: FL2). The FL1/FL2 dotplot given is from the cells
present in gate A. How many cell populations can be distinguished when you
combine both dot plots?
[ ] 3 cell populations
[ ] 4 cell populations
[ ] 5 cell populations
[ ] 9 cell populations
10. Which of the following statements is NOT a characteristic of the innate immune
system?
[ ] Innate immune pathways are very conserved.
[ ]Exposure to pathogens protects you when re-exposed to pathogen.
[ ]You are born with it
[ ]Innate immune responses cause inflammation
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11. Genome sizes of viruses vary between / Genoomgroottes van virussen varieren tussen:
[ ] 102 -105 nucleotides
[ ] 103 – 105 nucleotides
[ ] 103 – 106 nucleotides
[ ] none of these answers is correct
12. Neuraminidase is:
[ ] a poliovirus protein involved in host shut-off
[ ] the cell receptor used by Influenzavirus A
[ ] one of the influenzavirus glycoproteins
13. A T=1 virus particle contains :
[ ] 60 coat proteins arranged in 12 pentamers;
[ ] 120 coat proteins arranged in 20 hexamers;
[ ] 180 coat proteins arranged in 12 pentamers and 20 hexamers.
[ ] none of the answers is correct
14. Which of the following statements is correct: Classical Swine Fever Virus and
Poliovirus are:
[ ] respectively a negative-stranded and a positive-stranded RNA virus
[ ] respectively a positive-stranded and a negative-stranded RNA virus
[ ] both positive-stranded RNA viruses
[ ] both negative-stranded RNA viruses
15. Influenzavirus evolution involves both antigenic drift and shift. Poliovirus can
evolve:
[ ] only by antigenic drift
[ ] only by antigenic shift
[ ] by both antigenic shift and drift
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16. It is for an infected person impossible to make neutralizing antibodies against the
receptor binding site of HIV because this binding site
[ ] varies too much in sequence
[ ] is split into several short amino acid sequences interspaced with variable loops
[ ] is too narrow for antibodies to access
17. A negative stranded RNA virus needs to encapsidate its RNA polymerase to:
[ ] start viral genome replication immediately after infection of a host cell
[ ] start viral genome transcription immediately after infection of a host cell
[ ] start viral genome translation immediately after infection of a host cell
18. The great advantage of a “killed” poliovirus vaccine over a "live“ poliovirus vaccine
is:
[ ] its safety, as it will never lead to wild type infection
[ ] it can spread to non-vaccinated individuals
[ ] it is easier to produce
19. A specific diagnostic test has been developed along with the classical swine fever E2
subunit “DIVA” vaccine to:
[ ] Discriminate vaccinated from non-vaccinated animals
[ ] Screen for animals that are/have been infected with the virus
[ ] Test the level of antibodies raised by the vaccine
20. The induction of apoptosis by a baculovirus requires:
[ ] p35
[ ] DNA fragmentation
[ ] Blebbing
[ ] Caspases
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21. Cellular repair is a relatively uncommon form of repair;
[ ] Because damaged cells automatically go into apoptosis;
[ ] Because membrane damage always results into autolysis by the released enzymes;
[ ] As in most tissue types damaged cells die and are replaced by proliferation of
surrounding healthy cells;
[ ] Because damaged cells are immediately removed by phagocytosis from macrophages;
22. If exposure to a certain chemical increases the expression of a gene above its normal
level:
[ ] than it is not relevant, since this will not lead to a deficiency of the encoded protein;
[ ] this is relevant because of the depletion of the amino acid pool at the expense of
synthesising other proteins;
[ ] this a beneficial effect, since it this will enforce a normal, and therefore healthy
physiological process;
[ ] this can be an adverse effect, since some proteins need to be present at a level which is
well-adjusted to the present physiological conditions;
23. Malignant tumors:
[ ] are dedifferentiated, infiltrate and have a fast grow;
[ ] are differentiated, grow slow and form no metastases;
[ ] are dedifferentiated, grow fast, infiltrate but form no metastases;
[ ] are differentiated, grow fast, infiltrate surrounding tissues and form metastases;
24. What is true about endocrine toxicology (indicate the one best answer)?
[ ] Examples of indirect effects of chemicals on the endocrine system include changes in
hormone production and disturbances in hormone release.
[ ] In vitro assays are of no use for estimating chemical effects on endocrine systems,
because regulatory feedback systems are lacking
[ ] Most chemicals that affect the endocrine system activate intracellular receptors (direct
effects)
[ ] Most chemicals affecting the thyroid hormone system induce increased circulating
thyroid (T3 and T4) levels
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25. If a substance has already been absorbed, accelerated elimination is indicated by:
[ ] Emesis (vomiting)
[ ] Laxatives
[ ] Forced diuresis
[ ] Gastric lavage
26. Respiratory acidosis develops:
[ ] when the concentration carbon dioxide in the body is too low
[ ] high CO2 excretion via the lungs
[ ] when the concentration bicarbonate in the body is too high
[ ] due to CO2 retention in the lungs
27. The initiation phase of the cancer process is characterized by:
[ ] A change of a normal cell into a dysplastic cell
[ ] A gene mutation which makes the cell more likely to divide
[ ] A change of a cuboidal cell into a squamous cell
[ ] A change of a normal cell into a hypertrophic cell
28. Indicate which toxic effect represents an immunosuppressive effect. (Indicate the one
best answer).
[ ] The development of an autoimmune response causing degeneration of cartilage joint in
rheuma patients.
[ ] Type IV cell mediated delayed hypersensitivity upon exposure to haptens.
[ ] The increased sensitivity towards bacteria upon exposure to dioxins.
[ ] Release of histamine upon from mast cells causing swelling and loss of function.
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