Bio 1010C Evolution & Diversity Section One Exam
1.
Which is the correct sequence for levels of biological organization within an organism?
A. Molecule - atom - organelle - tissue - cell
B. Cell - organelle - atom - tissue - molecule
C. Organelle - molecule - atom - tissue - cell
D. Atom - molecule - organelle - cell - tissue
E. Atom - organelle - molecule - cell - tissue
2.
Which is the correct sequence for levels of biological organization occurring beyond the individual?
A. Population - ecosystem - community - biosphere
B. Community - population - ecosystem - biosphere
C. Population - community - ecosystem - biosphere
D. Community - population - biosphere - ecosystem
E. Ecosystem - population - biosphere - community
3.
To be considered a living organism, the organism must consist of:
A. One or more cells
B. DNA and proteins
C. RNA and proteins
D. Atoms and molecules
E. DNA and RNA
4.
Which is not a major characteristic of life?
A. Homeostasis
B. Structural organization
C. Movement
D. Evolution
E. Energy use
5.
Organisms that obtain energy by eating nutrients that make up other organisms are called:
A. Autotrophs
B. Heterotrophs
C. Plants
D. Producers
E. Both A and D are correct
6.
Organisms that extract energy from environments that never lived are called:
A. Autotrophs
B. Heterotrophs
C. Decomposers
D. Primary producers
E. Both A and D are correct
7.
Decomposers are:
A. Bacteria
B. Fungi
C. Organisms that obtain energy from wastes or dead organisms
D. All of the above are correct
E. None of the above are correct
8.
"The most restrictive taxon" and "the ability to breed only among themselves" reference:
A. Members of the same domain
B. Members of the same genus
C. Members of the same family
D. Members of the same kingdom
E. Members of the same species
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9.
A major difference between bacteria and archaea and all other living organisms is that bacteria and archaea:
A. Have cell walls and other organisms do not
B. Have a nucleus in their cells and other organisms do not
C. Are autotrophs and other organisms are not
D. Do not have a nucleus in their cells and other organisms do
E. Do not have cell walls and other organisms do
10.
Which of the following is not true about a hypothesis?
A. It can be proven to be false
B. It can be proven to be true
C. It is a tentative explanation
D. It is based on previous knowledge
E. It must be testable to be useful
11.
A theory differs from a hypothesis in that a theory:
A. Has more supportive evidence than a hypothesis
B. Is broader in scope than a hypothesis
C. Ties together many existing observations
D. Has predictive power
E. All of the above are correct
12.
Asexual reproduction differs from sexual reproduction in that:
A. Asexual reproduction produces genetically diverse offspring
B. Asexual reproduction uses DNA to code for traits in offspring
C. Asexual reproduction occurs only in bacteria
D. Asexual reproduction does not occur in animals
E. Asexual reproduction produces offspring that are virtually identical
13.
Which of the following is not a true statement about the scientific method?
A. It is a general way of organizing an investigation
B. It is a framework to consider ideas in a repeatable way
C. It begins with observations
D. It does not apply to problems encountered in every day life
E. It is a framework to consider evidence in a repeatable way
14.
The scientific study of life is called:
A. Biology
B. Chemistry
C. Genomics
D. Proteomics
E. Genetics
15.
All ecosystems:
A. Once mature never change
B. Are entirely self-sufficient
C. Need a continuous outside energy source
D. Consist of only living organisms
E. None of the above are correct
16.
Which is a correct sequence of steps in the scientific method?
A. Observation - form hypothesis - draw conclusions - design an experiment
B. Observation - draw conclusion - design an experiment - form hypothesis
C. Form hypothesis - observation - design an experiment - collect data
D. Observation - form hypothesis - design an experiment - collect data
E. Form hypothesis - observation - collect data - design an experiment
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17.
Antibiotic resistance is becoming more common in disease-causing bacteria because:
A. Antibiotics are used in feed for livestock
B. Antibiotics are sometimes prescribed for viral infections (due to pressure from patients)
C. Some patients do not take the antibiotics as directed
D. Antibiotics are used to treat infections in cattle, chickens and other animals used for agricultural purposes
E. All of the above are correct
18.
Genetic change in a population over time defines which of the following?
A. Heredity
B. Mitosis
C. Evolution
D. Phenotype
E. Genotype
19.
Convergent evolution means:
A. Different organisms will never have similar traits
B. That different lineages may independently evolve similar traits
C. That organisms living in similar habitats may develop similar traits even though they are not related
D. Both B and C are correct
E. None of the above are correct
20.
The French taxonomist, who in 1809 suggested that organisms that use one part of their body repeatedly would increase their
abilities and pass it on to their children by the "inheritance of acquired characteristics" was:
A. Charles Darwin
B. James Hutton
C. Jean Lamarck
D. Georges Buffon
E. Charles Lyell
21.
The scientist who went to the Galapagos Islands on the Beagle and later published "On the Origin of Species by Means of
Natural Selection" in 1859 was:
A. Charles Darwin
B. James Hutton
C. Jean Lamarck
D. Georges Buffon
E. Charles Lyell
22.
Most of the notes and samples that would serve as the seed of Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection were obtained
during a month-long stay at:
A. The New Hebrides Islands
B. The Galapagos Islands
C. The Hawaiian Islands
D. The Sandwich Islands
E. Pitcairn Island
23.
A gradual change from an ancestral type was referred to by Darwin as:
A. Uniformitarianism
B. Catastrophism
C. Descent with modification
D. Convergent evolution
E. Principle of superposition
24.
According to Darwin, natural selection usually:
A. Preserves favorable variations in a population
B. Rejects harmful variations in a population
C. Neither preserves nor rejects harmful variations in a population
D. Both A and B are correct
E. Both A and C are correct
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25.
Which of the following is not a plant selectively bred from the wild mustard plant?
A. Broccoli
B. Cauliflower
C. Kale
D. Cabbage
E. None of the above are correct
26.
The relatively short term changes in allele frequencies within a species or population is:
A. Microevolution
B. Convergent evolution
C. Artificial selection
D. Natural selection
E. The principle of superposition
27.
Which of the following is (are) observations of nature made by Darwin?
A. Organisms are varied and some variations are inherited
B. More individuals of a population are born than survive to reproduce
C. Individuals compete with one another for limited resources that enable them to survive
D. All of the above are correct
E. None of the above are correct
28.
Darwin concluded from his observations of nature that:
A. The inherited characteristics of some members of a population make them more likely to survive to reproductive age
B. Since the environment selects against adaptive traits, only those with nonadaptive traits live long enough to reproduce
C. That because the environment selects for adaptive traits, only those with adaptive traits live long enough to reproduce
D. Since the environment selects for nonadaptive traits, only those with nonadaptive traits live long enough to reproduce
E. Both A and C are correct
29.
The entire collection of genes and their alleles is a population's:
A. Genotype
B. Gene pool
C. Phenotype
D. Dominant traits
E. Recessive traits
30.
An individual's phenotype is:
A. Its observable properties
B. The action of single and/or multiple genes
C. Usually influenced by environment
D. All of the above are correct
E. None of the above are correct
31.
The mode of natural selection in which one extreme phenotype is fittest and the environment selects against the others is:
A. Directive selection
B. Disruptive selection
C. Stabilizing selection
D. Artificial selection
E. Convergent selection
32.
The mode of natural selection in which extreme phenotypes are less fit than the optimal intermediate phenotype is:
A. Directive selection
B. Disruptive selection
C. Stabilizing selection
D. Artificial selection
E. Convergent selection
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33.
"Balanced polymorphism," also known as "heterozygote advantage" means that:
A. Multiple alleles of a gene persist indefinitely in a population due to selection
B. Many genes that affect the same trait persist indefinitely in a population
C. Only a dominant and recessive allele exist for each trait in a population
D. Many traits persist in a population that are controlled by only a single allele
E. None of the above are correct
34.
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium occurs only in populations that meet which of the following requirements?
A. Mutations do not occur
B. Individuals mate at random
C. Natural selection does not occur
D. A and B are correct, but C is incorrect
E. A, B and C are correct
35.
At Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium:
A. Allele frequencies remain constant from one generation to the next
B. Allele frequencies change from one generation to the next
C. Evolution does not occur — it is the null hypothisis
D. Both A and C are correct
E. Both B and C are correct
36.
A cigarette smoker with lung cancer will not pass-on any smoking-induced lung cancer mutations if he has children because:
A. The smoking-induced mutations are in somatic cells
B. The smoking-induced mutations are not in germ cells
C. The smoking-induced mutations are not in gametes
D. All of the above are correct
E. None of the above are correct
37.
Alleles conferring red plumage to cardinal males are common because:
A. Of sexual selection
B. Red plumage makes males more susceptible to predation
C. Red plumage is preferred by female cardinals in regards to choosing a mate
D. Both A and B are correct
E. Both A and C are correct
38.
Sexually dimorphic features do not include:
A. Colored plumage
B. Structures such as horns
C. Lack of intelligence
D. Body size
E. None of the above are correct
39.
Founder and bottleneck effects:
A. Can have extreme consequences due to genetic drift.
B. Can occur when small groups of individuals leave their home population and establish new settlements.
C. Can occur when many members of a population die.
D. Often result in a great loss of genetic diversity, but can lead to adaptive radiation.
E. All are correct.
40.
The process by which new species originate:
A. Is extinction
B. Occurred only once in Earth's history
C. Is germination
D. Is speciation
E. Occurred for millions of years but is no longer occurring
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41.
The process by which species cease to exist:
A. Has never occurred
B. Is speciation
C. Is extinction
D. Is occurring today at a faster rate than ever before
E. None of the above are correct
42.
Islands provide ideal opportunities to study speciation because:
A. They often have small land areas that make it relatively easy to monitor their populations
B. Organisms can easily move onto and off of islands
C. Few organisms can cross long distances across oceans to reach isolated islands
D. Both A and B are correct
E. Both A and C are correct
43.
The types of living organisms on Earth have changed over time, new species have originated and existing species have
disappeared. The term that best describes this ever changing panorama of life is:
A. Speciation
B. Macroevolution
C. Extinction
D. Alternation of generations
E. Hybridization
44.
Ernst Mayr defined a biological species as:
A. A group of closely related organisms
B. A population, whose members can interbreed
C. A population or group of populations that can interbreed and produce fertile offspring
D. A group of organisms that live in the same ecosystem, that can interbreed and produce offspring
E. All of the above are correct
45.
Which of the following is not a type of prezygotic reproductive isolation?
A. Hybrid infertility
B. Temporal isolation
C. Gametic isolation
D. Ecological isolation
E. Mechanical isolation
46.
The type of reproductive isolation in which two populations live in the same habitat but remain isolated from one another due
to one being active during the daytime only and the other being active only during the night is:
A. Behavioral isolation
B. Temporal isolation
C. Gametic isolation
D. Mechanical isolation
E. None of the above are correct
47.
The type of reproductive isolation in which offspring are infertile because their chromosomes cannot align correctly during
meiosis because of a different number of chromosomes being inherited from the two parents is:
A. Gametic isolation
B. Mechanical isolation
C. Hybrid infertility
D. Hybrid inviability
E. Temporal isolation
48.
Zebroids, mules and ligers are all:
A. Capable of producing fertile offspring
B. Incapable of producing fertile offspring
C. Hybrids
D. Both A and B are correct
E. Both B and C are correct
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49.
The spatial arrangements that may help cause speciation are:
A. Allopatric, allopathic and allelopathy
B. Paraplegic, parapatric and paralegal
C. Sympathetic, symphonic and sympatric
D. Sympatric, parapatric and allopatric
E. Allopathic, paraplegic and sympathetic
50.
Polyploid means:
A. Having three or more sets of chromosomes
B. Having only one set of chromosomes
C. Having three or more chromosomes
D. Having an abnormal number of one particular chromosome
E. Having an abnormal number of two or more individual chromosomes
51.
Polyploidy is:
A. Common in both plant and animal species
B. Common in animal species
C. Common in plant species
D. Common only in bacteria
E. None of the above are correct
52.
The idea that evolution proceeds in small, incremental changes over many generations is:
A. Temporal isolation
B. Punctuated equilibrium
C. Catastrophism
D. Gradualism
E. Temporal equilibrium
53.
The idea that evolution proceeds with long periods of stasis with relatively brief bursts of fast evolutionary change is:
A. Temporal isolation
B. Punctuated equilibrium
C. Catastrophism
D. Gradualism
E. Temporal equilibrium
54.
Adaptive radiation might occur due to:
A. New colonization of an isolated habitat
B. Some members of a population inheriting a structure or ability that gives them a survival advantage
C. Some members of a population have adaptations that enable them to survive a major environmental change
D. All of the above are correct
E. None of the above are correct
55.
Extinction of a species may be due to:
A. Human intervention
B. Introduction of a new predator
C. A matter of "bad luck"
D. Loss of habitat
E. All of the above are correct
56.
Mass extinctions:
A. Have never occurred
B. Have periodically opened vast new habitats for adaptive radiation to occur
C. May have been caused by the impact of a large meteorite or comet with Earth
D. Both B and C are correct
E. None of the above are correct
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57.
The impact of a large meteorite, comet, or asteroid with Earth would have most likely caused mass extinctions by:
A. Creating large clouds of dust that blocked out sunlight
B. Causing a great prolonged rise in the earth's temperature
C. Destroying plant life on Earth
D. Both A and C are correct
E. Both B and C are correct
58.
Today an alarming increase in the background extinction rate is occurring for many types of organisms due to:
A. Human intervention
B. Global warming
C. Loss of habitat
D. Both A and B are correct
E. Both A and C are correct
59.
Phylogenies are:
A. Charts that show the presence or absence of disease in families
B. Evolutionary trees
C. Depict species' relationships based on descent from shared ancestors
D. Both A and B are correct
E. Both B and C are correct
60.
Within the last several centuries extinctions of species have occurred in:
A. Plants and only mammals in the animal kingdom
B. Plants and only birds and fish in the animal kingdom
C. All kingdoms of animals, but not plants
D. Only lower life forms such as bacteria
E. None of the above are correct
61.
The discovery of a fossile Archaeopteryx in 1860 led to the beginning of the hypothesis of birds being closely related to:
A. Butterflies
B. Salamanders
C. Dinosaurs
D. Bats
E. None of the above are correct
62.
The type of evidence (studies) providing support for evolution include:
A. Molecular evidence
B. Fossil evidence
C. Biogeographical evidence
D. All of the above are correct
E. Only B and C are correct
63.
Fossils may be:
A. From impressions left after an organism decays
B. Formed as organic matter is replaced by minerals, turning to stone
C. Formed when plant resin or tar preserves the specimen
D. Casts from footprints that have filled with mud and then turned to stone
E. All of the above are correct
64.
Petrification occurs:
A. When minerals replace the organic material left by a decaying organism
B. When a leaf sinks into water and fine sediment covers the leaf and compresses
C. When the imprint of an animal fills with mud, that later hardens to rock
D. When a whole organism is trapped in a plant resin
E. All of the above are correct
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65.
The fossil record is in many cases incomplete because:
A. The vast majority of organisms never left a fossil trace
B. Many organisms rapidly decomposed after death
C. Many organisms were eaten after death
D. Many fossils are never discovered because of their location (buried deep in the earth)
E. All of the above are correct
66.
Relative dating:
A. Is usually based on the principle of superposition
B. Uses radioactive carbon to estimate how old a fossil is
C. Uses the depth of fossils within rock layers and the depth of fossils in relation to other fossils within rock layers to
estimate how old a fossil is
D. Both A and C are correct
E. All of the above are correct
67.
Absolute dating:
A. Is usually based on the principle of superposition
B. Uses the depth of fossils within rock layers and the depth of fossils in relation to other fossils within rock layers to
estimate how old a fossil is
C. Uses radioactive isotopes to estimate how old a fossil is
D. Both A and B are correct
E. None of the above are correct
68.
Each radioactive isotope:
A. Emits radiation as it decays
B. Has its own specific half-life
C. Decays at an unchangeable and characteristic rate
D. All of the above are correct
E. None of the above are correct
69.
It is theorized that the Himalayan Mountains were formed:
A. Because of Earth's shifting continents
B. Because the Indo-Australian plate collided with the Eurasian plate
C. Because of the principles of plate tectonics
D. All of the above are correct
E. None of the above are correct
70.
When Pangaea broke apart, it formed:
A. Two continents
B. Gondwana
C. Laurasia
D. All of the above are correct
E. None of the above are correct
71.
Marsupials are mammals that:
A. Lay eggs
B. Carry their young in a pouch
C. Are very common in Australia
D. Both A and C are correct
E. Both B and C are correct
72.
If similarities between two structures in different organisms reflect common ancestry, these structures are:
A. Vestigeal
B. Analogous
C. Homologous
D. Homeotic
E. Systematic
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73.
Two genes are determined to be homologous because their sequences are very similar to one another. Both of these genes
occur within the same organism. Therefore, these genes are most likely:
A. Analogous
B. Orthologous
C. Paralogous
D. Xenologous
E. None of the above
74.
If similarities between two structures in different organisms reflect independent, convergent evolution, these structures are:
A. Vestigeal
B. Analogous
C. Homologous
D. Homeotic
E. Systematic
75.
If an organ has no apparent function in one species, yet is homologous to a functional structure in another species, it is:
A. Vestigeal
B. Analogous
C. Homologous
D. Homeotic
E. Systematic
76.
A gene that, when mutated leads to organisms with structures in abnormal places, is termed:
A. Parsimonious
B. Homologous
C. Homeotic
D. Vestigeal
E. Dominant
77.
A group consisting of a common ancestor and all of its descendants is a:
A. Species
B. Genus
C. Clade
D. Phylum
E. Order
78.
"mtDNA":
A. Means mitochondrial DNA
B. Has been used to match kidnapped children to their birth mothers
C. Has been used to trace human origins
D. Has been used in support of the "out of Africa" hypothesis
E. All of the above are correct
79.
Human cytochrome c and the cytochrome c of some other organisms were aligned. An evolutionary model was used to
determine the following evolutionary distances, from human to: Rhesus monkey - 1%; Pigeon - 12%; Fruit fly - 24%. This
information tells us:
A. That humans are more related to pigeons than fruit flies
B. That humans are more related to Rhesus monkeys than fruit flies
C. That humans are more related to Rhesus monkeys than pigeons
D. All of the above are correct
E. None of the above are correct
80.
On average most mutations in an organism's DNA neither help nor hurt the organism nor it's ability to reproduce. This is
known as:
A. positive natural selection.
B. negative natural selection.
C. stabilizing natural selection.
D. neutral evolution.
E. None of the above.
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81.
A phylogenetic inference method that determines the optimal tree based on the minimum number of changes along all of its
branches is called:
A. Parsimony
B. Distance (phenetics)
C. Maximum Likelihood
D. Bayesian inference
E. None of the above
82.
A phylogenetic tree with only four tips (species, genes, etc), can have how many possible bifurcating, unrooted arrangements?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. Five
83.
Stanley Miller's first prebiotic simulation experiment showed that under the right conditions, Oparin's ancient reducing
atmosphere could allow for the formation of:
A. Living cells
B. Plants
C. DNA molecules
D. Amino acids
E. Liposomes
84.
Clays may have been important in the formation of organic macromolecules because:
A. They can form templates for the linking of organic building blocks
B. They contain minerals that can release electrons, providing energy
C. They attract negatively charged RNA nucleotides
D. They promote formation of covalent bonds needed to link nucleotides
E. All of the above are correct
85.
Carl Woese named an ancient, self-replicatiing aggregate of RNA, perhaps DNA, proteins and lipids a:
A. Cell
B. Molecule
C. Progenote
D. Liposome
E. Domain
86.
Clues from geology and paleontology suggest that the precursors to very simple cells arose about:
A. 6 billion years ago
B. 4 billion years ago
C. 6 million years ago
D. 4 million years ago
E. 1 million years ago
87.
It is thought that the first cells, and 'shortly' thereafter LUCA, probably arose about:
A. 500 million years ago
B. 1 billion years ago
C. 2 billion years ago
D. 3.5 billion years ago
E. 5 billion years ago
88.
It is thought that eukaryotes probably originated about:
A. 4 billion years ago
B. 4 million years ago
C. 3 billion years ago
D. 3 million years ago
E. 1.5 billion years ago
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89.
Which theory is used to help explain the origin of chloroplasts and mitochondria?
A. The theory of spontaneous generation
B. The theory of natural selection
C. The endosymbiant theory
D. The geologic time theory
E. The cell theory
90.
Evidence supporting the idea that mitochondria and chloroplasts in Eukaryotes originated as independent organisms includes:
A. Similarities in size and shape between mitochondria and some bacteria
B. Similarity between photosynthetic pigments in chloroplasts and cyanobacteria
C. Similarity in the way mitochondria, chloroplasts and bacteria reproduce
D. Similarities in DNA sequences between mitochondrial and chloroplast and bacterial genomes
E. All of the above are correct
91.
The "Cambrian explosion" refers to:
A. The mass extinction of dinosaurs
B. The development of the first true cell
C. The origination of life
D. The appearance of fossils for all major phyla of animals
E. None of the above are correct
92.
Which of the following did not occur during Precambrian time?
A. Ancestors of all modern animals appear
B. Life originated
C. Photosynthesis evolved
D. O2 accumulated in the Earth's atmosphere
E. Eukaryotes arose
93.
A mass extinction called the K-T Boundary, perhaps caused by a large asteroid hitting the Earth near the Yucatan peninsula,
occurred at the end of the:
A. Cretaceous period
B. Jurassic period
C. Triassic period
D. Permian period
E. Cambrian period
94.
The Primate order arose about:
A. One million years ago
B. Ten million years ago
C. 25 million years ago
D. 60 million years ago
E. 100 million years ago
95.
Hominids include:
A. Humans
B. Orangutans
C. Chimpanzees
D. Gorillas
E. All of the above are correct
96.
The three groups in the primate lineage are:
A. Prosimians, simians and hominoids
B. Monkeys, gibbons and orangutans
C. Gorillas, bonobos and chimpanzees
D. Chimpanzees, gorillas and humans
E. Hominines, hominids and hominoids
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97.
The swinging from one arm to the other with the body dangling below is:
A. Bipedalism
B. "Knuckle walking"
C. Brachiation
D. Quatrapedalism
E. All of the above are correct
98.
Fossil hominines in the human family tree include:
A. The Australopith group
B. The Homo group
C. The Paranthropus group
D. All of the above are correct
E. Only A and B are correct
99.
Advantages of bipedalism include:
A. Elevated vantage point for sensing danger and spotting food
B. Freeing of hands to carry objects and use tools
C. Movement through the treetops and clinging to vines
D. Both A and B are correct
E. None of the above are correct
100. Our closest living relatives on the phylogenetic tree of life are:
A. Gibbons
B. Chimpanzees
C. Gorillas
D. Orangutans
E. Homo erectus
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Evolution & Diversity Section One Exam Key
1.
Which is the correct sequence for levels of biological organization within an organism?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Molecule - atom - organelle - tissue - cell
Cell - organelle - atom - tissue - molecule
Organelle - molecule - atom - tissue - cell
Atom - molecule - organelle - cell - tissue
Atom - organelle - molecule - cell - tissue
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 01 #1
Question Type: Knowledge
2.
Which is the correct sequence for levels of biological organization occurring beyond the individual?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Population - ecosystem - community - biosphere
Community - population - ecosystem - biosphere
Population - community - ecosystem - biosphere
Community - population - biosphere - ecosystem
Ecosystem - population - biosphere - community
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 01 #2
Question Type: Knowledge
3.
To be considered a living organism, the organism must consist of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
One or more cells
DNA and proteins
RNA and proteins
Atoms and molecules
DNA and RNA
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 01 #3
Question Type: Knowledge
4.
Which is not a major characteristic of life?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Homeostasis
Structural organization
Movement
Evolution
Energy use
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 01 #6
Question Type: Knowledge
1
5.
Organisms that obtain energy by eating nutrients that make up other organisms are called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Autotrophs
Heterotrophs
Plants
Producers
Both A and D are correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 01 #5
Question Type: Knowledge
6.
Organisms that extract energy from environments that never lived are called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Autotrophs
Heterotrophs
Decomposers
Primary producers
Both A and D are correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 01 #4
Question Type: Knowledge
7.
Decomposers are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Bacteria
Fungi
Organisms that obtain energy from wastes or dead organisms
All of the above are correct
None of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 01 #21
Question Type: Knowledge
8.
"The most restrictive taxon" and "the ability to breed only among themselves" reference:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Members of the same domain
Members of the same genus
Members of the same family
Members of the same kingdom
Members of the same species
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 01 #9
Question Type: Application
2
9.
A major difference between bacteria and archaea and all other living organisms is that bacteria and
archaea:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Have cell walls and other organisms do not
Have a nucleus in their cells and other organisms do not
Are autotrophs and other organisms are not
Do not have a nucleus in their cells and other organisms do
Do not have cell walls and other organisms do
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 01 #12
Question Type: Application
10.
Which of the following is not true about a hypothesis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
It can be proven to be false
It can be proven to be true
It is a tentative explanation
It is based on previous knowledge
It must be testable to be useful
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 01 #14
Question Type: Conceptual
11.
A theory differs from a hypothesis in that a theory:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Has more supportive evidence than a hypothesis
Is broader in scope than a hypothesis
Ties together many existing observations
Has predictive power
All of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 01 #18
Question Type: Conceptual
12.
Asexual reproduction differs from sexual reproduction in that:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Asexual reproduction produces genetically diverse offspring
Asexual reproduction uses DNA to code for traits in offspring
Asexual reproduction occurs only in bacteria
Asexual reproduction does not occur in animals
Asexual reproduction produces offspring that are virtually identical
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 01 #24
Question Type: Conceptual
3
13.
Which of the following is not a true statement about the scientific method?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
It is a general way of organizing an investigation
It is a framework to consider ideas in a repeatable way
It begins with observations
It does not apply to problems encountered in every day life
It is a framework to consider evidence in a repeatable way
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 01 #13
Question Type: Application
14.
The scientific study of life is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Biology
Chemistry
Genomics
Proteomics
Genetics
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 01 #27
Question Type: Knowledge
15.
All ecosystems:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Once mature never change
Are entirely self-sufficient
Need a continuous outside energy source
Consist of only living organisms
None of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 01 #30
Question Type: Conceptual
16.
Which is a correct sequence of steps in the scientific method?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Observation - form hypothesis - draw conclusions - design an experiment
Observation - draw conclusion - design an experiment - form hypothesis
Form hypothesis - observation - design an experiment - collect data
Observation - form hypothesis - design an experiment - collect data
Form hypothesis - observation - collect data - design an experiment
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 01 #35
Question Type: Conceptual
4
17.
Antibiotic resistance is becoming more common in disease-causing bacteria because:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Antibiotics are used in feed for livestock
Antibiotics are sometimes prescribed for viral infections (due to pressure from patients)
Some patients do not take the antibiotics as directed
Antibiotics are used to treat infections in cattle, chickens and other animals used for agricultural
purposes
E. All of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 13 #1
Question Type: Comprehension
18.
Genetic change in a population over time defines which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Heredity
Mitosis
Evolution
Phenotype
Genotype
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 13 #2
Question Type: Knowledge
19.
Convergent evolution means:
A. Different organisms will never have similar traits
B. That different lineages may independently evolve similar traits
C. That organisms living in similar habitats may develop similar traits even though they are not
related
D. Both B and C are correct
E. None of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 13 #11
Question Type: Comprehension
20.
The French taxonomist, who in 1809 suggested that organisms that use one part of their body
repeatedly would increase their abilities and pass it on to their children by the "inheritance of acquired
characteristics" was:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Charles Darwin
James Hutton
Jean Lamarck
Georges Buffon
Charles Lyell
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 13 #6
Question Type: Knowledge
5
21.
The scientist who went to the Galapagos Islands on the Beagle and later published "On the Origin of
Species by Means of Natural Selection" in 1859 was:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Charles Darwin
James Hutton
Jean Lamarck
Georges Buffon
Charles Lyell
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 13 #9
Question Type: Knowledge
22.
Most of the notes and samples that would serve as the seed of Darwin's theory of evolution by natural
selection were obtained during a month-long stay at:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The New Hebrides Islands
The Galapagos Islands
The Hawaiian Islands
The Sandwich Islands
Pitcairn Island
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 13 #12
Question Type: Knowledge
23.
A gradual change from an ancestral type was referred to by Darwin as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Uniformitarianism
Catastrophism
Descent with modification
Convergent evolution
Principle of superposition
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 13 #13
Question Type: Knowledge
24.
According to Darwin, natural selection usually:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Preserves favorable variations in a population
Rejects harmful variations in a population
Neither preserves nor rejects harmful variations in a population
Both A and B are correct
Both A and C are correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 13 #14
Question Type: Comprehension
6
25.
Which of the following is not a plant selectively bred from the wild mustard plant?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Broccoli
Cauliflower
Kale
Cabbage
None of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 13 #16
Question Type: Knowledge
26.
The relatively short term changes in allele frequencies within a species or population is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Microevolution
Convergent evolution
Artificial selection
Natural selection
The principle of superposition
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 13 #17
Question Type: Knowledge
27.
Which of the following is (are) observations of nature made by Darwin?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Organisms are varied and some variations are inherited
More individuals of a population are born than survive to reproduce
Individuals compete with one another for limited resources that enable them to survive
All of the above are correct
None of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 13 #18
Question Type: Comprehension
28.
Darwin concluded from his observations of nature that:
A. The inherited characteristics of some members of a population make them more likely to survive
to reproductive age
B. That because the environment selects against adaptive traits, only those with nonadaptive traits
live long enough to reproduce
C. That because the environment selects for adaptive traits, only those with adaptive traits live long
enough to reproduce
D. That because the environment selects for nonadaptive traits, only those with nonadaptive traits live
long enough to reproduce
E. Both A and C are correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 13 #19
Question Type: Comprehension
7
29.
The entire collection of genes and their alleles is a population's:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Genotype
Gene pool
Phenotype
Dominant traits
Recessive traits
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 13 #20
Question Type: Knowledge
30.
An individual's phenotype is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Its observable properties
The action of single and/or multiple genes
Usually influenced by environment
All of the above are correct
None of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 13 #21
Question Type: Comprehension
31.
The mode of natural selection in which one extreme phenotype is fittest and the environment selects
against the others is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Directive selection
Disruptive selection
Stabilizing selection
Artificial selection
Convergent selection
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 13 #23
Question Type: Comprehension
32.
The mode of natural selection in which extreme phenotypes are less fit than the optimal intermediate
phenotype is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Directive selection
Disruptive selection
Stabilizing selection
Artificial selection
Convergent selection
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 13 #25
Question Type: Comprehension
8
33.
"Balanced polymorphism," also known as "heterozygote advantage" means that:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Multiple alleles of a gene persist indefinitely in a population due to selection
Many genes that affect the same trait persist indefinitely in a population
Only a dominant and recessive allele exist for each trait in a population
Many traits persist in a population that are controlled by only a single allele
None of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 13 #29
Question Type: Knowledge
34.
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium occurs only in populations that meet which of the following
requirements?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Mutations do not occur
Individuals mate at random
Natural selection does not occur
A and B are correct, but C is incorrect
A, B and C are correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 13 #31
Question Type: Comprehension
35.
At Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Allele frequencies remain constant from one generation to the next
Allele frequencies change from one generation to the next
Evolution does not occur
Both A and C are correct
Both B and C are correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 13 #34
Question Type: Comprehension
36.
A cigarette smoker with lung cancer will not pass-on any smoking-induced lung cancer mutations if
he has children because:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The smoking-induced mutations are in somatic cells
The smoking-induced mutations are not in germ cells
The smoking-induced mutations are not in gametes
All of the above are correct
None of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 13 #35
Question Type: Comprehension
9
37.
Alleles conferring red plumage to cardinal males are common because:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Of sexual selection
Red plumage makes males more susceptible to predation
Red plumage is preferred by female cardinals in regards to choosing a mate
Both A and B are correct
Both A and C are correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 13 #36
Question Type: Comprehension
38.
Sexually dimorphic features do not include:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Colored plumage
Structures such as horns
Lack of intelligence
Body size
None of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 13 #38
Question Type: Comprehension
39.
Founder and bottleneck effects:
A. Can have extreme consequences due to genetic drift.
B. Can occur when small groups of individuals leave their home population and establish new
settlements.
C. Can occur when many members of a population die.
D. Often result in a great loss of genetic diversity, but can lead to adaptive radiation.
E. All are correct.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 13 #39
Question Type: Comprehension
40.
The process by which new species originate:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Is extinction
Occurred only once in Earth's history
Is germination
Is speciation
Occurred for millions of years but is no longer occurring
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 14 #1
Question Type: Knowledge
10
41.
The process by which species cease to exist:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Has never occurred
Is speciation
Is extinction
Is occurring today at a faster rate than ever before
None of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 14 #2
Question Type: Knowledge
42.
Islands provide ideal opportunities to study speciation because:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
They often have small land areas that make it relatively easy to monitor their populations
Organisms can easily move onto and off of islands
Few organisms can cross long distances across oceans to reach isolated islands
Both A and B are correct
Both A and C are correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 14 #3
Question Type: Comprehension
43.
The types of living organisms on Earth have changed over time, new species have originated and
existing species have disappeared. The term that best describes this ever changing panorama of life
is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Speciation
Macroevolution
Extinction
Alternation of generations
Hybridization
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 14 #6
Question Type: Knowledge
44.
Ernst Mayr defined a biological species as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A group of closely related organisms
A population, whose members can interbreed
A population or group of populations that can interbreed and produce fertile offspring
A group of organisms that live in the same ecosystem, that can interbreed and produce offspring
All of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 14 #9
Question Type: Knowledge
11
45.
Which of the following is not a type of prezygotic reproductive isolation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Hybrid infertility
Temporal isolation
Gametic isolation
Ecological isolation
Mechanical isolation
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 14 #11
Question Type: Knowledge
46.
The type of reproductive isolation in which two populations live in the same habitat but remain
isolated from one another due to one being active during the daytime only and the other being active
only during the night is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Behavioral isolation
Temporal isolation
Gametic isolation
Mechanical isolation
None of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 14 #13
Question Type: Comprehension
47.
The type of reproductive isolation in which offspring are infertile because their chromosomes cannot
align correctly during meiosis because of a different number of chromosomes being inherited from
the two parents is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Gametic isolation
Mechanical isolation
Hybrid infertility
Hybrid inviability
Temporal isolation
Difficulty Level: High
Hoefnagels - Chapter 14 #14
Question Type: Comprehension
48.
Zebroids, mules and ligers are all:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Capable of producing fertile offspring
Incapable of producing fertile offspring
Hybrids
Both A and B are correct
Both B and C are correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 14 #19
Question Type: Comprehension
12
49.
The spatial arrangements that may help cause speciation are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Allopatric, allopathic and allelopathy
Paraplegic, parapatric and paralegal
Sympathetic, symphonic and sympatric
Sympatric, parapatric and allopatric
Allopathic, paraplegic and sympathetic
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 14 #20
Question Type: Knowledge
50.
Polyploid means:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Having three or more sets of chromosomes
Having only one set of chromosomes
Having three or more chromosomes
Having an abnormal number of one particular chromosome
Having an abnormal number of two or more individual chromosomes
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 14 #22
Question Type: Knowledge
51.
Polyploidy is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Common in both plant and animal species
Common in animal species
Common in plant species
Common only in bacteria
None of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 14 #23
Question Type: Knowledge
52.
The idea that evolution proceeds in small, incremental changes over many generations is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Temporal isolation
Punctuated equilibrium
Catastrophism
Gradualism
Temporal equilibrium
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 14 #25
Question Type: Knowledge
13
53.
The idea that evolution proceeds with long periods of stasis with relatively brief bursts of fast
evolutionary change is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Temporal isolation
Punctuated equilibrium
Catastrophism
Gradualism
Temporal equilibrium
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 14 #26
Question Type: Knowledge
54.
Adaptive radiation might occur due to:
A. New colonization of an isolated habitat
B. Some members of a population inheriting a structure or ability that gives them a survival
advantage
C. Some members of a population have a combination of adaptations that enable them to survive a
major environmental change
D. All of the above are correct
E. None of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 14 #29
Question Type: Comprehension
55.
Extinction of a species may be due to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Human intervention
Introduction of a new predator
A matter of "bad luck"
Loss of habitat
All of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 14 #30
Question Type: Knowledge
56.
Mass extinctions:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Have never occurred
Have periodically opened vast new habitats for adaptive radiation to occur
May have been caused by the impact of a large meteorite or comet with Earth
Both B and C are correct
None of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 14 #34
Question Type: Comprehension
14
57.
The impact of a large meteorite, comet, or asteroid with Earth would have most likely caused mass
extinctions by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Creating large clouds of dust that blocked out sunlight
Causing a great prolonged rise in the earth's temperature
Destroying plant life on Earth
Both A and C are correct
Both B and C are correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 14 #36
Question Type: Comprehension
58.
Today an alarming increase in the background extinction rate is occurring for many types of
organisms due to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Human intervention
Global warming
Loss of habitat
Both A and B are correct
Both A and C are correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 14 #38
Question Type: Comprehension
59.
Phylogenies are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Charts that show the presence or absence of disease in families
Evolutionary trees
Depict species' relationships based on descent from shared ancestors
Both A and B are correct
Both B and C are correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 14 #40
Question Type: Comprehension
60.
Within the last several centuries extinctions of species have occurred in:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Plants and only mammals in the animal kingdom
Plants and only birds and fish in the animal kingdom
All kingdoms of animals, but not plants
Only lower life forms such as bacteria
None of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 14 #46
Question Type: Knowledge
15
61.
The discovery of the fossilized remains of Archaeopteryx in 1860 led to the beginning of the
hypothesis of birds being closely related to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Butterflies
Salamanders
Dinosaurs
Bats
None of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 15 #1
Question Type: Knowledge
62.
The type of evidence (studies) providing support for evolution include:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Molecular evidence
Fossil evidence
Biogeographical evidence
All of the above are correct
Only B and C are correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 15 #9
Question Type: Comprehension
63.
Fossils may be:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
From impressions left after an organism decays
Formed as organic matter is replaced by minerals, turning to stone
Formed when plant resin or tar preserves the specimen
Casts from footprints that have filled with mud and then turned to stone
All of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 15 #12
Question Type: Comprehension
64.
Petrification occurs:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
When minerals replace the organic material left by a decaying organism
When a leaf sinks into water and fine sediment covers the leaf and compresses
When the imprint of an animal fills with mud, that later hardens to rock
When a whole organism is trapped in a plant resin
All of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 15 #13
Question Type: Comprehension
16
65.
The fossil record is in many cases incomplete because:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The vast majority of organisms never left a fossil trace
Many organisms rapidly decomposed after death
Many organisms were eaten after death
Many fossils are never discovered because of their location (buried deep in the earth)
All of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 15 #14
Question Type: Comprehension
66.
Relative dating:
A. Is usually based on the principle of superposition
B. Uses radioactive carbon to estimate how old a fossil is
C. Uses the depth of fossils within rock layers and the depth of fossils in relation to other fossils
within rock layers to estimate how old a fossil is
D. Both A and C are correct
E. All of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 15 #17
Question Type: Comprehension
67.
Absolute dating:
A. Is usually based on the principle of superposition
B. Uses the depth of fossils within rock layers and the depth of fossils in relation to other fossils
within rock layers to estimate how old a fossil is
C. Uses radioactive isotopes to estimate how old a fossil is
D. Both A and B are correct
E. None of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 15 #18
Question Type: Comprehension
68.
Each radioactive isotope:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Emits radiation as it decays
Has its own specific half-life
Decays at an unchangeable and characteristic rate
All of the above are correct
None of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 15 #19
Question Type: Comprehension
17
69.
It is theorized that the Himalayan Mountains were formed:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Because of Earth's shifting continents
Because the Indo-Australian plate collided with the Eurasian plate
Because of the principles of plate tectonics
All of the above are correct
None of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 15 #25
Question Type: Comprehension
70.
When Pangaea broke apart, it formed:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Two continents
Gondwana
Laurasia
All of the above are correct
None of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 15 #28
Question Type: Comprehension
71.
Marsupials are mammals that:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Lay eggs
Carry their young in a pouch
Are very common in Australia
Both A and C are correct
Both B and C are correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 15 #29
Question Type: Knowledge
72.
If similarities between two structures in different organisms reflect common ancestry, these
structures are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Vestigeal
Analogous
Homologous
Homeotic
Systematic
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 15 #31
Question Type: Knowledge
73.
Two genes are determined to be homologous because their sequences are very similar to one another.
Both of these genes occur within the same organism. Therefore, these genes are most likely:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Analogous
Orthologous
Paralogous
Xenologous
None of the above
18
74.
If similarities between two structures in different organisms reflect independent,
convergent evolution, these structures are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Vestigeal
Analogous
Homologous
Homeotic
Systematic
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 15 #32
Question Type: Knowledge
75.
If a structure has no apparent function in one species, yet is homologous to a functional organ in
another species, this structure is termed:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Vestigeal
Analogous
Homologous
Homeotic
Systematic
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 15 #33
Question Type: Knowledge
76.
A gene that, when mutated leads to organisms with structures in abnormal places, is termed:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Parsimonious
Homologous
Homeotic
Vestigeal
Dominant
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 15 #34
Question Type: Knowledge
77.
A group consisting of a common ancestor and all of its descendants is a:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Species
Genus
Clade
Phylum
Order
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 15 #35
Question Type: Knowledge
19
78.
"mtDNA":
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Means mitochondrial DNA
Has been used to match kidnapped children to their birth mothers
Has been used to trace human origins
Has been used in support of the "out of Africa" hypothesis
All of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 15 #39
Question Type: Comprehension
79.
Human cytochrome c and the cytochrome c of some other organisms were aligned. An evolutionary
model was used to determine the following evolutionary distances, from human to: Rhesus monkey 1%; Pigeon - 12%; Fruit fly - 24%. This information tells us:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
That humans are more related to pigeons than fruit flies
That humans are more related to Rhesus monkeys than fruit flies
That humans are more related to Rhesus monkeys than pigeons
All of the above are correct
None of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 15 #36
Question Type: Application
80.
On average most mutations in an organism's DNA neither help nor hurt the organism nor it's ability
to reproduce. This is known as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
81.
A phylogenetic inference method that determines the optimal tree based on the minimum number of
changes along all of its branches is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
82.
positive natural selection.
negative natural selection.
stabilizing natural selection.
neutral evolution.
None of the above.
Parsimony
Distance (phenetics)
Maximum Likelihood
Bayesian inference
None of the above
A phylogenetic tree with only four taxa (tips, species, genes, whatever), can have how many possible
bifurcating, unrooted arrangements?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
One
Two
Three
Four
Five
20
83.
Stanley Miller's first prebiotic simulation experiment showed that under the right conditions, Oparin's
ancient reducing atmosphere could allow for the formation of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Living cells
Plants
DNA molecules
Amino acids
Liposomes
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 16 #5
Question Type: Knowledge
scrambling: EMPTY
84.
Clays may have been important in the formation of organic macromolecules because:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
They can form templates for the linking of organic building blocks
They contain minerals that can release electrons, providing energy
They attract negatively charged RNA nucleotides
They promote formation of covalent bonds needed to link nucleotides
All of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 16 #6
Question Type: Comprehension
85.
Carl Woese named an ancient, self-replicatiing aggregate of RNA, perhaps DNA, proteins and lipids
a:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Cell
Molecule
Progenote
Liposome
Domain
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 16 #7
Question Type: Knowledge
scrambling: EMPTY
86.
Clues from geology and paleontology suggest that the precursors to very simple cells arose about:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
6 billion years ago
4 billion years ago
6 million years ago
4 million years ago
1 million years ago
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 16 #3
Question Type: Knowledge
scrambling: EMPTY
21
87.
It is thought that the first cells, and 'shortly' thereafter LUCA, probably arose about:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
500 million years ago
1 billion years ago
2 billion years ago
3.5 billion years ago
5 billion years ago
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 16 #13
Question Type: Comprehension
scrambling: EMPTY
88.
It is thought that eukaryotes probably originated about:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
4 billion years ago
4 million years ago
3 billion years ago
3 million years ago
1.5 billion years ago
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 16 #11
Question Type: Comprehension
scrambling: EMPTY
89.
Which theory is used to help explain the origin of chloroplasts and mitochondria?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The theory of spontaneous generation
The theory of natural selection
The endosymbiant theory
The geologic time theory
The cell theory
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 16 #14
Question Type: Comprehension
scrambling: EMPTY
90.
Evidence supporting the idea that mitochondria and chloroplasts in present-day cells originated as
independent organisms includes:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Similarities in size and shape between mitochondria and some bacteria
Similarity between photosynthetic pigments in chloroplasts and cyanobacteria
Similarity in the way mitochondria, chloroplasts and bacteria reproduce
Similarities in DNA sequences between mitochondrial and chloroplast and bacterial genomes
All of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 16 #15
Question Type: Comprehension
22
91.
The "Cambrian explosion" refers to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The mass extinction of dinosaurs
The development of the first true cell
The origination of life
The appearance of fossils for all major phyla of animals
None of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: High
Hoefnagels - Chapter 16 #18
Question Type: Comprehension
92.
Which of the following did not occur during Precambrian time?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Ancestors of all modern animals appear
Life originated
Photosynthesis evolved
O2 accumulated in the Earth's atmosphere
Eukaryotes arose
Difficulty Level: High
Hoefnagels - Chapter 16 #19
Question Type: Comprehension
scrambling: EMPTY
93.
A mass extinction called the K-T Boundary, perhaps caused by a large asteroid hitting Earth near the
Yucatan peninsula, occurred at the end of the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Cretaceous period
Jurassic period
Triassic period
Permian period
Cambrian period
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 16 #37
Question Type: Comprehension
scrambling: EMPTY
94.
The Primate order arose about:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
One million years ago
Ten million years ago
25 million years ago
60 million years ago
100 million years ago
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 16 #42
Question Type: Knowledge
scrambling: EMPTY
23
95.
Hominids include:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Humans
Orangutans
Chimpanzees
Gorillas
All of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 16 #46
Question Type: Knowledge
96.
The three groups in the primate lineage are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Prosimians, simians and hominoids
Monkeys, gibbons and orangutans
Gorillas, bonobos and chimpanzees
Chimpanzees, gorillas and humans
Hominines, hominids and hominoids
Difficulty Level: High
Hoefnagels - Chapter 16 #48
Question Type: Comprehension
scrambling: EMPTY
97.
The swinging from one arm to the other with the body dangling below is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Bipedalism
"Knuckle walking"
Brachiation
Quatrapedalism
All of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 16 #49
Question Type: Knowledge
98.
Fossil hominines in the human family tree include:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The Australopith group
The Homo group
The Paranthropus group
All of the above are correct
Only A and B are correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 16 #50
Question Type: Comprehension
24
99.
Advantages of bipedalism include:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Elevated vantage point for sensing danger and spotting food
Freeing of hands to carry objects and use tools
Movement through the treetops and clinging to vines
Both A and B are correct
None of the above are correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 16 #51
Question Type: Comprehension
100.
Our closest living relatives on the phylogenetic tree of life are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Gibbons
Chimpanzees
Gorillas
Orangutans
Homo erectus
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 16 #52
Question Type: Knowledge
scrambling: EMPTY
25
Evolution & Diversity Section One Exam Summary
Category
# of Questions
Difficulty Level: High
4
Difficulty Level: Low
49
Difficulty Level: Moderate
43
Hoefnagels - Chapter 01
16
Hoefnagels - Chapter 13
23
Hoefnagels - Chapter 14
21
Hoefnagels - Chapter 15
18
Hoefnagels - Chapter 16
18
Question Type: Application
4
Question Type: Comprehension
44
Question Type: Conceptual
5
Question Type: Knowledge
43
1