83K English class examination questions of
infectious disease (A)
I. Multiple choice questions (1.0 point each)
1.Pathogen of the scartler fever is:
A. group A – hemolytic streptococcus
B. group A – hemolytic streptococcus
C. group B – hemolytic streptococcus
D. group A – hemolytic streptococcus
E. group C – hemolytic streptococcus
2.Which one is passive immunization?
A. Typhoid vaccine
B. P.P.D.
C. C.Measles vaccine
D. Diphtheria toxoid
E. Tetanus antitoxin
3.The most common complication of the measles is:
A. heart failure
B. encephalitis
C. laryngitis
D. bronchopneumonia
E. secondary infection
4.The basic features of infectious disease are?
A.Infectivity,mode of transmission, immunity
and epidemiologic features.
B.Infectivity,immunity epidemicity and
seasonal.
C.Pathogen,immunity,infectivity and mode of
transmission.
D.Pathogen,immunity,infectivity and
epidemiologic features.
E.Infectivity,pathogen,immunity,epidemicity
and susceptibility.
5.What is the principal measure
to wipe out
alimentary infectious diseases?
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A. Isolation of source of infection.
B. Patients therapy
C. Protection of susceptible population.
D. Cutting off the route of transmission.
E. Observatoin of contactor.
6.HBsAg can not be detected in the serum of
A. Patients with acute hepatitis B.
B. Patients with chronic hepatitis B.
C. Carriers of HBV.
D. Persons who have received hepatitis B
vaccines.
E. Cirrhosis caused by hepatitis B virus.
7.Three factors of the infective process are:
A. Source of infection,route of
transmission,population of susceptibility.
B. Dosage,pathogenicity and specific location
of pathogen.
C. Pathogen,vector and host.
D. Pathogen,host and route of transmission.
E. Pathogen,host and enviroment.
Questions88-11
A.IgG
B.IgM
C.IgA
D.IgE E.IgD
8.r-globulin for prevention and treatment of
infectious diseases contains:
9.The most significant antibody for the early
diagnosis of infectious diseases is:
10.Which can pass through the placenta?
11.Major agglutinin in serum is:
Questions 12-14
A. the first day
B. the second day
C. the fourth day
D. the fifth day
E. the sixth day
12.When does the rash of chickenpox appear after
onset of the disease?
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13.When does the rash of scarlet fever appear after
onset of the disease?
14.When does the rash of typhus appear after onset
of the disease?
15.Pathogens invade into the host and cause mild
damage of the tissues.There are no clinical
manifestations or only atypical symptoms and
signs.But there are specific antibodies in the
serum.This condition is called:
A. To clear out pathogens.
B. Latent infecton
C. Carrier state.
D. Covert infection.
E. Overt infection.
16.Which is correct in the following items?
A.Most of chronic persistent hepatitis develop
cirrhosis.
B.There is no chronic hepatitis A.
C.Hepatitis C can not develop cirrhosis.
D.Chronic active hepatitis is only caused by HBV.
E.Hepatocellular carcinoma is not related to
HCV.
17.In acute fulminant hepatitis,the most
signigicant clinical
manifestation for diagnosis is:
A. Progressive deep jaundice.
B. Rapid shrink of the liver.
C. The symptoms of C.N.S.
D. Hemorrhagic tendency.
E. Toxic intestinal tympanites.
18.The aim of using lactulose in fulminant hepatitis
is:
A. To increase the nutrition of liver.
B. To supply the energy.
C. To reduce the absorption of ammonia.
D. To reduce the necrosis of liver cells.
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E. To increase the regeneration of liver cells.
19.A 18 year female was HBsAg positive in health
check up,but without symptoms and signs,and the
liver functions were normal. In May the following
year, she was admitted for
fever,weakness,vomiting and jaundice of
sclera.ALT 200U/L,Hb 140g/L, anti-HAV
IgM(+).Anti-HBc IgG(+) HBsAg(+).The diagnosis
may be:
A. Acute hepatitis A(icteric type) and HBsAg
chronic carrier.
B. Chronic hepatitis B(CPH).
C. Chronic active hepatitis B.
D. Acute hepatitis A and acute hepatitis B.
E. Acute hepatitis A and chronic persistent
hepatitis B.
20.The most common pathogen causing icteric
hepatitis in children is:
A. HAV.
B. HBV.
C. HCV.
D. HEV.
E. HDV.
21.The antibody protecting human body from
hepatitis B is:
A. Anti-HBs
B. Anti-HbcIgM
C. Anti-HBcIgG.
D. Anti-DNA
E. Anti-HBe.
22.The patient with HBsAg(+) and HBeAg(+) has:
A. No infectivity.
B. Immunity.
C. Inactive disease.
D. Active disease.
E. Infectivity.
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23.The main route of transmission for hepatitis A
is:
A. By injection and blood transfusion.
B. By droplets in the air.
C. By saliva.
D. By fecal-oral.
E. By vertical transmission.
24.The most sensitive serum enzyme for diagnosing
viral hepatitis is:
A. AST.
B. ALT.
C. ALP.
D. r-GT.
E. LDH.
25.Human can not suffer from paragonimiasis by:
A. Ingesting crayfish curd.
B. Eating raw crabs and crayfishes.
C. Drinking contaminated water.
D. Eating raw meat of wild boar.
E. Eating raw shrimps.
26.The chronic carrier of typhoid fever is that:
A. The period of discharge of bacteria is no more
than 1 month
B. The period of discharge of bacteria is no
more than 2 months
C. The period of discharge of bacteria is no more
than 3 months
D. The period of discharge of bacteria is more
than 3 months
E. The period of discharge of bacteria is more
than 6 months
27.What is the main factors that cause the sustained
fever and toxic syptoms in typhoid fever?
A. The typhoid bacilli multiply at local site
and invade into blood constantly
B. The typhoid bacilli multiply largely in blood
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C. The endotoxin released by typhoid bacilli acts
upon the central of regulating temperature
D. Delayed allergy
E. The endogenous pyrogen released by
macromononuclear cells in site of lesion
A girl, 6 month old, high fever 3 days, the
temperature 40 ℃, the typhoid bacilli was positive
in blood culture, widal test:“H” and “O”were
negative.
28.What disease did the child suffer from?
A. The carrier of bacilli of typhoid fever
B. Ambulatory type of typhoid fever
C. The common type of typhoid fever
D. The bacteremia of typhoid bacillI
E. No infection of typhoid fever
29.What is the main complication of this disease?
A. Toxic hepatitis
B. Toxic myocarditis
C. Intestinal bleeding
D. Intestinal perforation
E. Bronchopneumonia
30.Which one is the most significant manifestation
of toxic bacillary dysentery?
A. Onset abruptly
B. Diarrhea
C. High fever,coma and convulsion
D. Shock in early time
E. Respiratory failure
31.Chronic bacillary dysentery relates to the
following factors, except for:
A. The bacteria having a strong virulence
B. Treating without thorougly and not in time
C. Hypotrophy
D. Chronic cholecystitis
E. Intestinal parasitosis
Questions 32~34:
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A. fever+abdominal pain +diarrhea+stool with pus
and blood
B. fever+ abdominal pain +diarrhea+stool like jams
C. fever+ abdominal pain +diarrhea+watery stool
D. no fever+ abdominal pain +diarrhea+watery stool
E. no fever+no abdominal pain +diarrhea+watery
stool
32.Ameba dysentery has:
33.Bacillary dysentery has:
34.Cholera has:
35.Since 1961,the pathogen of the 7th pandemic of
cholera in the world is:
A. Classical biotype
B. EL-Tor biotype
C. O139 biotype
D. O137 biotype
E. O157 biotype
A female,22 years old, was hospitalized
because violent diarrhea and profuse vomitting,no
fever, no abdominal pain, the diarrhea is more than
10 times with a large amount of watery stool.
36.The diagnosis may be :
A. Bacillary dysentery
B. Poisoning of food
C. C.Acute gastroenteritis
D. Cholera
E. Other
37.In order to make clinical diagnosis ,what is
the first choice of the test?
A. Blood routine
B. Stool routine
C. Smear of stool
D. Culture of stool
E. Culture of blood
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38.According to <the prophylaxis and treatment
laws of infectious disease of P.R of
China>,when should this disease be reported to
epidemic prevention station in town and in
countryside:
A.3 hours and 6 hours
B.6 hours and 12 hours
C.12 hours and 24 hours
D.24 hours and 48 hours
E.<3 hours
39.which is the most important treatment to this
patient?
A. Injection of cirofloxacin
B. Injection of 0.9%N.S
C. Injection of 5%bicarbonas solution
D. Injection of humorous
E. Injection of dopamine
40.A patient, with intermittent fever for
20days,and parasitic protozoa were found in
blood thick smear,the most obvious sign in the
patient may be:
A. Anemia
B. Jaudice
C. Hepatomegaly
D. Splenomegaly
E. Herpes simplex on lips
41.the common radical treating plan of malaria is:
A. Chloroquine+Pyrimethamine
B. Chloroquine+Primaquine
C. Quinine+ Pyrimethamine
D. Quinine+ Primaquine
E. Quinine+ Pyrimethamine
42.Which is the drug most easily causing the
Black-Water Fever in malaria?
A. Chloroquine
B. Pyrimethamine
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C. Primaquine
D. Artemisinine
E. Quinine
43.The classical attacks of malaria appear in
following patients except for:
A. The early period of tertian malaria
B. Malignant malaria
C. Malaria of infant
D. Malaria from transfusion of blood
E. The co-infection of different kinds of
protozoa
44.Which change of blood picture is the most
significant for the diagnosis of typhoid fever?
A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Leukocytosis+increased eosinophiles
C. Leukopenia+decreased eosinophiles
D. Lymphocytosis+ increased eosinophiles
E. Lymphocytosis+decreased eosinophiles
45.The course of chronic bacillary dysentery is
beyond:
A. Two months
B. Three months
C. Six months
D. One week
E. One year
46.The first choice drug for treatment of typhoid
fever is:
A. Penecillin
B. Ampicillin
C. Ofloxacin
D. Chloromycetin
E. SMZco.
47.In bacillary dysentery,pathological changes are
the most severe in:
A. Cecum
B. Lower part of ileum
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C. Sigmoid and rectum
D. Ascending colon
E. Descending colon
48.What is the vector of transmission of malaria:
A.
Pig
B.
Rat
C.
Anopheles minimus
D.
Anopheles Hyrcanus Sinensis
E.
Culex Tritaenio-rhynchus
49.The examinations of cholera don‘t include:
A. Direct observation of the stool
B. Fecal smears
C. Fecal culture
D. Urine test
E. Anti-bacterial agglutinin
50.Evidence of making a definite diagnosis for
epidemic cerebrospinal meningitis is:
A. season
B. high fever, headache, vomiting and petechiae
C. signs and symptoms of cerebromeningitis
D. find meningococcus in petechiae
E. purulent CSF
51.The most cardinal reason of bleeding in febrile
period of EHF is:
A. DIC
B. Heparin-like substance increasing
C. Thrombocytopenia and vascular injury
D. Azotemia
E. Coagulation factor decreasing
52. Which point is not true about poliomyelitis?
A. Polio is an acute infectious disease caused
by viruses.
B. Most of cases are sporadic.
C. Most of patients with Polio may develop into
paralysis.
D. This disease is often seen in children.
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E. Polio is a preventable disease.
53.which treatment is not available in the treatment
of preparalytic period of patients with Polio?
A. Rest in bed and nursing.
B. Oral vitamin B and vitamin C.
C. Muscular injection of ribavirin
D. Using hot moist pack to muscles.
E. Hydrocortisone may be used for severe
patients.
54. The basic pathologic change of EHF is:
A. Inflammation of small blood vessels and
inflammatory cell infiltration around blood
vessels.
B. Extensive lesions of general small blood
vessels.
C. Toxic damage of general capillaries.
D. Damage of endothelial cells of blood vessels
and lymphatic vessels.
E. Direct damage of endothelial cells of
capillaries.
55.The main reasons for early shock in EHF are :
A. Infection.
B. Blood plasma-losing
C. Hypervolemia
D. Hemorrhage
E. Vomiting .
56. The patient had fever,lumbago,headache for
three days. physical examination: drunken face
, petechiae in axillary folds , chemosis,
urine protein (+++), RBC
3-5/HP,WBC4-6/HP,diagnosis may be:
A. Typhoid fever
B. Typhus
C. Acute glumerulonephritis
D. Epidemic hemorrhagic fever
E. Leptospirosis
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57. Which is the correct method of liquid supplement
in transitional stage of patients with EHF:
A.1500ml/day
B. 200ml/day
C. 500~700ml/day
D.Urine volume +500~700ml/day
E.Urine volume+1000ml/day
58. A patient, ten years old ,was admitted to hospital
in 15, August.the medical history is the
following: fever ,lethargy, headache for three
days Physical examination: T 40℃, coma, neck
stiffness, knee reflexes were hyperactive
,Babinski‘s sign(+),CSF: transparent, cell
count 100× 106/L, N 80%,Na 125mmol/L,
protein:0.45g/L,glucose 3.8mmol/L ,chloride:
79%,L 21%.blood routine examination: WBC 15
×109/L, N 80%,L20%. which diagnosis is
considered most possibly?
A. Epidemic cerebrospinal meningitis
B. Tuberculous meningitis B
C. Toxic bacillary dysentery
D. Epidemic encephalitis
E. Leptospirosis
59. The main source of infection of epidemic
encephalitis B is:
A. Patients
B. Carriers
C. Swine
D. Mosquitoes
E. Rodents
60. The main vectors of transmission in encephalitis
B is:
A. Culex tritaeniorhynchus
B. Mites
C. Anophelets aconitus
D. Anopheles hyrcanus sinensis
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E. Anopheles minimus
61. The pathological injury regions of
poliomyelitis are mainly in:
A. Nerve cells of brain
B. Respiratory center
C. Vasomotor center
D. Motor neurons in anterior horn of spinal cord
E. Motor neurons in posterior horn of spinal cord
62. The pathological diagnosis of EHF is mainly
according to the item as follow, but excluding:
A. Typical lesion of kidney
B. Hemorrhage in right cardiac atrium
C. Adenohypophysis lesion
D. Retroperitoneal gelatinous edema
E. Hemorrhage and necrosis of lungs
63. An male patient , 40 years old ,farmer was
admitted for fever, headache, fatigue for 4
days. Physical examination: T 37℃, P 120
times/min, Bp 75/60 mmHg, with drunken face and
petechia in chest and back skin. Physical
examination of heart and lung were normal,
abdominal tenderness (+).the most important
examinations for this patient at this time were:
A. Blood and urine routine examination
B. DIC routine examination
C. Blood culture
D. D.X-ray examination of abdomen
E. Smear examination and culture of bone barrow
64.When the pupil don’t have the same size in the
patients with fulminant type of epidemic
cerebrospinal meningitis, which drug is the
first choice:
A. antibiotics
B. sedatives
C. 654-2
D. steroid
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E. dehydrant
65.The source of infection for measles is:
A. chronic viral carriers
B. acute patients with measles
C. convalescent patients with measles
D. covert infection patients with measles
E. patients with subacute sclerosing
panencephalitis
66. The pathological lesion regions of epidemic
encephalitis B are principally in:
A. Cerebral cortex and spinal cord
B. Spinal cord and oblongata medulla
C. Midbrain and thalamus
D. Cerebral cortex, midbrain and thalamus
E. Cerebral cortex, oblongata medulla and
spinal cord
67. The most common reason of convulsion for
epidemic encephalitis B is:
A. High fever
B. Hypoxia
C. Inflammation of cerebral parenchyma and brain
edema
D. Sputum obstruction
E. Hyponatremic encephalopathy
68. Which item is wrong about pathologic changes
of encephalitis B?
A. Swelling and necrosis of endothelial cell
of blood vessel in CNS
B. Degeneration and necrosis of nerve cell
C. Neurogliocyte hyperplasia and inflammatory
cell infiltration
D. Neuronophagia
E. soften focuses of spinal cord
69. The infective period of measles is:
A. From 5days before eruption to 5days after
eruption
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B. From exposure to eruption
C. From appearance of the koplik‘s spots to
their disappearance
D. From fever to eruption
E. From the rash appearance to it‘s subsidence
70. The patients with leptospirosis discharge the
pathogen by:
A. Stool
B. Urine
C. Vomiting substance
D. Blood
E. Secretion of nose and pharynx
71. The leptospirosis is transmitted by:
A. Air borne
B. Insect borne
C. Direct contact transmission
D. Food water borne
E. Indirect contact transmission
72. The main reason for death of patients with
icterohemorrhagic type of leptospirosis is:
A. Acute liver function failure
B. Acute renal function failure
C. Severe bleeding of intestine
D. Pneumorrhagia
E. Central respiratory failure
A patient, 5 years old, was admitted to hospital
in 10, August. The medical history is : high fever,
coma, convulsion for 2 days Physical examination:
T 40℃, P 90 times/min, Bp135/105mmHg, deep coma,
irregular breathing, and the size of both pupil was
not same, neck stiffness (+), examinations of heart
and lungs are normal, Babinski‘s sign (+), blood
routine examination: WBC 15×109/L, N 85%, L 15%.
73. The most possible diagnosis is:
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A. Toxic bacillary dysentery,
B. Epidemic encephalitis B
C. Fulminant type of epidemic cerebrospinal
meningitis
D. Meningoencephalitis type of leptospirosis
E. Brain type of malaria
74. For excluding toxic bacillary dysentery, the
most simple and reliable method is:
A. Stool culture
B. Examination of CSF
C. Stool routine examination
D. Test of specific IgM antibody
E. Complement fixation test
75. Which disposal to the patient is wrong?
A. 20% mannitol iv drop
B. To make spinal acupuncture at once for making
correct diagnosis
C. Physical cooling and subhibernation
D. Lobelin iv
E.Dexamethason iv drop
76.The first change of CSF of fulminant type of
epidemic cerebrospinal meningitis is:
A. Cloudy appearance
B. Cells elevation
C. Protein elevation
D. Sugar decrease
E. Pressure raise
77.The first antibiotic drug chosen in treating
shock type of fulminant epidemic cerebrospinal
meningitis is:
A. Sulfadiazine
B. Penicillin
C. Ampicillin
D. Chloromycetin
E. ceftriaxone
78.HIV infecfion is mainly located in：
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A. Thailand
B. U.S.A
C. Africa
D. Japan
E. Europe
79.Which cell is the target cell of HIV?
A. CD8+ cells
B. Mononuclear cells
C. CTL
D. NK cells
E. CD4+ cells
80.How many years may the asymptomatic infecfion
last After the infection of HIV ?
A. 1year
B. 20years
C. 2~10years
D. 2~10years or more
E. 1~20years
81.The most main route of transmission for AIDS is:
A. Sexual contace
B. Receiving blood and blood products
C. Abuser of intravenous drug
D. Receiving organs or tissues
E. Eating uncooked food
82.Which drug is used for the treatment of
pneumocystis carinii pneumnia.
A. pentamidine
B. Bleomycin
C. spiromycin
D. clindamycin
E. Gancyclovir
83.Adhere to epithelial cell of group A -hemolytic
streptococcus rely on:
A. Protein M
B. Thythrogenic toxin
C. Lipoteichoic acid
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D. Hymolysins
E. Hyaluronic acid
84.The common clinical manifestations of common
form of epidemic cerebrospinal meningitis are:
A. Obvious upper respiratory symptoms,
headache, fever, petechiae, neck stiffness
B. Abrupt onset, headache, vomiting,
maculopapules on the skin, neck stiffness
C. Abrupt onset, vague upper respiratory
symptoms, fever, headache, petechiae in
skin, neck stiffness
D. Obvious symptoms of prodrome, headache,
vomiting, petechiae, neck stiffness
E. Abrupt onset, high fever, convulsions,
hypotension, neck stiffness
85.The specific sign of measles in the prodomal
period is:
A. fever
B. catarrhea
C. rash
D. Koplik’s spot
E. strawberrry tongue
86.Pigmentation may be seen after rashes fade in:
A. measles
B. varicella
C. rubella
D. Scarlet fever
E. typhoid fever
87.Desquamation can be seen in:
A. epidemic cerebrospinal meninqitis
B. scarlet fever
C. rubella
D. Varicella
E. Herpes zoster
88.Leukopenia is ususlly seen in :
A. scarlet fever
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B. measles
C.epidemic cerebropinal meningtis
D. Bacillary dysentery
E. Epidemic encephalitis B
89.The incubation period of SSPE is:
A. 2~17 years
B. 2~10 years
C. 1~2 years
D. 3 weeks
E. E.3~5 years
90.Which one is patient with AIDS:
A. PGL
B. PGL+ARS
C. Anti-HIV(+)
D. CD4+:CD8+ <1+ anti-HIV(+)
E. Anti-HIV(+)+opportunistic infection or
tumor
91.How many serotypes does erythrogenic toxin have:
A. 19
B. 80
C. 5
D. 10
E. 7
92.Which one is late complication of the scarlet
fever:
A. Otitis media
B. Cellulitis
C. Pharyngitis
D. Septicemia
E. Acute glomerulonephritis
93.Which form of epidemic cerebrospinal meningitis
is the most dangerous:
A. Common form
B. Shock type of fulminant form
C. Cerebromeningitis type of fulminant form
D. Mixed type of fulminant form
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E. Chronic septicemic form
94.Main evidence of diagnosing scarlet fever is:
A. Fever, eruption in 4th day from onset,
petechiae or ccchymosis
B. Fever, pharyngitis, congested gooseflesh,
strawberry tongue and desquamation after
rash
C. Finding G- diplococci in petechiae
D. In blood culture finding a-hemolytic
streptococcus
E. Pigmentation after rash
95.Which one of the shock type of fulminant epidemic
cerebrospinal meningitis is incorrect:
A. Violent chills, high fever, dizziness,
headache and profound weakness
B. Petechiae appearing on the extremities, and
rapidly increasing in number and coalescing
C. Heare or respiratory failure
D. Normal CSF
E. Obvious meningeal irritant signs
96.Main sources of infection of leptospirosis are:
A. Patients and carriers of leptospires
B. Rats and pigs
C. Rats and patients
D. Pigs and patients
E. Dogs and cats
97.The evidence of making a correct diagnosis of
poliomyelitis is:
A. Features of paralysis
B. Changes of CSF
C. Menigeal irritation sign
D. Impaired consciousness
E. Not any above
98.Which clinical type of poliomyelitis is the most
common:
A. Paralytic type
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B. Non-paralytic type
C. Brain type
D. Covert infection
E. Abortive infection
99.Which drug is the first choic for preventing
malaria?
A. Quinine
B. Chloroquine
C. Pyrimethamine
D. Primaquine
E. Mefloquine
100.Which is type A of infectious disease?
A. Smallpox
B. Rabies
C. Poliomyelitis
D. Cholera
E. Scarlet fever
II. Filling the blanks (1.0 point each):
1. The pathogenicity of pathogen include
_____,_____,_____,_____.
2. Anti-malarial drugs are ____and____.
3. The basic pathological lesion of schistosomiasis is ____.
4. The first choice of drug for flukes is ____.
5. The intermediate hosts of clonorchiasis sinensis are
____and____.
III. Answer questions briefly (2.5 points each):
1. What is the conception of incubation period and it’s
significance?
2. What are the basic features of infectious disease?
3. What is Widal test and it’s role in diagnosis?
4. How can you diagnose definitely cholera ?
5. What are the pathological changes of encephalitis B ?
6. What are the features of erruption stage of measles?
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7. What is the first chosen drug of specific treatment of
leptospirosis and what should be noticed in the specific
treatment? Why?
8. Where is HIV located in?
IV.Answer the questions (5.0 points each):
1.
2.
3.
4.
What are the pathogenesis of jaundice in viral hepatitis?
What are the clinical manifestations of toxic type of acute
dysentery? How does it be treated?
Please give clinical manifestations of cholera during
dehydration period in details and principle of fluid
replacement?
What are the main clinical manifestations in febrile period
of epidemic hemorrhagic fever?
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