1. The amount of blood in the human body is about:
a) 1% of body weight;
b) 3% of body weight;
c) 5% of body weight;
d) 7% of body weight;
e) 9% of body weight.
2. How is called the stop of bleeding?
a) hemolysis;
b) hemodilution;
c) homeostasis;
d) hemostasis;
e) hematoma.
3. The most reliable method of the temporarily stop of bleeding from arteries is:
a) increased limb position;
b) vascular suture;
c) the imposition of tourniquet;
d) limb flexion in joints;
e) ligation of vessels in the wound.
4. Arterial tourniquet can be kept on limb not more than:
a) 1 hour in summer and 2 hours in winter;
b) 2 hour in summer and 1 hour in winter;
c) 30 minutes in summer and 2 hours in winter;
d) 30 minutes in summer and 1 hour in winter;
e) the season and time don't matter.
5. Indicate the most reliable method of final bleeding stop:
a) twisting of vessels;
b) circular injection of vessels;
c) the imposition of tourniquet;
d) ligation of vessels in the wound;
e) tamponade wound.
6. What are the disadvantages of bleeding stop by diathermocoagulation?
a) there is a spasm of blood vessels;
b) extensive burns can transform in suppurating wounds;
c) accelerating the operation;
d) slows down the operation;
e) require additional anesthesia.
7. In which cases the ligation of vessel before the place of her injury (on distance)
have to be used?
a) incised wound;
b) stab wound;
c) purulent wound;
d) chopped wound;
e ) operating wound.
8. The physical method of bleeding stop includes:
a) Aminocaproic acid;
b) diathermocoagulation;
c) ultraviolet irradiation;
d) electrophoresis;
e) magnet .
9. Patient N. came to the emergency department with the sliced wound in middle
third of right forearm. The wound's bandage was impregnated by the dark-red color
exudate. During a primary surgical treatment of wound the bleeding from wounds
was like as continuous stream. What is the type of bleeding in patient?
a) arterial;
b) venous;
c) mixed;
d) parenchymal;
e) capillary .
10. Patient N. was transported to the emergency department after a traffic accident.
On examination the doctor found a pronounced pallor skin and mucous membranes,
the skin is covered by a cold clammy sweat, cyanosis of the fingertips, tachycardia,
decreased blood pressure. Anterior abdominal wall palpation is tense. What is
probable diagnosis of the patient?
a) hemothorax;
b) hemoperytoneum;
c) hemarthrosis;
d) epistaksys;
e) hematemezys .
11. In determining blood group using a standard serums was not found an
agglutination of erythrocytes with any serums. Which is the group of blood?
a ) (O)I;
b ) (A)II;
c ) (B)III;
d ) (AB)IV;
e ) the reaction was done with a mistakes.
12. During determination of blood group by simple reaction with the standard serums
correlation between drops number of serum and blood must to be:
a) 1:1;
b) 2:1;
c) 10:1;
d) 1:10;
e) 1:2.
13. The absolute indication for blood transfusion is:
a) hypertensive crisis;
b) acute blood loss;
c) shock;
d) cerebral hemorrhage;
e) operation on the subcutaneous veins.
14. Contraindication for blood transfusion is:
a) diabetes mellitus;
b) serious dysfunction of liver and kidneys;
c) cerebral hemorrhage;
d) hemorrhagic shock;
e) bradycardia .
15. Blood after long time of storage is divided on three layers:
a) top - white blood cells, bottom - red blood cells, among them - plasma;
b) top - red blood cells, at the bottom - white blood cells, among them - plasma;
c) above - plasma, at the bottom - white blood cells, among them - erythrocytes;
d) above - plasma, bottom - red blood cells, among them - the white blood cells;
e) top - white blood cells, at the bottom – plasma, between them - erythrocytes.
16. For the investigation of biological compatibility must be done:
a) a one-time drop transfusion of 15-20 ml of blood;
b) a one-time stream transfusion of 15-20 ml of blood;
c) triple drop transfusion of 15-20 ml of blood from intervals of 3-5 minutes;
d) triple stream transfusion of 15-20 ml of blood from intervals of 3-5 minutes;
e) double drop transfusion of 10-20 ml of blood from intervals of 3-5 minutes.
17. Blood transfusion is carried out at a rate of infusion:
a) 20-30 drops per minute;
b) 30-40 drops per minute;
c) 40-50 drops per minute;
d) 50-60 drops per minute;
e) 60-70 drops per minute.
18. The most dangerous complication of blood transfusion is:
a) allergic reaction;
b) fever;
c) transfusion shock;
d) headache;
e) heart palpitations.
19. During post-transfusion shock the reducing of urination appears for:
a) 1-2 days;
b) 3-4 days;
c) 5-6 days;
d) 7-8 days;
e) 9-10 days.
20. What can be used for patient in case of necessity of emergency blood transfusions
without any previous testing of compatibility?
a) blood plasma;
b) blood substitutes;
c) Albumin;
d) packed red blood cells;
e) platelets-mass.
21. Who the first used into practice the gipseous bandage?
a) Janelidze;
b) Pies;
c) Makissen;
d) Pyrogov;
e) Hippocrates.
22. Which of the rules of imposing of gypseous bandages allows for doctor to control
the blood circulation in the limb?
a) providing of the physiological position of the limb;
b) immobilization of adjacent joints;
c) prevent torsion of bandage;
d) creating conditions for further skeletal traction;
e) leave free without the gipseous bandage the finger tips.
23. What is belong to gypsums immobilization?
a) Hippocrates cap;
b) Cramer tire;
c) Dezo bandage;
d) longuette (type of casting bandage);
e) spicate bandage.
24. Control X-ray for the first time after the imposition of gipseous bandage must to
be done:
a) during the first day;
b) in 2-3 days;
c) in 6-8 days;
g) in 10-14 days;
e) in three weeks.
25. At occurrence of swelling and pain in the limb after imposing of the circular
gipseous bandage it is necessary:
a) raise the limb in up position;
b) enter analgetics;
c) cut the bandage in length;
d) apply hot compress;
e) take a diuretic.
26. For easier removing the gipseous bandage, the line of incision must be wetted by
the:
a) turpentine;
b) ether;
c) castor oil;
d) alcohol;
e) hypertonic solution of sodium chloride.
27. Excessively long-term immobilization in fractures leads to:
a) contractures;
b) pseudarthrosis;
c) the interposition of soft tissues;
d) epifisiolis;
e) haemarthrosis.
28. How is called the type of immobilization with using of the gipseous bandage?
a) temporary immobilization;
b) intermediate immobilization;
c) constant immobilization;
d) treatment of fracture;
e) rehabilitation of fracture.
29. What rules must to be used during the imposition of gipseous bandage?
a) cast must to capture two adjacent joint, and if there is damaged the shoulder, the
femoral bone or hip joints - three adjacent joint;
b) limb must be in average physiological position;
c) last tour gypsum bandage should cover the previous 1/2 or 2/3 of the width of the
bandage;
d) foot fingers or hand must be free of bandages;
e) all listed rules.
30. Indicate the maximum single dose of 0.25% solution of Novocaine that can be
used for adults:
a) 100 ml;
b) 200 ml;
c) 300 ml;
d ) 400 ml;
e ) 500 ml.
31. What percentage of Lidocaine has to be used for peridural anesthesia?
a) 1 % solution;
b) 2 % solution;
c) 3% solution ;
d ) 4 % solution;
e ) 5 % solution.
32. Anesthesia of mucous membranes and upper respiratory tract relates to the:
a) trunk anesthesia ;
b) surface anesthesia ;
c) infiltrative anesthesia ;
d) deep anesthesia;
e) an epidural anesthesia.
33. Infiltrative anesthesia of Vishnevsky is characterized by the formation during
injection:
a) flushing of the skin ;
b) orange peel ;
c) lemon peel ;
d) swelling of the skin ;
e) edema of the place of injection.
34. Local anesthesia in operations on the lower extremities is carried out by method:
a) tight floating infiltration ;
b) mild infiltration ;
c) a dense infiltrate ;
d) tight creeping infiltration ;
e) soft floating infiltration.
35. For the epidural anesthesia is necessary:
a) one needle ;
b) two needles;
c) three needles;
d ) four needles;
e) five needles.
36. In severe cases, death from the use of analgesic drugs can occur in a patient due
to:
a) heart failure ;
b) paralysis of the central nervous system;
c) respiratory paralysis ;
d) paralysis of limbs;
e) paralysis of all muscle groups.
37. The main complication during epidural anesthesia are:
a) shock;
b) collapse ;
c) loss of consciousness ;
d) headache;
e) dizziness.
38. After intraosseous anesthesia effect is due to:
a) 10-15 min;
b) 15-20 min;
c) 25-30 min;
d) 35-40 min;
e) 45-50 min.
39. In conducting intraosseous anesthesia the anesthetic should enter into:
a) skin;
b) subcutaneous tissue ;
c) periosteum ;
d) soft tissue;
e) spongy substance.
40. Specify the optimum point of chest compressions during performing indirect
cardiac massage:
a) 5th intercostal space to the right of the sternum;
b) 5th intercostal space to the left of the sternum;
c) place between the lower and middle third of the sternum;
d) the middle third of the sternum;
e) the xiphoid.
41. In a sudden stop blood circulation in the cerebral cortex irreversible changes
usually occur:
a) in 10 minutes;
b) after 12 minutes;
c) after 5 minutes;
d) after 1-2 minutes;
e) does not occur.
42. Depth pressing during a closed heart massage should to be:
a) 4-5 cm;
b) 1 cm ;
c) 3-4 cm;
d) 8-9 cm;
e) 6-7 cm.
43. In what cases a direct cardiac massage must to be used?
a) is always used;
b) the operations on the chest;
c) at inefficient of the indirect massage;
d) with multiple rib fractures;
e) in traumatic brain injury.
44. Indicate the relationship between artificial ventilation of lungs and closed
cardiac massage when resuscitation holds two people:
a) 1: 5;
b) 1: 4;
c) 1: 3;
d) 1: 6;
e) 1: 7.
45. Indicate the relationship between frequency of the closed cardiac massage and
the artificial respiration when one person is doing that:
a) 10 : 2;
b) 13: 3;
c) 30: 2;
d) 16: 2;
e) 15: 3.
46. How many breaths per minute should be done during the artificial ventilation by
a method" mouth to mouth "?
a) 12 breaths;
b) 10 breaths;
c) 16-18 breaths;
d) 40 breaths;
e) 30 breaths.
47. Passability of the airway may be recovered by method of:
a) mouth to mouth ;
b) the mouth to the nose;
c) mechanical ventilation;
d) indirect cardiac massage;
e) the moving of the jaw and tongue forward.
48. The cardiac massage is considered as favorable if it began no later than:
a) 3 minutes;
b) 4 minutes;
c) 5 minutes;
d) 6 minutes;
e) 7 minutes.
49. Cardio-pulmonary resuscitation must be stopped if the signs of clinical death are
stored more than:
a) 10-20 minutes;
b) 20-30 minutes;
c) 30-40 minutes;
d) 40-50 minutes;
e) 1:00 hour.
50. During wound healing there is a formation of the:
a) granulation tissue;
b) soft tissue;
c) solid tissue;
d) regeneration tissue;
e) hemostatic tissue.
51. In order to create conditions for wound healing by primary tention it should be
transferred wound into:
a) stabbing wound;
b) incised wound;
c) skalp wound;
d) open wound;
e) closed wound.
52. Indications for treatment of purulent wounds without any bandage on wound in a
controlled sterile environment are:
a) coalface wounds of the soft tissues;
b) open fractures of limbs;
c) open stump after amputation of limbs;
d) local deep burns III-IV stage;
e) the wounds and trophic ulcers that are non healed a long time.
53. What are the necessary conditions for primary wound healing?
a) the presence of blood clots in the wound;
b) dense joining of the wound edges;
c) the introduction of antibiotics in the wound;
d) presence of drainage in the wound;
e) presence of infection.
54. Which of the following injury is occurring most favorably for a patient?
a) was made by an ax;
b) missile wounds;
c) bullet injuries;
d) was made by a sharp cutting tool;
e) was made by a blunt tool.
55. In what time have to be conducted the primary debridement (primary surgical
treatment of wound) in patients which had been delivered in a state of severe shock?
a) immediately on admission in hospital;
b) immediately after the treatment the shock in a patient;
c) 2 hours after admission in hospital;
d) next day;
e) after the conducted blood transfusion.
56. How are called the sutures that have to be imposed on wounds after injury if from the
moment of injury didn’t pass 14 days?
a) primary suture;
b) primary delayed suture;
c) early secondary suture;
d) late secondary suture;
e) provisionally seam.
57. The conditionally-clean wounds are characterized by:
a) by the advent after aseptic operations;
b) by a small amount of microbial contamination;
c) healing by primary intention;
d) healing by secondary intention;
e) they take place after animal bite.
58. Which of listed injuries do not need a surgical treatment?
a) small cut wound without any divergence edges;
b) nonpenetrative wound without any damaging of important structures;
c) chopped wound;
d) bitten wound;
e) ragged wound.
59. Where does anaerobic infection vegetate?
a) in stomach and intestines of animals;
b) in stomach and intestine of people;
c) in the bowel of animals and humans;
d) in the ground;
e) on the skin and in the clothing.
60. Severe form of tetanus has an incubation period by duration:
a) 3-4 weeks;
b) 2-3 weeks;
c) 1-2 weeks;
d) 5-7 days;
e) 2-3 days.
61. The main clinical symptoms of tetanus include all below mentioned except for
the:
a) loss of pain sensitivity;
b) rigidity of the masticatory muscles and neck muscles;
c) tonic-clonic convulsions;
d) dysphagia;
e) asphyxia.
62. Clinical signs of anthrax are characterized by the signs except:
a) presence of ulcers with necrotized bottom of a dark – red color;
b) inflammation roller with vesicles like as crowning, there are the dense base and
widespread edema around;
c) painlessness anthrax;
d) a large amount of thick pus;
e) the release of a large amount of serosanguineous fluid.
63. Treatment of cutaneous anthrax includes all the below mentioned except:
a) introduction of specific serum against anthrax at dose 100 ml;
b) introduction of specific haemoglobulinum against anthrax -120 ml;
c) use of antibiotics,
d) extended primary debridement;
e) imposition of bandages with a solution of antiseptic, antibacterial ointment on
hydrophilic base.
64. Treatment of diphtheria wounds begins with:
a) introduction antitoxic againstdiphtheritic serum;
b) use of vitamins;
c) use of antibiotics;
e) use of high calorie diet;
e) use the measures for prevention of complications.
65. Local treatment of ulcerative carbuncle includes:
a) dissection of carbuncle, excision of necrotic tissue;
b) imposition of antiseptic bandages;
c) removal of cicatrix;
d) physical therapy procedures (laser, ultrasound) ;
e) imposition of aseptic bandages.
66. How much is the daily therapeutic dose of against tetanus serum?
a) 3000-5000 IU;
b) 10,000-20,000 IU;
c) 50,000 IU;
d) 100000-150000 IU;
e) 200,000 IU.
67. What disease is caused by clostridium?
a) tetanus;
b) anthrax;
c) diphtheria;
d) rabies;
e) tuberculosis.
68. The main method of diagnosis of fractures are:
a) X-ray;
b) computer tomography;
c) laboratory tests;
d) ultrasound;
e) magnetic resonance imaging.
69. Dislocation is called as fresh if it has occurred:
a) up to 1 day from the moment of injury;
b) up to 2 days from the moment of injury;
c) up to 3 days from the moment of injury;
d) up to 10 days from the moment of injury;
e) up to one week from the moment of injury.
70. Which method can be used to reduce the hip dislocation?
a) by Kocher;
b) by Sitkovsky;
c) by Pyrogov;
d) by Shymonovsky;
e) by Ilizarov.
71. For which method of reduction of a shoulder dislocation the physiological
relaxation of muscles of the damaged limbs should be achieved?
a) Kocher method;
b) Janelidze method;
c) Mott method;
d) Hippocrates method;
e) Ilizarov method.
72. Pneumothorax is:
a) the presence of blood in the pleural cavity;
b) the presence of air in the pleural cavity;
c) the presence of pus in the pleural cavity;
d) the presence of effusion in the pleural cavity;
e) the presence of blood and air in the pleural cavity.
73. Hemothorax is:
a) the presence of blood in the pleural cavity;
b) the presence of air in the pleural cavity;
c) the presence of pus in the pleural cavity;
d) the presence of effusion in the pleural cavity;
e) the presence of air and pus in the pleural cavity.
74. As a rule, the bone with articular surface placed distally in relation to other bone
into joint may be dislocated. But an exception is the dislocation of:
a) radius bone;
b) ulna bone;
c) phalanges of fingers;
d) femur bone;
e) spine.
75. Radiological signs of pneumothorax are:
a) infiltrative shadow in the lung;
b) lack of lung picture at the periphery of lung fields;
c) strengthening of lung picture;
d) eclipse of lung fields;
e) expanding of mediastinal shadow.
76. First aid for a patient with valvular pneumothorax must be begun by applying of
the:
a) mechanical ventilation;
b) puncture of the pleural cavity;
c) thoracotomy;
d) tracheostomy;
d) blockade of the intercostal nerves.
77. Specify the place of drainage of pleural cavity in case of pneumothorax:
a) in the first intercostal space;
b) in the second intercostal space;
c) in the third intercostal space;
d) in the fourth intercostal space;
e) in the fifth intercostal space.
78. By the type of bandage the bandages are divided on:
a) pressuring;
b) immobilizing;
c) corrective;
d) occlusive;
e) hard and soft.
79. Desmurgy is the section of surgery that examines:
a) the types of bandages, indications and contraindications to application of them, a
technic of imposing;
b) the types of splints, indications and contraindications to application of them, a
technic of imposing;
c) the types of stitches, indications and contraindications to application of them, a
technic of imposing;
d) the types of drugs, indications and contraindications to application of them, a
technic of imposing;
e) types of operations, indications and contraindications to application of them, a
technic of imposing.
80. What are the immobilizing bandages?
a) they are used for fixing the damaged parts of the body to transport or treatment;
b) they are used for compression of certain areas of the body to stop the capillary
bleeding;
c) they are applying for the correction of deformities of certain body parts (spine,
limbs, etc.);
d) they are designed to seal the cavities of the body including pleural;
e) that are designed to better consolidate fractured trauma.
81. Correction bandages are the type of dressings that are using:
a) for compression of certain areas of the body to stop of profuse and capillary
bleeding;
b) applying for the correction of deformities of certain body parts (spine, limbs, etc.);
c) are used to fix the damaged parts of the body to transport or treatment;
d) are designed for better consolidation of bones after fracture;
e) to seal the cavities of the body including pleural.
82. Occlusive bandages are used:
a) for compression of certain areas of the body to stop of profuse and capillary
bleeding;
b) applying for the correction of deformities of certain body parts (spine, limbs, etc.);
c) are used to fix the damaged parts of the body to transport or treatment;
d) are designed for better consolidation of bones after fracture;
e) to seal the cavities of the body including pleural.
83. Traction bandages are used:
a) for compression of certain areas of the body to stop of profuse and capillary
bleeding;
b) applying for the correction of deformities of certain body parts (spine, limbs, etc.);
c) are used to fix the damaged parts of the body to transport or treatment;
d) are designed for better consolidation of bones after fracture;
e) to seal the cavities of the body including pleural.
84. In depending of the performed functions bandages are divided on:
a) hard;
b) soft;
c) elastic;
d) occlusive;
e) solid.
85. What is not used for making of soft bandages?
a) bandage (gauze);
b) glue;
c) scarf (handkerchief);
d) adhesive plaster;
e) starch.
86. Typical soft bandages are all bellow noted, except:
a) spiral bandage (fascia spiralis) and circular (circular) patch (fascia circulares);
b) creeping bandage (fascia serpens);
c) cap Hippocrates (fascia Hipokratika);
d) turtle bandage (testudo reversa et inversa);
e) like as spike bandage (fascia spica) and rotating bandage (fascia recurrens).
87. To the bandages on head are belong all listed below, except:
a) cap Hippocrates;
b) bandage "cap";
c) a bandage on eyes: one eye (fascia monoculis), in both eyes (fascia binoculus);
d) bridle (capistrum);
e) eight-shaped bandage on the area of the neck and back of the neck.
88. The local increasing of temperature is not characteristic for:
a) abscess of a shoulder;
b) phlegmon of thighs;
c) tuberculosis honitis;
d) panaritium of thumb ;
e) purulent bursitis of elbow joint.
89. What is necessary to do in patient with phlegmon of the soft tissue in stage of
softening?
a) apply the cold (hypothermia);
b) to make a wide incision and drainage;
c) to make a puncture with following bacteriological examination;
d) apply the hot compress;
e) split all around with antibiotics.
90. Clinical signs of paronychia are:
a) swelling of the nail platen;
b) detachment of the nail plate;
c) secretions of pus from the nail roll;
d) purulent fistula;
e) extensor contracture of thumb.
91. Carbuncle is characterized by:
a) an acute purulent-necrotic inflammation located near hair follicles, sebaceous
glands and tissues that surround them, with necrosis of the skin and subcutaneous
tissue;
b) destruction of sweat glands;
c) an acute purulent-necrotic inflammation of the hair follicle and sebaceous gland
d) diffuse purulent inflammation of subcutaneous tissue, which tends to spread;
e) localization on the soles and palms.
92. Abscess is characterized by the:
a) limited inflammation with accumulation of pus in various tissues, organs,
b) diffuse purulent inflammation of subcutaneous tissue;
c) ability to migrate;
d) acute purulent inflammation of the hair follicle;
e) need selftreatment.
93. Subepidermal intracutaneous abscess is:
a) easy form of purulent infection of hand in which the epidermis peels off by
transudate from base layer of skin;
b) easy type of purulent infection of hand in which the skin peels off from the
subcutaneous tissue exudate;
c) difficult form of purulent infection of hand where epidermis peels off by transudate
from base layer of skin;
d) difficult purulent type of infection of hand in which the epidermis peels off by
exudate from base layer of skin;
e) purulent infection of hand in which epidermis peels off from the dermis by the
transudate.
94. Deep paronychia - a festering disease nail roll of finger, when pus accumulates:
a) in the thicker skin of finger phalanx;
b) in the thickness of epidermis of nail phalanx;
c) in the thickness of the nail shaft;
d) under the nail plate phalanx;
e) in thickness of nail phalanx.
95. In the development of joint panaritium distinguish three stages:
a) serous, purulent, osteoarthritic;
b) exudative, purulent, the emergence of sequestration;
c) serous, osteoarthritic, purulent;
d) exudative, serous, purulent;
e) exudative, purulent, osteoarthritic.
96. For necrotic forms of tendovaginitis is typical such excretions as:
a) pus in liquid form from open tendon sheath;
b) purulent parts;
c) dense pus;
d) pus in the form of cluster;
e) necrotic changed tendon.
97. Purulent process at pandaktylit can spread to:
a) skin;
b) subcutaneous tissue;
c) tendons;
d) bone;
e) all tissues finger.
98. Can the surgeon after clean dressings to perform the purulent dressings?
a) yes;
b) no;
c) with the consent of operating sister;
d) with the consent of the dressing sister;
d) with the consent of Head of the department;
99. Functional position of hip joint is?
a) elongated thigh;
b) elongated knee;
c) arbitrary comfortable for the patient;
g) arbitrary convenient for the doctor;
d) it does not matter.
100. Why is nesessary to impose the pressure bandage onto postoperative wound?
a) for prevent differences wound edges;
b) for reduce pain;
c) for prevention of infection;
d) for prevention of thrombosis and embolism;
e) for prevent a bleeding.
101. What functional provision for the knee should be while imposing bandages?
a) elongated leg position;
b) bent position (10 °);
c) in position 90 °;
d) how it is comfortable for patient;
e) how it is convenient health care provider.
102. When is performed the first bandage of the postoperative wounds after elective
surgery on the limbs?
a) the same day;
b) the next day;
c) after the end of anesthesia;
d) on the second day;
e) in a week.
103. When the swelling and pain in the fracture after imposing circular plaster cast
appears this is necessary to:
a) fix the limb in position up;
b) enter painkillers;
c) cut the bandage in length and dilute its edges;
d) apply hot compress;
e) take a diuretic.
104. Returning bandages which are imposed on the stump of the upper or lower limb
should be fixed by the:
a) paraffin;
b) hydrogen peroxide;
c) furatsillina;
d) kleolom;
e) tape.
105. Which kind of bandages does not exist?
a) circular;
b) spiral;
c) globular;
d) cruciate;
e) eight shape.
106. What is the function of occlusion bandages?
a) prevention of wound infection;
b) stop bleeding;
c) occlusion of the wound;
d) immobilization of the limb;
e) removing deformation.
107. The main dangerous complications for patient in a result of penetrarion of
foreign bodies are:
a) hiccup;
b) vomiting;
c) diarrhea;
d) asphyxia;
e) prolonged febrile states.
108. Specify the optimal measures for treating patients with wet gangrene in the
presence of severe toxicity and high temperature:
a) halfalcohol bandages;
b) bandages with antiseptics;
c) intraarterial injection of antibiotics;
d) oxygen chamber;
e) amputation.
109. What is the method of treatment of lips-similar fistula?
a) conservative treatment;
b) filling of fistula;
c) diathermocoagulation of fistula;
d) resection of the intestine area with fistula ;
e) ligation of fistula channel.
110. What additional methods of examination used in the examination of patients
with the fistulas?
a) ultrasound;
b) fistulography;
c) general analysis of blood;
d) biochemical analysis of blood;
e) rheovasography.
111. The cause of ulcer can be:
a) cerebrovascular accidents;
b) violation of arterial and venous circulation;
c) pediculosis;
d) diseases of the endocrine system;
e) heart rhythm disturbance.
112. Patient that long time lies in bed has the complaints about pain, heartburn,
swelling, congestion in the region of the sacral spine. What could cause this patient's
condition?
a) spinal injury;
b) the formation of bedsores;
c) ulceration;
d) gangrene;
e) sepsis.
113. Mikotic ulcers are localized mainly in:
a) the interdigital spaces on the hands;
b) the interdigital spaces on the feet;
c) the perineum;
d) on the thighs;
e) on the anterior abdominal wall.
114. During violation of hemodynamics into veins the such ulcers often develop as:
a) venous;
b) trophic;
c) arterial;
d) lymph;
e) peptic.
115. By a shape the intestinal occasional fistulas are divided on:
a) lips-similar;
b) like capsule;
c) anatomical;
d) tubular;
e) cylindrical.
116. Specify the order of the sensitivity of tissues to ischemia:
a) brain cells, parenchymal organs, skin, muscles, cartilage;
b) the cartilage cells of the brain, skin, parenchymal organs, muscles;
c) parenchymal organs, cartilage, brain cells, skin, muscle,
d) skin, brain cells, parenchymal organs, muscles, cartilage;
e) cartilage, muscle, brain cells, parenchymal organs, the skin.