Student Multiple Choice Questions MICR 201 2010
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Below is a sample of student generated multiple choice questions.
Thank you for your great contributions.
Some of them will be selected for Quiz II.
The order of answer choice will be changed in the quiz. Therefore, make sure you understand the
questions and the answers.
If your question as not been selected please indicate so at the next round of student questions.
Questions from 10/27/2010 (Pathogenicity)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Which of the following bacterial pathogenic enzymes does not facilitate degradation of tisse?
A) Streptokinase
B) Coagulase
C) Hyaluronidase
D) Collagenase E) All are correct
What is not an example of parental portal entry?
A) Needle stick
B) Mosquito bite
C) mucous membrane
D)All are correct.
Exotoxins are typically
A) Carbohydrates
B) Sugars
C) Proteins
D)Lipids
E) Minerals
What does the A in AB toxin stand for?
A) Active B) Agglutination C) Adhesion
D) Accumulation
E) None of these is correct.
Which of the following microorganisms produces endotoxin?
A) E. coli
B) Staphylococcus spec. C) Streptococcus spec.
D) C. albicans
E) All of these.
Which bacterium produces the hemolysin streptolysin?
A) S. pyogenes
B) S. aureus
C) C. diphteriae
D). C. botulinum
E) C. tetani
7.
What is the correct term for live microorganisms that are intentionally ingested for the benefit of human
health?
A) Prebiotics
B) Probiotics
C) Antibiotics
D) Macrobiotics
E) Microbiotics
8.
If a particular disease occurs only occasionally it is called
A) sporadic disease.
B) endemic disease.
C) epidemic disease.
D) pandemic disease.
In the invasion cycle what comes after penetration
A) Port of entry
B) Damage to host tissue
D) Adherence
9.
C) Port of exit
10. Which bacterial enzyme digests fibrin clots?
A) Kinase
B) Coagulase
C) Hyaluronidase
D) Collagenase
11. What is the main difference between the bacterial and fungal cell walls?
A) Peptidoglycan in bacterial cell walls
B) Chitin in bacterial cell walls
D) None of the above.
E) None of the above
C) Both are the same
12. Which part of the infection cycle involves microbes entering host cells?
A) Port of entry
B) Penetration C) Binding
D) Opportunist
13. Which bacterial enzyme hydrolyzes collagen?
A) Kinases
B) Hyaluronidase
C) Coagulase
D) None of the above
14. With which of the following bacteria is an infant colonized first after birth?
A) Lactobacilli
B) E. coli C) Streptococci
D) All of the listed
E) None of the listed
15. Which toxin contains LPS and triggers fever?
A) Endotoxin
B) Exotoxin
C) Both
D) None
Student Multiple Choice Questions MICR 201 2010
16. Which infection cycle is listed in the correct order?
A) Portals of entry, damage to cells, penetration and evasion, exit
B) Portals of entry, exit, damage to cells, penetration and evasion
C) Portals of entry, penetration and evasion, damage to cell, exit
D) Penetration and evasion, portals of entry, damage to cells, exit
E) None of the above is correct
17. Which port of entry requires the highest dose of B. anthracis endospores for infection?
A) skin
B) respiratory tract
C) eyes
D) gastrointestinal tract
18. What exotoxin(s) can S. aureus produce?
A) TSST (hyperstimulates immune system)
(AB toxin that causes a flaccid paralysis)
B) Enterotoxin (similar to V. cholerae toxin) C) Neurotoxin
D) Both A) and B)
E) All A), B), and C)
19. Which of the following is mismatched?
A) Toxin & poisonous substance
B) Toxoid & inactivated toxin
the blood D) Toxigenicity & ability to induce toxic reaction in the host
C) Toxemia & presence of toxin in
E) All of the above are correct.
20. Which bacterium can be the source of a neurotoxin that belongs to the AB toxin family and causes a flaccid
paralysis?
A) C. diphteriae
B) C. botulinum C) C. tetani
D) V. cholerae
E) S. aureus
21. A symptom is a
A) non-measurable change in body function.
B) measurable change in body function.
of signs and symptoms. D) disease that can easily spread.
C) group
Questions from 11/01/2010 (Innate immunity)
22. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of innate immunity?
A) Rapid response
B) Limited specificity
C) Memory
D) Widely present
true.
E) All of these are
23. Which of the following complement factors is NOT involved in the proteolytic cascade?
A) C1
B) C4
C) C8
D) C5 E) All are correct.
24. What of the following is not subject to constant fluid flow?
A) Saliva
B) Urine
C) Vaginal secretions
D) Mucociliary clearance
E) All are correct.
25. Which is NOT contributing to the chemical defense of innate immunity?
A) Sebum
B) Low pH
C) High pH
D) Unsaturated fatty acids
E) All are correct.
26. Into which cell type do monocytes differentiate?
A) Neutrophils
B) Macrophages
C) Basophils
E. None is correct.
27. Which is NOT a pathway to activate the complement cascade?
A) Lectin binding to microbe B) Interferon binding to host
surface
D) antibody binding to antigen
D) Eosinophils
C) C3 binding directly to the microbial
28. What is the pH of urine contributing to the control of microbes in the urinary tract?
A) pH 6
B) pH 5
C) pH 3
D) pH 1
E) pH 8
Student Multiple Choice Questions MICR 201 2010
29. Which of the following is correctly matched?
A) Mast cells & anti-parasitic B) Natural killers cells & anti-allergic
D) Eosinophil—anti-helminthic
C) Monocyte & anti bacterial
30. Which Antibody type is most important in the defense against parasistic worms?
A) IgE antibodies
B) IgM antibodies C) IgA antibodies D) IgG antibodies E) IgD antibodies
31. Which of the following is the correct complement cascade sequence?
A) C1-C2-C4-C3-C5-C6-C7-C8-C9n
B) C1-C4-C2-C3-C5-C6-C7-C8-C9n
C3-C2-C1
D)C2-C3-C4-C1-C5-C8-C6-C7-C9n. E) None of the above.
C) C9n-C8-C7-C6-C5-C4-
32. Leukocytes, part of the cellular element of host defense, originate in the ________.
A) red bone marrow B) thymus
C) spleen
D) liver E) none of the above.
33.
34. Which of the following is the best definition for chemotaxis?
A) Molecules that enhance phagocytosis
B) A process that inhibits potential pathogens
C) Chemical attraction of phagocytes to microorganisms and movement of phagocytes towards the source
of infection D) Formation of pseudopods and phagosome
E) None of the above is a good definition.
Questions from 11/03/2010 (adaptive immunity)
35. Which of the following cells is found in lymph nodes and is highly specialized in T cell interaction?
A) Macrophages
B) Mast cells
C) Dendritic cells
D) Natural killer cells
E) None of these.
36. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of adaptive immunity?
A) Acquired within days
B) Limited specificity
C) Memory
to proliferate
E) All of these are true.
37. Where do T-cells and B-cells originate from?
A) Thymus
B) Bone marrow
C) Stem cell
D) Ability of adaptive immune cells
D) Liver
38. Which branch of immunity is primarily mediated by T cells?
A) innate immunity
B) cellular immunity
C) humoral immunity
E) None of these.
D) All are correct.
39. Which of the following antibody types is best suited to prevent the spread of microbes?
A) IgM
B) IgA
C) IgG
D) IgD
E) IgE
40. Which antibody type crosses the placenta to provide immunity for the fetus in utero?
A) IgG
B) IgM
C) IgA
D) IgD
E) IgE
41. Which of the following antibody types forms a pentamer?
A) IgG
B) IgM
C) IgA
D) IgD
E) IgE
42. An acute infection with toxoplasmosis is suspected in a newborn baby. Which type of antibodies against
toxoplasma supports an acute infection?
A) IgG
B) IgM
C) IgA
D) IgD
E) IgE
43. Through which means are the unique binding pockets of an antibody molecule created?
Student Multiple Choice Questions MICR 201 2010
A) Heavy and light chains connected by disulfide bridges
B) Regions with highly variable amino acid
sequences on the heavy and light chains
C) Heavy chain amino acid sequences in the constant region
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
44. Which of the following are effector functions of antibodies?
A) Agglutination
B) Opsonization C) Complement activation D) None of the above.
above.
45. Which cell types express MHC I?
A) Leukocytes
B) Only phagocytic cells
e) None of the above.
C) Monocytes
E) All of the
D) All nucleated cells.
46. Which is not true about IgA?
A) It is a dimer.
B) It is secreted to body surfaces. C) It represents 80% of all serum antibodies.
D) It neutralizes toxin.
E) All of the above are true.
47. Which of the following is not true about humoral immunity?
A) Is mediated by antibodies. B) Involves lymphocytes that mature in the bone marrow.
dependent.
D) Is highly specific.
48. Which cells produce antibodies?
A) T cells
B) B cells
C) NK cells
D) Epithelial cells
49. Which of the following is a primary lymphatic tissue?
A) Lymph nodes
B) Spleen
C) Bone marrow
D) Liver.
C) Is cell
E) Stem cells
E) All of the above.
50. Which of the following antibodies have a positive effect on babies through breast feeding?
A) IgG
B) IgM
C) IgA
D) IgD
E) IgM & IgA
51. In terms of agglutination, what is the difference between IgG and IgM?
A) There is no difference
B) IgM is more efficient
C) IgG is more efficient.
cannot perform agglutination.
52. Antibodies are typically made of
A) lipids
B) carbohydrates
C) proteins
D) B & C
D) IG and IgM
E )A & B
53. The antibody heavy and light chains are connected through ____________________ bridges.
A) sugar chain
B) phospholipid
C) disulfide
D) amino acid
E) nucleic acid
54. Which of the following antibodies is the most abundant in serum?
A) IgG
B) IgM
C) IgA
D) IgD
E) IgE
55. Which of the following is not a task of T- lymphocytes?
A) Phagocytosis
B) Recognition of foreign agents C) Orchestrating the immune response through
cytokine release
D) All of the above T lymphocyte tasks.
56. Into which cells can B cells differentiate after antigen contact?
A) NK cell
B) Memory cell
C) Plasma cell
D) All of these.
E) None of these.
Student Multiple Choice Questions MICR 201 2010
Questions from 11/10/2010 (Disorders of the immune system)
57. Which of the following are part of the procedure to identify allergens by skin testing?
A) Drops of fluid containing various candidate allergens are placed on top of skin. B) A light scratch is made
with a needle to allow the candidate allergens to penetrate into the skin. C) Candidate allergens are injected
subcutaneously into the skin. D) A and B
E) A and C.
58. Which Hypersensitivity type may involve complement activation, pore formation, and destruction of cells?.
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
E) Type II and III
59. Which antibody type is involved in type II hypersensitivity?
A) IgE
B) IgG
C) IgM
D) B and C
E) A and C
60. Which type of hypersensitivity involves damage via complement activation and generation of
proinflammatory complement cleavage products?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
E) All of the above
61. Which types of hypersensitivity reaction do not involve cells and antibodies?
A) Type I & II
B) Type II & III
C) Type III & IV D) None of the above
above
62. Which of the following is a characteristic of type II hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Complement activation
B) Cell lysis
C) Allergen on a cell or matrix
E) None of these.
E) All of the
D) All of these.
63. In type II (cytotoxic) hypersensitivity, what antibody type/s bind/s to the target cell, activate complement and
destroy the target cell?
A) IgE, IgG
B) IgM, IgG
C) CTL
D) All of these. E) None of these.
64. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction mismatched?
A) Type I – Anaphylactic
B)Type II – Cytotoxic
Delayed Hypersensitivity
E) All are correct.
C) Type III - Immune Complex
D) Type IV -
65. Jane just joined the soccer team, but recently started having hay fever and rashes after every practice. She
thinks she might be having an allergic reaction to the grass. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is she
having?
A) Anaphylactic B) cytotoxic C) immune complex
D)delayed hypersensitivity e) None of these.
66. A patient was given penicillin to treat an infection. The patient developed a thrombocytopenic purpura. What
is a likely cause of the illness?
A) Type II hypersensitivity-IgE specific for penicillin binds to mast cells and mast cell degranulate.
B) Type II hypersensitivity-complement system is activated via the classical pathway.
C) Type II hypersensitivity- complement is activated via the alternative pathway.
D)Type II hypersensitivity- CTLs induce apoptosis of thrombocytes.
67. A patient comes in with a rash on both arms that began earlier today. Until yesterday, he says, he had been on
vacation. He was hiking in the woods wo days ago, and prior to that he had visited his grandmother and her 12
cats. The rash is most likely due to which kind of hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
68. What is an example for a systemic effect of a Type I hypersensitivity?
A) increased vasopermeability B) constriction of airways C) hay fever
D) shock
Student Multiple Choice Questions MICR 201 2010
69. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction causes inflammation via complement activation?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
E) All of these.
70. Anaphylactic shock from an insect venom d=causes an IgE mediated reaction. How much time would it take
for the clinical signs to appear?
A) 5 – 12 h B) 3 – 8 h
C) 1 – 2 days
D) 30 min
E) 1 week.
71. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is against a lipid allergen that is adsorbed through skin and crosses cell
membranes and shows signs within ~ 24 - 48 h
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
E) All of these.
72. What is an example for a type III hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Reaction to insect venom
B) tuberculin test
sickness E) All of these.
73. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is the fastest?
A) Type IV B) Type III
C) Type II
D) Type I
C) transfusion reaction
D) serum
E) All have the same response time.
74. Which of the following does not result from release of histamine containing granules?
A) increased vasopermeability
B) increased mucus production
C) joint pain and swelling
D) constriction of airways
E) All of these are correct.
75. What is one of the characteristics of a type III hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Itching
B) Hives
C) joint swelling and plain
D) Blisters on the skin
E) All of these.
76. Which hypersensitivity reaction type occurs within days after allergen exposure?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
E) All of these.
Questions from 11/15/2010 (Microbial diseases of skin and eyes )
77. Which of the following microbial skin diseases is mismatched?
A) Parasitic & scabies
B) Viral & shingles
C) Fungal & candidiasis
78. Which of the following bacteria can cause skin infections?
A) Streptococcus pyogenes
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D) A and C
E) All of them.
79. Which two diseases are caused by the same virus?
A) Measles, rubella
B)Chicken pox, shingles
80. All of the following are viral diseases of the skin except
A) Otitis externa
B) Fever blisters
C) Roseola
the skin.
81. Abscess of the skin is typically caused by which bacteria?
A) Propionibacterium acnes
B) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E) None of these.
D) Bacterial & roseola
C) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Small pox, herpes
D) Shingles
D) Warts, herpes
E) All are viral diseases of
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
82. Streptococcus pyogenes uses all of the following enzymes to spread throughout the body except
A) DNAse
B) Strepokinase C) Hyaluronidase
D) Coagulase
E) All of these enzymes are used.
Student Multiple Choice Questions MICR 201 2010
83. Localized Impetigo is typically caused by:
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
C) Propionibacterium acnes
84. Which of the following skin diseases is not of viral origin
A) Warts
B) chicken pox C) ringworm
D) roseola
C) Varicella –Zoster virus
E) Both C and D
85. All of the following are characteristics of the 5th disease except:
A) Caused by human parvovirus B19
B) Presence of Koplik’s spots
C) Mild flu like symptoms
D) Distinct skin rash that appears liked slapped face E) Rash fades away slowly
86. A laboratory test for an isolate from a skin wound comes out to be gram+ cocci in clusters, catalase+ ,
facultative anaerobe, salt tolerant, and protein A positive. Which bacterial species likely has the same
characteristics as the bacteria isolated?
A) Streptococcus pyogenes
B) Propionibacterium acnes
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E) Both C and D
87. Which of the following bacteria may lead to an infection with blue-green pus?
A) Streptococcus pyogenes
B) Propionibacterium acnes
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E) Both C and D
88. Which of the following are involved in bacterial infections of the eye?
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Acanthamoeba
C) Herpes Simplex type 1 D) None of these
E) All of these.
89. Which of the following are part of the normal microbiota of the skin?
A) Staphylococci
B) Micrococci
C) Corynebacteria
bacteria
E) All of these.
D) Propioni
90. Which bacteria may cause Ritter’s disease provided that they have been infected by a phage?
A) Streptococcus pyogenes
B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D) Clostridium
perfringens E) All of these.
91. Which of the following is mismatched?
A) Parasitic & scabies B) Viral& shingles
E) All are correct.
C) Fungal & candidiasis
D) Bacterial & roseola
92. Which of the following is responsible for causing skin lesions?
A) Streptococci
B) Pseudomonas
C) Staphylococci D) A and C
93. Which two diseases are caused by the same virus?
A) measles, rubella B) chicken pox, shingles C) small pox, herpes
E) All of these.
D) warts, herpes E) None of these.
94. Which of the following microorganisms can be responsible for both corneal infection and inversion of
eyelashes?
A) C. trachomatis
B) Herpes simplex
C) N. gonorrhoeae
D) Acanthamoeba
E) None of these.
95. Which of the following is involved in bacterial infections of the eye?
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Acanthamoeba
C) Herpes Simplex type 1 D) None of these.
E) All of these.
Student Multiple Choice Questions MICR 201 2010
Questions from 11/17/2010 (Microbial diseases of the nervous system )
96. Which of the following diseases is caused by a toxin produced by a gram-positive, endospore forming, obligate
anaerobic bacterium?
A) Rabies
B) Small pox
C) Rubella
D) Tetanus
E) None of these.
97. After an animal bite a little boy showed symptoms of muscle spasms in the mouth and pharynx and
hydrophobia. For which virus would you test?
A) Small pox
B) Rabies
C) Rubella
D) Papilloma
E) None of these.
98. Which of the following tests are used to diagnose encephalitis?
A) EEG
B) Blood culture
C) MRI
D) A and B
E) A and C
99. Which individuals are most vulnerable to fungal meningitis?
A) average adults
B) AIDS patients C) Burn patients D) febrile patients
100. Amphotericin B and flucytosin are drugs used to treat infections with
A) Cryptococcus neoformans B) Naegleri fowleri
C) Listeria monocytogenes
E) None of these.
101. Which of the following is a characteristic of Clostridium tetani?
A) gram negative
B) does not form endospores
C) obligate anaerobic
E) All of these.
D) All of these.
D) None of these.
102. Which of the following bacteria causing meningitis does not produce a capsule?
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Haemophilus influenzae
C) Listeria monocytogenes
D) Neisseria meningitidis
E) All of these produce capsules.
103. Which of following is a Gram-positive rod that is known to cause intrauterine infection with abortion or still
birth?
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae B) Haemophilus influenzae
C) Neisseria meningitidis
D) Listeria monocytogenes
E) None of these.
104. Before moving into a dormitory vaccination against which pathogen must be documented?
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Haemophilus influenzae
C) Neisseria meningitidis
D) Listeria monocytogenes E) All of these.
105. The causative agents of tetanus and botulism are similar in which ways?
A) Gram behavior
B) ability to form endospores
C) are obligate anaerobic D) All of these are true.
106. Compared to meningitis, which of the following symptoms/signs are rather typical for encephalitis?
A) Headaches
B) Fever
C) Agitation
D) A and C only
E) All of these.
107. Infection of the nervous system with which microbial agent can cause hydrophobia?
A) Poliomyelitis virus
B) Trypanosoma
C) Rabies virus D) None of these.
108. How does Mycobacterium leprae spread inside the body?
A) through the dermis
B) through skeletal muscle
D) through the myelin sheaths of peripheral nerves
C)through smooth muscles
E) through all of these tissues.
Student Multiple Choice Questions MICR 201 2010
109. Which of the following bacteria are most likely to cause meningitis during the first 2 years of life?
A) H. influenzae
B) M. tuberculosis
C) N. fowleri
D) N. meningitides
E) S. pneumoniae
110. Which of the following findings observations in a CSF specimen are consistent with bacterial meningitis?
A) neutrophil exsudate
B) low glucose C) protein positive
D) All of these. E) None of these.
111. Which of the following defense cells are found in CSF obtained from a patient with a viral meningitis?
A) Lymphocytes
B) Neutrophils C) Eosinophils
C) Basophils
E) None of these
112. In order to start therapy of an infection it is important to know what type of microbial agent is causing the
disease. Which of the following diseases & causative agent is incorrectly matched?
A) Leprosy & bacterium
B) Tetanus& toxin
C) Rabies & bacterium
D) Botulism& toxin
113. A woman dies suddenly after a short period of illness with signs of a CNS disturbance. The only unusual event
in her history was a swimming excursion in a lake several days before the onset of symptoms. Which of the
following diseases is the most likely cause for her death?
A) Tetanus B) Trypanosomiasis
C) Amoeba meningoencephalitis D) Waterhouse-Friderichsen
syndrome E) None of these.
114. Which bacterium that can cause meningitis is able to proliferate at 4°C?
A) S. pneumoniae
B) L. monocytogenes
C) H. influenzae
115. Which of the following does not cause a bacterial meningitis?
A) C. neoformans
B) S. pneumoniae
C) H. influenzae
E) L. monocytogenes
D) N. meningitides
D) N. meningitides
Questions from 11/22/2010 (Microbial diseases of the cardiovascular and lymphatic system)
116. Which of the following Plasmodium species is not associated with malaria?
A) P. vivax B) P. achromaticum
C) P. malariae
D) P. falciparum
E) All of these cause
malaria in humans.
Questions from 11/24/2010 (Microbial diseases of the respiratory system)
117. Which of the following circumstances is most likely to reactivate latent TB?
A) Acquiring HIV infection and development of AIDS
B) Exposure to patients with active TB
C) Working in a TB laboratory
D) Both A and B
E) None of these.
118. Which of the following bacteria are transmitted from human to human?
A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B) Mycobacterium bovis C) Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare
complex
D) All of these. E) None of these.
119. Which of the following mycobacterial species would show colonies after 2 days of inoculation?
A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B) Mycobacterium bovis C) Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare
complex
D) All of these. E) None of these.
120. Which stain would be most appropriate for a sputum sample from a patient with suspected tuberculosis?
Student Multiple Choice Questions MICR 201 2010
A) Gram stain
B) Acid fast stain
C) Spore stain
D) Capsule stain
E) None of these.
121. Half of all office visits to the pediatrician are because of otitis media. Which if the following are the top two
causes of otitis media?
A) S. aureus , S. pneumoniae
B) S. pyogenes, M. catarrhalis
C)M. catarrhalis, H. influenzae
D) S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae
E) S. pneumoniae, S. pyogenes
122. Which statement is false regarding Corynebacterium diphteriae?
A) Prevented by immunization with diphteria toxoid.
B) Infection may spread systemically resulting in
kidney and heart failure.
C) Only lysogenized bacteria can produce the toxin. D) Diphteria membrane in
the throat is composed of fibrin, dead tissue, and bacteria.
E) The bacteria are gram+ pleomorphic
rods.
123. Which of the following statements is false regarding Bordetella pertussis?
A) Has as main pathogenic factor a thick capsule.
B) May secrete tracheal cytotoxin which locally
damages ciliated respiratory cells.
C) The disease can be prevented with an acellular cell fragment
vaccine.
D) The disease it causes has three stages: catarrhal, paroxysmal, and convalescent.
Questions from 11/29/2010 (Microbial diseases of the digestive system)
124. Which of the following would not promote plaque formation on teeth?
A) sucrose B) xylitol
C) dextran
D) fructose
E) none of these.
125. Which structures on its cell surface allow E. coli to attach to enterocytes?
A) cilia
B) fimbria
C) villi
D) All of these. E) None of these.
126. Which of the following E. coli strains produces enterotoxin?
A) EPEC
B) ETEC
C) EHEC
D) EAEC
E) Two of these.
127. What conditions are necessary for growth of Campylobacter jejuni, a microaerophil bacterium?
A) High levels of oxygen
B) No oxygen at all
C) oxygen at reduced levels
D) Oxygen does
not influence the growth
E) None of these.
128. In what part of the body is E. coli included in the normal microbiota?
A) Ear
B) Nose
C) Nasooropharynx
D) Large intestine
129. What types of E. coli are associated with watery diarrhea?
A) ETEC
B)EIEC
C) EAEC
D) A & B
E) Gall bladder
E) A&C
130. ____________ and ___________ are important factors for the pathogenesis of caries.
A) Sucrose and S. mutans
B) Acid formation
C) Biofilms and plaques D) All of these.
of these.
131. Which of the following microorganisms is a primary pathogen for humans?
A) E. coli
B) Bacteroides spec.
C) Campylobacter jejuni D) S. mutans
E) None of these.
132. Which of the following antigens can be found in the capsule of Salmonella?
A) H-antigen
B) O-antigen
C) K-antigen
D) Y-antigen
133. Which types of cells could you expect in a severe dysentery with bloody diarrhea?
A) Bacteria
B) Leukocytes
C) Erythrocytes
D) All of these
E) Two of these.
E) Two
Student Multiple Choice Questions MICR 201 2010
134. Which region of the gastrointestinal tract is primarily affected by shigellosis?
A) Stomach B) Duodenum
C) Small intestine
D) Colon
E) Rectum
135. One of your patients is very sick. She has recently developed mucoid diarrhea, and a biopsy shows signs of
bacteria attaching via pili bundles to enterocytes. The bacteria test positive for E. coli. Which strain
designation would you choose in this case of diarrhea?
A) enteroinvasive
B) enteroaggregative
C) enteropathogenic
D) enterotoxigenic
E) enterohemorrhagic
136. Which of the following intestinal pathogens does not cause disease outside of the intestine?
A) Salmonella typhimurium
B) Salmonella typhi
C) Yersinia enterocolitica D) Shigella
137. What are important factors in the pathogenesis of hemolytic uremic syndrome?
A) EHEC O157:H7 produces Shiga-like toxin that is absorbed and transported to the small blood vessels.
B) EHEC O157:H7 injects proteins into the host cell via a type III secretion apparatus.
C) EHEC O157:H7 produces urease.
D) All of these.
E) None of these.
Questions from 12/01/2010 (Microbial diseases of the urinary and reproductive system)
138. Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes discharge with
A) many leukocytes B) few leukocytes
epsinophils
C) many neutrophils
139. Schistosoma belong to which group of organisms?
A) Bacteria
B) Viruses
C) Fungi
D) Helminths
140. Which of the following is not a common bacterial STI?
A) Gonorrhoeae
B) NGU
C) genital herpes
D) few neutrophils
E) many
Protozoa
D) All of these.
E) None of these.
141. Which of the following STIs is known to cause severe damage in the fetus?
A) Syphilis B) NGU
C)Trichomoniasis
D) B& C
E) All of these.
142. Which of the following is not characteristic of pyelonephritis?
A) Fever, back or flank pain
B) 75% caused by E. coli C) caused by i.v. antibiotics.
D) All of these.
E) None of these.
143. Which microorganism is least likely isolated as a cause of cystitis?
A) Proteus vulgaris B) E. coli
C) Mycobacterium smegmatis
D) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
144. Trichomoniasis is what type of sexually transmitted disease?
A) Bacterial
B) Fungal
C) Viral
D) Protozoan
145. Which of the following diseases of the urogenital tract occur most frequently?
A) Syphilis
B) gGonorrhea C) NGU
D) Candidiasis
E) Trichomoniasis
146. With respect to the two life forms of C. trachomatis, which of the following is matched correctly?
A) Elementary body & sensitive to environment
B) Elementary & reproductive
C) Reticulate
body & sensitive to the environment D) Reticulate body & infectious
E) None of these.
147. Which of the following diseases of the genital tracts & key symptoms are mismatched?
Student Multiple Choice Questions MICR 201 2010
A) Genital Herpes & burning sensation B) Candidiasis & itching C) Trichonomiasis & pus
NGU & watery discharge
E) All of these are correctly matched.
148. Which stage of syphilis is not highly infectious?
A) Stage 1
B) Stage 2
C) Stage 3
D) Stage 4
D) Chlamydia
E) None of these.
149. Which of the following diseases of the urogenital tract system is not diagnosed by culture?
A) Candidiasis
B) Syphilis
C) Gonorrhoea
D) Cystitis
E) All of these are
diagnosed by culture.
150. What bacterial count indicates a cystitis?
A) 1,000/ml B) 10,000/ml
C) < 100,000/ml
proofs a cystitits
D) > 100,000/ml
E) Any growth in urine