BIOL 1020: Principles of Biology
FINAL EXAM
1.
Avery et al. used experiment performed by _______ to show that nucleic acid is the genetic material.
A. Hershey & Chase
B. Stahl
C. Griffith
D. Rosalind
2.
Griffith found that the _______ strain of the pneumococcus bacterium was virulent and would cause
disease.
A. A
B. S
C. R
D. B
3.
An organism with the genotype of AaBb (A and B are on different chromosomes) can produce
_____different
type of gametes?
A. 8
B. 4
C. 2
D. 6
4.
An organism with a dominant phenotype is crossed with a homozygous recessive organism. None of the
numerous offspring are homozygous recessive. The genotype of the dominant parent is:
A. AA
B. Aa
C. aa
D. ab
5.
People expressing the cystic fibrosis trait are ___________ for the disease gene.
A. homozygous dominant
B. heterozygous
C. homozygous recessive
D. X-linked
6.
Each is a component of the DNA nucleotide except a:
A. Nitrogen base
B. Pentose sugar
C. Phosphate group
D. Fatty acid
7.
The two strands of the DNA double helix are:
A. parallel
B. antiparallel
C. polypeptides
D. semiconservative
DNA replication is best described as being:
A. dispersive
B. conservative
D. semiconservative
8.
9.
C. nonconservative
RNA polymerase recognizes a(n) _______ sequence of the gene.
A. origin
B. promoter
C. repressor
D. operator
10.
An unaffected couple (neither father nor mother have the disease) has two hemophilic sons and two
normal daughters. This is because
A. mother is a carrier and has XhXH genotype
B. hemophilia is an autosomal recessive
C. hemophilia is a sex influenced trait
D. father is a carrier and has XHXh genotype
11.
New aminoacyl-tRNAs (tRNA with attached amino acid) bind to mRNA at the _______ site of the
ribosome.
A. A
B. B
C. T
D. P
E. Z
12.
The first amino acid in any protein is coded for by which codon?
A. UGA which codes for leucine.
B. UAA which codes for glycine.
C. AUG which codes for N-formyl (methionine). D. UUA which is a stop codon
E. Varies from protein to protein so it cannot be determined.
13.
Pieces of mRNA that are transcribed from the DNA, but are NOT found in the mature
mRNA molecule once it reaches the cytoplasm, are called:
A. exons
B. introns
C. codons
D. anti-codons
14.
Okazaki fragments are:
A. pieces of chromosomes created by topoisomerases
B. made from 3' to 5' so that they can be joined together at the replication fork.
C. made on the lagging strand from 5' to 3'.
D. ligated together by DNA helicases.
15.
DNA is always synthesized _____________ on both the leading and lagging strands?
A. from 3'--->5'
B. from 5'--->3'
C. toward the Okazaki fragments
D. in both directions
16.
Which of the following is a correct base pair?
A. C-T
B. A-G
C. A-T
D. A-C
17.
one
Working with mutations in mould, Beadle & Tatum demonstrated relationship between one gene and
__________.
A. lipid
B. enzyme
C. sugar
D. amino acid
18.
DNA molecules have:
A. an alternating sugar-phosphate backbone
B. 2 hydrogen bonds between G and C base pairs
19.
C. 3 hydrogen bonds between A and T base pairs
D. all of the above
Nucleotides are fastened together by ____________ bond.
A. glycosidic
B. exter
C. peptide
D. phosphodiester
20.
Down's syndrome is caused by
A. an extra copy of chromosome #10 in most cases.
B. an extra copy of chromosome #21 in most cases.
C. people living too close to ducks and geese.
D. errors which occur during DNA replication.
21.
Eukaryotic mRNA is transcribed in________________and translated in_______________.
A. chloroplast/ nucleus
B. cytoplasm/ nucleus
C. nucleus/ cytoplasm
D. mitochondria/ cytoplasm
22.
Transcribe this piece of DNA: 5'-TATGATCCCGTACCT-3' (keep in mind the correct orientation for
nucleic acids in selecting your answer)
A. 5'-AUACUAGGGCAUGGA-3'
B. 5'-ATACTAGGGCATGGA-3'
C. 5'-AGGUACGGGAUCAUA-3'
D. 5'-AGGTACGGGATCATA-3'
23.
Which of the following is NOT one of the stages of translation?
A. chain elongation
B. initiation
C. chain termination
D. tRNA folding
24.
Anticodon sequence is present on __________
A. ribsome
B. tRNA
C. mRNA
D. rRNA
25.
Introns are found in ________ mRNA.
A. prokaryotic
B. eukaryotic
C. both A & B
D. None of the above
26.
A protein containing 220 amino acids would require an mRNA coding region of ____________ bases
long.
A. 880
B. 660
C. 440
D. 220
27.
From Mendel=s dihybrid cross, the phenotypic ratio among offspring was:
A. 3:1
B. 1:2:1
C. 9:3:3:1
D. 9:7
28.
Codons are:
A. responsible for making sure DNA replication does not produce mutations.
B. used to translate an mRNA into the amino acid sequence of a protein.
C. the code geneticists use to let A stand for adenine, G for guanine, C for cytosine, and T for thymidine.
D. sequences of one, two or three bases depending on how many amino acids are found in a protein.
29.
An allele is a(n)
A. phenotype
B. alternate form of a gene
C. deformed chromosome
30.
Leader sequence is present at the ______ of the _________.
A. 5’ end / mRNA
B. 5’end / tRNA
C. 3’ end / mRNA
D. 3’end / rRNA
31.
The genetic code contains
A. 4
B. 16
32.
different codons.
C. 64
Translation terminates when:
A. a missense mutation is encountered.
C. the ribosome runs out of tRNA.
D. genotype
D. 128
B. a stop codon is encountered.
D. the 3' end of the mRNA is reached.
33.
Ploy A+ is added to eukaryotic mRNA after transcription at ______ end.
A. 3’
B. 5’
C. both 3’ & 5’
D. in the middle
34.
Which of the following serves as an adapter during translation?
A. mRNA
B. rRNA
C. tRNA
D. cDNA
35.
In the absence of crossing over between the genes (A and B) on the same chromosome, a parent with
AaBb genotype can produce _________ different kinds of gametes.
A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
36.
If the phenotypic ratio among offspring is 1(Tall):1 (Short), the genotypes of the two parents is:
A. TT and tt
B. Tt and tt
C. tt and tt
D. TT and Tt
Matching. Choose the one definition from the list at the right (A-E) which best describes the activity of
enzymes (37-41).
37.
DNA polymerase
A. Synthesizes DNA from a DNA template, requires primer
38.
Topoisomerase
B. Joins together Okazaki fragments on lagging strands
39.
DNA ligase
C. Nicks and rejoins DNA to relieve "knotting" during replication
40.
Helicase
D. Synthesizes RNA from a DNA template, does not require primer
41.
RNA polymerase
E. Unwinds the DNA double helix for replication and transcription
42.
Which of the following numbered events represents correct sequence of events in translation?
1. large ribosomal subunit binds to initiation complex
2. initiation tRNA binds small ribosomal subunit
3. initiation complex binds to ribosome recognition sequence
A. 3  2  1
B. 2 3  1
C. 2  13
D. 1 3  2
E. 1 2  3
43.
Where is the amino acid binding site located on the tRNA?
A. in the anticodon loop
B. at the 5’ end
C. at the 3’ end
44.
Which condition results from a nondisjunction involving the sex chromosome?
A. Down
B. Edwards
C. Patau
D. Turner
45.
Transcription intiation requires__________.
A. DNA polymerase
B. RNA primer
46.
47.
Huntington's disease is a (n)
A. autosomal dominant
C. X-linked
C. Promoter sequence
D. all of the above
disorder.
B. autosomal recessive
D. Y-linked
DNA replication requires_________________
A. DNA polymerase
B. small RNA primer
C. Both A & B
48.
DNA synthesis in lagging strand takes place________________.
A. by series of Okazaki fragments
B. entirely by complementary RNA
C. by complementary copy of leading strand D. by RNA primers only
49.
DNA strand is replicated smoothly & continuously on the ___________.
A. primary strand
B. Secondary strand
C. leading strand
D. RNA polymerase
D. lagging strand.
50.
Which of the following represents Frame shift mutation of of the sequence AGACTTCAG?
A. AGAGTTCAG
B. AGTACTCAG
C. AGACCTTCAG D. AGACTTCAG
51.
Sickle cell anemia is an inherited ___________ disease.
A. X-linked recessive B. autosomal dominant
C. autosomal recessive
D. X-linked dominant
52.
For genetic engineering, a plasmid vector must have __________.
A. selectable marker
B. origin of replication
C. multiple restriction sites
D. all of the above
53.
Tom shows pattern baldness. His wife Tammy has normal hairs. They have two boys and two girls. All
four children have pattern baldness. The genotype of Tom and Tammy are ________and _______,
respectively.
A. B1B2 and B1B2
B. B1B1 and B1B1
C. B2B2 and B1B1
D. B2B2 and B2B2
54.
Fred has type A blood. His father was type A and his mother was type O. Wilma is type B. Her father
was type AB, and her mother was type AB. What possible offspring (in relation to blood type) could
Fred and Wilma have?
A. A, B, and AB
C. A and B
E. AB and B
B. A, B, O, and AB
D. O, A, and AB
55.
The percentage of crossing-over occurs between two genes on the same chromosome:
A. is proportional to the distance between the two genes . B. is always the same.
C. is so small it cannot be measured.
D. depends on which chromosome it is on
56.
During meiosis homologous chromosomes separates at _____________
A. prophase I
B. metaphase II
C. anaphase I
D. anaphase II
57.
Genetic recombination between nonsister chromatids of homologous chromosomes occur
during_________
A. prophase I
B. prophase II
C. metaphase I
D. metaphase II
58.
Turner’s syndrome is an example of ___________
A. trisomy
B. monosomy
C. polyploidy
D. non of the above
59.
Genes in the sex chromosomes of human male are______________
A. heterozygous
B. hemizygous
C. homozygous
60.
A person with XO karyotype has ____________syndrome.
A. Down’s
B. Klienfelter’s
C. Turner’s
61.
Down’s syndrome is an example of ___________.
A. monosomic
B. trisomic
C. polyploidy
D. Edward’s
D. disomic
62.
Translation of mRNA begins from _____end and produce polypeptide from ________terminal end.
A. 3’ and carboxyl
B. 5’ and amino
C. 3’ and amino
D. 5’ and carboxyl
63.
A Barr body is found in normal female cells, and represents a(n) ___________.
A. polar body
B. degenerate nucleus
C. inactivated X-chromosome
64.
The end products of meiosis are:
A. 2 cells, genetically identical
B. 4 cells, genetically identical
D. dead oocyte
C. 2 cells, genetically different
D. 4 cells, genetically different
65.
In which stage below does the sister chromatids disjoin (separate)?
A. anaphase
B. metaphase
C. G I phase.
D. telophase
66.
Duplicated genetic material is divided equally at____________ during mitotic cell division.
A. prophase
B. anaphase
C. metaphase
D. S phase
67.
A single deletion of base in coding sequence results in _____.
A. transcription termination
B. a frameshift mutation
C. missense mutation
D. non of the above
68.
69.
70.
A brief period between cytokinesis I and meiosis II is ___________.
A. interphase
B. interkinesis
C. resting pahse
D. cytokinesis II
Chromosome number is reduced to half during ______________.
A. anaphase I
B. anaphase II
C. prophase I
D. prophase II
Non-sister chromatids are ___________.
A. chromatids attached to the same centromere
C. random chromatids of different centromere
B. chromatids of homologous chromosomes
D. none of the above
71.
In a Polymerase Chain Reaction 10 molecules of DNA will be amplified to _______ molecules of DNA
in 5 cycles:
A. 100
B. 50
C. 1000
D.100000
72.
Plasmids are ________.
A. virus
B. page
73.
74.
C. Bacteria
D. autonomously replicating DNA molecule
An example of point mutation of the codon UUU is ______.
A. GGU
B. AAA
C. UAU
D. UUU
When a population passes through a genetic bottleneck,
A. limited population size can cause genetic drift
B. Hady-Wineberg’s equilibrium is maintained
C. both A & B
D. non of the above
Matching: Select the best answer from the following list (A-C) to answer questions 75-77.
A. stabilizing selection
B. directional selection
C. disruptive selection
75.
Selection where extremes of the population (both high and low) are selected against
76.
Selection where two or more different phenotypes are simultaneously selected
77.
Selection which favors one extreme over others
78.
Speciation:
A. requires Hardy-Wineberg’s equilibrium
B. is not based on natural selection
C. requires reproductive isolation of evolving species from its ancestral species
D. applies only to plants, but not animals
79.
The geographical isolation of Kabiba and Albert squirrels appears to be leading to________.
A. sympatric speciation
B. allopatric speciation
C. hybridization
D. non of the above
80.
In humans, heterozygote advantage is demonstrated in _____________.
A. hemophilia
B. sickle cell anemia
C. Down’s syndrome
D. malaria