Biology
Chapter 1-5 Test Questions
p1/19
1. What is the appropriate term for an interacting group of individuals of a single type?
a. species
b. population
c. ecosystem
d. community
e. habitat
2. Which series of terms is in the sequence of biological organization from the simplest to the most
complex?
a. community, population, ecosystem, habitat, biosphere
b. tissue, organ system, organ, cell, organism
c. organism, ecosystem, community, population, biosphere
d. cell, tissue, organ, population, community
e. molecule, tissue, cell, organelle, organ
3. Which of the following is the fundamental unit of structure and function in living organisms?
a. organelle
b. tissue
c. cell
d. organ
e. organism
4. The chemical energy used by (most) organisms for metabolism and growth ultimately comes from
_____.
a. heat
b. the decomposition of plants and other organic debris
c. the sun
d. carbon dioxide
e. evolution
5. What is the molecular commonality that is the basis of life's variety?
a. protein
b. DNA
c. the ecosystem
d. natural selection
e. mutation
6. Which of the following domains is not prokaryotic?
a. Eukarya
b. Bacteria
c. Archaea
d. Fungi
e. The domain Bacteria, the domain Archaea, and the domain Eukarya all contain at least some
prokaryotic members.
Biology
Chapter 1-5 Test Questions
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7. Which kingdom within the domain Eukarya is composed of organisms that are generally unicellular
(single-celled)?
a. Plantae
b. Fungi
c. Animalia
d. Protista
e. Archaea
8. Eukaryotic organisms that decompose dead organisms and absorb the nutrients are generally found
in which kingdom?
a. Archaea
b. Bacteria
c. Plantae
d. Animalia
e. Fungi
9. Which one of the following statements is most clearly inductively derived?
a. If the animals observed require organic molecules as nutrients, then it can be concluded that all
animals require organic molecules as nutrients.
b. If all flying animals are birds, then it can be concluded that bats are birds.
c. Because worms lack bones, they are classified as invertebrates.
d. A paramecium moves by means of the rhythmic motion of its cilia.
e. An elephant is warm-blooded because it is a mammal.
10. A theory is _____.
a. a poorly supported idea that has little backing but might be correct
b. a well-supported concept that has broad explanatory power
c. the same thing as a hypothesis
d. not correct unless it is several years old
e. a concept that, once established in the scientific literature, can be modified but never rejected,
even when new scientific methods produce data that don't fit
11. Two garden plots were planted with corn. The soil was similar in each, and equal amounts of water
were applied to each plot. One plot was fertilized, and the other was not. The experimenters
measured the yield as bushels of corn from each plot. The plot that did not receive the fertilizer was
the _____.
a. experimental plot
b. control plot
c. controlled variable
d. dependent variable
e. emergent property
Biology
Chapter 1-5 Test Questions
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12. A hypothesis must be testable and falsifiable to be scientifically valid. Being testable and falsifiable
means that _____.
a. some conceivable observation or experiment could reveal whether a given hypothesis is correct
or incorrect
b. only a controlled experiment can indicate whether the hypothesis is correct or incorrect
c. the hypothesis has been proved wrong
d. there must be several options in the hypothesis to choose from, one of which is correct
e. if the hypothesis is not correct, the experiment was a failure
13. A company was testing a new drug it thought would help decrease the risk of transmission of viruses
from mother to fetus. In an experiment to test the compound, an investigator gave 400 pregnant
female rats a small dose of the experimental drug and inoculated each with a type of virus known to
cause disease in rats. At the same time, 400 other pregnant rats were given only the virus. Of the rat
pups born to the females that received both the virus and the drug, 203 showed no symptoms of the
disease; 205 rat pups born to the virus-only females showed symptoms. From this test, we can best
conclude _____.
a. that the drug is 5% effective and testing on humans should begin
b. that the drug seems to have little effect on viral transmission at the dosage given
c. nothing, because no independent variable could be identified
d. nothing, because no control group was used in the test of the drug
e. that the drug enhances disease progression
14. The best method for determining whether bean plants require sodium is to _____.
a. measure the amount of sodium in a few bean plants
b. measure how fast radioactive sodium enters the plant
c. look for sodium in leaf tissues using autoradiography
d. analyze root contents for sodium
e. grow bean plants with and without sodium
15. In experimental procedures, repetition of the procedures _____.
a. is not necessary if the scientist obtains enough background information
b. is too difficult for researchers doing fieldwork
c. is necessary before assuming that a given set of results is correct
d. should always be done by changing a variable
e. wastes money that can be better spent doing new experiments
16. Should an experiment test only one variable at a time? Why or why not?
a. Yes, an experiment should only test one variable at a time. Otherwise, the various variables
could be confused with the control.
b. Yes, an experiment should only test one variable at a time. This ensures that the experimental
outcome is clearly due to one identifiable factor.
c. No, it is not necessary to test only one variable per experiment, especially when time is of the
essence.
d. As long as the experiment is repeated a sufficient number of times, it doesn't matter how many
variables are used.
e. None of the above.
Biology
Chapter 1-5 Test Questions
p4/19
17. There are _____ naturally occurring elements.
a. 4
b. 25
c. 92
d. 108
e. 238
18. Which of the following is a trace element?
a. hydrogen
b. copper
c. oxygen
d. nitrogen
e. carbon
19. Which one of the following is not one of the four most abundant elements found in living systems?
a. hydrogen
b. nitrogen
c. carbon
d. zinc
e. oxygen
20. Which one of the following has negligible mass?
a. proton
b. neutron
c. electron
d. atom
e. element
21. Which one of the following subatomic particles has appreciable mass and lacks a charge?
a. proton
b. neutron
c. electron
d. element
e. molecule
22. The number of protons in an uncharged atom _____.
a. equals the number of electrons
b. equals the number of neutrons
c. varies with the different isotopes
d. equals the number of electrons in the outer orbital of the atom
e. determines its mass number
Biology
Chapter 1-5 Test Questions
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23. Consider a hypothetical atom with an atomic number of 4 and a net electronic charge of +1. How
many neutrons does this atom have?
a. 1
b. 3
c. 4
d. The answer cannot be determined from the information provided.
e. none of the above
24. An element has 8 protons, 9 neutrons, and 8 electrons. Its atomic number and atomic mass,
respectively, are _____.
a. 8 and 16
b. 8 and 17
c. 9 and 16
d. 9 and 17
e. 16 and 8
25. Two atoms of the same element must have the same number of _____.
a. neutrons
b. protons
c. electrons
d. neutrons plus protons
e. protons plus electrons
26. An uncharged atom of nitrogen (atomic number = 7) has _____.
a. 7 neutrons
b. 7 protons and 7 neutrons
c. 7 neutrons and 7 electrons
d. 7 protons and 7 electrons
e. 7 valence electrons
27. Isotopes of an element will always differ in _____.
a. atomic number
b. atomic mass
c. number of electrons
d. number of protons
e. none of the above
28. A particular carbon isotope has an atomic number of 6 and an atomic mass of 14. The respective
number of neutrons, protons, and electrons that this carbon isotope has is _____.
a. 6, 8, and 6
b. 6, 6, and 8
c. 8, 6, and 6
d. 8, 6, and 8
e. 8, 6, and 4
Biology
Chapter 1-5 Test Questions
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29. Phosphorus-32 (radioactive) has _____ than phosphorus-35 (normal).
a. 3 more neutrons
b. 3 more protons
c. 3 fewer neutrons
d. 3 fewer protons
e. three more atoms
30. The most common form of calcium has 20 protons, 20 neutrons, and 20 electrons. Which of the
following elements would be an isotope of calcium?
a. an atom with 21 protons, 20 neutrons, and 21 electrons
b. an atom with 20 protons, 20 neutrons, and 18 electrons
c. an atom with 20 protons, 21 neutrons, and 20 electrons
d. an atom with 21 protons, 21 neutrons, and 21 electrons
e. all of the above
31. Atomic chlorine has an atomic number of 17. It has _____ electrons in its third shell.
a. 2
b. 7
c. 8
d. 10
e. 17
32. The chemical characteristics or reactivity of an element depend mostly on the _____.
a. number of electrons in its outermost shell
b. number of electron shells present in the atoms
c. mean energy level of its electrons
d. degree to which it has more or fewer electrons than protons
e. number of protons plus the number of neutrons
33. How many electrons would be present in the valence shell of a sulfur atom (atomic number 16, mass
number 32)?
a. 1 electron
b. 2 electrons
c. 4 electrons
d. 6 electrons
e. 8 electrons
34. For most atoms, a stable configuration of electrons is attained when the atom _____.
a. has as many protons as neutrons
b. has moved all its electrons to its outermost shell
c. achieves a zero net charge
d. has 8 electrons in its outermost shell
e. none of the above
Biology
Chapter 1-5 Test Questions
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35. A polar covalent bond is a bond that _____.
a. is found only in H2O
b. is found only in molecules containing oxygen
c. shares electrons equally between atoms
d. ionizes
e. has shared electrons pulled closer to the more electronegative atom
36. A covalent bond is likely to be polar if _____.
a. the two atoms sharing electrons are equally electronegative
b. one of the atoms sharing electrons is much more electronegative
c. it is between two atoms that are both very strong electron acceptors
d. the two atoms sharing electrons are of the same element
e. it is between two atoms that are both very strong electron donors
37. When the proton number and electron number are unequal, the atom or molecule _____.
a. forms a covalent bond with another atom
b. is an ion
c. becomes part of a molecule
d. gains or loses a proton
e. gains or loses a neutron
38. A sodium atom has a mass number of 23. Its atomic number is 11. How many electrons does it have
if it is not an ion?
a. 11
b. 12
c. 22
d. 23
e. 34
39. Copper has an atomic number of 29 and a mass number of 64. What would result if an uncharged
copper atom lost two electrons?
a. The atom would have a double negative charge and be an ion.
b. The atomic number of the atom would remain 29, the mass number would be reduced to 62, and
the atom would be an anion.
c. The atomic number would remain 29, the mass number would increase to 66, and the atom
would be a cation with a -2 charge.
d. The atomic number would be reduced to 27, the mass number would remain 64, and the atom
would be an anion with a +2 charge.
e. The atomic number would remain 29, the mass number would remain 64, and the atom would be
a cation with a +2 charge.
40. Ionic bonds form as a result of _____.
a. attraction between atoms that have opposite charges
b. attraction between hydrogen and other atoms that share electrons unequally
c. sharing of electron pairs between atoms
d. unequal sharing of electrons between atoms
e. the asymmetric distribution of electrons in constant motion
Biology
Chapter 1-5 Test Questions
p8/19
41. A hydrogen bond _____.
a. is one in which two hydrogen atoms bond to each other
b. is one in which hydrogen is strongly attracted to a positively charged atom
c. is a function of hydrophobic interactions
d. is a weak chemical bond
e. is a strong chemical bond
42. Hydrogen bonds occur when _____.
a. a molecule with partial charges contacts a molecule without partial charges
b. a molecule with a low molecular weight is bonded to a molecule with a high molecular weight
c. two atoms achieve stable electron configurations by sharing electrons with each other
d. partial opposite charges on molecules come close enough to attract each other
e. none of the above
43. Which of the following statements is not true about chemical reactions?
a. They represent the way matter is created and destroyed.
b. They convert reactants to products.
c. They always have the same number of a given atom on each side of the equation arrow.
d. They involve the making and breaking of chemical bonds.
e. They can involve organic as well as inorganic molecules.
44. Which one of the following does the equation of a chemical reaction not tell us?
a. the number of atoms or molecules involved
b. the kinds of atoms or molecules involved
c. the direction in which the reaction occurs
d. the speed of the reaction
e. A chemical equation describes all the above features.
45. Which of the following statements describes a reversible reaction that has reached chemical
equilibrium?
a. The rate of the reverse reaction exceeds the rate of the forward reaction.
b. The rate of the reverse reaction equals the rate of the forward reaction.
c. The rate of the forward reaction exceeds the rate of the reverse reaction.
d. The forward and the reverse reactions have stopped.
e. The concentration of the reactants is equal to the concentration of the products.
46. Cells are surrounded by water, and cells themselves consist of about 70% to 95% water. As a result
_____.
a. the temperature of living things tends to change relatively slowly
b. a variety of nutrient molecules are readily available as dissolved solutes
c. waste products produced by cell metabolism can be easily removed
d. dissolved substances can be easily transported within a cell or between cells in multicellular
organisms
e. all of the above
Biology
Chapter 1-5 Test Questions
p9/19
47. Water is a polar molecule. This means that _____.
a. the opposite ends of the molecule have opposite electrical charges
b. water molecules are linear, like a pole
c. water is one of the many hydrophobic molecules
d. the atoms in water have equal electronegativities
e. all of the above are correct
48. The tendency of water molecules to stay close to each other as a result of hydrogen bonding _____.
a. provides the surface tension that allows leaves to float on water
b. is called cohesion
c. keeps water moving through the vessels in a tree trunk
d. acts to moderate temperature
e. all of the above
49. In a group of water molecules, hydrogen bonds form between _____.
a. two hydrogen atoms in different water molecules
b. the oxygen atoms in different water molecules
c. the oxygen atom in one water molecule and a hydrogen atom in another water molecule
d. the hydrogen atoms in a single water molecule
e. none of the above
50. Most of water's unique features (for example, its versatility as a solvent, ability to moderate
temperature, and cohesive behavior) result from the fact that _____.
a. hydrogen is the only element without any neutrons
b. oxygen attracts electrons more than hydrogen does
c. oxygen has only one stable isotope, but hydrogen has three
d. oxygen has two unfilled electron shells
e. More than one of the above is correct.
51. The partial charges on a water molecule occur because of _____.
a. the unequal sharing of electrons between the hydrogen and the oxygen atoms of a water
molecule
b. the achievement of a stable configuration by one atom of a bond but not by the other partner
c. covalent bonding
d. widespread ionization
e. the high electronegativity of hydrogen
52. You can fill a glass of water to just slightly above the rim without it spilling over the glass. What
property of water best explains this phenomenon?
a. surface tension
b. adhesion
c. its polarity
d. evaporative cooling
e. none of the above
Biology
Chapter 1-5 Test Questions
p10/19
53. Which example is not an effect of water's high specific heat?
a. Organisms are able to resist changes in their own temperatures.
b. Inland regions generally have milder climates than coastal regions.
c. Ocean temperatures are stabilized.
d. A large body of water can store a huge amount of heat from the sun, but only warm up a few
degrees.
e. None of the above.
54. The amount of heat required to change the temperature of 1 g of any substance by 1°C is defined as
_____.
a. the specific heat of that substance
b. 1 calorie
c. the heat of vaporization of that substance
d. 1 kilocalorie
e. molecular cohesion
55. The reason that coastal climates are more moderate than inland climates is due primarily to water's
high _____.
a. heat of fusion
b. surface tension
c. heat of vaporization
d. specific heat
e. density
56. Sweating has a cooling effect because of water's high _____.
a. heat of fusion
b. surface tension
c. heat of vaporization
d. specific heat
e. density
57. Because molecules of water are farther apart in ice than in liquid water, _____.
a.
ice floats
b.
ice is denser than liquid water
c.
ice expands when it melts
d.
ice vaporizes before liquid water does
e.
all of the above
58. Water is a very versatile solvent because water molecules are_____.
a. polar
b. nonpolar
c. ionic
d. hydrophobic
e. volatile
Biology
Chapter 1-5 Test Questions
p11/19
59. Sodium chloride (NaCl) dissolves in water because water molecules _____.
a. have a high specific heat
b. lose electrons
c. are polar
d. have a pH near 7
e. are less dense than NaCl molecules
60. Nonpolar molecules that cluster away from water molecules are called _____ molecules.
a. ionic
b. hydrophilic
c. hydrophobic
d. saponified
e. none of the above
61. Hydrophilic substances, but not hydrophobic substances, _____.
a. have charges and partial charges to which water molecules can adhere
b. have a higher bond energy than water
c. give up electrons to solvents
d. accept electrons from solvents
e. are repelled by water
62. Some substances, such as oil and gasoline, will not dissolve in water because _____.
a. their molecules are so large
b. their molecules have no charges or partial charges to which water molecules can adhere
c. they do not ionize
d. their electrons are so stable that they do not exchange atoms with water molecules
e. oil and gasoline are organic compounds
63. Hydrophobic molecules are _____ water.
a. attracted to
b. absorbed by
c. repelled by
d. neutralized by
e. polarized by
64. An acid is _____.
a. any compound with a pH
b. any compound that accepts hydrogen ions
c. a material that resists changes in the pH of a solution
d. a compound that donates hydrogen ions to a solution
e. a solution with a pH between 7 and 14
65. Adding acid tends to ____ of a solution.
a. increase the hydrogen ion concentration and raise the pH
b. increase the hydrogen ion concentration and lower the pH
c. decrease the hydrogen ion concentration and raise the pH
d. decrease the hydrogen ion concentration and lower the pH
e. either increase or decrease the pH, depending on the original acidity
Biology
Chapter 1-5 Test Questions
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66. Adding a base tends to _____ of a solution.
a. lower the hydrogen ion concentration and lower the pH
b. lower the hydrogen ion concentration and increase the pH
c. increase the hydrogen ion concentration and lower the pH
d. increase the hydrogen ion concentration and increase the pH
e. lower the hydroxide ion concentration and lower the pH
67. Which is an organic molecule?
a. Ne
b. O2
c. CH4
d. NaCl
e. H2O
68. Which element is most particularly associated with organic chemistry?
a. carbon
b. sulfur
c. nitrogen
d. hydrogen
e. oxygen
69. Carbon atoms are the most versatile building blocks of the molecules used by living organisms
because _____.
a. carbon is the central atom of carbon dioxide, a necessary molecule for photosynthesis
b. carbon is the central atom in urea, a molecule used by many living organisms to transport wastes
from the body
c. each carbon atom acts as an intersection point from which a molecule can branch off in up to
four directions
d. carbon can combine with hydrogen to form hydrocarbons
e. all of the above
70. The carbon atom is tetravalent; this means that _____.
a. carbon readily forms ionic bonds
b. carbon's first electron shell holds 4 electrons
c. a carbon atom can complete its valence shell by forming four covalent bonds
d. the bond angle between each bond is 90o, forming an arrangement like the points on a compass
e. carbon has a total of 4 electrons
Biology
Chapter 1-5 Test Questions
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71. The two compounds are related to each other by being _____.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
hydrocarbons
organic compounds
isomers
double-bonded compounds
all of the above
72. Which of these is found in all amino acids?
a.
-COOH
b.
-COH
c.
-OH
d.
-NH2
e.
Both -COOH and -NH
73. Glucose and hexanoic acid each contain six carbon atoms, but they have completely different
properties. Glucose is a nutrient found in food; hexanoic acid is poisonous. Their differences must be
due to different _____.
a.
monomers
b.
macromolecules
c.
isomers
d.
quaternary structures
e.
functional groups
74. Which one of the following molecules has a carboxyl functional group?
a.
R-NH2
b.
R-COH
c.
R-COOH
d.
R-OPO3-2
e.
R-SH
75. Which of the following functional groups is associated with a release of energy that cells can harvest
to perform many functions?
a.
amino
b.
phosphate
c.
sulfhydryl
d.
hydroxyl
e.
Carboxyl
76. Which of these is a thiol?
a. -SH
b. -COH
c. -OH
d. -NH2
e. none of the above
Biology
Chapter 1-5 Test Questions
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77. What is the process by which monomers are linked together to form polymers?
a. hydrolysis
b. monomerization
c. protein formation
d. coiling
e. dehydration synthesis
78. In a hydrolysis reaction, _____, and in this process water is _____. (Concept
a.
a polymer is broken up into its constituent monomers ... consumed
b.
a monomer is broken up into its constituent polymers ... produced
c.
monomers are assembled to produce a polymer ... consumed
d.
monomers are assembled to produce a polymer ... produced
e.
a polymer is broken up into its constituent monomers ... produced
79. The type of bond that forms to join monomers (such as sugars and amino acids) into polymers (such
as starch and proteins) is a(n) _____ bond.
a. hydrogen
b. covalent
c. ionic
d. peptide
e. van der Waals
80. Which of the following is a polymer?
a. testosterone, a steroid hormone
b. cellulose, a plant cell wall component
c. glucose, an energy-rich molecule
d. triacylglycerol, or fat
e. fructose, a component of sucrose
81. Cellulose is a _____ made of many _____.
a. polypeptide ... monomers
b. carbohydrate ... fatty acids
c. polymer ... glucose molecules
d. protein ... amino acids
e. lipid ... triacylglycerols
82. 6 .
Generally, animals cannot digest (hydrolyze) the glycosidic linkages between the glucose
molecules in cellulose. How then do cows get enough nutrients from eating grass?
a. They have to eat a lot of it.
b. Microorganisms in their digestive tracts hydrolyze the cellulose to individual glucose units.
c. Cows and other herbivores are exceptions and make some cellulose-digesting enzymes.
d. The flat teeth and strong stomach of herbivores break the cellulose fibers so that the cows get
enough nutrition from the cell contents.
e. All of the above.
Biology
Chapter 1-5 Test Questions
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83. 7 .
In what polysaccharide form do plants store glucose to be available later as an energy
source?
a. glycogen
b. cellulose
c. starch
d. protein
e. fatty acids
84. Which one of the following carbohydrate molecules has the lowest molecular weight?
a. sucrose
b. lactose
c. glucose
d. cellulose
e. chitin
85. Which one of the following molecules is a monosaccharide?
a. C51H98O6
b. C45H84O8PN
c. C6H12O6
d. C25H43O8
e. C22H49O10N5
86. At a conference, the speaker's grand finale was sautéing mealworms (insect larvae) in butter and
serving them to the audience. They were crunchy (like popcorn hulls) because their exoskeletons
contain the polysaccharide _____.
a. cellulose
b. linoleic acid
c. chitin
d. glycogen
87. Carbohydrates are used in our bodies mainly for _____.
a. membrane construction
b. structural molecules, such as hair and fingernails
c. building genetic material
d. energy storage and release
e. lipid storage
88. The polysaccharide that you are most likely to have eaten recently is _____.
a. chitin
b. starch
c. glucose
d. lactose
e. ribose
Biology
Chapter 1-5 Test Questions
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89. One characteristic shared by sucrose, lactose, and maltose is that _____.
a. they are all polysaccharides
b. they are all monosaccharides
c. they are all disaccharides
d. they all contain fructose
e. they are all indigestible by humans
90. A polysaccharide that is used for storing energy in human muscle and liver cells is _____.
a. glucose
b. glycogen
c. starch
d. chitin
e. cellulose
91. Disaccharides can differ from each other in all the following ways except _____.
a. in the number of monosaccharides they contain
b. in the type of carbonyl functional groups associated with the monosaccharide monomers
c. in the type of monomer involved
d. in the location of the glycosidic linkage
e. in the fatty acids they contain
92. Which one of the following components of a tossed salad will pass through the human digestive tract
and be digested the least?
a. sugar (in the dressing)
b. oil (in the dressing)
c. starch (in the croutons)
d. cellulose (in the lettuce)
e. protein (in the bacon bits)
93. Which is the term for compounds that do not mix with water?
a. phospholipids
b. hydrophobic
c. hydrophilic
d. proteins
e. hydrogen-bonded
94. Nutritionally, saturated triacylglycerols are considered to be less healthful than unsaturated
triacylglycerols. What is the difference between them?
a. Saturated triacylglycerols are fats; unsaturated triacylglycerols are carbohydrates.
b. Saturated triacylglycerols have more hydrogen atoms than unsaturated triacylglycerols.
c. Saturated triacylglycerols have more double bonds than unsaturated triacylglycerols.
d. Saturated triacylglycerols are liquid at room temperature.
e. All of the above.
Biology
Chapter 1-5 Test Questions
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95. The lipids that form the main structural component of cell membranes are _____.
a. triacylglycerols
b. proteins
c. cholesterol
d. carbohydrates
e. phospholipids
96. Which one of the following is a true statement comparing phospholipids and triacylglycerols (fats
and oils)?
a. Both molecules contain a phosphate group.
b. Triacylglycerols may be saturated or unsaturated, but all phospholipids are saturated.
c. Phospholipids are the primary storage form for fats in our bodies.
d. Phospholipid molecules have a distinctly polar "head" and a distinctly nonpolar "tail," whereas
triacylglycerols are predominantly nonpolar.
e. In nature, phospholipids occur in fused rings (sterol form), whereas triacylglycerols maintain a
straight-chain form.
97. The sex hormones estrogen, progesterone, and testosterone belong to which class of molecules?
a. proteins
b. amino acids
c. lipids
d. carbohydrates
e. nucleic acids
98. Manufacturers make vegetable oils solid or semisolid at room temperature by _____.
a. adding hydrogen atoms to the double bonds in the fatty acid hydrocarbon chains
b. removing hydrogen atoms and forming additional double bonds in the fatty acid hydrocarbon
chains
c. removing hydrogen atoms and forming additional single bonds in the fatty acid hydrocarbon
chains
d. adding hydrogen atoms to the single bonds of the fatty acid hydrocarbon chains
e. none of the above
99. Which one of the following is the major energy storage compound of plant seeds?
a. amylose
b. glycogen
c. cellulose
d. lipids
e. oils
100.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The overall three-dimensional shape of a polypeptide is called the _____.
double helix
primary structure
secondary structure
tertiary structure
quaternary structure
Biology
Chapter 1-5 Test Questions
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101.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Which of the following would probably not be affected when a protein is denatured?
primary structure
secondary structure
hydrogen bonds
tertiary structure
All of the above must be affected for the protein to be denatured.
102.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Which of the following lists ranks these molecules in the correct order by size?
water, sucrose, glucose, protein
protein, water, glucose, sucrose
water, protein, sucrose, glucose
protein, sucrose, glucose, water
glucose, water, sucrose, protein
103.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
To what does the term "polypeptide" refer?
organic molecules linked by dehydration reactions
organic monomers covalently bonded
amino acids linked by hydrolysis
carbohydrates with a hydrogen bond holding them together
none of the above
104.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The α helix and β pleated sheet represent which level of protein structure?
primary structure
secondary structure
tertiary structure
quaternary structure
pentiary structure
105.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The peptide bond is _____.
a hydrogen bond
an ionic bond
a covalent bond
a van der Waals interaction
none of the above
106.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Protein molecules are polymers (chains) of _____.
DNA molecules
fatty acid molecules
sucrose molecules
amino acid molecules
purines and pyrimidines
107.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The "primary structure" of a protein refers to _____.
the α helix or β pleated sheets
interactions among the side chains or R groups of the amino acids
coiling due to hydrogen bonding between amino acids
the weak aggregation of two or more polypeptide chains into one functional macromolecule
the sequence of amino acids
Biology
Chapter 1-5 Test Questions
108.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Which of the following do proteins and nucleic acids have in common?
They are both made of amino acids.
Their structures contain sugars.
They are hydrophobic.
They are large polymers.
They each consist of four basic kinds of subunits (monomers).
109.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
A glucose molecule is to starch as _____.
a steroid is to a lipid
a protein is to an amino acid
a nucleic acid is to a polypeptide
a nucleotide is to a nucleic acid
an amino acid is to a nucleic acid
p19/19
110. A shortage of phosphorus in the soil would make it especially difficult for a plant to manufacture
_____.
a. DNA
b. proteins
c. cellulose
d. fatty acids
e. sucrose
111. Which of the following describes a difference between DNA and RNA?
a. RNA molecules consist of a single polynucleotide chain, whereas DNA molecules consist of two
polynucleotide chains organized into a double helix.
b. One of their nitrogenous bases is different.
c. They contain different sugars.
d. The first and second choices are correct differences.
e. The first three choices all describe differences.
112.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
A nucleotide is made of which of the following chemical components?
a nitrogenous base, an amino acid, and a pentose sugar
a nitrogenous base, an amino acid, and a phosphate group
a nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, and a pentose sugar
a nitrogenous base, a fatty acid, and an amino acid
a series of nitrogenous bases, a nucleic acid backbone, and a hexose sugar