General Chemistry
0112001 A
12 11002 51 0317
165509
There are only four fundamental types of force in the universe.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0112002 B
12 11004 51 18251826182709
Converting a common logarithm (base 10) to a natural logarithm
(base e) can be accomplished by multiplying by 2.303.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0120001 A
12 11006 31 15250787007209
Haber developed a process for synthesizing ammonia.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0120002 B
12 11008 31 14860606018909
More elements were discovered before 1800 than after.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0120003 B
12 11010 31 14860189060609
The last of the elements known today was discovered prior to
1940.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0130001 B
12 11012 31 01960066000409
Hydrogen compounds are known as halogens.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0130002 B
12 11013
Titanyl sulfate is Ti SO .
4
2 4
9 A. True B. False
0043
51
14610701022409
0130003 B
12 11015 31 02241323
09
It is incorrect to write P O for the formula for phosphoric
4
25
oxide.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0130004 A
12 11017 31 08460066003509
A hydride is a compound containing hydrogen in the _1 oxidation
state.
9 A. True B. false.
0043
0130005 A
12 11019 31 08461296117809
Some hydrides do not contain the hydride ion.
9 A. True B. false.
0043
0130006 B
12 11020 31 08130066019609
An anhydrous compound is one which contains no hydrogen.
9 A. True B. false.
0043
0130007 A
12 11022 31 00770804002809
Acidic anhydrides are oxides of nonmetals.
9 A. True B. false.
0043
0130008 B
12 11023 31 14861461018909
All of the elements are named following a set pattern.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0130009 B
12 11025 31
Na S is named sodium sulfate.
4 2
9 A. True B. False
0040
14861461001809
0130010 B
12 11026 31 148604581178
5
2_
The SO
ion is called a sulfate ion.
4
3
9 A. True B. False
0040
0130011 B
12 11028 31 054818390730
5
3+
A gaseous ferric ion (Fe ; Z = 26) and a gaseous chromium atom
(Z=24) are isoelectronic.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0160002 AACBABB 73 11030 52 049980010195149006
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions refer to the kinetic_molecular theory.
2After each item number on the answer sheet, blacken space
2 A. if the item refers to observational or experimental
2
evidence which supports the theory
2 B. if the item refers to an hypothesis or an assumption
2
concerning the theory which was formulated long
2
before there was experimental evidence to test it,
2
or has not as yet been entirely proven to be true
2
experimentally
2 C. if the item refers to something which has nothing to do
0
with the theory
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The volume of a gas increases with an increase in temperature when
1 the pressure remains constant.
ETS2 OS
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 A gas always exerts pressure no matter how much it expands.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 Most gases are colorless.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
Gases are composed of small particles called molecules which are
4 relatively far apart and in rapid motion.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
5 Gases diffuse readily.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
6 Molecules are perfectly elastic.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
9 Molecules on colliding lose no energy.
0170001 A
13 11043
Potential energy is
A. energy of position
B. energy of motion
9 C. heat energy
31
80018002
11 06
ETS2 OS
0170002 B
12 11045 31 149504710149
Appropriate conversion factors would allow you to convert from a
volume measurement in cubic feet to a density measurement in
grams per cubic centimeter.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0170003 B
12 11048 32 14860795
The carat unit of weight is larger than a gram.
9 A. True B. False
0040
09
0170004 B
12 11050 31 14860445015009
A 1000_carat diamond weighs more than one kg.
9 A. True B. False
0172001 A
12 11051 31 01500149
09
Nearly all countries, including England and excepting America,
have already adopted or are now adopting a metric system as the
single recognized system of measurement.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0009
0172002 A
12 11054 31 01500385149409
The simplification in using the metric system is that, when
converting units within the system, a decimal point is moved.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0172003 B
0040
12 11056
31
14861316079509
AMU are the same as grams.
9 A. True B. False
0174001 B
13 11057 32 01611403
Which of the following represents the highest temperature?
5
o
o
o
o
9 A. 40 F B. 40 C C. 304 K D. 492 R
0176001 A
12 11060 32 0207
09
The specific heat of a substance is expressed in calories
per gram per degree centigrade.
A. True
9 B. False
0176002 B
12 11062 32 0207
09
The specific heat is the number of calories required to
raise the temperature of any sample of a specific compound
to a specific final temperature.
A. True
9 B. False
0176003 B
12 11065 32 0207
09
The specific heat of a compound changes as the mass of
compound changes.
A. True
9 B. False
0176004 B
12 11067 32 02070206
09
Two equal masses of different compounds at the same
temperature can have the same heat content only if their
specific heats are different.
A. True
9 B. False
0176005 B
13 11070 32 0207
05
The specific heat of a compound is
A. the amount of heat required to melt 1 g of the
compound.
B. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature
of 1 g one degree C.
C. the quantity of heat required to increase the
9
temperature one degree C.
0176006 A
12 11074 52 02070648
09
Consider two compounds, A and B, of equal mass and at the
same temperature, to each of which is added equal amounts of
heat. If the specific heat of B is larger than the specific
0019
heat of A, then the final temperature of a will be higher
than the final temperature of B.
A. True
9 B. False
0176007 B
12 11078 52 02070648
09
Consider two compounds, A and B, of equal mass and at the
same temperature, to each of which is added equal amounts of
heat. If the specific heat of B is larger than the specific
heat of A, then the final temperature of B will be higher
than the final temperature of A.
A. True
9 B. False
0176008 B
12 11082 52 02070648
09
Consider two compounds, A and B, of equal mass and at the
same temperature, to each of which is added equal amounts of
heat. If the final temperature of B is higher than the final
temperature of A, then the specific heat of B is greater
than the specific heat of A.
A. True
9 B. False
0176009 A
12 11086 52 02070648
09
Consider two compounds, a and b, of equal mass and at the
same temperature, to each of which is added equal amounts of
heat. If the final temperature of b is higher than the final
temperature of a, then the specific heat of b is smaller
than the specific heat of A.
A. True
9 B. False
0177001 C
13 11090 31 062203290054
Violet light and red light differ in their
9 A. speed B. nature C. frequency.
0026
0177002 A
13 11092 31 061506641340
White light can be separated into its constituent wavelengths by
means of a
9 A. prism B. mirror C. vacuum.
0026
0177003 A
13 11094 31 039206161340
Of the types listed below, the electromagnetic radiation with the
greatest frequency is
9 A. x_rays B. visible light C. microwaves.
0026
0177004 C
13 11096 31 033701890616
The atomic number of an element can be determined directly from
its
9 A. color B. density C. x_ray spectrum.
0026
0177005 C
15 11098 32 01591340061609
Consider the following regions of the electromagnetic spectrum:
1. x_ray 2. ultraviolet 3. visible 4. infrared
The energy associated with individual quanta of these regions
increases in the order
9 A. 1,2,3,4 B. 3,4,2,1 C. 4,3,2,1 D. 3,1,4,2 E. 1,4,3,2
0009
0177006 B
12 11102 31 0615
09
Wavelength is defined as the distance between a crest and
the succeeding trough of a wave.
A. True
9 B. False
0178001 A
12 11104 31 80030161018609 04
Air has a density of 1.29 grams per liter at standard temperature
and pressure.
A. True
9 B. False
2WVW
0178002 A
12 11106 32 01690438018609
Generally, when a solid melts to form a liquid, the density
decreases.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0178003 A
12 11108 32 01860195
09
If a cube with a density of 4 g/cc has a mass of 5 g, then
its volume is 1.25 cc.
A. True
9 B. False
0178004 A
12 11110 32 01860195
09
A crystal has a density of 9 g/cc and a mass of 3 g. What
is its volume?
9 A. 0.33 cc's B. 3.0 cc's C. 27./ cc's
0178005 A
12 11112 32 01860195
09
If a 5 g cube has a density of 2 g/cc, then its volume is
2.5 cc's.
A. True
9 B. False
0178006 B
12 11114 32 01860195
09
If a 5 g sphere has a density of 2 g/cc, then its volume is
0.4 cc's.
A. True
9 B. False
0178007 B
12 11116 32 01860195
09
If a 2 g block has a density of 5 g/cc, then its volume is
10 cc's.
A. True
9 B. False
0178008 B
12 11118 32 01860195
09
If a cube has a density of 5 g/cc and a mass of 4 g, then
its volume is 1.25 cc's.
A. True
9 B. False
0178009 A
12 11120 32 01860195
09
If a cube has a density of 6 g/cc and a mass of 8 g, then
its volume is 1.33 cc's.
A. True
9 B. False
0178010 B
12 11122 32 01860195
09
A piece of manganese has a density of 7.0 g/cc and a mass of
3.5 grams. It therefore will have a volume of 2.0 cc's.
A. True
9 B. False
0178011 A
12 11124 32 01860195
09
If a 4 cc block has a density of 3 g/cc, then its mass is
12 g.
A. True
9 B. False
0178012 B
12 11126 32 01860195
09
If a 3 cc block has a density of 3 g/cc, then its mass is 1 g.
A. True
9 B. False
0178013 B
12 11128 32 01860195
09
If a 4 cc block has a density of 3 g/cc, then its mass is
1.33 g.
A. True
9 B. False
0178014 B
12 11130 32 01860195
09
A 6 cc block with a density of 20 g/cc would have a mass of
1.2 g.
A. True
9 B. False
0178015 A
12 11132 32 01860195
09
An 8 cc block with a density of 2 g/cc would have a mass of
16 g.
A. True
9 B. False
0178016 B
12 11134 32 01860195
09
A 4 cc block with a density of 2 g/cc would have a mass of
2 g.
A. True
9 B. False
0178017 B
12 11136 32 01860195
09
If a cube with a density of 3.0 g/cc has a volume of 6 cc's,
then its mass is 0.5 g.
A. True
9 B. False
0178018 B
12 11138 32 01860195
09
If a cube with a density of 6.0 g/cc has a volume of 3 cc's,
then its mass is 2 g.
A. True
9 B. False
0178019 B
12 11140 32 01860195
09
If a cube with a density of 6.0 g/cc has a volume of 3 cc's,
then its mass is 2 g.
A. True
9 B. False
0178020 A
12 11142 32 01860195
09
If a 4 g cube is 2.0 cc's in volume, then its density is 2.0 g/cc.
A. True
9 B. False
0178021 B
12 11144 32 01860195
09
If a 12 g cube is 4.0 cc's in volume, then its density is
48.0 g/cc.
A. True
9
B. False
0178022 B
12 11146 32 01860195
09
If a 3 cc block has a mass of 3 g, then its density is 3
g/cc.
A. True
9 B. False
0178023 A
12 11148 32 01860195
09
If a 5 cc block has a mass of 10 g , then its density is 2
g/cc.
A. True
9 B. False
0178024 B
12 11150 32 01860195
09
If a 3 cc block has density of 2 g, then its density is 6
g/cc.
A. True
9 B. False
0178025 A
12 11152 32 01860195
09
If a 2 cc block has a mass of 5 g, then its density is 2.5
g/cc.
A. True
9 B. False
0178026 B
12 11154 32 01860195
09
If a 1.5 cc block has a mass of 4 g, then its density is 6
g/cc.
A. True
9 B. False
0190001 A
12 11156 31 00398003
Gold may be found uncombined in nature
A. True
9 B. False
09
2WVW
0190002 A
12 11157 31 0027023680039004
Zinc sulfide is a white precipitate
A. True
9 B. False
2WVW
0190003 B
12 11158 31 14931468019209
Extensive properties characterize, chemically identify, a
substance.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0190004 A
12 11160 51 14680037018609
In trying to identify a certain liquid compound "L", a student
finds that its density, freezing and boiling points, absorption
spectrum, and behavior in a chromatography column are
indistinguishable from those of known compound "Z". The student
can safely assume L and Z are one and the same compound.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0190005 B
12 11165 31 14860028018909
About 50% of the known elements are nonmetals.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0190006 A
12 11166 31 1149
Rubbing alcohol feels cooler on the skin than does water
because water has a lower vapor pressure.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0190007 A
12 11168 31 01960498
Hydrogen has a very low normal boiling point because its
molecules are symmetrical and have few electrons.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0190008 A
12 11170 31 01950114
The molar volume of a liquid changes very little with changing
pressure.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0190009 B
12 11172 31 0008
Water in an open thermos bottle will usually be colder than water
in an open drinking glass.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0190010 B
12 11174 31 0498
When a liquid is at its boiling point, all the molecules have the
same kinetic energy.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0190011 A
12 11176 51 1701
Amorphous materials ordinary become less viscous as they are
heated.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0190012 A
12 11178 31 1701
Amorphous materials cannot cleave to reveal crystal faces.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0190013 B
12 11180 31 01281149
A substance with a high molecular weight will always have a lower
vapor pressure than will one with a lower molecular weight, at
any given temperature.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0190014 A
12 11183 31 0498
The normal boiling point of a liquid can be changed by changing
the pressure.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0190015 A
0003
12 11185
31
0183
5
+
A ferric oxide (Fe O ) sol may be coagulated by adding H .
4
23
9 A. True B. False
0190016 A
12 11188 31 0485
A catalyst alters the rate of a reaction without taking part in
it
9 A. True B. False
0003
0190017 A
12 11190 31 0494
The frequency of collision between reacting particles is
increased by increasing the temperature.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0190019 A
12 11192 31 1548
Relaxation spectroscopy is used to study reactions in which the
rate of mixing of reactants is ordinarily much faster than their
rate of chemical combination.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0190020 B
12 11195 31 0490
The triple_point temperature of water is slightly less than tne
normal freezing point.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0190021 A
12 11197 31 0555
Whenever a pure liquid freezes, the temperature remains constant.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0190022 A
12 11199 31 0558
The lines on a phase diagram represent equilibrium between two
0003
phases.
9 A. True B. False
0190023 A
12 11201 31 04090438
When a supercooled liquid freezes, some of the potential energy
of the particles is converted into kinetic energy.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0190024 A
12 11203 31 1152
Spontaneous freezing of water at _10 degrees C and constant
pressure is accompanied by a decrease in free energy, if the ice
formed is kept at _10 degrees C.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0190025 B
12 11206 31 0490
If heat is continuously added to solid, liquid, and gaseous
water, all in equilibrium at the triple point, the solid and
liquid phases will disappear simultaneously if the pressure is
kept constant.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0190026 B
12 11209 31 0490
If the pressure of a sample of carbon dioxide at the triple
point is increased, the phase remaining will be solid if the
temperature is held constant.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0190027 A
12 11212 31 0511
If heat is added to ice at _1 degrees C, the average kinetic
energy of the molecules will always increase.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0190028 B
12 11214 31 0245
The temperature at which a liquid and a gas are at equilibrium is
always the same if the pressure is the same.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0190029 A
12 11216 31 0409
Supercooled water may be frozen by adding a snowflake.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0190030 A
12 11218 31 0245
If a liquid and its vapor are at equilibrium and the pressure is
increased, heat is evolved.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0190031 A
12 11220 31 0491
The rates of most reactions change as the reactions proceed, even
if the temperature is held constant.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0190032 A
12 11222 31 0114
Increasing the total pressure in a gas phase reaction increases
the fraction of the collisions which are effective in producing
reaction.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0190033 A
12 11225 31 0407
In stepwise reactions the rate_determining step is the slow one.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0190034 A
12 11227 31 04850996
An enzyme is a biochemical catalyst.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0192001 A
12 11228 31 05041153019209
Changes in physical state, like melting and boiling, tend to
resolve matter into pure component substances.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0192002 B
12 11230 32 01691149016109
For all solids and liquids, vapor pressure increases linearly
with temperature.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0192003 B
12 11232 31 0652
The mean free path of molecules in a liquid is greater than that
of molecules in a gas.
9 A. True B. False
0192004 A
12 11234 31 0524
The statement "gases are more compressible than liquids" means
that it is easier to increase the pressure of a gas than that of
a liquid.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0192005 A
12 11237 31 0153
Water in an open container will eventually evaporate.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0192006 A
12 11239 31 11740195
The molar volume of liquid water at 100 degrees C is less than
that of gaseous water at the same temperature.
0003
0003
9
A. True B. False
0192007 A
12 11241 31 0423
The molecules in liquid water at 100 degrees C have a lower
average potential energy than the molecules in gaseous water at
the same temperature.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0192008 B
12 11244 51 11490498
The vapor pressure of chloroform at its normal boiling point is
greater than that of water at its normal boiling point.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0192009 A
12 11246 31 14180300
A much smaller fraction of the space occupied by a liquid is
"empty" than in the case of a gas.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0192010 B
12 11248 31 1412
It takes more time to hard_boil an egg on a high mountain than at
sea level because the atmospheric pressure is lower on the
mountain.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0192011 A
12 11251 31 0494
Liquids diffuse much more slowly than gases, because the
molecules in a liquid collide less frequently.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0192012 B
12 11253 31 0161
Molecules in a gas move at the same average speed as the
molecules in a liquid if the gas and the liquid are at the same
temperature.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0192013 A
12 11256 31 04331149
A barometer measures the equilibrium vapor pressure of the air.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0192014 A
12 11258 31 11490161
The vapor pressure of a liquid increases as the temperature is
raised.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0192015 C
13 11260 31 050405881427
Which of the following states of matter is characterized by
the most random motion of molecules?
9 A. solid B. liquid C. gas
0192016 A
13 11262 31 050405881359
Which of the following states of matter is characterized by
the most highly ordered array of molecules?
9 A. solid
B. liquid
C. gas
0192017 C
13 11264 31 044205880504
Which state of matter is characterized by the highest
intermolecular forces of attraction?
9 A. solid
B. liquid
C. gas
0192018 A
13 11266 31 050405881427
Which state of matter is characterized by the lowest
intermolecular forces of attraction?
9 A. gas
B. liquid
C. solid
0192019 C
13 11268 31 050405881427
Which state of matter has the longest range intermolecular
forces?
9 A. gas
B. liquid
C. solid
0192020 A
13 11270 31 050405880524
Which state of matter is most easily compressed into a
smaller volume?
9 A. gas
B. liquid
C. solid
0192021 C
13 11272 31 05040588
Which state of matter has the lowest fluidity?
9 A. gas
B. liquid
C. solid
0192022 B
13 11274 31 050405881418
Which state of matter is characterized by portions of high
molecular order which quickly disperse forming new portions
of order?
9 A. gas
B. liquid
C. solid
0192023 A
13 11277 51 08710558
A system consists of two phases and is composed of liquid
water and liquid benzene. Which of the following is true?
A. Water and benzene do not mix.
B. The system is a homogeneous mixture.
9 C. Benzene dissolves in water.
0192201 CCBA
43 11281
MACROITEM STEM
52
033003318001169006
ETS2 OS
2After the number on the answer sheet which corresponds to
2that of each conclusion, blacken space
2 A. if the conclusion is the best answer to the problem
2 B. if the conclusion is the least satisfactory answer to the
2
problem
2 C. if the conclusion is neither the best answer nor the least
2
satisfactory answer to the problem. (Two conclusions
0
should receive this mark).
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The dark lines of the solar spectrum are due to the fact that
The atoms of the sun's atmosphere absorb all of the light of certain
1 definite frequencies.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
The relatively dark lines of the solar spectrum are due to the
fact that the atoms of the heated and rarefied gases of the
sun's atmosphere both absorb and emit light of certain definite
2 frequencies.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
The atmosphere of the sun contains sodium atoms which absorb light
of certain definite frequencies and emit light of the same
3 frequencies.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
The atoms of the surface of the sun are incandescent and emit
light which gives a continuous spectrum, while the atoms
of the sun's atmosphere are not incandescent and thus absorb
9 light of certain definite frequencies.
0192202 ACACCAB 73 11296 52 1 028602939019149506
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions refer to Figure 19.
2A piston is pushed down in a cylinder of air as shown in the
2diagram. After each item number on the answer sheet, blacken
2space
2 A. if the statement is true and the reason given is true
2 B. if the statement is true, but the reason given is false
0 C. if the statement is itself false
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The gas heats up, because the average kinetic energy of the
1 molecule has been increased.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 The number of molecules is increased, because the gas heats up.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
The gas heats up, because energy is expended in pushing down
3 on the piston.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
4 The molecules slow down, because they are being pushed together.
ETS2 OS
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
The cylinder cools off, because the molecules absorb heat
5 from it.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
The pressure increases, because the air molecules collide more
6 frequently with the walls of the cylinder.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
The temperature of the gas increases, because the air molecules
9 lose energy as they collide with each other.
0192203 ACCAABCB 83 11308 52 049904720114119006
MACROITEM STEM
2To answer the following questions, consider the following
2statements to apply to the kinetic theory of an ideal gas.
2Mark space
2 A. if a statement is true without qualification
2 B. if a statement is false without qualification
2 C. if a statement may be either true or false depending
0
on some further conditions
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
When a certain gas is made denser, the molecules are then closer
1 together.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 When a gas is heated it expands.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 When a gas is heated its pressure rises.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
When the temperature of a gas is raised, the average speed
4 of the molecules increases.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
When molecular collisions are more frequent but the speeds are
5 unchanged, the pressure is greater.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
When molecular collisions are more frequent but the speeds are
6 unchanged, the temperature is greater.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
When the molecules of a gas are crowded closer together, their
7 average speed increases.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 8
When a gas is compressed adiabatically, heat is generated by
9 friction between the molecules.
0192204 C
13 11321 52 0542800103401306
Two identical leak_proof balloons a and b are filled, a with
hydrogen and b with helium, so that at room temperature and pressure
their volumes are equal. When they are taken together to the top of
ETS OS
ETS2 OS
a mountain
A. 1 will become appreciably bigger than 2
B. 2 will become appreciably bigger than 1
9 C. 1 and 2 will have approximately equal volumes
0192205 AACBABB 73 11326 72 030702788001119006
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions refer to the kinetic_molecular
2theory. After each item number on the answer sheet,
2blacken space
2 A. if the item refers to observational or experimental
2
evidence which supports the theory.
2 B. if the item refers to an hypothesis or an assumption
2
concerning the theory which was formulated long
2
before there was experimental evidence to test it,
2
or has not as yet been entirely proven to be true
2
experimentally.
2 C. if the item refers to something which has nothing to
0
do with the theory.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The volume of a gas increases with an increase in temperature
1 when the pressure remains constant.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 A gas always exerts pressure no matter how much it expands.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 Most gases are colorless.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
Gases are composed of small particles called molecules
4 which are relatively far apart and in rapid motion.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
5 Gases diffuse readily.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
6 Molecular collisions are perfectly elastic.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
9 Molecules on colliding lose no energy.
0192206 C
13 11339 52 0542019680011306
Two identical balloons 1 and 2 are filled, 1 with
hydrogen and 2 with helium, so that at room temperature and pressure
their volumes are equal. When they are taken together to the top
of a mountain, assuming that there is no leakage of gas from
either balloon.
A. 1 will become appreciably bigger than 2
B. 2 will become appreciably bigger than 1
9 C. 1 and 2 will have approximately equal volumes
ETS2 OS
ETS2 OS
0192207 A
12 11345 51 03750706077109
The activity of an ideal gas is always numerically equal to its
partial pressure.
9 A. True B. false.
0043
0192208 B
12 11347 51 03751404077109
The activity of a real gas is always numerically less than its
partial pressure.
9 A. True B. false.
0043
0192209 B
12 11349 32 10970192018609
Two separate samples of the same gaseous substance at the same
pressure would have densities in the same ratio as their absolute
temperatures.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0192210 B
12 11352 32 01131392016109
The fact that a sample of gas would not have zero volume at the
absolute zero of temperature is a consequence of the fact that
absolute zero cannot be reached.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0192211 A
12 11355 31 14860511049909
The kinetic energy of an H molecule is lower than that of an O
4
2
2
molecule traveling at the same speed.
9 A. True B. False
0192212 A
12 11358 31 14860511016109
The average kinetic energy of molecules of different gases is the
same at a given temperature.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0192213 B
12 11360 31 14860186011309
A high density is a characteristic of gases.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0192214 B
12 11361 31 01130321034809
Of all the gases in the atmosphere, nitrogen is the least
reactive.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0192215 A
12 11363 31 07060128
The molecular weight of a gas may be calculated from its density
at a given pressure and temperature.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0003
0192216 B
12 11365 31 1429
Gases which have low critical temperatures often show near_ideal
behavior.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0192217 B
12 11367 31 1429
Gases which have high critical pressures usually have low
critical temperatures.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0192218 A
12 11369 31 0258
The rate of diffusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the
square root of its density.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0192219 B
12 11371 31 0706
The perfect_gas law can be used only for 1 mole of gas.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0192220 A
12 11373 31 0710
The vapor pressure of water is essentially independent of the
total pressure.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0192221 A
12 11375 31 0706
The ratio of PV to T is independent of the pressure for a given
quantity of ideal gas.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0192222 B
12 11377 31 0706
Equal weights of different gases contain the same number of
molecules at STP.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0192223 A
12 11379 31 0511
The most probable kinetic energy of the molecules in a gas
increases as the temperature is increased.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0192224 A
12 11381 31 1392
An ideal gas would have no volume at absolute zero.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0192225 B
12 11383 31 0706
At low pressures the molecules of a gas are moving more slowly
than at high pressures.
0003
9
A. True B. False
0192226 A
12 11385 31 0706
All gases, except hydrogen and helium, undergo cooling when they
are allowed to expand freely at room temperature.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0192227 A
12 11387 31 0511
The molecules in liquid water at 100 degrees C have a lower
average kinetic energy than the molecules in gaseous water at the
same temperature
9 A. True B. False
0003
0192228 A
12 11390 31 11490128
At 25 degrees C the vapor pressure of chloroform, CHCl , is
4
3
higher than that of carbon tetrachloride, CCl , because CHCl has
4
4
3
a lower molecular weight.
9 A. True B. False
0192229 A
12 11394 31 1429
When a liquid is at the critical temperature, its vapor pressure
is the same as the critical pressure.
9 A. True B. False
0192230 B
13 11396 32 06540884
0540
At standard temperature and pressure, how would the volume
occupied by one mole each of diatomic chlorine and monatomic
xenon compare ? ( atomic numbers Cl = 17 , Xe = 54 )
A. the chlorine volume is greater than that of xenon
B. the chlorine volume is equal to that of xenon
9 C. the chlorine volume is less than that of xenon
0192231 C
13 11401 32 06540884
0540
At standard temperature and pressure, how would the volume
occupied by one mole each of diatomic nitrogen and monatomic
neon compare? (atomic numbers N = 7, Ne = 10)
A. the nitrogen volume is less than that of neon
B. the nitrogen volume is greater than that of neon
9 C. the nitrogen volume is equal to that of neon
0192232 A
13 11406 32 06540884
0540
At standard temperature and pressure, how would the volume
occupied by one mole each of diatomic oxygen and monatomic
krypton compare ? ( atomic numbers O = 8 , Kr = 36 )
A. the oxygen volume is equal to that of krypton
0003
0003
9
B. the oxygen volume is greater than that of krypton
C. the oxygen volume is less than that of krypton
0192233 B
13 11411 32 06540884
0540
At standard temperature and pressure, how would the volume
occupied by one mole each of monatomic helium and monatomic
xenon compare ? ( atomic numbers He = 2 , Xe = 54 )
A. the helium volume is greater than that of xenon
B. the helium volume is equal to that of xenon
9 C. the helium volume is less than that of xenon
0192234 C
13 11416 32 06540884
0540
At standard temperature and pressure, how would the volume
occupied by one mole each of diatomic fluorine and monatomic
argon compare ? ( atomic numbers F = 9 , Ar = 18 )
A. the fluorine volume is less than that of argon
B. the fluorine volume is greater than that of argon
9 C. the fluorine volume is equal to that of argon
0192401 B
12 11421 32 03930293139409
Gasoline, whose molecules have symmetrical arrangements of
positive and negative charge, is an example of a nonpolar liquid.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0192402 A
12 11423 31 04980192012809
Boiling points of molecular substances usually increase with
molecular weight.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0192403 A
12 11425 31 0438
In a liquid the attractive forces between the molecules are
opposed by the repulsive forces between the electron clouds of
neighboring molecules.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0192404 A
12 11428 31 14860174141209
Water will boil at 20 degrees C provided the atmospheric pressure
is equal to the vapor pressure of the water.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0192405 B
12 11430 31 14860498011409
The normal boiling point of a liquid varies with atmospheric
pressure.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0192406 B
0040
12 11432
31
14860498051109
When a liquid is at its boiling point, all the molecules have the
same kinetic energy.
9 A. True B. False
0192407 B
12 11434 31 14860505043809
At a given temperature, all molecules in a liquid are moving at
the same speed.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0192408 A
12 11436 31 14860791043809
Evaporation of a liquid is a physical process.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0192409 B
12 11437 31 01140113024509
The pressure exerted by a sample of gaseous benzene in
equilibrium with liquid benzene will depend on the container
volume.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0192410 A
12 11440 31 016110400871
Higher temperatures would favor the production of more product in
the following system: benzene(l) <=====> benzene(g).
9 A. True B. False
0192411 A
12 11442 31 04980177
An ordinary table top will serve as an effective hot plate for
boiling liquid air.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0003
0192412 B
12 11444 31 04980008
The boiling point of water is always 100 degrees C.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0192413 A
12 11446 31 13590438
In a liquid there may be a temporary and localized ordering of
neighbors around a molecule.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0192414 AA
22 11448 32 11490498043890
MACROITEM STEM
At 50 degrees C, the vapor pressure of liquid A is found to be 50
0 mm Hg; that of liquid B, 125 mm Hg.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
One can be reasonably sure
that liquid A has the higher normal boiling point.
1 A. True B. False
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
0009
For these same two liquids, one can state that the liquid with
the higher surface tension at 50 degrees C is probably A.
9 A. True B. False
0192415 B
13 11453 51 05240438
The compressibility of liquids is
A. very great because the molecules of a liquid slide
easily over one another
B. very small because molecules of liquid are quite close
together
9 C. extremely dependent on intermolecular forces
0192416 A
12 11457 31 0122
Brownian motion is more pronounced for small particles than for
large ones.
9 A. True B. False
0192601 A
12 11459 31 02448004001909 04
The geometric form of crystals is the result of the orderly
arrangement of molecules, atoms, and ions.
A. True
9 B. False
0192602 A
12 11461 31 06651678027409
The phenomenon of interference makes possible the use of x_ray in
crystal analysis.
9 A. True B. False
0003
2WVW
0041
0192603 B
12 11463 31 05891213024409
Diamond is an example of an ionic crystal.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0192604 A
12 11464 31 02370244029309
Covalent crystals consist of arrays of separate molecules.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0192605 A
12 11466
Are all solids crystalline?
9 A. Yes B. No
31
0192606 B
12 11467 31
Some solids may evaporate.
9 A. True B. False
01691161
09
14860169015309
0192607 A
12 11468 31 0173
Metallic solids have hardnesses which vary markedly from one
metal to another.
0009
0040
0003
9
A. True B. False
0192608 A
12 11470 31 0169
X_ray diffraction shows that solids generally have a very ordered
structure.
9 A. True B. False
0192609 A
12 11472 31 06160612
An x_ray diffraction photograph is a picture of the inside of
a crystal.
9 A. True B. False
0192610 A
12 11474 31 0169
Lattice defects are quite common.
9 A. True B. False
0192611 A
12 11475 31 15931932
09
An isomorphous substance also can be crystalline.
A. True
9 B. False
0192612 A
12 11477 31 15931933
09
A polymorphous substance also can be crystalline.
A. True
9 B. False
0192613 B
12 11479 31 1701
09
Substances which are crystalline also can be amorphous.
A. True
9 B. False
0192614 A
12 11481 31 15931933
09
Substances which are crystalline also can be polymorphous.
A. True
9 B. False
0192615 B
12 11483 31 0715
09
The unit cell is that section of a crystal which contains
one formula weight of the compound
A. True
9 B. False
0192616 A
12 11485 31 0715
09
The unit cell is the smallest section of a crystal which
describes the structure of the crystal.
A. True
0003
0003
0003
9
B. False
0192617 B
12 11487 51 0715
09
The smallest section of a crystal which describes the
structure of the whole crystal is called the formula unit.
A. True
9 B. False
0192618 A
12 11489 51 0715
09
In a crystal, the smallest repetitive unit which has the
full symmetry of the lattice is defined as the unit cell.
A. True
9 B. False
0192619 B
12 11491 31 1701
09
Amorphous solids have a regular arrangement of atoms in
space.
A. True
9 B. False
0192620 B
12 11493 51 01790172
09
A pure crystalline solid characteristically melts over a
wide temperature range.
A. True
9 B. False
0192621 A
12 11495 31 01790172
Crystalline solids have a sharp melting point.
A. True
9 B. False
09
0192622 B
12 11497 31 17010172
09
Amorphous solids melt at a sharply defined temperature.
A. True
9 B. False
0192623 A
12 11499 31 1701
09
Amorphous solids have little or no regular arrangement of
their constituent atoms.
A. True
9 B. False
0192624 A
12 11501 31 0179
09
Crystalline solids have a regular arrangement of atoms in
space.
A. True
9
B. False
0192625 B
12 11503 32 1892
09
In a cubic closest_packed structure, the particles of the
substance are of different size in alternate layers.
A. True
9 B. False
0192626 B
12 11505 32 1892
09
In a cubic closest_packed structure, the particles of the
substance are spheres of unequal size.
A. True
9 B. False
0192627 B
12 11507 31 0728
09
The crystal coordination number is the number of ions in a
crystal.
A. True
9 B. False
0192628 B
12 11509 31 0728
09
The crystal coordination number is the number of ions in a
unit cell.
A. True
9 B. False
0192629 A
12 11511 31 0728
09
The crystal coordination number is the number of nearest
neighbors to an ion in a crystal.
A. True
9 B. False
0192630 B
12 11513 31 08230825
09
The radius ratio of ions in a crystal is the ratio of the
number of positive ions to negative ions in the unit cell.
A. True
9 B. False
0192631 A
12 11515 31 08230325
09
The radius ratio of ions in a crystal is the ratio of the
radius of the positive ion to the radius of the negative
ion.
A. True
9 B. False
0192632 A
12 11517 52 08230325
09
Crystals of two different binary sodium compounds have
different radius ratios. Thus the negative ions in the two
crystals must be different.
A. True
9 B. False
0192633 B
13 11520 51 11531595
When a solid melts,
A. the crystal lattice breaks down and heat is liberated
in the process.
B. the crystal lattice breaks down and heat is absorbed
in the process.
C. ordering in the crystal lattice remains the same but
heat is used to increase the kinetic energy of the
9
molecules.
0193001 B
12 11525 31 00660189800409 04
Compounds are more complex than elements
A. True
9 B. False
2 OS
0193002 B
12 11526 32 03500189094309
Since silicon is the second most abundant element in the earth's
crust, it must be one of the cheapest to buy from a chemicals
supplier.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0193003 A
12 11529 31 10970588018509
Stable, bulk samples of samples of matter carry little or no
electric charge, that is, they are electrically neutral.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0193004 B
12 11531 31 14860293035109
The limit of chemical subdivision is a molecule.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0193005 B
12 11533 31 14860087041109
A solution is an example of a homogeneous pure substance.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0193006 B
12 11535 31 14860193041109
All homogeneous matter is classified as pure substance.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0193007 A
12 11537 31 14861149016109
The vapor pressures of all substances increase as the temperature
is increased.
0040
9
A. True B. False
0193008 B
12 11539 31 03030189
Phlogiston is the lightest element.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0193201 A
12 11540 32 01690808011009
Sodium chloride and potassium dichromate, both solids which are
soluble in water, can probably be separated by taking advantage
of differences in solubility.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0193202 B
12 11543 32 15110438017409
Whenever bubbles form within a sample of liquid, the liquid is
said to be boiling.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0193203 A
12 11545 31 14860087143609
Solutions can be separated into component substances by physical
means.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0193204 A
12 11547 31 14860193020409
Homogeneous matter can have a variable composition.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0193205 B
12 11549 31 10971605000809
When a sample of air is allowed to warm up without changing the
total water content, the relative humidity usually increases.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0193206 A
12 11552 32 0168
09
The properties of a homogeneous mixture are uniform
throughout any single sample of the mixture.
A. True
9 B. False
0193207 A
12 11554 32 0168
09
A mixture is a material which can be separated by physical
means into the substances from which it is made.
A. True
9 B. False
0193208 B
12 11556 32 0168
09
A mixture is a material which can be separated only by
chemical means into the substances out of which it is made.
9
A. True
B. False
0193209 B
12 11558 32 0168
09
The properties of a heterogeneous mixture are uniform
throughout any single sample of the mixture.
A. True
9 B. False
0193210 A
12 11560 32 0087
09
The properties of a solution are uniform throughout any
single sample of the solution.
A. True
9 B. False
0193401 B
12 11562 31 14860411035109
The unique simplest unit of a pure substance is an atom.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0193402 A
12 11564 31 14860293018909
Molecules of elements are always homoatomic.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0193601 A
12 11565 31 00660649000509
Compounds formed by electron transfer are called ionic compounds.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0193602 B
12 11567 31 02930005035509
Most molecules are held toghther by ionic bonds.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0193603 B
12 11569 51 14861307065309
In order for matter to be heterogeneous at least two different
pure substances must be present.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0193604 A
12 11571 31 14860066035109
A compound contains only one kind of atom.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0193605 A
12 11572 31 14860066041109
A compound is an example of a pure substance.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0193606 B
12 11573 31 000800870196
Water is a solution of hydrogen and oxygen.
0041
9
A. True B. False
0193607 B
12 11574 32 0037
09
A compound is a substance which can be separated by physical
means into the elements out of which it is made.
A. True
9 B. False
0193608 A
12 11576 32 0037
09
A compound is a substance which can be separated by chemical
means into the elements out of which it is made.
A. True
9 B. False
0193609 A
12 11578 32 0037
09
A compound is composed of two or more elements combined in
definite proportions.
A. True
9 B. False
0193610 B
12 11580 32 0037
09
A compound is any material with two or more elements in it.
A. True
9 B. False
0193611 A
12 11582 32 0037
09
The properties of a compound are uniform throughout any
single sample of the compound.
A. True
9 B. False
0193612 A
12 11584 32 00370168
Compounds are homogeneous mixtures.
A. True
9 B. False
09
0193613 B
12 11585 31 0067
09
A binary compound is one which contains only two atoms.
A. True
9 B. False
0193614 A
12 11587 31 0067
09
A binary compound is one which contains two and only two
different elements.
A. True
9 B. False
0193615 B
13 11589 31 0067
05
A binary compound is one which contains
A. two atoms of the same element
B. two and only two different elements
9 C. two ions with the same electrical charge
0193701 B
13 11592 31
06790785
The chief outlet from the nitrogen pool is, in humans,
A. tissue protein being sloughed off
B. proteins lost in solid wastes
9 C. urinary nitrogen.
0026
0195001 A
12 11595 31 01351418
A chemical reaction always involves molecular changes.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0195201 B
12 11597 31 04070226094309
Most chemical reactions are reversible.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0195202 A
12 11598 51 04070196035509
Reactions with hydrogen are typically slow, because the H_H bond
is quite strong.
9 A. True B. false.
0043
0195203 A
12 11600 51 00150554039209
Metals which dissolve appreciable quantities of hydrogen are
used for hydrogenation catalysts.
9 A. True B. false.
0043
0195204 B
12 11602 31 14990135080609
The materials which are consumed, disappear, during a chemical
reaction are called products.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0195205 A
12 11604 52 09620977040709
All of the following may be reasons why the actual product yield
in a reaction is usually less than 100%: separation and
purification result in losses; competing reactions form other
products instead; the reaction hasn't stopped yet; not all the
reactants are converted to desired product, even when the
reaction has ceased.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0195206 B
0009
12 11609
31
01920172000809
For any pure substance, the melting point is always a little
above the freezing point. For instance, water will melt at a
temperature above 0 degrees C and freeze at a temperature a
little below 0 degrees C.
9 A. True B. False
0195207 A
12 11613 32 14860087041109
Some pure substances may be decomposed into simpler pure
substances by chemical change.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0195208 B
12 11615 31 14860588035109
An atom is the smallest unit possible from physical subdivision
of matter.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0195401 A
12 11617 31 03510293169709
At any instant, all atoms and molecules have asymmetric charge
distributions.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0195402 A
12 11619 31 14140513117809
The following statement is probably consistent with modern atomic
theory: A positively charged sodium ion is smaller than a neutral
sodium atom.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0195403 B
12 11622 31 14861402034109
The chemical properties of elements are very dependent on the
number of nuclear neutrons.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0196201 B
12 11624 32 04700189026409
One difference between an element and a compound is that
compounds do not always follow the law of conservation of
matter and energy while elements do.
A. True
9 B. False
0196202 B
12 11627 32 0264
09
The law of conservation of matter and energy is generally,
but not always, followed.
A. True
9 B. False
0196203 B
12 11629
32
02640470
09
The burning of a candle is one of those rare exceptions to
the law of conservation of matter and energy.
A. True
9 B. False
0196204 A
12 11631 32 02640470
09
During a chemical reaction, matter and energy are always
conserved.
A. True
9 B. False
0196205 B
12 11633 32 02640470
09
Nuclear explosions which directly convert matter into energy
are examples of exceptions to the law of conservation of
matter and energy.
A. True
9 B. False
0196206 B
12 11636 32 02640470
09
An exothermic reaction loses heat to its surroundings. This
is a violation of the law of conservation of matter and
energy.
A. True
9 B. False
0196207 B
12 11639 32 02640470013509
Some energy is always destroyed when a chemical reaction
occurs.
A. True
9 B. False
0196208 A
12 11641 32 0470
09
The law of conservation of energy implies that energy is not
destroyed during a chemical reaction.
A. True
9 B. False
0196209 B
12 11643 32 0470
09
The law of conservation of energy states that matter cannot
be converted into energy.
A. True
9 B. False
0196210 A
12 11645 32 0364
09
Matter and energy can be considered interrelated because one
can be converted into the other.
9
A. True
B. False
0196211 A
12 11647 32 0364
09
The amount of energy into which matter can be converted is
5
2
governed by the equation E = mc .
A. True
9 B. False
0196212 B
12 11650 32 04700264
09
The law of conservation of matter and energy states that
matter can be created but not destroyed.
A. True
9 B. False
0196213 B
12 11652 32 0264
09
An exception to the law of conservation of matter and energy
occurs in the explosion of a hydrogen bomb.
A. True
9 B. False
0196401 A
12 11654 31 02950345149609
In the light of current knowledge, we must view the law of
constant composition as only a good approximation to observed
behavior.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0196402 B
12 11657 31 14860513026509
The law of definite composition is an exception to the atomic
theory.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0198001 A
12 11659 31 80040089008709 04
When molecules of an electrolyte are broken up in solution into
their constituent radicals, each is charged, and these are called
ions
A. True
9 B. False
2WVW
0198002 A
12 11662 31 07310351015909
The ionization energy of an atom is the energy needed to remove
its outermost electron.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0199001 A
2WVW
12 11664
31
02938004800309 04
Molecules are always in motion.
A. True
9 B. False
0200001 ABABBBBA 83 11665 52 035103428001119006
MACROITEM STEM
2Evaluate the statements according to the key.
2 A. The statement is true.
2 B. The statement is false.
0 C. The statement is neither true nor false in all cases.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 All atoms must have at least one electron in the nucleus.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 All atoms must have at least one neutron in the nucleus.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 Nuclei of all atoms carry a positive charge.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
4 All nuclei contain more neutrons than protons.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
The isotopes of uranium cannot be separated by means of chemical
5 processes.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
When an atom disintegrates all of its mass is accounted for
6 in the particles and lighter atoms that are released.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
In the disintegration of uranium, the barium atoms are the
7 product that continues the chain reaction.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 8
Chemically speaking all but the nucleus of an atom can be
9 disregarded.
0200002 A
12 11675 51 0438
The x_ray diffraction pattern produced by a liquid shows a series
of concentric rings.
9 A. True B. False
0210001 BAAAABAAC93 11677 31 027602638001119006
ETS2WVW
MACROITEM STEM
2To answer the following questions, use the key below
2 A. a scientific fact well supported by evidence.
2 B. A highly probable theory.
0 C. A mere guess.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
An electron revolving around a positive nucleus is
subjected to a centrifugal force equal and opposite to
ETS2 OS
0003
1 the electrostatic force attracting it by the nucleus.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
The atom for the most part is made up of a nucleus
of protons and neutrons with the same number of electrons
revolving around the nucleus as protons contained
2 in the nucleus.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
A useful element has been formed by merely projecting
3 a neutron into the nucleus of an atom.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
Researchers have been able to form many isotopes
4 that have never been discovered as natural particles.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
The electron is considered by scientists as the
5 smallest particle of matter.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
The atom is a tiny solar system with a nucleus of
positive charges of electricity at its center and electrons
6 revolving around it.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
Robert Millikan discovered the value of the electrical
7 charge carried by the electron.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 8
8 The atom has locked in its nucleus a tremendous amount of energy.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 9
9 A fuel in all the larger electrical power plants.
0210002 B
12 11692 31 16830495034109
A nucleon is a composite particle consisting of a neutron and a
proton.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0210003 A
12 11694 31 00970341026309
The proton, neutron, and electron are stable particles that do
not decay in free space.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0210004 B
12 11696 51 07970097146609
The old name for proton is positron.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0210005 B
12 11697 51 03411686168709
The antiparticle of the neutron is the neutrino.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0210006 B
0041
12 11699
51
16860343000909
Neutrinos are readily absorbed by lead and iron.
9 A. True B. False
0210007 B
12 11701 51 16880449
09
The distinction between mesons and hyperons is that mesons are
unstable while hyperons are stable.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0210008 A
12 11703 31 00971486044509
Neutrons and protons weigh approximately the same.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0210009 A
12 11705 31 03421486018509
All nuclei are positively charged.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0210010 A
12 11706 31 14860445026309
The weight of 2000 electrons is less than that of 2000 protons.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0210011 A
12 11708 32 15711285035809
The extent of deflection in an electrostatic field is greater for
a beta_particle than for an alpha_particle.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0210012 A
12 11710 31 05131486
Goldstein's experiments with discharge tubes proved that atoms
contain positrons as well as electrons.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0210013 A
12 11712 31 03571486
Rutherford's experiments showed that the nucleus of an atom is
extremely small.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0210014 B
12 11714 31 00701486
In the process of losing an electron from its outer shell,
a neutral (uncharged) atom acquires a negative charge.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0210015 A
12 11716 31 026314860097
The mass_to_charge ratio of an electron is lower than that of a
proton.
9 A. True B. False
0210016 B
12 11718
31
03851486
0003
0003
The positive particles formed in a Goldstein discharge tube are
all alpha particles.
9 A. True B. False
0211001 B
14 11720 31 02630027800111 06
When electrons are emitted from a clean zinc plate
illuminated by ultra_violet light the kinetic energy of
an emitted electron is
A. directly proportional to the intensity of the illumination
B. dependent only on the frequency of the incident light
C. independent of the frequency of the incident light
D. directly proportional to the absolute temperature of
9
metal
0211002 A
12 11726 51 02760263168909
The theory of the electron was developed by Dirac.
9 A. True B. False
0211003 B
12 11728 32 02630097
09
In relation to the proton, the electron is about the same
mass and of opposite charge.
A. True
9 B. False
0211004 A
12 11730 31 02630097
09
In relation to the proton, the electron is many times
lighter and of opposite charge.
A. True
9 B. False
0211005 B
12 11732 31 02630097
09
In relation to the proton, the electron is many times
heavier and of opposite charge.
A. True
9 B. False
0211006 B
12 11734 31 02630341
09
In relation to the electron, the neutron is many times
heavier and of opposite charge.
A. True
9 B. False
0211007 B
12 11736 31 02630341
09
In relation to the electron, the neutron is many times
lighter and negative in charge.
A. True
ETS2WVW
0041
9
B. False
0211008 B
12 11738 31 00970341
09
In relation to the proton, the neutron is many times heavier
and negative in charge.
A. True
9 B. False
0211009 A
12 11740 31 03410097
09
In relation to the neutron, the proton is about the same
mass and positively charged.
A. True
9 B. False
0211010 A
12 11742 31 02630097
09
The charges on the electron and proton are equal but
opposite in sign.
A. True
9 B. False
0211011 B
12 11744 31 00970341
09
The charges on the proton and neutron are equal but opposite
in sign.
A. True
9 B. False
0211013 B
12 11746 31 02630341
09
The charges on the electron and neutron are not equal but
they have the same electrical sign.
A. True
9 B. False
0211101 A
13 11748 31
05900571
Whether or not a given beam of radiation can eject electrons from
a metal surface is determined solely by
9 A. its frequency B. its intensity C. its speed.
0026
0211102 A
12 11751 31 057103280263
The photoelectric effect is the emission of electrons when light
is shined on a metal surface.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0213001 A
12 11753 31 03370189034209
The atomic number of an element is equal to the number of
protons in its nucleus.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0213002 B
12 11755 31 03420351009709
The nuclei of all hydrogen atoms consist of single protons.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0213003 A
12 11757
All atoms contain protons.
9 A. True B. False
0040
31
14860097035109
0213004 B
12 11758 32 00970341
09
The number of protons in an atom is always equal to the
number of neutrons.
A. True
9 B. False
0213005 A
12 11760 32 00970263
09
The number of protons in a atom is always equal to the
number of electrons.
A. True
9 B. False
0215001 B
12 11762 31 03410353009709
The neutron is an isotope of the proton.
9 A. True B. False
0215002 B
12 11763 51 06200341
09
The half_life of the free neutron is 1,600 years.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0041
0215003 B
12 11765 32 03410263
09
The number of neutrons in a atom is always equal to the
number of electrons.
A. True
9 B. False
0215004 B
12 11767 32 00970263034109
All atoms of the same element must contain the same number
of protons, neutrons, and electrons.
A. True
9 B. False
0220001 A
13 11769 31 14020351018509
The chemical properties of an atom are determined by its nuclear
charge.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0220002 A
0009
12 11771
31
03510189026309
All neutral atoms of a given element have the same number of
electrons.
9 A. True B. False
0220003 A
12 11773 31 01950351026309
The volume of an atom is essentially that volume occupied by the
electrons.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0220004 B
12 11775 31 01850351034209
All the electrical charge in an atom is confined to the nucleus.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0220005 B
12 11777 31 03371291026309
The atomic number is always equal to the number of electrons in a
particular atom.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0220006 B
12 11779 31 08230185117809
The radius of a negatively charged monatomic ion is always
smaller than the radius of the parent neutral atom.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0220007 B
12 11781 31 03420351148609
The nucleus occupies about 1/2 the volume of an atom.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0221001 B
12 11783 51 03640606154009
Einstein discovered that the line spectrum of an element
contains specific wavelengths which are characteristic of the
element alone.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0221002 B
12 11786 51 13450351
09
The Bohr theory of the atom is now known to be correct in all
respects.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0221003 A
12 11788 51
0351026309
According to the Bohr model of the atom, atoms emit light when
their electrons jump from outer to inner orbits.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0221004 B
12 11790 51 02630351134009
Electrons moving in circular paths outside of atoms emit
electromagnetic radiation continuously.
0041
9
A. True B. False
0221005 A
13 11792 31 033001961345
The Bohr theory of the hydrogen atom
A. successfully predicts its spectrum
B. proves that light is a form of radiant energy
9 C. contradicts planck's quantum hypothesis.
0026
0221006 A
12 11795 31 06541486018509
Cathode rays possess a negative charge.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0221007 A
12 11796 32 0189
09
An atom and an ion which contain the same number of protons
but which have different masses are both of the same
element.
A. True
9 B. False
0221008 A
12 11799 32 0189
09
Two atoms or ions with the same number of protons and the
same mass are both of the same element.
A. True
9 B. False
0221009 A
12 11801 32 0189
09
Two neutral atoms which contain the same number of electrons
and which have the same mass are both atoms of the same
element.
A. True
9 B. False
0221010 B
12 11804 32 0189
09
Two atoms or ions with the same number of neutrons and the
same mass must both be of the same element.
A. True
9 B. False
0221011 B
12 11806 32 0189
09
Two isotopes of the same element differ in the number of
protons their atoms contain.
A. True
9 B. False
0221012 A
12 11808 32 0189
09
Two isotopes of the same element differ in the number of
neutrons their atoms contain.
A. True
9 B. False
0221013 B
12 11810 32 0342
09
The nucleus of an atom is composed of protons and electrons.
A. True
9 B. False
0221014 B
12 11812 32 1110
09
Almost all the mass of an atom is contained in its protons
and electrons.
A. True
9 B. False
0221015 B
12 11814 32 1110
09
Almost all the mass of an atom is contained in its protons.
A. True
9 B. False
0221016 A
12 11816 32 1110
09
Almost all the mass of an atom is contained in its protons
and neutrons.
A. True
9 B. False
0221017 A
12 11818 32 0342
09
The nucleus of an atom is composed of neutrons and protons.
A. True
9 B. False
0230001 B
12 11820 31 03510445035109
All atoms have weights which are exactly integral multiples of
the weight of the hydrogen atom.
9 A. True B. False
0230002 B
13 11822 31
5
235
In the symbol
U , 235 means
4
92
A. the mass defect
B. the isotope mass
9 C. the atomic number.
03531461
0230003 B
12 11824 31 00651413035309
The atomic weight is an average number that takes into account
all known isotopes of an element, including those prepared
0041
0026
0009
artificially in the laboratory.
9 A. True B. False
0230004 A
12 11827 32 1110
09
The mass number of an element is determined by the number of
protons and neutrons.
A. True
9 B. False
0230005 B
12 11829 32 1110
09
The mass number of an element is determined by the number of
protons and electrons.
A. True
9 B. False
0230006 A
12 11831 32 1313
09
All atomic weights are based ultimately on carbon_12 having
a weight of exactly 12.0000.
A. True
9 B. False
0230007 B
12 11833 32 1313
09
All atomic weights are based ultimately on oxygen_16 having
a weight of exactly 16.0000.
A. True
9 B. False
0230008 A
12 11835 32 0065
09
An element with a higher atomic number than carbon will
always have a greater number of protons in its nucleus than
carbon does.
A. True
9 B. False
0230009 A
12 11838 32 0065
09
An element with a lower atomic number than carbon will
always have a lower number of protons in its nucleus than
carbon does.
A. True
9 B. False
0230010 B
12 11841 32 00650337
09
If atom X has a greater mass than atom Y, then its atomic
number is surely greater also.
A. True
9 B. False
0230011 A
12 11843 32 00650337
09
If element X has a greater number of protons in its nucleus
than element Y, then its atomic number is surely greater
also.
A. True
9 B. False
0230012 B
12 11846 32 03370263
09
If an atom and an ion have the same number of electrons,
then they are of the same element.
A. True
9 B. False
0231001 A
12 11848 31 03530189009709
The isotopes of an element have the same number of protons in the
nuclei of their atoms but different numbers of neutrons.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0231002 A
12 11850 31 07880847035309
Deuterium and tritium are isotopes of hydrogen.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0231003 B
12 11852 32 02930008
09
A molecule of deuterium oxide weighs twice as much as a
molecule of ordinary H O.
4
2
9 A. True B. False
0043
0231004 B
12 11854 31 03531055033709
An isotope is one of two or more atomic species having the same
atomic number but different numbers of electrons.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0231005 A
12 11856 31 03371486035309
Isotopes of an element have the same atomic number.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0231006 B
12 11858 31 14860353034109
Two isotopes can contain the same number of neutrons.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0231007 A
12 11860 31 03531486
Different isotopes of an element always have different numbers of
neutrons in their nuclei.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0231008 A
12 11862 31 01891486
Atoms of a given element always have the same number of protons.
9 A. True B. False
0231009 A
12 11864 31 06601486
An atom can raise its neutron_proton ratio by ejecting a positron
9 A. True B. False
0003
0231010 A
12 11866 31 06541486
Cathode rays are streams of electrons.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0231011 B
12 11867 31 12021486
When exposed to a magnetic field, gamma rays exhibit no
appreciable deflection.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0231012 B
12 11869 51 120906621070
Carbon 14 may be detected because of its distinctive color.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0231013 B
12 11871 32 03530263
09
Neutral atoms of isotopes of the same element differ in the
number of electrons they contain.
A. True
9 B. False
0231014 C
13 11873 32 0353
05
To change one atom into another nuclide of the same element,
add or subtract
9 A. electrons
B. protons
C. neutrons
0231015 B
13 11875 32 0353
05
For two atoms or ions of the same mass to be the same
element, they must contain the same number of
9 A. electrons
B. protons
C. neutrons
0231016 B
12 11878 32 01890353
09
Atoms of two different elements with the same number of
neutrons are isotopes.
A. True
9 B. False
0233001 B
12 11880 31 14520189148609
All of the 105 elements known today occur in nature.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0233002 B
12 11882 31 14860415018909
The known elements do not occur in exactly equal abundance but
3
_______
their abundances are very close to being equal.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0233003 B
12 11885 31 03531486041509
All of the elements occur in nature in two isotopic forms.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0233004 A
12 11887 31 14860415018909
More than 90% of the earth's crust, water, and atmosphere is
composed of only ten elements.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0233005 B
12 11889 31 019603210189
There is little hydrogen in the earth's atmosphere because this
element is rare everywhere in the universe.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0250001 A
13 11891 31 03370189800111 06
The atomic number of an element is numerically equal to
A. the number of protons in the nucleus of the atom
B. the number of neutrons in the nucleus of the atom
9 C. the whole number nearest to its atomic weight
0250002 A
12 11894 31 14020189168409
The chemical properties of an element are determined almost
wholly by the electron clouds of its atoms.
9 A. True B. False
0250003 A
12 11896 31 07771486
The largest number of electrons which can populate an isolated
atom's valence shell is eight.
9 A. True B. False
0250004 A
12 11898 32 01890097033709
The atomic number of an element is determined by the number
of protons in its atoms.
A. True
9 B. False
0250005 B
12 11900 32 01890097033709
The atomic number of an element is determined by the number
of neutrons in its atoms.
ETS2WVW
0041
0003
9
A. True
B. False
0250006 B
12 11902 32 00370097026309
The atomic number of an element is determined by the total
number of protons plus neutrons in an atom of the element.
A. True
9 B. False
0251001 A
12 11904 52 11781423
09
The manganous ion contains five unpaired 3d electrons.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0251002 A
12 11906 51 07681178
The mercurous ion is not paramagnetic.
9 A. True B. False
0043
09
0251003 B
12 11907 51 0016
033809
5 3+
3+
Al and Cr have similar electronic configurations in their
outermost shells.
9 A. True B. False
0251004 A
12 11909 31 14860338035409
The electronic configuration of argon (Ar) is
5 2 2 6 2 6
1s 2s 2p 3s 3p
9 A. True B. False
0043
0040
0251005 A
12 11911 32 07771486
The ground_state electronic population of a sodium (Z = 11) ion
is
5 2 2 6
1s 2s 2p
9 A. True B. False
0003
0251006 A
12 11913 31 11281486
The ground_state electronic configuration of a potassium (Z=19)
ion is the same as that of a calcium (Z = 20) ion.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0251007 A
12 11915 31 09291486
The ground state of an atom is the one in which all electrons are
in the lowest energy levels available to them.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0251008 C
13 11917 32 0189
05
An atom and an ion of the same element differ only in the
number of
9 A. protons
B. neutrons
C. electrons
0251009 B
12 11919 32 01890353
09
Atoms of two different elements with the same mass number
are isotopes.
A. True
9 B. False
0251010 A
12 11921 32 01890263
09
A positive ion of a certain element can be formed by
removal of an electron from an atom of that element.
A. True
9 B. False
0251011 B
12 11923 32 01891178
09
5
+
The number of electrons in an ion such as K is greater
than the number of protons.
A. True
9 B. False
0251012 B
12 11926 32 01891178
09
A negative ion of a certain element can be formed by
removal of a proton from an atom of that element.
A. True
9 B. False
0251013 B
12 11928 32 01891178
09
A negative ion of a certain element can be formed by
removal of an electron from an atom of that element.
A. True
9 B. False
0251014 B
12 11930 32 01891178
09
A positive ion of a certain element can be formed by
addition of a proton to the nucleus of that element.
A. True
9 B. False
0251015 A
12 11932 32 01891178
09
A negative ion of a certain element can be formed by
addition of an electron to an atom of that element.
A. True
9
B. False
0253001 B
12 11934 51 1540
09
Emission spectra consist of bright lines on a dark background.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0253002 A
12 11936 51 03510054032909
Atoms emit and absorb light of the same frequencies.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0253003 B
12 11938 51 03510907042909
An atom in an excited state has a high velocity.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0253004 A
12 11940 51 13620159
09
The 4d and 5s subshells are very close in energy.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0253005 A
13 11942 31
03800909
When an electron in a hydrogen atom undergoes a change in its
principal quantum number from 3 to 8, its energy is
9 A. increased B. decreased C. unchanged.
0026
0253006 A
12 11945 31 01590263090909
The energy associated with an electron in a given atom is almost
fully described by specifying its value of the quantum number n.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0253007 A
12 11948 31 14861362034709
A subshell is a collection of orbitals that have the same
energy.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0253008 A
12 11950 31 14861362015909
Electrons in the 3d subshell would have more energy than those in
the 3p subshell.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0270001 B
12 11952 51 05720351039209
The quantum_mechanical theory of the atom restricts itself to
physical quantities that can be measured.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0270002 A
12 11954 51 16930351
09
Quantum mechanics is an extension of Newtonian mechanics to the
atom.
0041
9
A. True B. False
0270003 B
12 11956 51 16930270026309
Because quantum mechanics does not make definite predictions
about the position and velocity of each electron in an atom, its
correctness cannot be verified by experiment.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0270004 B
13 11959 31 019603300572
The hydrogen atomic spectrum requires that the hydrogen atom
gain or lose energy
A. only in a vacuum tube
B. in discrete amounts
9 C. as required by its environment.
0026
0270005 A
13 11962 31
06120628
A characteristic feature of waves is
9 A. diffraction B. internal friction C. typical mass
0026
0270006 B
12 11964 52 05720067060609
Without quantum theory, there probably would be no way of
predicting the properties of element 110, yet to be discovered.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0273001 A
13 11966 31 146914700572
The Heisenberg uncertainty principle is based upon the fact that
A. photons of high energy can disturb small pieces of matter
B. the present state of precision of measuring atomic positions
can be refined to an unlimited extent
9 C. actual experimental work always contains slight errors.
0026
0273002 A
12 11970 31 14860909147009
The larger the number (n) of a shell, the greater is the distance
between the nucleus and the most probable position of a contained
electron.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0273003 A
12 11973 31 1211
0417
It is impossible simultaneously to determine the position and
velocity of an electron.
9 A. True B. False
0275001 B
12 11975 51 03470914150509
An orbital diagram is a geometrical representation of the shape
of an orbital.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0009
0275002 B
12 11977 31 14860347136209
An orbital is a collection of subshells.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0275003 A
12 11978 31 14860347038009
An orbital has a definite size and shape which are related to the
energy of the electrons it could contain.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0275004 A
12 11980 31 14861362034709
A 2p and a 3p subshell contain the same number of orbitals.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0275005 B
12 11982 31 14860915091409
An s orbital is shaped something like a four leaf clover.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0275006 B
12 11984 51 14860347136209
The maximum number of electrons possible in a d orbital is 10.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0275007 A
12 11986 31 11281486
If two electrons in an atom have the same spin and are both in p
orbitals oriented in the same direction in space, they must be in
different shells.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0275008 B
12 11989 31 05861486
Each electron in an atom revolves in an orbit around the nucleus,
according to present_day theory.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0277001 A
12 11991 51 0909
026309
Four quantum numbers are required to characterize each electron
in a complex atom.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0277002 B
12 11993 51 16920263058609
Electron spin refers to the motion of electrons in their orbits.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0277003 A
12 11995 51 02630909035109
No more than one electron in an atom can have the same set of
quantum numbers.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0277004 A
12 11997 51 05301497026309
Both the direction and the magnitude of the angular momentum of
an atomic electron are quantized.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0277005 B
12 11999 31 14860909026309
The maximum number of electrons in a shell with N = 3 is 10.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0279001 B
12 12001 31 11280244019509
The exclusion principle explains why crystals do not collapse
into smaller volumes.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0279002 A
12 12003 31 14860347026309
The maximum number of electrons an orbital may contain does not
vary with the type of orbital.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0290001 CABCCBCC 83 12005 31 1 057390159016959006
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions refer to Figures 15 and 16.
2all atoms are made from the same three pieces in Figure 15. Every
2tiny atom is like a solar system. Its central "sun" has one or
2more protons, generally neutrons, too. The revolving "planets"
2are the electrons, one for each proton in the nucleus, because
2plus and minus must balance in the atom.
2The opposite charges attract but high speed keeps the electrons
2in their circular paths. All the weight of the atom may be
2considered to be in the nucleus since the electron weighs only
21/1850 of the proton.
2The atom is mostly empty space. If the nucleus were enlarged
2to the size of a baseball, the electron would be a mere speck
22000 feet away. Electrons supply the energy for chemical reactions
2like burning coal or the explosion of tnt. The nucleus
2evades all ordinary chemical reactons. Its energy can be
2released only by direct hits on the nucleus to break the bonds
2that hold the protons and neutrons in a tight bundle.
2Uranium is nature's heaviest atom called U_238. It is not
2directly usable for energy release, but an element may have
2several isotopes__alternate forms with the same number of
2protons but slightly different numbers of neutrons. The material
2needed for direct atomic energy release is U_235 which consists
2of only .7 per cent of natural uranium. The separation of the
2uranium isotopes is difficult since they are chemically the same
ETS2WVW
2element.
2Relatively slow neutron bullets can split U_235 into lighter
2atoms and give several neutrons to split other U_235 atoms
2setting up a chain of explosions that may sweep through a block
2of U_235 releasing energy equivalent to 11,400,000 kilowatt_hours
2per pound.
2We now have a man_made new element, number 94 with 145
2neutrons, called plutonium which can also be split like u_235.
2in an elementary way the principle of atomic explosion can
2be shown by Figure 16.
2To answer the following questions, select from the key the
2most appropriate response.
2 A. The first part of the statement is true, and its truth
2
is supported by the reason given in the statement.
2 B. The first part of the statement is true, but its truth is
2
not supported by the reason given in the statement.
0 C. The first part of the statement is false.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The atoms of all elements are neutral because the neutron
1 has no electrical charge.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
Splitting uranium into other elements produces elements
of slightly different atomic weights because some neutrons
2 are given off in the action.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 Plutonium is listed as element 94 because it has 94 electrons.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
U_238 has the same atomic weight as U_234 because
4 U_234 is an isotope of U_238.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
electrons have no electrical attraction for the nucleus
5 because atoms are neutral in charge.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
Plutonium is heavier than U_238 as evidenced by its
6 greater atomic weight.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
The chance of a direct hit on the nucleus by an electron
7 bullet is good because the atom is mostly empty space.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 8
Centripetal force keeps electrons in their orbits because
9 electrons travel at high speed around the nucleus.
0290002 ABBBBBAAB92 12045 31 063106388001909004
ETS2WVW
MACROITEM STEM
2The items to which you will respond have been
2selected from various sources. Mark space
2 A. if you believe that a statement is a scientific fact
2 B. if you believe a statement is an opinion
2For example statement of fact 1. growth is a characteristic of
3
_________ __ ____
2cancer tissue.
2Statement of opinion 2. the cause of cancer will never be
3_________ __ _______
0 discovered.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 Uranium_235 has less mass than U_238.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
The search for uranium in the united states
2 will result in an adequate supply of the ore.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
The atomic bomb does not make all methods
3 of warfare obsolete.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
An atomic bomb raid is no more damaging
than a saturation bombing with fire bombs or block
4 busters.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
The hydrogen bomb is the most potent
5 weapon of war that science will ever produce.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
Sonar and radar diminish the effectiveness of
6 large navies.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
There are safety measures to be taken against
7 the atomic bomb.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 8
8 Uranium is a source of power.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 9
9 Radioactivity is the least of the atomic bomb's threats.
0290003 BBAACACAA93 12058 31 063102788001119006
ETS2WVW
MACROITEM STEM
2To answer the following questions, use the key below
2 A. The statement is a fact.
2 B. The statement is an hypothesis.
0 C. The statement is a mere guess.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
If fission occurs in any heavy element, a chain
1 reaction will result.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
The scientist knew that if hahn had produced
barium by neutron bombardment of uranium that he
2 had split the atom.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
Slow neutrons will cause fission of U_235 but not
3 of the other U_238.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
The capsule of beryllium at The center of a plutonium
bomb (Greenglass version) furnishes additional
4 neutrons to those caused by the fission of the plutonium.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
The "tamper" (the force that holds the bomb together
until a chain reaction is well under way) is an
auxiliary explosion directed from all directions toward
5 the center of the bomb.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
The atomic bomb has the shape of a cigar but it
6 weighs thousands of pounds.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
The H bomb weighs less than the atomic bomb
7 but it is thousands of times more powerful.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 8
From theoretical considerations the H bomb should
8 be many times as powerful as an a bomb.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 9
9 Amount of energy.
0290005 C
13 12072 31
0661
The term that best describes the device which accelerates nuclear
particles in a straight line until they have very high energies
is
9 A. cyclotron B. atom_smasher C. linear accelerator.
0026
0290006 B
12 12075 31 0661
09
No useful applications (besides weapons) have been made using
nuclear reactions.
9 A. True B. False
0290007 B
12 12077 31 0518
09
Nuclear fusion is now used to produce electicity.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0290008 B
12 12079 31 0353
09
Radioactive isotopes find little use in medicine.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0290009 B
12 12081
51
03180590133109
0040
0009
The most serious effect of low level radiation on the body is
that it produces severe skin burns.
9 A. True B. False
0291001 A
12 12083 51
0342037909
The beta decay of a radioactive nucleus corresponds to the
conversion of one of its neutrons into a proton and an electron.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0291002 A
12 12085 51 12020627032909
Gamma rays are electromagnetic waves of very high frequency.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0291003 A
12 12087 51 13470358037909
Luminous watch and clock dials glow because the alpha particles
emitted by radioactive materials radiate light.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0291004 B
12 12089 51 03580379019209
The alpha particles emitted by radioactive substances form the
gas radon.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0291005 A
12 12091 52 06200351037909
After a time span equal to three half_lives, seven_eighths of the
original number of atoms of a radioactive substance will have
decayed.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0291006 A
12 12094 51 03791202033709
When a radioactive element emits a gamma ray, its atomic number
changes.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0291007 B
12 12096 51 03791499049109
Heating a radioactive material increases its rate of decay.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0291008 A
12 12098 31 03211209
09
The carbon_14 involved in dating is produced by naturally
occurring reactions in the upper atmosphere.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0291009 B
12 12100 31 03580660
09
In radioactive decay involving alpha emission, the atomic number
of the reacting isotope increases.
0040
9
A. True B. False
0291010 B
12 12102 32 1209
09
514
C (t
= 5000 years) could conveniently be used to date a
46
1/2
1.5 million_year_old artifact.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0291011 B
12 12104 31 06171486
As atomic number increases, the neutron_proton ratio decreases
for stable nuclei.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0291012 A
12 12106 31 06171486
Induced radioactivity is always a more energetic process than
natural radioactivity.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0291013 A
12 12108 31 14661486
The magnitude of charge on a positron is the same as that on
an electron.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0291014 B
12 12110 31 06321486
Alpha emission is usually considered to be an example of nuclear
fission.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0291015 B
12 12112 31 06321486
Fission of light nuclei generally tends to release more energy
than fission of heavy nuclei.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0291016 A
12 12114 32 06201486
If the number of grams of a radioactive isotope is found to be
reduced from 12 to 1.5 in a time interval of 600 hr, then the
half_life of that isotope is 200 hr.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0291017 B
12 12117 32 03531486
5
32
The number of neutrons in a P nucleus is 32.
4
15
0003
9
A. True B. False
0293002 A
12 12119 31 03420398049509
Atomic nuclei always weigh less than the sum of the individual
masses of their constituent particles.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0293003 A
12 12121 31 16850342044909
The greater the binding energy of a nucleus, the more stable it
is.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0293004 B
12 12123 31 01590632
09
5
235
Stars obtain their energy from the nuclear fission of U .
9 A. True B. False
0041
0293005 A
12 12125 51 01891110037909
Several elements whose atomic masses are less than that of lead
are radioactive.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0293006 B
12 12127 31 039803420340
The mass of a helium nucleus is slightly more than the combined
mass of four hydrogen nuclei.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0295001 B
12 12129 31 06321499
5 235
U
is the only known fissionable material.
9 A. True B. False
0041
09
0295002 A
12 12131 31 06611218015909
The nuclear reaction that gives the hydrogen bomb its immense
destructive capability is similar to that which supplies the sun
with energy.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0295003 B
12 12134 51 12201221034109
The moderator in a nuclear reactor controls the rate at which
power is produced by absorbing some neutrons.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0295004 B
12 12136 51 08470806120609
Tritium is one of the products of radium decay.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0295005 A
12 12138 51 16880342120609
All mesons are unstable outside of atomic nuclei and decay in a
small fraction of a second.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0295006 A
12 12140 51 16901206169109
Charged p_ions decay into charged mions.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0295007 B
12 12141 51 00991690034109
Neutral p_ions decay into neutrons.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0295008 B
13 45003 31 066112160632
The term critical mass applies to
A. atomic fusion
B. atomic fission
C. the manufacture of balance weights
D. molecular mass
9 E. the equilibrium between gases and liquids
0026
0295009 B
12 12144 31 12161486
09
A nuclear explosion results only when a critical mass is
accumulated.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0295010 B
12 12146 31 1212
Neutrons can be accelerated in a cyclotron.
9 A. True B. False
09
0040
0295011 A
09
0040
12 12147
31
0661
514
4
17
N reacts with alpha and produces O. The other particle
47
2
8
5
1
produced is H.
4
1
9 A. True B. False
0295012 B
12 12150 31 03281285033709
The emission of a beta_particle leaves the atomic number
unchanged but increases the mass number by one unit.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0295013 A
0009
12 12152
31
03281466034209
Emission of a positron is equivalent to the conversion of a
proton to a neutron in the nucleus.
9 A. True B. False
0295014 B
12 12154 31 06200379035309
The longer the half life of a radioactive isotope, the more
rapidly it decays.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0295015 B
12 12156 51 12230337034109
The very heavy transuranium elements, atomic number 101 or
greater, are most readily prepared by neutron bombardment.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0295016 B
12 12158 31 15751576157709
Probably the most important hazard associated with a nuclear
power plant is the possibility of a nuclear explosion.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0295017 A
12 12160 31 07741486
A very high temperature is required in order to initiate a
nuclear_fusion reaction.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0295018 B
12 12162 32 12851486
5
210
Emission of a beta particle from a
Pb nucleus yields a
4
82
nucleus with a mass number of 211.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0295019 A
12 12165 31 06321486
High_energy neutrons are rarely produced in nuclear_fission
reactions.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0295021 A
12 12170 31 12021486
Gamma radiation is not accompanied by a change in either atomic
or mass number.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0295022 B
12 12172 31 15380787
A plausible way to achieve the high temperatures required for
nuclear fusion is to operate the process in the upper atmosphere.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0297001 A
12 12175 31 05180331
09
A nuclear fusion reaction is responsible for the output of energy
by the sun.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0299001 A
12 12177 32 01591447166909
5
16
The amount of energy equivalent to 1 kg of mass is 9 x 10
joules.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0299002 A
12 12180 51 02631466120209
When an electron and a positron come together, their mass and
charge disappear and two gamma rays are created.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0299003 B
12 12182 31 06320518
09
Nuclear fission reactions produce more energy per weight of
reactant than fusion reactions.
9 A. True B. False
0299004 B
12 12184 32 03641368051809
5
2
According to the einstein relation (E = mc ), the fusion
5
20
of one gram of deuterium would liberate 9.00 x 10 ergs or
5
10
2.15 x 10 kcal of energy.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0009
0311001 B
12 12188 51 13660367
09
Mendeleev's periodic law becomes exact with no exceptions when
the elements are arranged in the order of their atomic numbers
rather than of their atomic weights.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0312001 B
12 12191 31 03700189
09
There are still many gaps in the periodic table into which no
known elements fit.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0312101 C
13 12193 31 122314610362
Uranium has an atomic number of 92. The transuranium elements
all have atomic numbers.
9 A. greater than 94 B. less than 92 C. greater than 92.
0026
0312201 A
12 12196 31 07940370
09
There are eight major groups in the periodic table.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0312301 A
12 12198 31 01960015
09
Hydrogen behaves like a metal in certain respects.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0312302 A
12 12200 31 01890015
The majority of the elements are metals.
9 A. True B. False
0041
09
0312303 B
12 12201 31 14860015037009
Metals are found to the far right of the periodic table.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0312304 B
12 12203 31 03620722
09
Elements which are most metallic are found in the lower
right area of the periodic table.
A. True
9 B. False
0312305 B
12 12205 32 03620722
09
Elements which are the most metallic are found in the upper
left area of the periodic table.
A. True
9 B. False
0312306 B
12 12207 31 03620722
09
Elements which are the least metallic are found in the upper
left area of the periodic table.
A. True
9 B. False
0312307 A
12 12209 31 03620722
09
Elements which are the least metallic are found in the upper
right area of the periodic table.
A. True
9 B. False
0321001 A
12 12211 31 01890463800409 04
Elements with similar chemical properties have the same number of
electrons in the outer shell
A. True
9 B. False
2WVW
0321002 A
12 12213 31
0009033809
The magnetic behavior of iron, nickel, and cobalt is a
consequence of their electron structures.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0321003 B
12 12215 31 01890020
An element can have only one valence.
9 A. True B. False
0041
09
0322001 B
12 12216 31 01890820037009
All the elements in each period of the periodic table have
closely similar properties.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0322201 B
12 12218 51 00150104031509
Metals are good conductors of both electricity and heat.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0322202 B
12 12220 31 00150169150309
All metals are solids at room temperature.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0322203 A
12 12221 31
Metals have positive valences.
9 A. True B. False
0041
00150020058309
0322301 B
12 12222 31 00280351026309
Nonmetal atoms tend to lose their outer electrons when they
combine chemically.
9 A. True B. False
0323001 B
12 12224 31 00821486
The hydroxy compounds of elements at the right of the periodic
table are usually basic.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0003
0323101 A
12 12226 31 00020263035109
Sodium is more active than magnesium because the outer electrons
of its atoms are less tightly bound than the outer electrons of
magnesium atoms.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0323102 B
12 12229 31 01890449006609
Inactive elements form stable compounds.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0323104 B
12 12230 31 03750003
09
The activity of the alkali metals decreases with their size.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0323105 B
12 12232 31 00030554006109
An alkali metal is one that dissolves in a strongly basic
solution only.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0323106 B
12 12234 31 01890845007509
Except for boron the elements of group III form amphoteric
hydroxides.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0323107 B
12 12236 32 08080077008709
Bi O is not appreciably soluble in acid solutions.
4 23
9 A. True B. False
0043
0323108 A
12 12238 51 00030075160109
All alkali_metal (periodic group 1) hydroxides are strong bases.
9 A. True B. false.
0043
0323109 B
12 12240 31 03440025011309
Potassium metal reacts with oxygen gas to form potassium
peroxide.
9 A. True B. false.
0043
0323110 B
12 12242 51 01700003079409
The sublimation energies of the alkali metals show a sharp
increase in going down the group.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0323111 A
12 12244 51 00030172001509
Alkali metals have melting points which are rather low
compared to many other metals.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0323112 A
12 12246 31 11780191000209
The sodium ion does not hydrolyze appreciably.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0323113 A
12 12247 31 13700794041609
The first ionization potential of lithium is the lowest in the
group.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0323114 B
12 12249 31 00030008002509
Alkali metals are usually stored under water to protect them from
the oxygen of the air.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0323115 B
12 12251 31 11780348105509
The sodium ion is a highly reactive species.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0323116 B
12 12252 31 16270113145209
5
+
The disproportionation of Mg occurs only in the gas phase.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0323117 B
12 12254 51 01720900000309
The melting points of the alkaline_earth metals are generally
lower than those of the alkali metals.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0323118 B
13 12256 51 017000030159
The sublimation energies of the alkali metals_____ in going down
the group.
9 A. increase B. decrease C. remain constant
0019
0323119 B
13 12258 31 017200030015
As a class, the melting points of the alkali metals are ________
most other metals.
9 A. higher than B. lower than C. comparable to
0019
0323120 B
12 12260 31 148603690015
Representative elements contain partially filled d subshells.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0323121 A
12 12262 31 040700151331
5
2_
2_
The reaction of oxygen with a 1A metal may produce O , O
4
2
5 _
O ions.
42
9 A. True B. False
0009
0323201 C
13 12266 31
The element Br will oxidize
4
2
01890045
or
0019
5
_
_
_
9 A. F B. Cl C. I
0323202 A
13 12268 52 137101890516
The element with the lowest Van Der Waals attractive forces is
A. F B. Cl C. Br
94
2
2
2
0019
0323203 A
13 12270 31 043809581097
In which liquid sample are the hydrogen bonds the strongest?
A. H O B. H S C. H Se
94
2
2
2
0019
0323204 A
13 12272 52 11390293
The most polar molecule of those listed is
A. NH
B. PH
C. AsH
D. SbH
E. BiH
94
3
3
3
3
3
0323205 B
12 12274 31 14860028007609
The element with atomic number 34 will probably form a positive
ion.
9 A. True B. False
0323206 B
12 12276 32 03381486
A halogen atom has eight valence electrons.
9 A. True B. False
0323301 A
12 12277 51 00350189036909
Great variability in oxidation state is common for elements near
the middle of a transition_metal series.
9 A. True B. False
0323302 B
12 12279 51 03690351088509
All transition element atoms have two valence electrons.
9 A. True B. False
0323303 A
12 12281 51 00350560
09
The highest oxidation state exhibited by manganese is +7.
9 A. True B. False
0019
0040
0003
0043
0043
0043
0323304 B
12 12283 51 03690793016909
Transition elements are likely to be brittle because of ionic
bonding in the solid.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0323305 A
12 12285 51 01860614001509
The densities of all of the platinum metals are greater than
0043
5
3
that of lead (11.3 g/cm ).
9 A. True B. False
0323306 A
12 12287 32 01890943003209
Of the two elements, calcium and copper, the more likely to form
coordination compounds is copper.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0323401 B
12 12289 51 03500062094309
Silicon is strongly metallic in its chemical behavior.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0323402 B
12 12291 32 01890845132309
The only element of group v which forms an amphoteric oxide
is arsenic.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0323403 A
12 12293 31 01960321128409
Hydrogen is commonly found in combined form in the atmosphere.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0323501 A
12 12295 31 0567
09
The rare_earth metals resemble one another very closely.
9 A. True B. False
0323502 B
12 12297 51 17570067
09
As a result of the lanthanide contraction, lanthanum and
yttrium are very similar in properties.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0043
0323801 A
12 12299 31 03510449034609
Atoms are most stable when their electron shells and subshells
are closed.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0323802 A
12 12301 32 05810263034209
Chemical bonds form because one or more electrons are attracted
simultaneously by two or more nuclei.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0323803 B
13 12303 52 011300370830
The first rare gas compound synthesized is ______.
A. XeF B. XePtF C. XeOF
94
2
6
4
0324001 A
13 12305
71
8003
0019
2WVW
Trans_1,2_dimethylethylene is more stable than
cis_1,2_dimethylethylene because
A. the repulsion of the methyl groups is greater in cis
B. the product of hydrogenation of cis is more stable
9 C. the statement is correct, but A and B are incorrect
0331001 B
13 12309 71
800306
Which of the following is most reactive to anionic reagents?
A. CF
B. NF
C. CH
D. C H
E. CCl
94
4
3
4
26
4
2WVW
0331002 A
15 12312 71 8003
06
Which will be most easily hydrogenated?
A. cis_2_butene
D. cyclohexane
B. methane
E. 1,2_dichloroethane
9 C. trans_2_butene
2WVW
0331003 C
13 12315 71 8003
Which will be most easily hydrogenated?
A. cyclohexane
B. cyclopropane
9 C. propylene (propene)
2WVW
06
0331004 B
12 12317 31 14860824072209
The most electronegative elements will be found on the left of
the periodic table.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0332001 B
12 12319 31 00640731011309
The inert gases have the lowest ionization energies.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0334001 A
12 12321 51 03510032034409
An atom of Cu is considerably smaller than an atom of K.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0334002 A
12 12323 32 00261486
A chlorine atom (Z = 17) is smaller than an atom of sulfur (Z=16)
because the chlorine atom has a higher nuclear charge.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0335001 B
12 12325 31
Chlorine is the heaviest gas.
9 A. True B. False
00060113
0041
0335002 B
08080373045809
12 12326
51
09
0043
The least soluble of the group II sulfates is BeSO .
4
4
9 A. True B. False
0335003 A
12 12328 31 0730
5 2+
3+
Mg and Al are isoelectronic.
9 A. True B. False
09
0043
0335004 B
12 12330 52 08081526117809
MgSO is more soluble than BaSO because the charge density of
4
4
4
the ions is higher.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0335005 A
12 12332 52 15261435080809
Using the 'charge density rule,' we would expect CaF to be less
4
2
soluble than CaCl .
4
2
9 A. True B. False
0009
0335006 B
12 12335 32 00081486049809
Water has lower boiling point than prediced by the periodic law.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0335007 A
12 12337 32 07681486
Atoms of the noble gases in their ground states are never
paramagnetic.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0337001 A
12 12339 31 08850351
09
The valence electrons of an atom are readily lost.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0337002 A
12 12341 31 00640020
The inert gases all have valences of zero.
9 A. True B. False
0041
09
0337003 B
12 12342 51 00350189003709
The only oxidation state exhibited by the group III elements in
their compounds is +3.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0337004 B
12 12344 31 137100350369
The lowest oxidation state exhibited by a transition metal is +2.
0043
9
A. True B. False
0339001 A
12 12346 31 14020189006209
The chemical properties of the elements in each column of the
periodic table change from top to bottom in the direction of
increased metallic activity.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0339002 B
12 12349 31 00250028002309
Oxygen is a more active nonmetal than fluorine.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0339003 A
12 12351 31 00390071001509
Gold is a less active metal than iron.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0339004 A
12 12352 31 00281284
09
Nonmetals sometimes combine with one another.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0339005 B
12 12353 51 00390015007109
Gold is the most active common metal, sodium the least active.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0339006 A
12 12355 51 00230375009409
Fluorine is the most active common nonmetal, sulfur the least
active.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0339007 A
12 12357 51 036900660035
In going down a transition_metal subgroup, compounds with higher
oxidation states tend to become more stable.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0352001 B
12 12359 31 14860885096709
There are five valence electrons in boron (B).
9 A. True B. False
0040
0412001 B
12 12360 31 08120189079709
The symbol for an element is always derived from the first one or
two letters in its English name.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0412002 B
12 12362 31 08121486018909
The first letter of an element's symbol always begins with the
same letter as does the element's name.
0040
9
A. True B. False
0414001 A
12 12364 31 07260066
09
The sum of the oxidation numbers in a compound is 0.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0414002 B
12 12366 31 12540293019609
The molecular formula for hydrogen peroxide, H O , indicates that
4
22
one molecule of hydrogen (H ) is bonded to one molecule of
4
2
oxygen (O ).
4
2
9 A. True B. False
0009
0414003 B
12 12370 31 022401960445
The formula H S means that two parts of hydrogen by weight
4
2
are combined with one part of sulfur by weight.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0416001 B
12 12372 31 00310020
09
The equation H S + O _____> H O + SO is balanced.
4
2
2
2
2
9 A. True B. False
0041
0416002 A
12 12374 31 00311076
09
The equation C H + 11 O _____> 7 CO + 8 H O is balanced.
4
7 16
2
2
2
9 A. True B. False
0041
0416003 A
12 12376 32 08180031132409
The coefficient of boron, B , in the equation for the reaction of
4
5
boron with oxygen, can be predicted from the electronic
structures of boron and of oxygen.
9 A. True B. False
0416004 C
15 12379 32 0704
22
The equation for the reaction of phosgene gas with
sodium hydroxide is COCl + 4NaOH = Na CO + 2NaCl
4
2
2 3
+ 2H O. If 3 moles of COCl react, how many moles of
4
2
2
sodium chloride are formed?
9 A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 E. 10
0009
0416201 A
12 12383 51 02611173
09
Carbon dioxide may be prepared by heating MgCO .
4
3
9 A. True B. False
0043
0416202 B
12 12385 31 016101951167
At the same temperature and pressure, two volumes of hydrogen
react with one volume of oxygen to give three volumes of water
vapor.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0416401 A
12 12388 32 12010977102009
The calculation of theoretical yield is based on the assumption
that all of the limiting reactant is consumed according to the
equation for the reaction.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0416402 B
12 12391 31 01350553102009
In an ordinary chemical reaction, the number of moles of
reactants always equals the number of moles of products.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0416403 A
12 12393 51 14190553024509
A chemical equation describes the relative changes in the numbers
of moles of reactants and products as equilibrium is approached.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0420001 A
12 12396 31 05530066053409
A mole of any compound has a mass equal to the formula mass of
that compound expressed in grams.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0420002 A
12 12398 31 02240553019209
The number of formula units is the same in a mole of any
substance.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0420003 A
12 12400 51 05531339070309
The chemical mole is defined as being Avogadro's number of
formula units (molecules, ions, atoms, electrons...).
9 A. True B. False
0009
0420004 A
12 12402 31 07030727
09
Avogadro's number of molecules is a mole of the substance.
A. True
9
B. False
0420005 B
12 12404 31 1702
09
A mole of hydrogen atoms is equivalent in mass to a mole of
hydrogen molecules (H )
4
2
9 A. True B. False
0420006 A
12 12406 31 1702
09
A mole of hydrogen molecules (h ) and a gram_atom of helium
4
2
(He) contain the same number of particles
A. True
9 B. False
0420007 A
12 12409 31 1702
09
A gram_atom of helium (He) and a mole of neon (Ne) contain
the same number of particles.
A. True
9 B. False
0420008 B
12 12411 31 1702
09
A mole of hydrogen (H ) and a mole of helium (He) have
4
2
the same mass.
A. True
9 B. False
0420009 B
12 12413 31 1702
09
The mole is a convenient unit of measurement because a mole
of one substance has the same mass as a mole of any other
substance.
A. True
9 B. False
0422001 B
12 12416 31 07031316079509
Avogadro's number is the number of amu in a gram.
9 A. True B. False
0422002 B
12 12418 31 0703
5
24
One mole of NaCl consists of 1.20 x 10 ions.
9 A. True B. False
0422003 A
12 12420 31 07030727
09
Avogadro's number of atoms is a mole of atoms.
0041
0003
9
A. True
B. False
0422004 A
12 12422 31 07030727
09
5
23
A sample containing 6.02 x 10 atoms contains a mole of
atoms.
A. True
9 B. False
0422005 A
12 12424 31 07030727
09
5
12
The number of atoms in exactly 12.0000 grams of pure C is
one mole.
A. True
9 B. False
0422006 A
12 12427 31 07030727
09
5
12
A sample which contains 12.0000 grams of pure C contains
5
23
6.02 x 10 atoms of carbon.
A. True
9 B. False
0422007 B
12 12430 31 07030727
09
5
16
A sample which contains 12.0000 grams of pure O contains
Avogadro's number of atoms.
A. True
9 B. False
0422008 B
15 12433 52
5
23
12
Avogadro's number is defined as 6.02 x 10 moles of pure C.
9 A. True B. False
0422009 A
12 12435 31 07030727
0940
The number of atoms present in 12.0000 grams of carbon_12 is
called Avogadro's number.
A. True
9 B. False
0422010 A
12 12437 31 07030727
0940
The number of atoms present in 16.0000 grams of oxygen_16 is
called Avogadro's number.
9
A. True
B. False
0422011 B
12 12439 31 07030727
0940
The number of atoms present in 6.0000 grams of carbon_12 is
called Avogadro's number.
A. True
9 B. False
0422012 B
12 12441 31 07030727
0940
The number of atoms present in 8.0000 grams of oxygen_16 is
called Avogadro's number.
A. True
9 B. False
0422013 A
12 12443 31 07030727
0940
The number of atoms present in 12.0000 grams of carbon_12 or
16.0000 grams of oxygen_16 is called Avogadro's number.
A. True
9 B. False
0422014 A
12 12445 31 07030727
09
Avogadro's number of atoms is sometimes called a gram_atom.
A. True
9 B. False
0424001 A
13 12447 52 146207270025
Which would require more oxygen for complete oxidation?
A. 12 grams of charcoal (carbon)
B. 12 grams of a compound C H O
4
5 10 2
C. 12 grams of a compound C H O N .
94
5 12 3 2
0026
0424002 A
12 12451 32 07950351029609
In 50 grams of calcium carbonate, CaCO (FW = 100), there are:
4
3
5
23
3 x 10 Ca atoms, 0.5 mole of C, and 3/2 gram atomic weights of
oxygen.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0426001 A
12 12454 31 14860065035209
Atomic weights are relative weights.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0428001 A
12 12455 31 01280192029309
The molecular weight of a substance is a number which
tells how heavy a molecule is when compared to a chosen reference
9 A. True B. False
0009
0428002 B
12 12458 31 03511097044509
Since three_fourths of the atoms in a sample of ScCl are
4
3
chlorine atoms, 75% of the weight of the sample is due to
chlorine.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0428003 B
13 12461 32 006501890128
If the atomic weights of the constituent elements and the
percentage composition by weight of a compound are known, it
A. is always possible to determine the molecular weight of the
gas
B. may be possible to determine the molecular weight of the gas
9 C. is impossible to determine the molecular weight of the gas
0035
0428201 B
12 12466 32 03050196029309
A gram molecular weight of hydrogen (two atoms in a molecule) is
a gram of hydrogen.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0428202 B
12 12468 32 02930305035109
The number of molecules in a gram molecular weight of water, 18
grams, is eighteen times the number of atoms in a gram atomic
weight of hydrogen, 1 gram.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0434001 B
12 12471 32 02240037
09
A reasonable formula for a compound of aluminum and bromine would
be Al Br.
4
3
9 A. True B. False
0009
0434201 A
12 12473 32 019513060293
Two volumes of hydrogen peroxide vapor may be decomposed into
two volumes of water vapor plus one volume of oxygen; therefore
hydrogen peroxide molecules have the formula H O .
4
22
9 A. True B. False
0041
0436001 A
12 12477 31 11100025170209
The atomic mass of oxygen is 16.00 amu, and so a gram atom of
0041
oxygen has a mass of 16.00 g.
9 A. True B. False
0436002 A
12 12479 32 0186
23
A box of salt ( NaCl ) weighs 1 lb. Approximately how many
moles of salt does this box contain? ( atomic weights Na =
9 23 , Cl = 35.5 , 1lb = 454 grams )
0436003 A
12 12482 32 0186
23
An empty aluminum soft drink can weighs 50 grams. How many moles
of aluminum does the can contain? (Atomic weight Al=27)
9 A. 1.9 B. 0.5 C. 1350 D. 50
0436004 A
12 12485 32 0186
23
A 12oz soft drink can filled with water contains how many moles
9 of water. ( Atomic weights H = 1 , O = 16 , 1oz = 30mls )
0436005 A
12 12487 32 0186
23
A nickle ( made from the element nickel ) weighs approximately
5 grams. If you had nickles equivalent in mass to one
mole of nickel, approximately how much money would you
9 have. ( Atomic weight Ni = 60 )
0439001 B
12 12490 32 00651486002509
An oxygen atom weighs 16 grams.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0439002 B
12 12491 32 14860065019609
Hydrogen has an atomic weight of 1, therfore one hydrogen atom
weighs 1 g.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0440001 A
12 12493 32 00320182800209 04
Copper oxide is heated with charcoal. The reaction is an example
of both oxidation and reduction
A. True
9 B. False
2 OS
0441001 B
12 12495 31 07260351018909
The oxidation number of an atom in the elemental state is + if it
is a metal, _if it is a nonmetal.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0441002 A
12 12497 31 15370007026309
In a redox reaction, the oxidizing agent gains electrons.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0442001 B
12 12499 31 08340474800309 04
Burning is an example of a physical change.
A. True
9 B. False
2WVW
0442002 B
12 12500 31 00490286002109
Hydrogen is seldom used as a fuel because the heat liberated by
its oxidation is small.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0443001 A
12 12502 31 00150196037509
The metals above hydrogen in the order of activity of the metals
dissolve in acids, while those below hydrogen do not.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0443002 A
12 12504 51 00010027001609
Metallic aluminum is a stronger reducing agent than metallic zinc
9 A. True B. False
0043
0443003 B
12 12506 32 00871450145109
True or false? A solution of AgNO can safely be stored in a
4
3
copper bottle.
9 A. True B. False
0019
0444001 B
12 12508 31 00090189072609
Iron is the only element that has two different oxidation
numbers in its compounds.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0444101 B
12 12510 51 035100700263
5
2+
When a vanadium atom (Z = 23) becomes ionized to form V , the
electrons are removed from the 3d subshell.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0444201 B
12 12513 31 00200006040809
The oxidation state of chlorine is +1 in NaCl.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0444202 A
12 12514 31 00200413
The oxidation state of mercury is +2 in HgO.
9 A. True B. False
0444203 B
12 12515
32
09
00871296117809
0041
0041
A solution of copper sulfate, CuSO , contains copper, sulfur, and
4
4
oxygen ions.
9 A. True B. False
0444204 B
12 12517 32 10550189003509
The stable species of the element nitrogen in the +3 oxidation
state in acidic solution is HNO .
4
3
9 A. True B. False
0444205 A
12 12520 31 00350189
09
The lowest oxidation state of a 5a element is _3.
9 A. True B. False
0444206 B
12 12522 31 0726
09
The sum of the oxidation states of all the atoms in an ion
must equal zero.
A. True
9 B. False
0444207 A
12 12524 31 0726
09
The sum of the oxidation states of all the atoms in a
neutral molecule must equal zero.
A. True
9 B. False
0444208 A
12 12526 31 0726
09
The charge on an ion is equal to the sum of the oxidation
numbers of all the atoms in the ion.
A. True
9 B. False
0444209 A
12 12528 31 0726
09
The oxidation state of an element can be different in two
different compounds of that element.
A. True
9 B. False
0444210 A
12 12530 31 0726
09
The oxidation state of an element bonded only to itself is
always zero.
A. True
9 B. False
0444211 A
12 12532
31
0726
09
0009
0009
The sum of the oxidation states of all the atoms in an ion
equals the charge on the ion.
A. True
9 B. False
0444212 A
12 12534 31 0726
09
The oxidation state of a given element is always the same in
all samples of any particular compound which contains that
element.
A. True
9 B. False
0444301 BACBAACA 83 12537 52 034404048001169006
MACROITEM STEM
2After each item number on the answer sheet, blacken space
2 A. if the statement is true and its truth is supported by the
2
reason given
2 B. if the statement is true but its truth is not supported by
2
the reason given
0 C. if the statement is False
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
Potassium reacts more vigorously than sodium, because its valence
1 electron is closer to the nucleus of the atom.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
Chlorine reacts more vigorously than iodine, because its atomic
2 radius is smaller than that of iodine.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
Non_metals lose electrons more readily than metals, because they
3 have more electrons in their outermost shells.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
Acetic acid is a weaker acid than hydrochloric acid, because each
4 molecule of acetic acid can release only one hydrogen ion.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
When zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid, zinc atoms become zinc
ions. The hydrogen ions of the acid act as the oxidizing agent,
5 because they gain electrons from the zinc atoms.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
When hydrogen ions acquire electrons, the change is reduction,
6 because electrons have been gained.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
Only an electric current can be used to reduce aluminum to the
metallic state, because no other reducing agent is sufficiently
7 vigorous.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 8
The gases of group O of the periodic table do not react chemically
with other elements, because they do not gain or lose electrons
ETS2 OS
9 under chemical conditions.
0444303 B
12 12554 31 035111781402
Sodium atoms and sodium ions differ in that the latter are
positively charged, but their chemical properties are identical.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0444304 A
12 12556 31 00660449
09
Ferric compounds tend to be more stable on the earth's surface,
and ferrous compounds in the interior.
9 A. True B. False
0444305 B
12 12558 31 00160109002109
Aluminum disintegrates rapidly in air because of oxidation.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0041
0444306 B
12 12560 51 11780045001509
The vanadous ion will oxidize zinc metal.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0444307 A
12 12561 51 00450037036909
It is easier to oxidize compounds of the transition elements in
basic solution than in acidic media.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0444308 A
12 12563 51 00121178
H O will reduce the manganic ion.
42
9 A. True B. False
09
0043
0444309 A
12 12564 51 13180191117809
One would expect a high percent hydrolysis for an ion with a
high charge and a small radius.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0444310 A
12 12566 31 11731167002509
Li O can be prepared by reacting lithium metal with oxygen gas.
4 2
9 A. True B. False
0043
0444311 A
12 12568 31 09000189
09
None of the alkaline_earth elements is found uncombined in
nature.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0444312 B
12 12570 31 00150726059509
Metals frequently show negative oxidation numbers.
0009
9
A. True B. False
0445001 B
12 12572 32 01621076007709
A redox equation balanced in acidic solution can be converted to
apply in basic solution by adding the proper number of H O
4
2
molecules to both sides.
9 A. True B. False
0447001 B
12 12576 51 0007
09
Manganous hydroxide is a good oxidizing agent.
9 A. True B. False
0447002 B
12 12577 31 14860025
09
Liquid rocket propellant systems use oxygen as a fuel.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0043
0040
0447101 A
12 12579 31 17051473001009
Gangue is the valueless material mixed with an ore.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0447102 A
12 12581 31 00160013147309
Commercial aluminum is always produced by electrolysis.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0447103 B
12 12583 31
FeS is an important iron ore.
4 2
9 A. True B. False
00090010
09
0043
0447104 A
12 12584 51 17591323008609
In the basic open_hearth process limestone is added to remove
acidic oxides.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0447105 B
12 12586 51 00151581000909
Chromium is a good metal for use in cathodic protection of iron.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0447106 A
12 12588 31 14860013147309
Electrolysis is used in the manufacture of some metals.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0447107 A
12 12590 31 14860461084409
Nickel is an important constituent of stainless steel.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0447108 A
12 12592 31 14860461002509
Oxygen is used in elemental form in steel production.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0447109 A
12 12594
Steel is an alloy.
9 A. True B. False
14860194046109
0040
0447110 B
12 12595 31 14860194003909
Fifteen carat gold is actually 50% gold.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0447111 B
12 12596 31 14860461136909
A steel with high tensile strength also has a high ductility.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0447201 C
13 12598 31 005500210125
Photography is based primarily upon the chemistry of
9 A. dyes B. developing agents C. silver compounds.
0026
0447202 C
13 12600 51 005505290125
A film is rendered panchromatic by the presence of
A. a small amount of developer
B. larger_than normal grains
C. dyes, sensitive to certain regions of the spectrum which
impart energy to silver halide grains
9 D. sulfide compounds.
0026
0447203 B
13 12604 51 005505290125
In typical color film, which light sensitive layer is hit first
by the incoming light?
A. The green sensitive layer
B. The blue sensitive layer
9 C. The red sensitive layer.
0026
0447204 B
13 12607 51 005500540125
If a piece of photographic film is exposed, developed bleached,
reexposed, redeveloped, washed, and then treated with hypo, a
9 A. negative results B. positive results C. print results.
0026
0447205 B
12 12610 31 14860055
09
A finished photograph contains silver halide compounds.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0447206 A
12 12612
31
31
14860125005509
0040
The dark parts of a photograph negative contain silver metal.
9 A. True B. False
0447301 A
12 12614 31 06140015117109
Platinum metal is essentially insoluble in HNO .
4
3
9 A. True B. False
0043
0447302 A
12 12616 51 00210209133109
5
2+
Oxidation of iron by dilute hydrochloric acid produces Fe .
9 A. True B. False
0043
0447303 A
12 12618 51 15801514009109
The oxidizing strength of oxyanions is ordinarily greatest at low
pH.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0447401 A
12 12620 51 00160062001309
Metallic aluminum is not produced by electrolyzing an aqueous
solution of an aluminum salt, because water has a much lower
oxidation potential than aluminum.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0447402 B
12 12623 51 00130196078809
If water is electrolyzed, the hydrogen produced is richer in
deuterium than usual.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0447403 A
12 12625 51 01961331001309
Hydrogen can be produced by electrolyzing a solution of NaOH in
water.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0447404 A
12 12627 51 15861587001309
Cryolite is added in the Hall process for making aluminum so that
the electrolysis can be carried out at a lower temperature.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0447405 B
12 12630 51 15881589013809
5
_
Complexing agents such as CN are used in many electroplating
processes to increase the concentration of metal ions.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0447601 B
0043
12 12633
31
11681773023609
Hard water can be softened by adding graham's salt, which
5
2+
precipitates the unwanted Ca .
9 A. True B. False
0447602 A
12 12635 31 00081168148609
5
2+
A common ion present in hard water is Ca .
9 A. True B. False
0040
0447603 A
12 12637 31 00081486116809
Water can be made chemically pure by distillation.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0447604 B
12 12639 31 00081486095809
H O is the only substance which may form hydrogen bonds.
42
9 A. True B. False
0040
0447605 B
12 12641 31 00081486116809
Distillation is often used to soften water in the home.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0447606 B
12 12643 31 00081168148609
In order for water to be soft all positive ions must be removed
from it.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0447607 A
12 12645 31 07871614116809
5
2+
In the lime_soda process of water softening, Ca ions in the
5
+
hard water are replaced eventually by Na ions.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0447608 B
12 12649 51 16151616008709
A zeolite column used to soften water could be regenerated by
flushing with a concentrated solution of CaCl .
4
2
9 A. True B. False
0009
0447609 B
12 12652 51 16170471048809
Salt water can be converted to pure water by the process of
osmosis.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0510001 B
12 12654 51 8003
09
Kinetics is concerned chiefly with the energetics of a reaction.
A. True
9 B. False
2WVW
0510002 A
12 12656 51 8003
09
Kinetics is concerned chiefly with the pathway of a reaction.
A. True
9 B. False
2WVW
0511001 A
12 12658 31 8003
09
When two species collide, but do not react chemically, there
may be transfer of energy from one to the other.
A. True
9 B. False
2WVW
0511002 B
12 12660 52 04071609049409
Any reaction for which the rate determining step involves a
collision between two molecules must be second order.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0513001 A
12 12662 51 04071192
09
In general, very fast reactions have small activation energies.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0515001 A
12 12664 51 10041609
09
In stepwise mechanisms the rate_determing step is the slowest one
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0515002 B
12 12666 51 01380440117909
The derivative of a concentration with respect to time is the
instantaneous value of the concentration at a certain time.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0515003 A
12 12668 52 04070138102009
In general, as a reaction proceeds not only will a reactant
concentration change, but dc/dt also changes.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0515004 B
12 12670 51 04071004161209
The reaction: H (g) + I (g) _____> 2 HI(g) is first order in
4
2
2
both H and I . consequently, the mechanism must involve a
4
2
2
simple bimolecular collision between H and I molecules.
4
2
2
0009
9
A. True B. False
0517002 B
12 12674 31 8003
09
Reaction orders are identical to the coefficients of the reactants
in the overall equation for the reaction.
A. True
9 B. False
0517003 A
12 12676
52
14410494049509
2WVW
0043
5
2
If the rate law for a single step is rate = k[Q] , that step
consists of the collision (and reaction) of two particles of Q.
9 A. True B. False.
0517004 A
12 12679 51 06201808013809
The half_life of a first_order chemical reaction is independent
of reactant concentration.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0517005 B
12 12681 51 06201808016109
The half_life of a first_order chemical reaction is independent
of temperature.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0517006 B
12 12683 51 09180138180809
Plotting reciprocal concentration against time yields a
straight line for a first_order reaction.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0517007 A
12 12685 32 04070491013809
If the rate of reaction doubles when the concentration is
doubled, the reaction must be first order.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0517008 B
12 12687 31 04071522038509
For a zero order reaction the rate constant k could have the
5
_1
units sec .
9 A. True B. False
0009
0517009 B
12 12689 51 04070138091809
In a first order reaction a plot of concentration vs time is a
straight line.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0517010 A
12 12691 51 16100539013809
The order of reactions occuring at solid surfaces frequently
changes with concentration.
9 A. True B. False
0519001 A
12 12693 51 00640193024509
The addition of an inert gas without change in volume to a
homogeneous, gaseous system at equilibrium will not affect
equilibrium concentrations of reacatants or products.
9 A. True B. False.
0009
0519101 B
12 12696 31 04910407013809
The rate of a chemical reaction is directly proportional to the
concentration of each reacting substance.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0519102 A
12 12698 51 04910407016109
The rates of most reactions change as the reactions proceed,
even if the temperature is held constant.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0519103 B
12 12700 51 01140407049409
Increasing the total pressure in a gas_phase reaction
increases the fraction of the collisions which are effective in
producing reaction.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0519104 A
12 12703 31 04910407044009
The rate of reaction ordinarily decreases with time.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0043
0519301 B
12 12705 51 8003
04
A reaction that is overall exergonic cannot be slow kinetically.
A. True
9 B. False
2WVW
0519302 A
12 12707 51 8003
04
A reaction that is overall endergonic can be very rapid kinetically.
A. True
9 B. False
2WVW
0519303 A
12 12709 31 1192
Reactions with high activation energies are usually endothermic.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0519304 B
12 12711 51 08010683040709
The distinction between exothermic and endothermic reactions is
0041
that the latter requre activation energy in order to occur while
the former do not.
9 A. True B. False
0519305 B
12 12714 31 04070161049109
Reaction rates are normally independent of temperature.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0519306 B
12 12716 51 04071192068309
Reactions with high activation energies are usually endothermic.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0519307 A
12 12718 51 15220407016109
It is possible to change the value of the specific rate constant
for a reaction by changing the temperature.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0519308 A
12 12720 51 03290494016109
The frequency of collision between reacting particles is
increased by increasing the temperature.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0519309 B
12 12722 51 13680161117209
_E/RT
In the relation K = Ae
, as the temperature increases, the
value of e also increases.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0519310 B
12 12724 52 04071192049109
Reactions with small activation energies show a greater increase
in rate as the temperature is raised than do reactions with large
activation energies.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0519311 A
12 12727 51 01490491016109
Measurement of the rate of a given reaction at a series of
different temperatures provides data for the computation of the
activation energy of the reaction.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0519312 A
12 12730 51 04070801022709
If a reaction were neither exothermic nor endothermic, its
equilibrium constant would be independent of temperature.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0519313 B
12 12732 51 01381233016109
In order to reduce the concentration of NO in automobile exhaust,
0009
it is desirable to increase the temperature at which the fuel is
burned.
9 A. True B. False
0519314 B
12 12735 31 14861192049109
The rate of a reaction increases when activation energy
increases.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0519315 B
12 12737 31 14860161013609
The rate of a reaction is usually doubled by a 25 degrees C
increase in temperature.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0519316 B
12 12739 51 11920407102009
The activation energy for a reaction can be obtained by taking
the difference in energy between reactants and products.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0519317 A
12 12741 51 13501192074509
It is possible for the activation energy, as calculated from the
Arrhenius equation, to be negative.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0519318 A
12 12743 31 1522
It is possible to change the specific rate constant for a
reaction by changing the temperature.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0519501 A
12 12745 31 04850491040709
A catalyst changes the rate of a chemical reaction without itself
being consumed.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0519502 A
12 12747 31 02570407019209
Catalysis refers to the effect on reaction speed of a substance
that does not enter into the reaction directly.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0519503 B
12 12749 51 04850407100409
A catalyst alters the rate of a reaction without being involved
in the mechanism.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0519504 A
12 12751 31 09960785048509
An enzyme is a biochemical catalyst.
0043
9 A. True B. False.
0519505 B
12 12752 51 04910485040709
The rate of a catalyzed reaction is always independent of the
concentration of the catalyst.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0519506 A
12 12754 51 04910192048509
The rate at which substances reach equilibrium may be increased
by adding a catalyst.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0519507 A
12 12756 31 14860485119209
Catalyst act by lowering activation energy.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0519508 B
12 12757 31 14860485024509
Catalysts determine the position of equilibrium in a reaction.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0519509 A
12 12759 51 16081001100809
An enzyme_catalyzed reaction may be inhibited by adding a
substance with a structure very similar to that of the substrate.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0519701 B
12 12761 51 18240407102009
An autocatalytic reaction is one in which a reactant catalyzes
the reaction.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0530001 B
12 12763 31 02450407143909
It is normally very difficult to establish a chemical
equilibrium since most chemical reactions tend to proceed to
completion.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0530002 B
12 12766 51 01930245019209
A homogeneous equilibrium is one involving only one substance.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0530003 A
12 12768 31 14860136024509
The term equilibrium implies equal rates for opposing process.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0530004 A
12 12770 31 0245
A condition in which two opposing processes occur at exactly the
same rate is known as dynamic equilibrium.
0003
9
A. True B. False
0531101 B
12 12772 51 01140245087109
Increasing the pressure on an equilibrium system always causes
the system to adjust so as to relieve the stress.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0531301 A
12 12774 51 02450407049109
In a chemical equilibrium two opposite reactions occur
simultaneously at the same rate.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0531302 B
12 12776 51 18220227040709
The mass_action expression is always equal to the equilibrium
constant for a reaction.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0531303 B
12 12778 51 04910407024509
The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the
reverse reaction at equilibrium only if both reactions have
single_step mechanisms.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0531304 A
12 12781 51 08710245068309
For a system at equilibrium the endothermic reaction always has a
higher activation energy than the exothermic reaction does.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0531305 A
12 12784 51 18221319024509
The mass_action expression is strictly constant at equilibrium
only if chemical activities are used in the expression.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0531306 B
12 12786 51 03250138022709
The ratio of O to O concentration in the upper atmosphere can be
4
3
calculated knowing the concentration of O and the equilibrium
4
2
constant for the reaction: O <=====> O + O.
4
3
2
9 A. True B. False
0009
0531307 B
12 12790 51 02451076015909
Equilibrium can be considered as a balance struck between two
opposing tendencies: A system will tend to move toward a state
of maximum energy; a system will tend to move toward a state of
0009
minimum entropy.
9 A. True B. False
0531501 B
12 12794 51 02270801040709
The equilibrium constant for an exothermic reaction is negative.
9 A. True B. False.
0531502 B
12 12796 31 02270407
09
The equilibrium constant for the reaction:
CO(g) + Hem.O (aq) <=====> O (g) + Hem.CO(aq)
4
2
2
is less than one.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0009
0531503 A
12 12799 31 13190227105509
The expression for K always shows all gaseous or dissolved
4
c
species, never pure solid or liquid species.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0531504 B
12 12802 32 01131167022709
Gaseous hydrogen and oxygen are allowed to react to form liquid
water. The value of K for the reaction:
C
0009
2 H (g) + O (g) <=====> 2 H O(l) will depend upon the initial
4 2
2
2
relative amounts of H and O .
4
2
2
9 A. True B. False
0531701 A
12 12807 52 05530537024509
One mole of HI(g) and one mole of H (g) are placed in an
4
2
evacuated container at 100 degrees C and allowed to come to
equilibrium. As equilibrium is approached, one can be sure that
the H concentration will increase. (The reaction:
4
2
2 HI(g) <=====> H (g) + I (g))
4
2
2
9 A. True B. False
0009
0533101 B
12 12812 51 01921171000809
Some substances are completely insoluble in water.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0533102 A
12 12814 31 14860245079109
When a liquid is placed in a closed container evaporation
continues for a time and then stops.
9 A. True B. False
0533501 B
12 12816 31 01100008
09
The solubility of AgCl in 0.10 m NaCl is greater than it is in
water.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0009
0533901 A
12 12818 51 01910100008709
5
3+
The hydrolysis of Fe
may be repressed by adding concentrated
HNO to the solution.
4 3
9 A. True B. False
0043
0533902 A
12 12820 51 11691446023609
5
2+
Addition of a strong acid to Cu(NH )
can precipitate cupric
4
34
hydroxide.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0533903 B
12 12823 52 11970254094309
The smaller the value of the dissociation constant for a complex,
the weaker the coordinate bonds in the complex.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0533904 A
12 12825 52 02541531092309
The dissociation constant for a complex ordinarily increases as
the strength of the ligands as bases decreases.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0535001 A
12 12827 51 02270407023909
The equilibrium constant for the reaction of a weak acid with a
strong base is smaller than that for a strong acid_strong base
reaction.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0535002 A
12 12830 52 02270407025409
5
_
+
The equilibrium constant for the reaction of C H O with H is
4
232
equal to 1/K , where K is the dissociation constant for HC H O .
4
a
a
232
0009
9
A. True B. False
0535101 B
12 12835 32 00910087
A pH of 0 signifies a neutral solution.
9 A. True B. False
09
0041
0535102 A
12 12836 32 00910077008709
A pH of 3.4 signifies an acid solution.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0535103 A
12 12837 32 00910061008709
A pH of 7.7 signifies a basic solution.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0535104 B
12 12838 52 00720087009109
When NH in solution is titrated with a solution of HCl, the pH
4
3
at the equivalence point is greater than 7.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0535501 A
12 12840 52 00870061013809
A solution of Na HPO is more basic than one of the same
4
2 4
concentration of NaH PO .
4
2 4
9 A. True B. False
0043
0535701 A
12 12843 32 01681444020909
A mixture of 100 ml of 1.0 M HCl with 100 ml of 2.0 M NaC H O
4
232
would act as a buffer.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0535702 B
12 12846 52 01681444020909
A mixture of 100 ml of 1.0 M HCl with 100 ml of 1.0 M NaC H O
4
232
would serve as a buffer.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0535901 A
12 12849 32 00080138117409
5
+
_
In pure water the H and OH concentrations are both
5 _7
10 mole/liter.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0535902 A
12 12851 32 00770087013809
5
+
_7
In an acid solution the H concentration exceeds 10 mole/liter.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0535903 A
12 12853 31 00770087006609
It is possible for an acid solution to result when certain
compounds that contain no hydrogen are dissolved in water.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0535904 A
12 12855 51 01911376000809
5
3+
Because of hydrolysis the simple boron ion, B , cannot exist to
any appreciable extent in water.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0535905 A
12 12858 51 01380293008709
The concentration of water molecules is practically the same
in all dilute solutions.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0535906 A
12 12860 52 00770018019109
The weaker an acid is, the more strongly its salts hydrolyze.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0535907 B
12 12862 52 00870075117809
Adding NH to a solution decreases the hydroxide_ion
4
3
concentration.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0535908 B
12 12864 31 00080087006109
5
+
_7
In a basic water solution, (H ) > 10 .
9 A. True B. False
0009
0535909 B
12 12866 31 08981446160109
The conjugate anions of strong acids are strong bases.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0537001 B
12 12868 31 01681537120109
5
o
For a certain mixture, positive E values are calculated
for two different redox reactions. We can be confident that the
0009
5
0
one with the higher e value will occur first.
9 A. True B. False
0551001 A
12 12872 51 05530169052809
The number of moles of BaSO per liter of solid BaSO is
4
4
4
essentially constant.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0551002 A
12 12875 51 01100018016109
If the solubility of a salt increases with increasing temperature
the K also increases as temperature is increased.
4
sp
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0551003 A
12 12878 51 00890808000809
Many strong electrolytes are not very soluble in water.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0551004 B
12 12880 52 15270554009109
Because the K for ZnS is larger than that for CuS, ZnS will
sp
0043
9
dissolve in a solution of lower pH than CuS will.
A. True B. False.
0551005 B
12 12883 32 00181527011009
Any two salts that have the same K value will have the same
sp
solubility.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0551006 B
12 12885 32 00870236152709
5
+
_
When equal volumes of 0.1 M solutions of M and X are mixed, a
precipitate forms if K of MX is less than 0.01.
sp
9 A. True B. False
0009
0553001 B
12 12888 32 02360087013809
5
_
A precipitate will form when enough Cl is added to a solution
5
2+
_
0.10 M in Pb to make conc Cl = 0.010 M
5
_5
(K PbCl = 1.7 x 10 ).
0009
4 sp
2
9 A. True B. False
0553002 A
12 12892 31 00181173040709
A salt MNO can be prepared by a precipitation reaction which
4
3
involves adding AgNO to a solution of MCl.
4
3
9 A. True B. False
0009
0555001 A
12 12895 32 01141172109609
An increase in pressure increases the stability of diamond
relative to graphite.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0555002 B
12 12897 52 04900169137609
Below the triple point temperature, only solid can exist.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0555003 B
12 12899 52 00081376043809
Pure water cannot exist as a liquid below 0 degrees C.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0555004 A
12 12901 32 00080130008709
If water saturated with nitrogen at 1 atm is exposed to air, N
4
2
will come out of solution.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0555005 A
13 12904 52 019504380172
The volume of a liquid sample decreases on freezing. An increase
in pressure would therefore
A. increase the melting point
B. decrease the melting point
9 C. produce NO change in melting point
0019
0555006 B
13 12907 31 049811490008
The normal boiling points of water and ethyl alcohol are
100 degrees C and 78.5 degrees C respectively. The vapor
pressure of water at its normal boiling point is ________ that of
ethyl alcohol at its normal boiling point.
9 A. greater than B. equal to C. less than
0019
0555007 AB
22 12911 32 11490498
MACROITEM STEM
The vapor pressures of ether and chloroform at 0 degrees C are
0019
18.5 and 6.2 cm Hg respectively. The boiling point of chloroform
0 should be ______ the boiling point of ether.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 A. lower than B. higher than
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
The rate of evaporation of ether at 0 degrees C will be _________
the rate of evaporation of chloroform at 0 degrees C.
9 A. slower than B. faster than C. the same as
0555008 B
13 12916 32 000801740161
Where would water boil at the lowest temperature?
A. Miami, Fla. (Elev 0)
B. Columbus, Ohio (elev 600 ft)
9 C. Denver, Colo. Elev 500 ft)
0019
0555009 B
12 12918 32 14861437
09
The greater the pressure of a gas on the surface of a liquid, the
less the solubility of the gas.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0555010 A
12 12920 32 14861437106409
The bends of a deep sea diver and the sparkle of soda pop are due
to the same process.
9 A. True B. False
0610001 B
12 12922 31 14860087
09
In any mixture of water and alcohol the alcohol is always
properly referred to as the solvent.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0040
0611001 B
12 12924 32 00871291013409
In a solution containing equal numbers of grams of benzene
(MW = 78) and toluene (MW = 92), the mole fractions are each 0.50
9 A. True B. False
0009
0611002 A
12 12926 31 01341436008709
The mole fractions of all the components of a solution add to
unity.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0612001 A
12 12928 51 00910077006109
The pH of an acid being titrated with a base rises sharply at the
equivalence point.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0612501 A
0040
12 12930
31
14860089001809
Salts are usually strong electrolytes.
9 A. True B. False
0613001 A
12 12931 51 00910087009909
The pH of a neutral solution is 7.0 at 25 degrees C.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0613002 A
12 12933 51 00910099008709
The pH of a neutral solution is not 7.0 at 50 degrees C.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0613003 B
12 12935 51 12110091
It is impossible to have a pH less than zero.
9 A. True B. False.
09
0043
0613004 B
12 12936 31 12110087009109
It is impossible to have a solution with a negative ph.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0613005 B
12 12938 32 00910087117309
5
_9
The pH of a solution prepared by dissolving 1 x 10 moles of HCl
in a liter of water is 9.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0621001 B
12 12941 31 08450192117109
An amphoteric substance is one that is insoluble.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0621101 A
12 12943 31 00610097026309 04
A base is a proton acceptor and an electron donor.
A. True
9 B. False
2 OS
0621102 B
12 12945 31 14430189037009
Hydronium is the element following hydrogen in the periodic
table.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0621103 A
12 12947 31 00770192007009
An acid is a substance containing hydrogen which is partially or
completely ionized when dissolved in water.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0621104 A
12 12949 31 00930087006109
An alkaline solution is the same thing as a basic solution.
0041
9
A. True B. False
0621105 A
12 12951 31 14860018006609
The compound CuCl would be classified as a salt.
4
2
9 A. True B. False
0040
0621106 B
12 12953 31 14860077000609
The substance ClO (OH) could not possibly be an acid.
4
2
9 A. True B. False
0040
0621201 A
12 12955 51 00870105116709
A solution of HCl will react with a solution of NaC H O .
4
232
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0621202 B
12 12957 51 00721173144609
Ammonia can be prepared by heating a solution of ammonium
chloride with a strong acid.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0621203 A
12 12959 31 00871511007709
A solution which gives off bubbles when Na CO is added is
4
2 3
acidic.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0621301 A
12 12961 51 11730130008709
Sodium hydrogen carbonate could be prepared by saturating a
solution of NaOH with CO and evaporating.
4
2
9 A. True B. False
0009
0621401 A
12 12964 31 00770104031509
Pure acids are poor conductors of electricity.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0621402 B
12 12965 32 00770196029309
The weaker an acid, the weaker is the attachment of hydrogen in
its molecules.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0621403 A
12 12967
H PO is a diprotic acid.
43 3
31
00770077
09
0043
9
A. True B. False
0621405 A
12 12968 51 00871760052209
As a solution of a weak base is diluted, the number of moles of
5 _
OH per liter decreases.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0621406 A
12 12970 51 00810087023909
As a solution of a weak acid is diluted, the percent dissociation
of the acid increases.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0621407 B
12 12972 51 00660061
All hydroxy compounds are bases.
9 A. True B. False.
09
0043
0621408 A
12 12973 51 14460056008109
Although H SO is a strong acid, the second step in its
4
2 4
dissociation is partial.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0621409 B
12 12975 51 01960138008709
If the hydrogen_ion concentration in a solution of HCl is
gradually decreased by progressive addition of water, the
solution will eventually turn basic.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0621410 C
13 12978 51 00771455
The strongest acid of those listed is
A. HClO B. HClO C. HClO
94
2
3
0019
0621411 A
12 12980 31 14860018116709
A salt is produced when an acid reacts with a base.
9 A. True B. False
0621412 A
12 12982 31 02391446
There are more weak acids than strong acids.
9 A. True B. False
0621413 A
12 12983
51
09
00871178006109
5
_
Solutions containing CN ion are expected to be basic.
0040
0009
0009
9
A. True B. False
0621414 A
12 12985 32 00771446
09
5
_4
_4
HF (K = 7 x 10 ) is a stronger acid than HNO (K = 4 x 10 ).
4
a
2 a
9 A. True B. False
0009
0621501 B
12 12988 32 00870408035109
A solution of sodium chloride contains neutral sodium and
chlorine atoms.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0621502 A
12 12990 31 00180808
All salts are soluble to some extent.
9 A. True B. False
0041
09
0621503 A
12 12991 51 00871173055409
A solution prepared by dissolving KAl(SO ) .12H O in water is
4
42
2
acidic.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0621504 A
12 12993 31 00870077085009
A solution of NH NO is acidic, because the ammonium ion
4
4 3
undergoes dissociation in water.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0621505 A
12 12995 51 00870008009909
A solution of KNO in water is practically neutral.
4
3
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0621506 A
12 12997 51 00870061
09
One would expect a solution of NaC H O to be basic.
4
232
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0621507 A
12 12999 51 00870077
09
One would expect a solution of NaHSO to be acidic.
4
4
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0621508 B
12 13001 51 00870061
09
One would expect a solution of NH Cl to be basic.
0043
4
9 A. True B. False.
4
0621509 A
12 13003 51 00870099
09
One would expect a solution of NH C H O to be neutral.
4
4232
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0621510 B
12 13005 31 14860408001809
Sodium chloride is the only true salt.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0621511 B
12 13006 31
A solution of NH Cl is basic.
4
4
9 A. True B. False
0009
00870061025209
0622001 A
12 13008 31 00801446160109
The neutralization of a strong acid by a strong base in a water
solution is essentially the reaction of hydrogen and hydroxide
ions to form water.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0622002 A
12 13011 31 13230061008009
A basic oxide can neutralize an acid solution even though it
5
_
contains no OH ions.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0622003 A
12 13013 31 14860080001809
The products of an acid_base neutralization are a salt and water.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0622004 A
12 13015 31 14860080001809
The reaction HNO + NaOH _____> NaNO + H O can be classified as
4
3
3
2
a neutralization.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0622301 B
12 13018 52 01030215009909
When 100 ml of 0.10 M HC H O is added to 100 ml of 0.10 M NaOH,
4
232
a neutral solution is produced.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0622302 A
0009
12 13021
52
00870099020909
When 100 ml of 0.10 M HCl is added to 100 ml of 0.10 M NaOH, a
neutral solution is formed.
9 A. True B. False
0622303 A
12 13023 51 15290103030509
The gram equivalent weight of acetic acid, HC H O , in an
4
232
acid_base titration, is always equal to its gram molecular weight
9 A. True B. False
0009
0622304 B
12 13026 51 15301183009109
At the equivalence point of the titration of a strong acid with a
weak base, the pH is greater than 7.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0623001 B
12 13028 31 02440153008709
NH OH crystals can be formed by evaporating a solution of
4 4
ammonia in water.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0623201 A
12 13030 32 01130072008709
When the gas ammonia is dissolved in water, the resulting
solution is basic.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0623202 B
12 13032 32
0085133109
Carbonic acid can produce severe wounds.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0630001 B
12 13033 32 08080237079009
All soluble covalent compounds are nonelectrolytes.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0630002 A
12 13035 32 00080112113909
Water is an excellent solvent because of its polar nature.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0630003 B
12 13037 31 11391394019209
Polar liquids dissolve nonpolar substances readily and vice
versa.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0630004 A
12 13039 31 14860136055409
The rate of dissolving of a solute is increased by heating.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0631001 B
12 13041 52 10500808053509
DDT should be more soluble in alcohol than in carbon
tetrachloride.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0631002 B
12 13043 31 14861139011009
The solubility of a polar solute in a polar solvent tends to be
low.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0632001 A
12 13045 32 0351
159109
Because of the larger size of the arsenic atom, one would
expect arsenic acid to be weaker than phosphoric acid.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0632002 A
12 13047 51 05541026006109
Be(OH) will dissolve in excess base.
4
2
9 A. True B. False
0043
0632003 B
13 13049 32 143508080008
CsCl would be expected to be:
A. more soluble in carbon tetrachloride than in water
B. more soluble in water than in carbon tetrachloride
9 C. equally soluble in both solvents
0019
0632004 B
12 13052 32 14860110039409
Gasoline does not dissolve readily in water because polar
substances tend not to dissolve in each other.
9 A. True B. False
0632005 A
12 13054 31 14860008
09
A nonpolar solute would be relatively insoluble in water.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0040
0632006 A
12 13056 31 0453
One would expect charcoal to adsorb chlorine (Cl ) more strongly
4
2
than hydrogen sulfide (H S).
4
2
9 A. True B. False
0003
0632007 B
12 13059 31 0182
A charcoal gas mask is more efficient at the south pole than at
the equator.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0633001 A
12 13061 52 011000080215
The solubility of Ca(OH) in water can be decreased by adding
4
2
NaOH to the solution.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0634001 B
12 13063 31 00870112013009
A solution that contains the maximum amount of solvent is called a
saturated solution.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0634002 A
12 13065 32 11780554113909
Ionic compounds dissolve only in highly polar liquids.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0634003 B
12 13067 31 01100113016109
The solubilities of gases and solids increase with temperature.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0634004 B
12 13069 31 11710008
Potassium nitrate is insoluble in water.
9 A. True B. False
0634005 A
12 13070 51 0808
The most soluble of the silver halides is AgF.
9 A. True B. False
09
09
0634006 A
12 13071 51
0408080809
Silver chloride is more soluble in very concentrated NaCl
than in pure water.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0043
0043
0634007 B
12 13073 32 15131173010909
A supersaturated solution of air in water could be prepared by
bubbling air through water at 60 degrees C and cooling to 25
degrees C.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0634008 B
12 13076 31 01100161016909
The solubility of a solid in a liquid is ordinarily directly
proportional to the absolute temperature.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0634009 B
13 13078 32 028605540087
Heat is evolved when a certain salt dissolves. Heating the
0019
solution will therefore ______ the solubility of the salt.
9 A. increase B. decrease C. not change
0634010 B
12 13081 31 01100130148609
For a substance to form a saturated solution, it must be very
insoluble.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0634011 A
12 13083 31 14860110016109
In certain cases the solubility of a substance in water
decreases with temperature.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0634012 A
12 13085 31 14860087049109
The solution process can be speeded up in an exothermic
reaction by heating.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0636001 A
12 13087 31 01100008
09
The solubility of AgCl in 0.10 M NaNO is greater than it is in
4
3
water
9 A. True B. False
0009
0640001 B
12 13089 32 14860736
09
The molecular weight of water is a colligative property.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0641001 B
12 13091 51 04980087053609
The boiling point of a 1 M solution of a nonelectrolyte will be
100.52 degrees C, provided the solution is ideal.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0641002 A
12 13093 32 14860132073609
Salt water boils at a higher temperature than pure water.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0642001 B
12 13095 52 01110087
09
The freezing point of a 1 M solution of K SO would be about the
4
2 4
same as that of a 1 M solution of urea.
9 A. True B. False
0642003 A
12 13098 31 14860127073609
The freezing point of water is lowered by the addition of a
solute.
0009
0040
9
A. True B. False
0644001 A
12 13100 51 01330112008709
Raoult's Law often applies to the solvent in a solution but not
to the solute.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0644002 A
12 13102 51 01270132051909
Freezing point lowering, boiling point elevation, and osmotic
pressure can all be explained in terms of vapor pressure lowering
9 A. True B. False
0009
0644003 A
12 13105 32 14860131073609
The solvent vapor pressure of salt water is less than that of
pure water.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0644004 B
12 13107 32 14860131073609
The vapor pressure of water can be raised by adding a small
amount of sugar.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0660001 A
12 13109 31 0130
Even a very tall cylinder containing a solution of sugar in water
shows no settling of sugar molecules.
9 A. True B. False
0660002 A
12 13111 31
In a typical gel, both solid and liquid phases are continuous.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0003
0660003 A
12 13113 31 0118
Information about the charge on colloidal particles can be
obtained from electrophoretic measurements.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0660004 B
12 13115 31 0122
The Tyndall effect becomes more pronounced at higher temperatures
9 A. True B. False
0003
0660005 B
12 13117 31 0118
If a liquid appears perfectly transparent when viewed in front of
a bright light, it cannot be a colloid.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0662001 A
0003
12 13119
31
0118
Some molecules are so large they will produce a Tyndall effect
9 A. True B. False
0700001 B
12 13121 31 05810347
09
Chemical bonds almost never form unless half_filled orbitals are
available.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0700002 B
12 13123 31 05890336
Diamond is an example of a glass.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0710001 A
12 13124 31 03510237019209
The atoms of covalent substances are joined by shared electron
pairs.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0710002 B
12 13126 31 02370015006609
Covalent compounds invariably contain a metal.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0710003 B
12 13127 31 14860927092609
No more than one pair of electrons can be shared to form covalent
bonds between atoms.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0710004 A
12 13129 52 14860926033709
A compound between elements with atomic numbers of 7 and 8 will
contain covalent bonds.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0711301 A
12 13131 31 07820355034709
Molecular orbitals can be bonding or antibonding in character.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0711302 A
12 13133 31 07820263
09
A molecular orbital can contain at most two electrons.
9 A. True B. False
0712001 B
12 13135 31 13210781026309
In structural formulas, each dash represents a single shared
electron.
9 A. True B. False
0712002 A
12 13137 31 0926
In order to define a "molecule" of a covalent solid, one would
0041
0041
0003
have to specify the entire crystal.
9 A. True B. False
0712101 B
12 13139 31 00140781029309
Carbon atoms may be joined by one, two, three, or four bonds in a
molecule.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0712102 A
12 13141 52 07760037077709
Knowing that a Lewis structure can be written for the compound
XY , where Y corresponds to an element in group 7a of the
4 2
periodic table, and that the octet rule is obeyed, you can be
reasonably sure that the neutral atom of element X has two
unpaired "valence" electrons.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0712104 A
12 13145 32 09451486
The ammonia molecule has two lone_pair electrons.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0712105 A
12 13147 32 07771486
The octet rule is violated in the compound NO .
4
2
9 A. True B. False
0003
0712301 B
12 13149 51 09850355035109
The formation of multiple bonds is exhibited more readily by
large atoms than by small ones.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0712302 B
12 13151 51 15140527093909
The strength of the attractive force between two bonded atoms
increases, and the length of the bond increases, in the order:
single bond _ double bond _ triple bond.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0712303 A
12 13154 32 07451486
The energy required to break the bond in N should be greater
4
2
than that required for O .
4
2
9 A. True B. False
0003
0712304 B
12 13157 31 09351486
Each electron of a pair spends its time in only one of the two
0003
lobes of a pi bonding orbital.
9 A. True B. False
0712501 B
12 13159 51 12271509123009
The double bonds in benzene and other aromatic hydrocarbons
behave chemically in the same way as those in ethylene.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0712701 A
12 13161 31 09190347115909
Hybrid orbitals are formed from combinations of s and p orbitals.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0712702 A
12 13163 32 12130919
An example of hybrid orbital occurs in H O.
4
2
9 A. True B. False
09
0041
0714001 A
12 13167 31 13210351029309
The structural formula of a compound indicates the arrangement of
the atoms in its molecules.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0714002 B
12 13169 52 15960293093009
Experimental results support the idea that a certain molecule,
AB , is linear (that is, all three nuclei lie along a straight
4 2
line). this must mean that there are only two pairs of electrons
about the central atom.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0714101 B
12 13173 31 03510293
09
The H atoms in an H O molecule are 180 degrees apart on opposite
4
2
sides of the O atom.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0714102 A
12 13175 32 10290875087909
The nitrate ion has a planar, triangular structure.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0714103 A
12 13177 32 08500874087909
The ammonium ion has a tetrahedral structure.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0714104 A
12 13178 32 07791486
The carbon tetrachloride, CCl , molecule has a tetrahedral shape.
0003
4
9 A. True B. False
4
0714301 B
12 13180 32 09391486
In the ammonium ion one N_H bond is of different length from the
other three.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0714701 B
12 13182 52 08791178
09
The structure of the metaphosphate ion is similar to that of the
dichromate ion.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0714801 A
13 13184 51 16580898
05
A mirror image represents which symmetry operation?
A. Reflection in a plane
B. Rotation about an axis of symmetry
9 C. Inversion through a center
0714802 A
12 13187 32 0579
A rectangle contains a center of symmetry.
A. True
9 B. False
09
0715001 A
13 13188 32 00661403077809
What of the following compounds should have the highest dipole
moment?
A. H O B. H S C. H Te
94
2
2
2
0019
0715002 B
12 13190 51 15930192092609
The physical properties of molecular substances are directly
related to the strengths of the covalent bonds holding the
molecule together.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0715003 B
12 13193 32 16971486
The electronic charge distribution in a diatomic molecule is
symmetrical between the two nuclei.
9 A. True B. False
0715101 B
12 13195 72 142302631756
Each unpaired electron in an atom contributes 1.73 Bohr
magnetons to the magnetic moment if the orbital moment is
quenched.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0043
0715301 A
12 13198 51 03550351029309
Strong bonds between atoms in a molecule mean great stability.
9 A. True B. False
0715302 B
12 13200 32 07451486
The energy required to break the H_F bond is less than that
required to break either the H_H of F_F bond.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0003
0715501 A
12 13202 31 11390293018509
Polar molecules behave as though they were negatively charged at
one end and positively charged at the other.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0715502 B
12 13204 31
The water molecule is nonpolar.
9 A. True B. False
0040
00081486113909
0715503 A
12 13205 32 07781486
A polar diatomic molecule always contains a polar covalent bond.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0715504 B
12 13207 32
The methane molecule is polar.
9 A. True B. False
07781486
0003
0715701 A
12 13208 52
5 2+
Ti (g) should be paramagnetic.
9 A. True B. False
0768
09
0715702 B
12 13209 51 0768
09
5
+
Paramagnetism would not be expected of Cr(NH ) Cl .
4
34 2
9 A. True B. False
0715703 B
12 13212 51 01890009175809
All the elements of the iron subgroup are ferromagnetic.
9 A. True B. False
0715704 B
12 13214 51
0037076809
Except for ferric compounds, all of the common compounds of the
iron triad elements are paramagnetic.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0043
0043
0043
0715705 A
12 13216 32 076814861423
No matter what its structure is, a molecule with an odd number
of electrons must be paramagnetic.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0715706 B
12 13218 32 07681486
Any molecule which has an even number of electrons cannot be
paramagnetic.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0715801 A
12 13220 31 09391486
The four carbon_hydrogen bonds in the methane molecule are all
the same length.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0716001 A
12 13222 31 14860716016909
The building units of crystalline solids may be atoms, ions, or
molecules.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0716101 A
12 13224 51 02240695089509
5
_
The formula CoCl (NH ) represents a pair of cis_trans isomers.
4
4 32
9 A. True B. False
0043
0716102 A
12 13226 51 06950874153109
Cis_trans isomerism is not possible in tetrahedral complexes.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0716103 B
12 13228 51 15311659087309
5
2_
The square_planar PtCl F
complex shows optical isomerism.
4
22
9 A. True B. False
0043
0716104 A
12 13230 71 11781531
09
5
3+
Only three oxalate ions are necessary to complex one Fe .
9 A. True B. False
0716105 A
12 13232 51 15311178093009
5 +
Ag forms many linear complex ions.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0043
0716106 A
12 13233 51 15320351
09
A complex ion always contains more than one atom.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0716107 B
12 13235 51 07280874153209
Any complex ion with a coordination number of four for the
central atom has a tetrahedral structure.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0716108 A
12 13237 51 06950874153109
Geometric (cis_, trans_)isomerism is not observed in tetrahedral
complexes.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0716201 B
0009
12 13239
52
11780767117809
_
2_
Of the two ions, CN and SO , the more likely to be found in
4
4
metal complexes is the sulfate ion, the weaker base.
9 A. True B. False
0716202 A
12 13242 51 012611781841
5
_
The cyanide ion, CN , exhibits a strong ligand_field effect.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0716401 A
12 13247 52 08741531
5
2_
CrO
is a tetrahedral complex.
4 4
9 A. True B. False
0043
09
0716502 B
13 13253 52 8003
06
Use crystal field splitting to predict whether the following
compound would be paramagnetic. K (Cr)O (potassium chromate)
4
2
4
A. paramagnetic
B. diamagnetic
9 C. insufficient data to tell
2WVW
0716503 A
13 13257 52 8003
06
Use crystal field splitting to predict whether the following
compound would be paramagnetic. K (Fe)(CN) (potassium
4
3
6
2WVW
hexacyanoferrate(III)
A. paramagnetic
B. diamagnetic
9 C. insufficient data to tell
0716504 B
13 13261 52 8003
06
Use crystal field splitting to predict whether the following
compound would be paramagnetic. K (Pt)(C=N)
4
2
6
(potassium hexacyanoplatinate(IV)
A. paramagnetic
B. diamagnetic
9 C. insufficient data to tell
2WVW
0716505 B
13 13265 52 8003
06
Use crystal field splitting to predict whether the following
compound would be paramagnetic. Ni(CO) (CO is carbon monoxide,
4
4
Ni is nickel)
A. paramagnetic
B. diamagnetic
9 C. insufficient data to tell
2WVW
0716506 A
13 13269 52 8003
06
Use crystal field splitting to predict whether the following
compound would be paramagnetic. (Fe)(HOH) (NO ) (hexaaquoiron(II)
4
6 32
nitrate).
A. paramagnetic
B. diamagnetic
9 C. insufficient data to tell
2WVW
0716507 A
13 13273 52 8003
06
Use crystal field splitting to predict whether the following
compound would be paramagnetic. (Fe)(HOH) (NO ) (hexaaquoiron(III
4
6 33
nitrate)
A. paramagnetic
B. diamagnetic
9 C. insufficient data to tell
2WVW
0716508 B
13 13277 52 8003
06
Use crystal field splitting to predict whether the following
compound would be paramagnetic. K (CO)(C=N) (potassium
4
3
6
hexacyanocobaltate(III))
2WVW
9
A. paramagnetic
B. diamagnetic
C. insufficient data to tell
0716509 A
13 13281 52 8003
06
Use crystal field splitting to predict whether the following
compound would be paramagnetic. K (Cr)(C=N) (potassium
4
3
6
hexacyanochromate(III))
A. paramagnetic
B. diamagnetic
9 C. insufficient data to tell
2WVW
0716510 B
13 13285 52 8003
06
Use crystal field splitting to predict the magnetic properties of
K [Fe(CN) ], potassium hexacyanoferrate(II).
44
6
9 A. paramagnetic B. diamagnetic C. insufficient data to tell
2WVW
0716511 B
13 13289 52 8003
06
Use cystal field splitting to predict whether the following
compound would be paramagnetic. (Co)(NH ) (NO )
4
33 23
(trinitrotriamminecobalt(III))
A. paramagnetic
B. diamagnetic
9 C. insufficient data to tell
2WVW
0716512 B
13 13293 52 8003
06
Use crystal field splitting to predict whethr the following
compound would be paramagnetic. (Rh)(NH ) (Cl)
4
36
3
(hexaamminerhodium(III) chloride)
A. paramagnetic
B. diamagnetic
9 C. insufficient data to tell
2WVW
0716513 B
12 13297 51 06620874153109
5
2+
Cr(NH )
is a deep blue, tetrahedral complex.
4
34
9 A. True B. False
0043
0716514 A
12 13299 51 01100008008709
The solubility of AgCl in water can be increased by adding NH
4
3
0043
to the solution.
9 A. True B. False.
0716515 A
12 13302 52 13240808000809
One would predict that (Pt(NH ) )Cl is more soluble in water
4
34 2
than is (Pt(NH ) Cl ).
4
32 2
9 A. True B. False
0009
0716516 B
12 13305 51 15321533044909
For a complex ion, labile means exactly the opposite of stable.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0720001 B
12 13309 31 14861425092709
Ionic bond formation involves sharing of electron pairs.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0721001 B
12 13311 31 14861425002809
An ionic bond often forms when two nonmetals react.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0723001 B
12 13313 52 15140958016909
The difference in strength between the hydrogen bonds in H O and
4
2
those in HF explains why the solid phases of these compounds have
very different structures.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0723002 A
12 13317 32 01860290087909
The maximum density of water at 4 degrees C can be explained by
assuming that the molecular structure of ice does not completely
disappear when it melts.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0725001 B
12 13320 51 1453
09
The lattice energy of KCl is greater than that of AgCl.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0728001 A
12 13322 31 00200066
09
Positive and negative valences are equal in simple compounds.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0728002 A
12 13324 31 11781296
09
5
3_
One would expect Na N to contain the N ion.
0043
4
3
9 A. True B. False
0728003 B
12 13326 31 01040462153409
Molten BaCl is not a good electrical conductor.
4
2
9 A. True B. False
0728004 A
12 13328
CaO is very refractory.
9 A. True B. False
51
1834
09
0043
0043
0728005 B
12 13329 51 01040293046209
NaOH(s) is a poor electrical conductor because it is made up of
molecules.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0728006 B
12 13331 31 13260189137009
A binary compound consisting of an element having a low
ionization potential and a second element having a high
electronegativity is likely to possess covalent bonds.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0728007 B
12 13334 31 0169
Molecular solids generally have high melting points.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0728008 A
12 13336 31 0160
Ionic crystals are good electric conductors, because the
particles at the lattice points are electrically charged.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0728009 B
12 13338 31 07030005
Crystals of calcium chloride (CaCl ) are molecular.
4
2
9 A. True B. False
0003
0730001 A
12 13340 31 00620926
09
The metallic bond can be regarded as a kind of covalent bond.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0730002 B
12 13342 31 02630015
09
The electrons in a metal are tightly bound in place and cannot
move about readily.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0731001 A
12 13344 31 00150244087909
Metals are weaker than ionic crystals with perfect crystal
structures.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0731002 A
12 13346 31 01041700005409
Conductors are opaque to visible light.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0731003 B
12 13347 31 00151701087909
Metallic elements are amorphous in structure, unlike
crystalline solids.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0731004 B
12 13349 31 00151369
09
Metals are ductile because they lack dislocations.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0733001 A
12 13351 31 03800015035109
Metal atoms have energy bands in place of energy levels.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0733002 B
12 13353 31 01590924169909
When energy bands overlap, the overlapping portion is known as a
forbidden band.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0733003 A
12 13355 31 16761699015909
Electrical insulators have wide forbidden bands separating
filled energy bands from higher empty bands.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0740001 A
12 13357 31 16980293
09
Van der Waals bonds hold water molecules together to form ice.
9 A. True B. False
0741001 A
12 13359 31 0516
Van der Waals forces exist in all matter.
9 A. True B. False
0743001 A
12 13360 52 09581149016109
Because of hydrogen bonding the vapor pressure of H O is less
4
2
than that of H S at the same temperature.
4
2
9 A. True B. False.
0041
0003
0043
0743002 A
12 13363 51 09580351018909
Hydrogen bonds can be formed between two atoms of different
elements.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0743003 C
13 13365 31 053504980959
Which alcohol should be the highest boiling?
A. C H O B. C H O C. C H O .
94
38
262
383
0026
0743004 A
12 13367 52 11940958
09
Ethyl alcohol, C H OH, would be expected to show hydrogen bonding
4
25
9 A. True B. False
0743005 A
12 13369 52 11780186
09
5
+
It is believed that the (C H ) N ion promotes the formation of
4
254
"flichering clusters" of water molecules. Consequently, one
would expect the maximum density of solutions containing this ion
to be above 4 degrees C.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0009
0743006 A
12 13374 31 00081486095909
Hydrogen bonding causes water to have a lower density than
expected at its freezing point.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0743007 B
12 13376 31 00081486095909
The molecular weight of water depends upon hydrogen bonding.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0743008 A
12 13378 31 00080959148609
The anomalous properties of water can be attributed to hydrogen
bonding.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0743009 A
12 13380 31 00080958148609
Water is an example of a hydrogen bonded substance.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0743010 A
12 13382 31 00081486049809
Because of hydrogen bonding water has higher boiling point than
would be expected for such a substance.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0810001 A
12 13384 51 8003
09
Thermodynamics is concerned chiefly with the energetics of a
reaction.
9 A. True B. False
2WVW
0810002 B
12 13386 51 8003
09
Thermodynamics is concerned chiefly with the pathway of a reaction.
A. True
9 B. False
2WVW
0810003 B
12 13388 51 065516710265
The laws of thermodynamics apply only to internal combustion
engines.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0811002 A
12 13390 51
In an adiabiatic system q = 0.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
05380871028609
0811003 B
12 13391 51 08710159159809
If a system is carried through a series of steps, each of which
involves an energy transfer into or out the system, but finally
ends up being identical in every way to the initial system, the
total thermal energy transfer must be zero.
9 A. True B. False
0811004 A
12 13395 51 09840470
The first law of thermodynamics is the law of conservation of
energy.
9 A. True B. False
0811005 AC
23 13397 31 01610286
119006
MACROITEM STEM
2For the following questions, evaluate the statements according to
2the key
2 A. An increase of the first will produce An increase in the
2
second.
2 B. An increase of the first will produce a decrease in the
2
second.
2 C. One will remain practically constant regardless of how the
0
other changes.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 Temperature of a liquid__rate of evaporation
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
Amount of heat being applied to the liquid__temperature of a
0009
0041
ETS2WVW
9 boiling liquid
0811103 CBCBAAC 73 13403 51 038704168001119006
MACROITEM STEM
2Blacken space
2 A. if the item at the left is of greater magnitude than that
2
at the right
2 B. if the item at the right is of greater magnitude than that
2
at the left
0 C. if they are approximately of the same magnitude
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The work represented
The work represented
1 by a dyne centimeter
by an erg
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
work required to raise
potential energy of the
a 10 lb. Object through
10 lb. Object at a vertical
2 a vertical distance of 30 feet
height of 300 feet
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
potential energy of an
kinetic energy of the
object at a height of 30 feet
same object the instant before
3
it strikes the earth
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
the mechanical advantage
the mechanical advantage
of an inclined plane 40 feet
of an inclined plane 60 feet
long with a vertical height of
long with a vertical height
4 2 feet
of 2 feet
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
force necessary to move
force necessary to move the
a 3000 lb. Car up an inclined
same car up an inclined
plane 40 feet long with
plane 60 feet long with
5 a vertical height of 2 feet
a vertical height of 2 feet
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
useful work performed
useful work performed in
in pulling a coaster
pushing on a stalled
6 wagon 30 feet
car which you do not move
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
the amount of energy
the work accomplished
required to move an object
in moving the object
a given distance
the same distance with
with a crowbar, neglecting
the crowbar, neglecting
9 friction
friction
0811104 BAACCCBCB93 13425 31 1 042903879004119506
MACROITEM STEM
2Figure 4 represents two hills of different slopes. Neglect
2friction and air resistance and assume that potential energy
ETS2 OS
ETS2 OS
2is measured from the level of the horizontal line xy. The hill
2on which point m is located is referred to as the upper hill
2and the hill on which points N and O are located is referred to
as the lower hill. Assume for the items in which a sled slides
2down either of these hills that it starts from rest at point z.
2Potential energy is equal to mgh and kinetic energy is equal to
3
___
21/2 Mv**2. force is equal to Ma, work is equal to force times
2distance, and power is equal to work done per unit of time.
2Mechanical advantage of a frictionless inclined plane is equal to
2the length of the plane divided by the vertical height.
2After the answer sheet number corresponding to that of each
2of the following paired items, blacken space
2 A. if the item at the left is greater than the item at the right
2 B. if the item at the right is greater than the item at the left
0 C. if the two items are of the same magnitude
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
velocity of a person
velocity of the same
sliding down the upper
person when sliding
hill on a sled when passing
down the lower hill
1 point M
when passing point N
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
velocity of a sled while
velocity of the same
sliding down the lower
sled while sliding down
hill when it passes point
the lower hill when it
2O
passes point N
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
force required to raise
force required to pull
a sled from y to z
the same sled along
3
either hill from x to z
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
work done on a sled in
work done on the
pulling it along the upper
same sled in raising it
4 hill from x to z
from y to z
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
work done on a sled in
work done on the
pulling it along the upper
same sled in pulling it
hill from x to z
along the lower hill
5
from x to z
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
force required to stop a
force required to stop
sled at point x after the
the same sled at point
sled has coasted down
X after the sled has
6 the upper hill
coasted down the lower hill
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
the power required to
the power required to
pull a sled 10 feet up
pull the same sled 10 feet
the lower hill near point
up the lower hill
O and in a given amount
near point N and in
7 of time
the same amount of time
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 8
the power required to
the power required to
pull a sled from x to z
pull a sled from x to
along the upper hill in
z along the lower hill
8 three minutes
in three minutes
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 9
9 minutes
in five minutes
0811105 B
12 13463 51 01690438040709
When solids and liquids alone are involved in a reaction, the
work done by the reacting system is generally very small.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0811106 B
12 13465 31 14860423044209
Energy a particle possesses by virtue of its motion is called
potential energy.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0811107 B
12 13467 31 14860511050509
Doubling the speed of a particle doubles its kinetic energy.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0811108 B
12 13469 31 14860511042309
Kinetic energy cannot be converted into potential energy.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0811109 B
12 13471 31 14860423051109
A rolling bowling ball possesses mainly potential energy.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0811110 B
12 13473 31 14860511042309
A wound up watchspring represents kinetic energy.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0811111 B
12 13475 31 14860511016109
The kinetic energy of molecules in hot water is less than that of
cold water.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0811112 B
12 13477 31 14860423051109
The potential energy increases when two positively charged
particles are separated.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0811113 B
12 13479 51 03870317
Work is done whenever a force is applied.
9 A. True B. False
0811114 ABACAC 63 13480 51 038703170420119006
MACROITEM STEM
2Blacken space
2 A. if the item at the left is of greater magnitude than that
2
at the right
2 B. if the item at the right is of greater magnitude than
2
that at the left
0 C. if they are approximately of the same magnitude
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
the work represented
the work represented
1 by one joule
by one erg
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
the effort force required
the resistance force of
to move an object
the object being moved
2 with a crowbar
by the crowbar
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
the distance traveled by
the distance traveled
the effort force in moving
by the resisting force
the object with the
in being moved by the
3 crowbar
crowbar
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
energy required in
energy required in
climbing a steep hill
climbing the same hill
along a longer and less
4
steep path
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
force required to raise
force required to raise
a piano directly up to a
the piano to the window
window 6 feet above the
along an inclined plane
5 ground
12 feet long
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
work done in raising
work done in raising
the piano directly up,
the piano along the plane,
9 neglecting friction
neglecting friction
0811115 CACCBCC 73 13498 31 1 9004
119506
MACROITEM STEM
2Figure 4 represents two hills of different slopes. Neglect friction
2and air resistance and assume that potential energy is measured
2from the level of the horizontal line xy. The hill on which point
2m is located is referred to as the upper hill and the hill
0041
ETS2 OS
ETS2 OS
2on which points N and O are located is referred to as the lower
2hill. Assume for the items in which a sled slides down either of
2these hills that it starts from rest at point z. Potential energy
5
2
is equal to mgh and kinetic energy is equal to 1/2 mv . force
2is equal to ma, work is equal to force times distance, and power
2is equal to work done per unit of time. Mechanical advantage of a
2frictionless inclined plane is equal to the length of the plane
2divided by the vertical height.
2After the answer sheet number corresponding to that of each of
2the following paired items, blacken space
2 A. if the item at the left is greater than the item at the right
2 B. if the item at the right is greater than the item at the left
0 C. if the two items are of the same magnitude
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
potential energy acquired
potential energy acquired
by a person climbing
by the same person climbing
1 the upper hill from x to z
the lower hill from x to z
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
potential energy of a
potential energy of the
person climbing the upper
same person climbing
2 hill from x to point M
the lower hill from x to N
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
loss of potential energy
loss of potential energy
of the sled in coasting
of the sled in coasting
from z to x along the
from z to x along the
3 upper hill
lower hill
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
loss of potential energy
gain in kinetic energy
of a sled in sliding from
of the same sled in falling
4 z to x along the upper hill
freely from z to y
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
kinetic energy of a person
kinetic energy of the
and sled when coasting
same person and sled when
past point M on the upper
coasting past point N on
5 hill
the lower hill
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
kinetic energy of the
kinetic energy of the
sled when it has coasted
sled when it has coasted
down the upper hill and
down the lower hill
6 is passing point x
and is passing point x
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
velocity of a person
velocity of the same
sliding down the upper
person sliding down
hill when passing point x
the lower hill when passing
9
point x
0813001 A
12 13532 51 07290192016109
The enthalpy of a substance always increases with an increase in
temperature.
9 A. True B. False.
0813101 CCAABCAB 83 13534 32 020780018003119006
MACROITEM STEM
2The following paragraphs concern the action of
2a geyser. Read the passage carefully and answer the items by
2using the key.
2A geyser is a hot spring that erupts at intervals. It is made up
2of a more or less crooked, or constricted, tubular fissure that
2extends into the earth and is filled with water. A source of heat
2near the bottom of the fissure heats the water.
2After an eruption the tube fills with water from an underground
2source. The water throughout most of the length of the tube,
2and especially in the lower part, becomes heated to a point
2above the normal boiling temperature (212 degrees F.) of water but
2does not become quite hot enough to turn to steam. However,
2sooner or later, some of the water in the lower part of the tube at
2the source of heat reaches the boiling point and turns to steam.
2The steam raises the whole column of water above it and causes
2some water to overflow from the geyser pool at the surface.
2This overflow acts as a trigger, permitting the whole column
2of water in the tube to flash into steam which blows from the
2fissure in an eruption.
2 A. Statement is true and pertains directly to the action
2
of the geyser.
2 B. Statement is true but is not directly concerned with
2
the action of the geyser.
2 C. Statement is false.
0
_____
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 Water has one of the lowest specific heats of any common substance.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
The boiling point of water in the bottom of the tube is
2 lower than that at the top.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
The water in the tube does not turn to steam although
it is above the normal boiling point because of the
3 pressure of the overlying water.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
More heat is necessary to turn the water to steam at the
4 bottom of the tube than at the top.
0043
ETS2WVW
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
Water vapor at the top of the tube (at the surface of the
geyser pool) can be raised above its boiling point soley
by the application of more heat after the water has
5 been made to boil.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
If salt were added to the water the boiling point of
6 the water would be lowered.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
The geyser erupts because the overflow of water releases
pressure throughout the whole tube, lowering the boiling
point at all levels sufficiently to allow the water to turn
7 to steam.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 8
Air pressure on a fine day is usually higher than on a
stormy day. Thus the geyser will erupt more often during
9 stormy weather.
0813102 B
13 13564 32 04580596800111 06
Cerrous sulfate is more soluble in cold water than in hot water.
Therefore, when this compound is dissolved in water, it is likely
that heat will be
A. absorbed from the surroundings
B. given up to the surroundings
C. neither absorbed nor given up since there is ordinarily NO
9
connection between heat effect and solubility
0813103 B
12 13569 31 14860504015909
For a pure substance, the gas state represents a lower energy
state than the liquid.
9 A. True B. False
0813104 A
12 13571 31 06530387
The work done by 1 mole of water is greater when the water boils
than when it freezes.
9 A. True B. False
ETS2WVW
0040
0003
0813105 B
12 13573 31 1151
When equal masses of ice and liquid water are at equilibrium
with each other, their heat contents are the same.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0813106 A
12 13575 31 1151
/\H of fusion is always a positive quantity.
3__
9 A. True B. False
0003
0813107 D
14 13577 32 1151
Since the molar heat of fusion of water is 1.44 kcal per mole,
1 kcal of heat will melt:
A. 0.0799 g of water B. 0.799 g of water
9 C. 7.99 g of water D. 12.5 g water
0813201 B
12 13580 31 04071501080109
In carrying out a reaction in a test tube, a student observes
that the test tube becomes cold. He should call the reaction
exothermic.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0813202 B
12 13583 32 0729
The enthalpy of water remains constant as the water is heated
from its melting point to its boiling point.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0813203 C
14 13585 31 1546
The axes on a cooling curve are:
A. pressure and temperature B. pressure and heat
9 C. temperature and time D. pressure and time
0003
0813204 BA
22 13587 32 00310286015390
MACROITEM STEM
Given the thermochemical equation:
UF (l) _____> UF (g), delta H = +7.2 kcal,
04
6
6
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
one can be sure that at least 7.2 kcal of heat must be produced
or evolved when one mole of liquid UF is evaporated.
4
6
1 A. True B. False
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
Another way of writing the thermochemical equation of question
in the question above would be:
UF (l) + 7.2 kcal _____> UF (g).
4
6
6
9 A. True B. False
0813205 A
12 13594 51 06480161028609
Two objects at different temperatures in a perfectly
insulated container are brought into contact but do not
react with each other. The final temperature of the objects
inside the container can never be lower than the cooler
object nor higher than the hotter object.
A. True
0009
0009
9
B. False
0813206 B
12 13598 51 06480161028609
Assume that a hot block of metal is dropped into an
insulated beaker containing a cooler liquid. Whether the
heat lost by the metal equals the heat gained by the liquid
depends upon the masses and specific heats of the metal and
liquid.
A. True
9 B. False
0813207 A
12 13602 51 06480161028609
When a block of solid is dropped into an insulated beaker of
liquid, the heat lost by the substance originally at the
higher temperature is always exactly equal to the heat
gained by the substance initially at the lower temperature.
A. True
9 B. False
0813208 A
12 13606 31 0648
09
If an exothermic reaction takes place in an insulated
container, the temperature of the contents will be higher at
the end of the reaction than it was at the start.
A. True
9 B. False
0813209 B
12 13609 31 0648
09
If an endothemic reaction takes place in an insulated
container, then the temperature of the contents will be
higher at the end of the reaction than it was at the
beginning.
A. True
9 B. False
0813210 B
12 13612 32 0648
09
If an exothermic reaction takes place in an insulated
container, the temperature of the contents will be lower at
the end of the reaction than it was at the start.
A. True
9 B. False
0813211 A
12 13615 32 0648
09
If an endothermic reaction takes place in an insulated
container, then the temperature of the contents will be
lower at the end of the reaction than at the
beginning.
9
A. True
B. False
0813501 A
12 13618 31 08010407028609
All exothermic reactions liberate heat.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0813502 B
12 13619 51 04070801040709
If a certain reaction is exothermic, the reverse reaction will
be exothermic also.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0813503 A
12 13621 51 01921306015909
Substances whose decompositions absorb energy are usually stable.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0813504 B
12 13623 52 14350286040709
You would expect that the heat produced in the following
reactions would have one and the same numerical value:
9 A. True B. False
0009
0813505 A
12 13625 52 07291291150209
The difference in enthalpy between one mole of Cl and two moles
4
2
of atomic chlorine, Cl, both at one atmosphere pressure and
25 degrees C is equal in magnitude to the heat of bond formation
for one mole of Cl .
4
2
9 A. True B. False
0009
0813506 B
12 13630 31 12130407065109
Considering the example reaction: C(s) + O (g) _____> CO (g),
4
2
2
one can always say that the heat of combustion for any substance
is the same thing as the so_called heat of formation of that
substance.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0813507 B
12 13634 32 14350407073309
One would expect that /\H for the following reaction would be
3
__
smaller (i.e., less negative) than the molar heat of formation of
liquid water:
2 H(g) + O(g) _____> H O(l)
4
2
9 A. True B. False
0009
0813508 A
12 13638 31 14860791068309
Evaporation is an endothermic process.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0813509 B
12 13639 31 14860170080109
Sublimation is an exothermic process.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0813510 A
12 13640 51 04070482072909
Reactions which tend to occur of their own accord, proceeding
"naturally" or spontaneously, usually involve a decrease in
enthalpy.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0813601 B
12 13643 51 02270161040709
The value of K is expected to increase with temperature for any
4
c
reaction that has a negative value of delta H.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0815001 B
12 13646 51 07350037098509
Free energies of formation of compounds are positive numbers in
most cases.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0815002 B
12 13648 51 04070161072909
If delta H and delta S for a reaction are both negative, we
expect delta G to be negative at all temperatures.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0815101 B
12 13650 51 04070735049109
Reactions for which delta G is highly positive have rapid rates.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0815102 B
12 13652 51 04070735016109
If delta G for a reaction is positive, it is impossible to carry
out the reaction unless either the temperature or the pressure is
changed.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0815103 A
12 13655 51 08010407048209
Exothermic reactions always become spontaneous as we approach
absolute zero.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0815104 A
12 13657 52 07350985150309
The free energies of formation O? Cu O and CuO at 25 degrees C
4
2
and 1 atm are _35 and _30 kcal/mole respectively. This means
that Cu O, exposed to oxygen at room temperature, will convert
4
2
spontaneously to CuO.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0815105 A
12 13661 51 04071520016109
Reactions for which delta H and delta S have the same sign will
tend to reverse at high temperatures.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0815106 A
12 13663 52 04070482
09
True or false? The following reaction is spontaneous as written
5
2+
3+
_
2Fe + Br ___> 2 Fe + 2Br
4
2
9 A. True B. False
0019
0815107 A
12 13666 32 04070482
Which is the best reducing agent listed?
5
2+
_
A. Ni B. Ni
C. F D. F
4
2
True or false? The following reaction is spontaneous as written.
5
3+
_
2+
2 Fe + 2 I ___> I + 2 Fe
4
2
9 A. True B. False
0019
0815108 A
12 13671 31 14860482087009
A process will be spontaneous if the energy decreases and the
entropy increases.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0815109 B
12 13673 51 01140407048209
At 25 degrees C and 1 atmosphere pressure, the reaction between
N and O is spontaneous.
42
2
9 A. True B. False
0009
0815110 B
12 13675 32 0735
Delta G of freezing ice at 0 degrees C is equal to zero.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0815111 B
12 13677 32 0735
Delta G of freezing ice at 10 degrees C is less than zero.
9 A. True B. False
0815301 A
12 13679 51 02270407068309
If the equilibrium constant for a reaction increases as the
temperature is increased, the reaction must be endothermic.
9 A. True B. False.
0815302 B
12 13681
5
o
At equilibrium /\G = 0.
3
__
9 A. True B. False.
51
0245
09
0003
0043
0043
0815303 B
12 13683 51 08710245073509
5
o
For a system at equilibrium delta G = delta G .
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0815304 A
12 13685 52 06000189040709
For the decomposition of water to the elements at 25 degrees C
and 1 atm, delta G = +56.7 kcal. This means that at least 56.7
kcal of work has to be supplied to make this reaction go.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0815305 A
12 13688 31 07350490
At the triple point of water, the solid, liquid, and gaseous
phases all have the same free energy.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0815306 B
12 13690 31 0490
The triple_point temperature of water is:
A. 100.01 degrees C B. _0.01 degrees C
9 C. 0.01 degrees C D. 99.99 degrees C
0003
0815307 A
14 13692 51 0490
The normal melting point of CO is:
4
2
A. below the triple_point temperature
B. above the triple_point temperature
C. above the critical temperature
9 D. nonexistent
0003
0817001 A
13 13695
31
040708708003
06
2WVW
If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there
will be ______ in the entropy of the reaction system.
2 HOH (gas) = 2 H (gas) + O (gas)
2
2
A. an increase
B. a decrease
9 C. no appreciable change
0817002 B
13 13699 31 040708708003
06
If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there
will be ________ in the entropy of the reaction system.
2 NO + O = 2 NO
4
2
2
A. an increase
B. a decrease
9 C. no appreciable change
2WVW
0817003 A
13 13703 31 040708708003
06
The change in entropy for the reaction P(Cl) = P(Cl) + (Cl)
4
5
3
2
should be
A. positive
B. negative
9 C. zero
2WVW
0817004 B
13 13706 31 040708708003
(Cu)SO + H O = (Cu)SO (H O) should be
4
4
2
4 2
A. positive
B. negative
9 C. zero
2WVW
06
0817005 C
13 13708 31 040708708003
06
The reaction 2 SO + O = 2 SO should proceed from left to right
4
2
2
3
with________in entropy.
A. no change
B. an increase
9 C. a decrease
2WVW
0817006 B
13 13711 31 040708708003
06
If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there
will be________in the entropy of the reaction system.
N + 3 H = 2 NH
4
2
2
3
A. an increase
2WVW
9
B. a decrease
C. no appreciable change
0817007 A
13 13715 31 040708708003
06
If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there
will be ________ in the entropy of the reaction system.
N O = 2 NO
4
24
2
A. an increase
B. a decrease
9 C. no appreciable change
2WVW
0817008 B
13 13719 31 040708708003
06
If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there
will be________in the entropy of the reaction system.
2 CO + O = 2 CO
4
2
2
A. an increase
B. a decrease
9 C. no appreciable change
2WVW
0817009 A
13 13723 31 040708708003
06
If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there
will be ________ in the entropy of the reaction system.
2NO=2N +O
4
2
2
2
A. an increase
B. a decrease
9 C. no appreciable change
2WVW
0817010 B
13 13727 31 040708708003
06
If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there
will be ________ in the entropy of the reaction system.
(Cl) + 3 F = 2 (Cl)F
4
2
2
3
A. an increase
B. a decrease
9 C. no appreciable change
2WVW
0817011 B
13 13731 31 040708708003
06
If the chemical reaction proceeds from left to right, there
will be ________ in the entropy of the reaction system.
HCl(g) + NH (g) = NH (+)Cl(_) (s)
4
3
4
A. an increase
B. a decrease
2WVW
9
C. no appreciable change
0817012 A
13 13735 31 087007878003
06
The change in entropy for the process H O(s) = H O(l) will be
4
2
2
A. positive
B. negative
9 C. zero
2WVW
0817013 B
13 13738 31 087080030407
06
Given that the reaction shown below proceeds from left to right,
there will be _____________in the entropy of the reaction system.
2WVW
P (g) + 5O (g) = P O (s)
4
4
2
4 10
9 A. an increase
B. a decrease C. no appreciable change
0817014 B
13 13742 31 040708708003
06
If the chemical reaction proceeds from left to right, there will
be ________ in the entropy of the reaction system.
2 Na (s) + Cl (g) = 2 Na(+)Cl(_) (s)
4
2
A. an increase
B. a decrease
9 C. no appreciable change
2WVW
0817015 A
13 13746 31 064707878003
06
The change in entropy for the process, S (g) = 6 S(g), will be
4
6
A. positive
B. negative
9 C. zero
2WVW
0817016 C
13 13749 31 065580030870
06
The second law of thermodynamics states that for any real process
the entropy of the ________ increases.
A. system
B. surroundings
9 C. universe
2WVW
0817017 C
13 13752 51 040708708003
06
If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there
will be ________ in the entropy of the reaction system.
PF (trigonal bypyramid) = pF (square pyramid)
4
5
5
A. an increase
2WVW
9
B. a decrease
C. no appreciable change
0817018 C
13 13756 51 040708708003
06
If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there
will be ________ in the entropy of the reaction system.
Cis_2_butene (C H ) _ trans_2_butene (C H )
4
46
46
A. an increase
B. a decrease
9 C. no appreciable change
2WVW
0817019 A
13 13760 31 040708708003
06
If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there
will be ______ in the entropy of the reaction system.
2 HOH (gas) = 2 H (gas) + O (gas)
4
2
2
A. an increase
B. a decrease
9 C. no appreciable change
2WVW
0817020 B
13 13764 31 040708708003
06
If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there
will be ________ in the entropy of the reaction system.
2 NO + O = 2 NO
4
2
2
A. an increase
B. a decrease
9 C. no appreciable change
2WVW
0817021 A
13 13768 31 040708708003
06
The change in entropy for the reaction P(Cl) = P(Cl) + (Cl)
4
5
3
2
should be
A. positive
B. negative
9 C. zero
2WVW
0817022 B
13 13771 31 040708708003
The change in entropy for the reaction
(Cu)SO + H O = (Cu)SO (H O) should be
4
4
2
4 2
A. positive
B. negative
9 C. zero
2WVW
06
0817023 C
13 13774 31 040708708003
06
The reaction 2 SO + O = 2 SO should proceed from left to right
4
2
2
3
with________in entropy.
A. no change
B. an increase
9 C. a decrease
2WVW
0817024 B
13 13777 31 040708708003
06
If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there
will be________in the entropy of the reaction system.
N + 3 H = 2 NH
4
2
2
3
A. an increase
B. a decrease
9 C. no appreciable change
2WVW
0817025 A
13 13781 31 040708708003
06
If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there
will be ________ in the entropy of the reaction system.
N O = 2 NO
4
24
2
A. an increase
B. a decrease
9 C. no appreciable change
2WVW
0817026 B
13 13785 31 040708708003
06
If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there
will be________in the entropy of the reaction system.
2 CO + O = 2 CO
4
2
2
A. an increase
B. a decrease
9 C. no appreciable change
2WVW
0817027 A
13 13789 31 040708708003
06
If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there
will be ________ in the entropy of the reaction system.
2NO=2N +O
4
2
2
2
A. an increase
B. a decrease
9 C. no appreciable change
2WVW
0817028 B
13 13793 31 040708708003
06
If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there
2WVW
will be ________ in the entropy of the reaction system.
(Cl) + 3 F = 2 (Cl)F
4
2
2
3
A. an increase
B. a decrease
9 C. no appreciable change
0817029 B
13 13797 31 040708708003
06
If the chemical reaction proceeds from left to right, there
will be ________ in the entropy of the reaction system.
HCl(g) + NH (g) = NH (+)Cl(_) (s)
4
3
4
A. an increase
B. a decrease
9 C. no appreciable change
2WVW
0817030 A
13 13801 31 087007878003
06
The change in entropy for the process H o(s) = H o(l) will be
4
2
2
A. positive
B. negative
9 C. zero
2WVW
0817031 B
13 13804 31 087080030407
06
If the chemical reaction proceeds from left to right, there will
be ________ in the entropy of the reaction system.
P (s) + 5O (g) = P O (s)
4
4
2
4 10
A. an increase
B. a decrease
9 C. no appreciable change
2WVW
0817032 B
13 13808 31 040708708003
06
If the chemical reaction proceeds from left to right, there will
be ________ in the entropy of the reaction system.
2 Na (s) + Cl (g) = 2 Na(+)Cl(_) (s)
4
2
A. an increase
B. a decrease
9 C. no appreciable change
0817033 A
13 13812 31 064707878003
06
The change in entropy for the process, S (g) = 6 S(g), will be
4
6
A. positive
B. negative
9 C. zero
2WVW
2WVW
0817035 C
13 13815 51 040708708003
06
If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there
will be ________ in the entropy of the reaction system.
PF (trigonal bypyramid) = PF (square pyramid)
4
5
5
A. an increase
B. a decrease
9 C. no appreciable change
2WVW
0817036 C
13 13819 51 040708708003
06
If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there
will be ________ in the entropy of the reaction system.
Cis_2_butene (C H ) _ trans_2_butene (C H )
4
46
46
A. an increase
B. a decrease
9 C. no appreciable change
2WVW
0817037 B
12 13823 51 01920482087009
When any substance undergoes a spontaneous change, its entropy
increases.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0817038 A
12 13825 51 01920870
09
When any substance melts, its entropy increases.
9 A. True B. False.
0817039 A
12 13827 51 0870
09
The entropy of a martini is greater than the total entropy of the
gin and vermouth out of which it was made.
9 A. True B. False.
0817040 A
12 13829 51 04070870058309
For the reaction: PCl (g) _____> PCl (g) + Cl (g), delta S is
4
5
3
2
positive.
9 A. True B. False
0817041 A
12 13831 31 11110870
Automobiles increase in entropy with age.
9 A. True B. False
09
0817042 A
12 13832 51 07871435072909
For the process CO (s) _____> CO (g), we expect both delta H and
4
2
2
0043
0043
0009
0009
0009
delta S to be positive.
9 A. True B. False
0817043 B
12 13834 52 08700407059509
The sign of the entropy change for the reaction:
5
2+
Ni (aq) + dimethylglyoxime _____> chelate(s)
is expected to be negative.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0817044 B
12 13837 31 14860870135909
A high entropy corresponds to a high degree of order for a
system.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0817045 A
12 13839 31 14860870135909
The entropy of a coed class is greater than one containing men
only.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0817046 A
12 13841 31 0870
Delta S of freezing is always a negative quantity.
9 A. True B. False
0003
0817047 A
12 13843 32 0870
The entropy of a disordered pile of bricks on the ground would be
greater than the entropy of the same bricks in a wall
9 A. True B. False
0003
0820001 A
12 13845 31 00870089031509
All solutions of electrolytes conduct electricity.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0820002 B
12 13847 31 14860013008709
Electrolysis can only be performed on solutions.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0821001 B
12 13849 31 14860013002109
In electrolysis, the process occurring at the cathode is
oxidation.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0821002 B
12 13851 31 00290574059709
In any cell, electrolytic or voltaic, the cathode is the negative
electrode.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0821003 A
12 13853 31 00300597
An anode is a positive electrode.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0822001 B
12 13854 31 01890438017809
The liberation of free elements from liquids by the passage of an
electric current is called neutralization.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0822002 A
12 13856 31 00130018008709
Electrolysis can be carried out in molten salts as well as in
water solutions.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0822003 B
12 13858 51 15890013
Electroplating is the reverse of electrolysis.
9 A. True B. False
09
0041
0822004 A
12 13859 31 07430385018509
The Faraday is essentially a unit of electric charge.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0822005 A
12 13861 32 00870013006109
If a solution of KBr is electrolyzed, it becomes more basic.
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0822006 A
12 13863 32 012505970574
You wish to silver plate a spoon. Which electrode do you make
the spoon?
9 A. cathode B. anode
0019
0822007 B
12 13865 51 15810597158209
The phrase "cathodic protection" refers to the common practice of
enclosing fragile metal electrodes in plexiglass to prevent them
from being broken.
9 A. True B. False
0822008 A
12 13868 32 00130087055309
5
_
In the electrolysis of a water solution of Nacl, one mole of OH
5
_
is produced for every mole of cl consumed.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0822009 B
5
0009
12 13872
52
00130087074309
3_
0009
In the electrolysis of a solution of Ag(S O ) , three Faradays
4
232
of electricity are required to form one mole of silver.
9 A. True B. False
0823001 B
12 13876 52 14860013085709
Platinum cannot be plated from solution by electrolysis.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0823101 B
12 13878 31 10551448000709
A species with a large positive standard oxidation potential will
be a strong oxidizing agent.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0823102 B
12 13880 31 11910029040709
The voltage of a cell in which the reaction:
5
+
2+
Cu(s) + 2 Ag (aq) _____> Cu (aq) + 2 Ag(s) occurs will be, at
5
+
standard concentrations: s.o.p. Cu + 2 x s.r.p. Ag
9 A. True B. False
0009
0823301 A
12 13884 51 04070138157909
Reactions which are readily reversed by a small change in
concentration are ones in which E is close to zero.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0823501 B
12 13886 31 01890021041609
Any element with an oxidation potential less than that of zinc
will liberate H from water.
4
2
9 A. True B. False.
0043
0823502 B
12 13888 51 153600010015
5
+
The standard reduction potentials of F and Ag are +2.87v and
4
2
5
_
+0.80v respectively. We conClude that F is a better reducing
agent than Ag metal.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0826001 A
12 13892 32 14860751059709
The container serves as an electrode in some cells.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0826002 B
12 13894 51 15841585117809
The purpose of the iron screen in the downs cell is to prevent
5 +
_
Na and Cl ions from coming in contact with each other.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0826101 B
12 13897 31 03330178016209
Batteries produce electric current by means of oxidation
reduction reactions.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0826102 A
12 13899 51 01541193024709
The chemical changes that occur in a lead_acid storage battery
when it is charged by an external current are the opposite of
those that occur when it is discharged.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0826103 A
12 13902 31 14860333034309
In the lead_acid battery used in automobiles, a single
electrolyte is employed.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0826104 B
12 13904 31 14860333034309
The lead_acid battery used in automobiles is in reality made up
of a single cell.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0826105 A
12 13906 31 0333
0159
A battery is a device for converting chemical energy into
electrical energy.00
9 A. True B. False
0041
0826301 B
12 13908 51 15830196
A fuel cell is a storage chamber for hydrogen.
9 A. True B. False
0826302 B
12 13909 31 14860751
Fuel cells are quite efficient.
9 A. True B. False
09
0041
09
0040
0910001 B
13 13910 31 019910580552
The most common simple sugar is
9 A. sucrose B. d_glucose C. sucrose molecules.
0026
0910002 B
12 13912 31 03941486
09
Low molecular weight hydrocarbons are usually solids.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0910003 B
12 13914 31 08901486
An alkyne contains at least one double bond.
9 A. True B. False
09
0040
0910004 A
12 13915 31 06950882148609
Isomers are substances that have the same structure but different
formulas.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0910005 B
12 13917 31 06780394148609
Ethane and ethene are both unsatureated hydrocarbons.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0910006 B
12 13919 31 08880889148609
Alkenes always contain more carbon atoms than alkanes.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0910007 B
12 13921 31 14861509
Cyclohexane is an aromatic compound.
9 A. True B. False
09
0040
0910008 B
12 13922 31 14860889
The general formula for alkanes is C H .
4
n 2n
9 A. True B. False
09
0040
0911001 B
12 13924
Nitroglycerin is an ester.
9 A. True B. False
32
10001661170609
0041
0911002 A
12 13925 31 05350394124809
Alcohols are hydrocarbon derivatives in which one or more H atoms
in a hydrocarbon molecule have been replaced by OH groups
9 A. True B. False
0041
0911003 B
12 13927 51 00660678011009
Unsaturated compounds are unlimited in their solubility in water.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0911004 A
12 13929 51 06951254132109
Isomers have the same molecular formulas but different structural
ones.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0911005 B
12 13931
31
00660393
09
0041
Octane is the name of a compound added to gasoline to prevent it
from freezing in cold weather.
9 A. True B. False
0911006 B
12 13933 51 17070394016909
The paraffin hydrocarbons are all waxy solids.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0911007 B
12 13934 51 03820701007709
Organic acids, like inorganic acids, are often strong acids.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0911008 B
12 13936 52 00140351085309
The carbon atoms in the ring structures of benzene hydrocarbons
are actually joined to one another with alternate single and
double bonds
9 A. True B. False
0041
0911009 B
12 13939 51 10000382008909
Esters are the organic analogs of salts and therefore are
electrolytes.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0911011 A
12 13942 51 17070394013009
The paraffin hydrocarbons are saturated because their structures
contain only single bonds.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0911012 B
13 13944 51 07661244
How many optically active tartaric acids are there?
9 A. one B. two C. three
0019
0911013 A
13 13946 51 124500660407
The enantiomer of a compound produced by reaction of a d acid
with an l base is _______.
A. d acid _ d base
B. l acid_ l base
9 C. l acid _ d base
0019
0911014 B
12 13949 31 12540889
09
The molecular formula C H represents an alkane.
4
5 10
9 A. True B. False
0009
0911015 B
12 13951 32 15080695
09
The hydrocarbon C H shows cis_trans isomerism.
0009
4
4 10
9 A. True B. False
0911016 B
12 13953 31 06950067
Isomers have identical properties.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0913001 B
12 13954 51 06740394048509
Polymerization is the heating of heavy hydrocarbons under
pressure in the presence of catalysts in order to break them
down into simpler molecules.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0913002 C
13 13957 31 070011440674
Which is the monomer unit in (_CH _CH _CH _CH _), polyethylene?
4
2 2 2 2
A. _H _ B. _CH _ C. _CH _CH _ D. _C_ E. _CH _CH _CH _
94
2
2
2 2
2 2 2
0026
0913101 B
12 13961 31 11440196039809
In polyethylene, (CH ) , hydrogen accounts for 2/3 of the mass.
4
2n
9 A. True B. False
0009
0913701 B
13 13963 51 019101990401
The complete hydrolysis of amylopectin yields
9 A. dextrins B. d_glucose C. sucrose molecules.
0026
0913702 B
13 13965 31
07851068
Essential amino acids are:
A. those that contain sulfur
B. those that the body cannot manufacture in sufficient amounts
9 C. those that contain complex ring structures in the molecule.
0026
0913703 B
13 13968 31
06790785
The fibrous protein found in mammalian tissue is:
9 A. d_deoxyribose B. collagen C. hemoglobin.
0026
0920001 B
13 13970 31
00180785
Meat can be preserved by generous amounts of salt. This is due
to the fact that,
A. microorganisms can not eat salt
B. the salt forms a hypertonic solution which dehydrates a
microorganism
C. the salt creates an aneorobic situation in the meat, SO
9
bacteria can not grow.
0026
0920002 B
13 13974 51 125712561258
The iodine number of a triglyceride consisting only of oleic
acid is ________ one consisting of only linolenic acid.
9 A. larger than B. smaller than C. the same as
0920003 E
15 13977 51 1266
Lycopene is a ___________.
A. monoterpene B. diterpene C. triterpene
9 D. sesquiterpene E. tetraterpene
0920004 C
13 13979 51 126709760988
Adenine is contained in _________.
9 A. DNA only B. RNA only C. DNA and RNA
0920005 B
13 13981 51 09730988
Uracil is contained in _____________.
9 A. DNA only B. RNA only C. DNA and RNA
0019
0019
0019
0019
0920006 A
13 13983 51 126709751268
Adenine forms a base pair with
9 A. thymine B. cytosine C. guanine
0019
0920007 A
12 13985 31 14861035103409
Some antibiotics do not themselves kill bacteria.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0920008 A
12 13987 31 14861035103409
A number of antibiotics are produced by soil organisms.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0920009 A
12 13989 31 14861027052909
The original sulfa drug was related to a chemical dye.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0920010 A
12 13991 51 14861027
09
The illegal drug heroin is closely related in structure to
codeine and morphine.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0920011 A
12 13993 31 14861735173609
Penicillin was originally isolated from a mold.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0920012 B
12 13995 31 14861027173009
Tranquilizers are mild analgesics.
0040
9
A. True B. False
0920013 A
12 13996 31 14861027
09
Sedatives relax a patient while producing drowsiness.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0920014 B
12 13998 31 14861082
09
The path followed by a nerve impulse from the brain to an organ
is continuous.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0920015 B
12 14000 31 14861082
09
All sympathetic nerves originate in the same part of the spinal
cord.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0920016 B
12 14002 31 14861027
09
In normal surgical operations today, a single drug is used to
produce sleep and anesthesia.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0921001 B
12 14004 31 10721115011709
Hemoglobin is a valuable nutrient found in milk.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0921002 A
12 14006 51 04010014019609
All carbohydrates contain only carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0921003 B
12 14008 51 06980401
09
Chlorophyll is the most important carbohydrate found in plants.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0921004 A
12 14010 51 01590796
Plants store energy in the form of starch.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0921005 A
12 14011 51 0401
Lobster shells are largely carbohydrate.
9 A. True B. False
09
09
0921006 A
12 14012
Fats are lipids.
9 A. True B. False
51
08401710
0921007 B
51
06790293106809
12 14013
09
0041
0041
0041
A protein molecule consists of 23 amino acid units joined
together.
9 A. True B. False
0921008 A
12 14015 51 11710679129609
Skin, muscles, hair, and nails contain insoluble proteins.
9 A. True B. False
0921009 B
12 14017 52 06790952
Heating a protein turns it into a nucleic acid.
9 A. True B. False
0921010 B
12 14019
9 A. True B. False
52
09
08650679129609
0041
0041
0041
0921011 B
12 14020 51 10021711097609
The sequence of nitrogen bases in a DNA molecule determines the
properties of the cell in which it is located.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0921012 A
13 14022 51 098001911248
Treatment of gly_leu_val with 2,4_dinitrofluorobenzene followed
by complete hydrolysis will yield a derivative of
9 A. glycine B. leucine C. valine
0019
0921013 C
13 14025 51 098012490977
Treatment of gly_leu_val with hydrazine will yield hydrazides of
A. glycine and leucine B. leucine and valine
9 C. glycine, leucine and valine
0921014 B
13 14028 51 084012600675
Fats become rancid _______ oils.
9 A. faster than B. slower than C. at the same rate as
0019
0921015 B
13 14030 51 127612770128
Pepsin is of ________ molecular mass as/than pepsinogen.
9 A. larger B. smaller C. same
0019
0921016 B
12 14032 31
Cholesterol is a sex hormone.
9 A. True B. False
14861723107809
0040
0921017 A
12 14033 51 14861726084009
Waxes and fats are chemically both esters.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0921018 A
0040
12 14034
31
14860191172209
0019
The hydrolysis of disaccharides yields other sugars.
9 A. True B. False
0921019 B
12 14036 31 14860996019109
Cows possess the enzyme necessary to hydrolyze cellulose.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0921020 A
12 14038 31
Cellulose is a polysaccharide.
9 A. True B. False
0040
14861053164309
0921021 A
12 14039 31 14860675084009
Solid cooking shortening can be made from vegetable oils.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0921022 A
12 14041 31 14861710067509
Waxes and oils are both classes of lipids.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0921023 B
12 14042
Starch is a lipid.
9 A. True B. False
31
14860796171009
0040
0921024 A
12 14043 31
The sugar glucose is a hexone.
9 A. True B. False
14860199172209
0040
0921025 B
12 14044 31 14860840126009
Fats and oils go rancid due to the formation of steroids.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0921026 B
12 14046 31 14860840017209
Fats usually have lower melting points than oils.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0921027 A
12 14048 31 14860840013009
The fats obtained from animal sources contain high percentages of
saturated fatty acids.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0921028 A
12 14050 31 14860675019109
Complete hydrolysis of an oil will always yield glycerol.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0921029 A
12 14052 31 14861009019109
Saponification is a hydrolysis reaction involving carbohydrates
0040
and a strong base.
9 A. True B. False
0921030 A
12 14054 31 14860675067009
Liquid vegetable oil may be solidified using a hydrogenation
reaction.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0921031 A
15 14056 31 14860679110709
The permanent waving of hair involves reversible protein
denaturation.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0921032 A
12 14058 31
Protein is a natural polymer.
9 A. True B. False
0040
14860679067409
0921033 B
12 14059 31 14861489067909
The helical arrangement of protein chains is an example of
primary structure.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0921034 B
12 14061 31 06791486095909
Hydrogen bonding is involved in the primary structure of a
protein.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0921035 B
12 14063 31 14860679040109
Proteins and carbohydrates are stored in the body as energy
reserves.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0921036 B
12 14065 31 14861073106809
Vitamins are amino acids that the body cannot manufacture.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0921037 B
12 14067 31 14861107067909
Denaturation of a protein involves the rupturing of peptide
linkages.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0921038 B
12 14069 31 14861068156409
The sequence of amin acids in a polypeptide is called the
secondary structure.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0921039 A
12 14071 31 14860979097809
More than one type of RNA is known.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0921040 B
12 14072 31 14861068126909
Only one codon exists for each amino acid.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0921041 A
12 14073 31 14861727019109
The most common reaction of digestion is hydrolysis.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0921042 B
12 14075 31 14861727019109
Saliva initiates the digestive hydrolysis of starch.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0921043 B
12 14077 31 14860952048509
Nucleic acids are specific catalysts for chemical reactions
occurring within a cell.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0921044 B
12 14079 31 14860976067909
DNA supplies directly to the cell the information necessary to
3
________
synthesize proteins.
9 A. True B. False
0921045 B
12 14081 31 14860976098809
The backbone of an RNA molecule is identical to that of a DNA
molecule.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0921046 A
12 14083 31 14860261007709
CO is important in normal acid_base balance of the body.
4 2
9 A. True B. False
0040
0921047 B
12 14085 31 14860988098609
RNA is the compound of which genes are composed.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0921048 A
12 14087 31 14861729098109
Ribosomes are the site where protein synthesis takes place.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0921049 B
12 14089 31 14861268097309
The bases thymine and uracil can be found in the same nucleic
0040
0040
acid.
9 A. True B. False
0921050 A
12 14091 31 14861088067909
Some antiseptics attack infectious organisms by denaturing their
protein.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0921051 A
12 14093 31 14860996040009
Enzyme inhibition is a mode of action for some poisons.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0921052 B
12 14095 51 04010674037809
Carbohydrate polymers are synthesized only by plants.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0921053 A
12 14097 51 01910679109809
The hydrolysis of proteins (breakage of the peptide links with
insertion of water molecules) will always result in the formation
of equal numbers of _NH and _CO H groups.
4
2
2
9 A. True B. False
0009
0921054 B
12 14101 51 09880976156909
Cellular RNA can be thought of as an exact copy of DNA.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0922001 A
12 14103 51 00211710015909
The oxidation of lipids yields more energy than the oxidation of
carbohydrates.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0922002 A
12 14105 51 04610194
Vanadium is used in steel alloys.
9 A. True B. False
09
0043
0923001 B
12 14106 51 09960401048509
Enzymes are specialized carbohydrates that act as biochemical
catalysts.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0923002 B
13 14108 51 127801911098
Trypsin is necessary to hydrolyze ___________.
9 A. carboxydrates B. peptides C. acid esters
0019
0923003 A
0040
12 14110
31
14860996048509
Enzymes are biological catalysts.
9 A. True B. False
0923004 A
12 14111 31 14861007164109
Apoenzymes need coenzymes in order to function properly.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0924001 B
12 14113 51 04010261069809
Plants manufacture carbohydrates from carbon dioxide and
chlorophyll.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0924002 B
12 14115 51 00210159020009
The oxidation of glucose in living matter to yield energy is an
example of photosynthesis.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0924003 B
12 14117 52 10680830040109
Amino acids are synthesized in the human body from carbohydrates.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0924004 A
12 14119 51 0616
086509
X_rays can change the heredity of an organism by altering the
structure of its DNA molecules.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0924005 C
13 14121 51 012611300400
Cyanide ion acts primarily by,
A. precipitating valuable iron as Fe(CN)
4
2
B. blocking aconitase enzyme
9 C. by tying up oxidative enzymes.
0026
0924006 A
13 14124 51 127912800159
The aerobic metabolism of pyruvic acid yields _____ energy
as/than the anaerobic metabolism.
9 A. more B. less C. the same
0019
0924007 A
12 14126 31 14860091078509
The pH of the stomach is quite high.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0924008 B
12 14127 51 10380679015909
In animals, proteins serve primarily to store energy.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0924009 A
12 14129 52 02000407001709
The net photosynthetic reaction,
CO
+HO
_____> glucose
+O
, involves a reduction
4 2(g)
2 (g)
(s)
2(g)
of carbon.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0924010 A
12 14132 51 10680946001509
The alpha_amino acids might generally be expected to form
chelates with metal atoms.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0924011 B
12 14134 52 00871068009109
The water solution of any amino acid which contains only one
basic functional group and one acidic group is expected to have a
pH of 7.
9 A. true B. False
0009
0924012 B
12 14137 52 07350830065509
The formation of an enzyme from amino acids has a positive free
energy change. The fact that the synthesis of enzymes occurs in
a living organism is a contradiction of the laws of
thermodynamics.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0930001 B
12 14140 31 14860032
09
Copper is used in greater quantities than any other metal.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0931001 B
12 14142 51 05980001147309
Chromium plating is durable because chromium is a very poor
reducing agent.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0931002 B
12 14144 51 11670161021809
Nitrogen reacts with hydrogen more rapidly at moderate
temperatures than at high ones.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0931003 B
12 14146 31 00360468019609
Water gas consists of a mixture of steam and hydrogen.
9 A. True B. false.
0043
0931004 B
12 14148 31 14860056104009
Sulfuric acid is produced in greater quantity than any other
chemical.
0040
9
A. True B. False
0931005 B
12 14150 31 14860006
09
Cl is used extensively in fertilizer production.
4 2
9 A. True B. False
0040
0931006 A
12 14152 31 14860164039409
Chlorination of hydrocarbons is the main market for chlorine.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0931007 B
12 14154 31 14860215046109
Steel_making is the dominant consumer of NaOH.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0933001 CABB
43 14155 52 033602300335149006
MACROITEM STEM
2Glass is a solid material of great hardness and amazing stability
2that is made by fusing a batch of dry, powdered, or granular
2inorganic chemical compounds. Usually, 60% or more of sand with
2various percentages of two or more oxides of Na, Ca, K, Pb, Mg, and
2Al is heated in a refractory container, until a bubbling syrup
2is formed at a blinding white heat by the mutual solution of the
2metal oxides. Heating is continued at a lower temperature until
2the bubbles disappear and the syrup becomes homogeneous. Then,
2if the formula is a good one, if the melting or fusing has been
2correct, and if the cooling is done properly, the syrup will
2stiffen continuously from its liquid or molten state at about
22700 degrees F. to a hard, rigid solid at room temperature without
2any crystallization taking place.
2Soda_lime glasses are used for 90 per cent of all glassware. Their
2raw materials are the least expensive and they are among the
2easiest to melt and shape.
2Lead oxide is a good fluxing agent and in percentages of 20 and 40
2it can replace most or all of the lime and some of the soda or
2alkali content. This gives glasses greater sparkle and makes
2them easier to cut and engrave. They are used to make fine
2tableware and art_glass. About 1758, John Colland realized that the
2higher index of refraction of a lead glass, that accounts for its
2higher sparkle and luster, makes possible compound lenses that
are achromatic.
2Fused quartz or fused silica glass (99.8% silica) can be made by
2fusing a batch consisting solely of quartz crystals or of sand
2(impure crystals of quartz). in this type, unfortunately, the
2fusing or melting temperature is as high (about 3150 degrees F.)
2as that of the crystalline raw materials. This requires special
ETS2 OS
2melting methods and the molten glass is so viscous that it is
2difficult to make it homogeneous and free of bubbles.
2Borosilicate glasses are a type in which the melting point of
2the silica is lowered by the addition of boric oxide, b2o3, and in
smaller amount alumina, Al O , with only the smallest possible
4
23
2amount of alkali. It is intrinsically superior to corrosion and to
2breakage from heat shock, but is more difficult to manufacture and
2work. Borosilicates have ample margin of heat shock resistance,
2some of which can be sacrificed in making articles that are
2thicker walled and thus mechanically stronger.
296% Silica glasses were developed by corning in 1939. first, the
2article is formed from a conventional borosilicate glass. Then a
2heat treatment causes the glass to separate into two
2intermingled glassy phases. One phase contains nearly all of the
2alkalies and can be leached out by hot acids to leave a sponge_like
2glass containing 96% silica and 3% B O . The leached glass is so
3
23
2refractory that subsequent heating can close the pores completely
2without any change of the shape of the article even though there is
2a linear shrinkage of about 14%. These glasses can be used at a red
2heat and plunged into ice water repeatedly without cracking.
2The following questions are to be answered after reading the above
2paragraphs and in reference to the following key.
2 A. The statement is true and the reason supports the truth
of it.
2 B. The statement is true but the reason does not support the
2
truth of it.
0 C. The statement is false.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
Glass is a chemical compound because, at a blinding white heat, any
two substances react to form a compound.
At ordinary temperature, glass could be called a solid_liquid
1 because its molecules are scattered about as in liquids.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 In the manufacture of glass, the batch is heated to 2700 degrees F.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
Lead glass lenses are used in optical instruments because
3 of their high sparkle.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
Borosilicate glasses are used for most heat_resistant glass ware
(such as pyrex ovenware) because they are the only heat_resistant
glasses that can be produced by conventional mass production
9 into two intermingled glassy phases by heat treatment.
0933002 B
12 14207
31
17031704115909
0041
TNT is a form of gunpowder.
9 A. True B. False
0933003 A
12 14208 31 14860218104409
Explosives very commonly contain nitrogen.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0933004 B
12 14209 31 09640066001409
Dynamite is a compound of carbon, nitrogen, and oxygen.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0933005 B
12 14211 31 13341604026109
Carbon dioxide is obtained commercially by fractional
distillation of air.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0935001 C
13 14213 31
0635
An optical brightener works to brighten clothes by
A. bleaching them
B. reflecting visible light
9 C. absorbing UV light and reemitting visible light.
0026
0941001 A
12 14216 51 03500066002009
Silicon tends to form compounds in which its valence is 4.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0941002 A
12 14218 51 06850879078109
In silicate structures, each silicon atom is linked to four
oxygen atoms.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0941003 A
12 14220 52
0350008609
The only common rock in which silicon is not an important
constituent is limestone.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0941004 A
12 14222 51 06851171
Most silicates are relatively insoluble.
9 A. True B. False
0041
09
0941005 B
12 14223 51 00160010068509
The most important aluminum ores are complex aluminum
silicates such as felspar.
9 A. True B. False
0941006 A
12 14225
31
1798
0043
0003
The face_centered cubic unit cell consists of 14 points.
9 A. True B. False
0943001 A
12 14227 51 056606870590
Ozone is an excellent absorber of ultraviolet radiation.
9 A. True B. False
0041
0950001 A
13 14229 31
00251118
What happens to the bod of a stream as the temperature of the
water goes up?
9 A. increases B. decreases C. no change.
0026
0950002 B
13 14231 31
05540025
What happens to the amount of dissolved oxygen as the temperature
of a stream increases?
9 A. increases B. decreases C. NO change.
0026
0950003 C
13 14233 31
00230008
The mechanism by which fluoridation of water is affective appears
to be,
A. killing of bacteria
B. the adjustment of pH SO that enzymes may work better in
oxidation of organic wastes
5
_
C. incorporation of F ions into tooth structures such as
9
calcium hydroxyphosphate.
0026
0950004 B
13 14238 31 063205180672
Which has the greatest potential as a fuel for man's needs?
9 A. petroleum B. atomic fusion C. atomic fission.
0026
0950005 B
12 14240 31 00080541148609
Bodies of water tend to moderate climatic temperatures.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0950006 B
12 14242 31
Natural waters are often pure.
9 A. True B. False
00081486
0950007 B
12 14243
The pH of pure water is 8.
9 A. True B. False
14860091000809
31
09
0950008 A
12 14244 31 14860261064609
In the CO cycle in nature, plants use CO and give up O .
4
2
2
2
0040
0040
0040
9
A. True B. False
0950009 A
12 14246 31 03210325117209
As one moves up in the atmosphere, the ratio [O]/[O ]
4
2
increases.
9 A. True B. False
0951001 A
13 14248 31
11250343
The formula for tetraethyllead is
A. (CH ) Pb B. (C H ) Pb C. Pb(CO) .
94
34
254
4
0009
0026
0951002 A
12 14250 51 14740008151509
A high B.O.D. suggests that a water supply is contaminated with
organic wastes.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0951003 B
12 14252 31 14861104039309
Pb compounds in gasoline give rise to the greenhouse effect.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0951004 A
12 14254 31 14861099018709
The NO photolytic cycle results in the production of secondary
4
2
pollutants.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0951005 B
12 14256 31 14860187021809
Nitrogen_containing fertilizer is the main source of NO
4
x
0040
9
pollution.
A. True B. False
0951006 A
12 14259 31 14860214026109
Thermal exhaust reactors convert CO to CO .
4
2
9 A. True B. False
0040
0951007 B
12 14261 31
Ozone is a primary pollutant.
9 A. True B. False
0040
14860566099909
0951008 B
12 14262 31 14860999021809
No natural mechanisms exist to get rid of any air pollutants.
0040
9
A. True B. False
0951009 A
12 14264 51 14861478109909
PAN is both a secondary air pollutant and a photochemical
oxidant.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0951010 A
12 14266 31 14860214103409
CO is removed from the air by soil microorganisms.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0951011 A
12 14268 31 14860057041409
The burning of coal is the leading source of SO emissions.
4
2
9 A. True B. False
0040
0951012 A
12 14270 31 14861717008609
Limestone is attacked by certain particulate pollutants.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0951013 B
12 14272 31 14860214099909
CO is the most toxic of the common air pollutants.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0951014 B
12 14274 31 14861112061709
Thermal pollution is involved with radioactive ("hot") atoms.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0951015 B
12 14276 31 14861050025109
NTA has undergone extensive study as a replacement for DDT.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0951016 B
12 14278 31 14861050007309
The effects of DDT on birds relates to eggs with shells so thick
that they do not hatch.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0951017 B
12 14280 31 14861119105009
Eutrophication is the process by which substances like DDT and Hg
are concentrated in the food chain.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0951018 A
12 14282 31 14860025171809
The BOD content of sewage would be expected to be relatively
high.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0951019 B
12 14284 31 14861112002509
The two plant nutrients of prime importance in water pollution
are P (phosphorus) and O (oxygen).
9 A. True B. False
0040
0951020 A
12 14286 31 14860675111209
Oil pollution has serious long_term effects.
3
_________
9 A. True B. False
0040
0951021 B
12 14288 31 14861116103309
Coliform bacteria are the main disease_causing agents in water.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0951022 B
12 14290 31 14860008059009
Radiation levels in water are increasing.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0951023 A
12 14291 31 14860018070109
Some inorganic pollutants cause salinity problems.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0951024 A
12 14293 31 14860488001809
Salt can kill growing plants because of the osmosis process.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0951025 B
12 14295 31 03400064032109
Helium is the most abundant noble gas in the atmosphere.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0953001 A
12 14297 51 10131516151709
Branched_chain detergents are more readily broken down in nature
than those with straight chains.
9 A. True B. False
0009
0962001 B
12 14299 51 1677
0286
A thermocouple is a device for conducting heat from one location
to another.
9 A. True B. False
0962003 A
12 14301 51 10761930
09
The sensitivity of an equal arm balance depends upon the
masses suspended from the beam.
A. True
9 B. False
0041
0962004 A
12 14303 51 10761930
09
The sensitivity of an analytical balance does not depend
upon the position of the zero adjust dial of the balance.
A. True
9 B. False
0962005 B
12 14305 51 10761930
09
The sensitivity of a single pan analytical balance depends
upon the mass of the sample being weighed.
A. True
9 B. False
0962006 A
12 14307 51 10761930
09
The single pan analytical balance has constant sensitivity
because the same mass is suspended from the balance beam in
all weighings.
A. True
9 B. False
0962007 B
12 14310 51 10761930
09
When a weight is dialed on a single pan analytical balance,
that number of grams is added to the balance beam on the
side opposite the sample pan.
A. True
9 B. False
0962008 A
12 14313 51 10761930
09
When a weight is dialed on a single pan analytical balance,
that number of grams is removed from the balance beam on the
side from which the sample pan hangs.
A. True
9 B. False
0962009 B
12 14316 51 10761930
09
When an object is weighed on a double pan balance, one
removes weights from the weight pan equal to the weight of
the object. The beam is then balanced at zero.
A. True
9 B. False
0962010 A
12 14319 51 10761930
09
When an object is weighed on a double pan balance, one adds
weights to the weight pan until the beam arm is balanced at
zero.
A. True
9
B. False
0962011 B
12 14322 51 10761930
09
On a double pan balance, one can perform two weighings at
the same time, one in each pan.
A. True
9 B. False
0962013 A
12 14324 51 10761930
09
The single pan balance is so designed that the same mass
(within 0.1 g) is suspended from the balance beam in all
weighings.
A. True
9 B. False
0962014 B
12 14327 51 10761930
09
When you make a weighing on a single pan analytical balance,
the recommended procedure is to dial the smallest weights
first and the largest weights last.
A. True
9 B. False
0962015 B
12 14330 51 10761930
09
When a single pan analytical balance is used to make a
weighing, the balance is set in full release, the sample is
then placed on the sample pan, and weights are dialed.
A. True
9 B. False
0962016 A
12 14333 51 10761930
09
When a single pan analytical balance is used to make a
weighing, weights of 0.1 gram or larger are dialed with the
beam in partial release.
A. True
9 B. False
0962017 A
12 14336 51 10761930
09
When an analytical balance is in full release, the beam from
which the pan is suspended is fully able to swing freely.
A. True
9 B. False
0962018 A
12 14338 51 10761930
09
When a single pan analytical balance is used, weights of 1
gram or larger should never be dialed with the beam in full
release.
A. True
9
B. False
0962019 B
12 14341 51 10761930
09
When a sample is weighed on a single pan analytical balance,
weights of 1 gram or larger should never be dialed with the
beam in partial release.
A. True
9 B. False
0962020 B
12 14344 51 10761930
09
When a single pan analytical balance has all dials set at
zero, the beam has NO weights suspended from it.
A. True
9 B. False
0962021 A
12 14346 51 10791930
09
When an equal arm double pan analytical balance is zeroed,
the difference in masses suspended from the two arms of the
beam is zero.
A. True
9 B. False
0962022 A
12 14349 51 10791930
09
Before beginning a weighing, an analytical balance must be
zeroed with the zero adjust knob. Before this is done,
the weight dials must be set at zero.
9 A. True B. False
0962023 A
12 14352 51 1079
09
The mass of an object is measured by comparing the force of
gravity on it to the force of gravity on an object of known
mass.
A. True
9 B. False
0962024 A
12 14355 51 10791930
09
Beam arm error is
A. present only in the equal arm double pan balance.
B. present only in the single pan analytical balance.
C. present in all types of balances.
9 D. not present in any balance.
0962025 B
12 14358 51 10791930
09
5
_4
To weigh an object to a precision of 10 gram, one could
use a triple beam balance.
9
A. True
B. False
0962026 A
12 14361
51
10791930
09
4
_4
To weigh an object to a precision of 10 gram, one could
use a single pan analytical balance.
A. True
9 B. False
0970001 B
12 14364 32 00081486095909
Water has its maximum density at 0 degrees C.
9 A. True B. False
0970002 A
12 14365 31 14860125
Silver metal is a good conductor of electricity.
9 A. True B. False
09
0040
0040
0970003 B
12 14367 31 14860125079909
The tarnish on silverware is a thin coating of black Ag O.
4
2
9 A. True B. False
0040
0970004 A
12 14369 31 14860125079909
Silver tarnish is a chemical compound.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0970005 B
12 14370 31 14860039
09
Gold is generally found in nature in compounds with other
elements.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0970006 B
12 14372 31
Pure gold is a very hard metal.
9 A. True B. False
0040
14860039
09
0971001 A
12 14373 51 00161323145409
Rubies are composed principally of aluminum oxide.
9 A. True B. False
0971002 B
12 14375 51
084609
The simplest of the known boron hydrides is BH .
4
3
9 A. True B. False
0043
0043
0971003 B
12 14377 51 01610218029309
Only at very high temperatures does nitrogen form an N molecule.
4
4
9 A. True B. False
0043
0971004 A
12 14379 31 05540806159109
When P O is dissolved in (excess) water, the final product
4
4 10
is H PO .
4
3 4
9 A. True B. False
0971005 B
12 14381 31 0293
09
NO , N O , and NO are all odd molecules.
4 2 24
9 A. True B. False
0043
0043
0971006 A
12 14383 31 00771627
09
Nitrous acid undergoes slow disproportionation.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0971007 B
12 14385 31
1774116709
White phosphorus is sometimes stored under kerosene, in order to
prevent it from reacting with air.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0971008 A
12 14387 51
0674019209
Red phosphorus is a polymeric substance.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0971009 A
12 14388 31 00350196
09
The +1 oxidation state is more common than the _1 state for
hydrogen.
9 A. True B. false.
0043
0971010 A
12 14390 31
0808040809
Silver chloride is less soluble in water than sodium chloride.
9 A. True B. false.
0043
0971011 A
12 14392 31 13940192080809
Nonpolar substances are not very soluble in water.
9 A. True B. false.
0043
0971012 A
12 14394 31 01650351019609
In ice every oxygen atom is bound to four hydrogen atoms.
9 A. True B. false.
0043
0971013 B
12 14396
Ozone is paramagnetic.
9 A. True B. false.
31
05660768
09
0971014 B
12 14397 31 04980025021809
The normal boiling point of oxygen is lower than that of
nitrogen.
9 A. True B. false.
0043
0043
0971015 B
12 14399 31 00070566
09
Although O is a more powerful oxidizing agent than O , it is
4
3
2
a slower_acting one.
9 A. True B. false.
0043
0971016 A
12 14402 31
Hydrogen peroxide is an acid.
9 A. True B. false.
0043
10750077
09
0971017 A
12 14403 31 10751367162709
Hydrogen peroxide exhibits disproportionation.
9 A. True B. false.
0971018 B
12 14405 31 01690237
Sodium oxide is a covalent solid.
9 A. True B. false.
09
0043
0043
0971019 A
12 14406 31 08080008
09
One would not expect FePO to be very soluble in water.
4
4
9 A. True B. false.
0043
0971020 A
12 14408 31
SO is an acidic anhydride.
4 2
9 A. True B. false.
0043
00770804
09
0971021 A
12 14409 31 00750808000809
Many hydroxides are not very soluble in water.
9 A. True B. false.
0043
0971022 A
12 14411 31 00080045000209
Water is capable of oxidizing sodium metal.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0971023 A
0043
12 14412
31
00660344080809
Most compounds of potassium are quite soluble in water.
9 A. True B. False
0971024 A
12 14414 51 00870002
09
A solution prepared by adding sodium to liquid ammonia contains
negative ions which are apparently solvated electrons.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0971025 B
12 14416 31 00870138132309
A solution prepared by adding K O to water contains a high
4
2
concentration of oxide ions.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0971026 B
12 14418 51 18321173183309
Plaster of paris may be prepared by adding water to gypsum.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0971027 B
12 14420 31 01730008
09
Permanent hardness may be removed by adding Ca(OH) to the water
4
2
9 A. True B. False
0043
0971028 A
12 14422 31 14860787005609
The conversion of SO to SO is a step in the production of
4
2
3
H SO .
42 4
9 A. True B. False
0040
0971029 B
12 14424 31 14860787005609
The S used as a starting material for H SO production is usually
4
2 4
obtained from H S in the atmosphere.
4
2
9 A. True B. False
0040
0971030 A
12 14427 31 14860109002509
Use of pure O instead of air results in a five_fold increase in
4
2
oxygen concentration.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0971031 B
12 14429 31 14860025
09
Commercial production of O involves electrolysis of H O.
4
2
2
0040
9
A. True B. False
0971032 A
12 14431 31
NH is a form of fixed nitrogen.
4 3
9 A. True B. False
14860218
09
0040
0971033 B
12 14432 31 14861525007209
The Haber process is used to produce Cl .
4
2
9 A. True B. False
0040
0971034 B
12 14434 31 14860072117009
The source of H needed for ammonia manufacture is sea water.
4
2
9 A. True B. False
0040
0971035 A
12 14436 31 14860215041309
Sodium hydroxide production often involves the use of mercury.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0971036 A
12 14438 31 14861330084809
5
_
The active ingredient in a bottle of bleach is the OCl ion.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0971037 A
12 14440 31 14860852081709
At least one allotrope of carbon conducts electricity.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0971038 B
12 14442 31 14860817002409
The allotropic form of phosphorus called red phosphorus is very
toxic.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0971039 B
12 14444 31 14860817035009
Silicon shows the property of allotropy.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0971040 A
12 14445 31 14860817028409
Allotropes are different forms of the same element.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0971041 B
12 14447 31 14860024
All forms of phosphorus are poisonous.
9 A. True B. False
09
0040
0971042 A
12 14448 31 14860024081709
Phosphorus exists in at least two allotropic forms.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0971043 B
12 14450 31 14860350033609
No substance is known which will dissolve or react with glass.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0971044 B
12 14452 31 14860589001409
The main use of diamonds (by weight) is in jewerly.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0971045 B
12 14454 31 14860024
09
The bones of animals are unhealthy if they contain any
phosphorus.
9 A. True B. False
0971046 A
12 14456 31 14860817001409
Carbon possesses the property of allotropy.
9 A. True B. False
0973001 A
12 14457 51 11780087
09
The ferric ion may be detected in solution by adding potassium
thiocyanate.
9 A. True B. False
0040
0040
0043
0973002 A
12 14459 51 00370844000709
Compounds of +3 nickel are powerful oxidizing agents.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0973003 A
12 14461 51 17600061007509
Cobaltous hydroxide is a basic hydroxide.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0973004 B
12 14462 51 00320017008709
5
2+
Copper metal will reduce Fe in solution.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0973005 B
12 14464 51 11780012
The cobaltic ion will reduce H O.
4
2
9 A. True B. False
09
0043
0973006 A
09
0043
12 14466
51
11710008
AgCl and CuCl are both rather insoluble in water.
9 A. True B. False
0973007 B
12 14468 51 14480039117809
The oxidation potential of gold (to form the aurous ion) is
highly positive.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0973008 B
12 14470 51 05541578002109
When HgS is dissolved in aqua regia, the mercury becomes
5
_
oxidized by the NO in the aqua regia.
4
3
9 A. True B. False
0043
0973009 A
12 14473 51 00870215055409
5
2+
Adding a solution of NaOH to a solution containing Zn
produces a precipitate, which redissolves upon addition of excess
NaOH.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0973010 B
12 14476 51 11690087023609
5
+
Addition of NH to a solution containing Ag produces a black
4
3
precipitate.
9 A. True B. False
0043
0973011 A
12 14479 51 00890089
Mercuric chloride is a weak electrolyte.
9 A. True B. False
09
0043
0973301 B
12 14480 51 05040560006109
The +6 state of manganese is not stable in basic solution.
9 A. True B. False
004
0973302 A
12 14482 51 13310087001209
5
_
2+
When MnO is reduced in acidic solution, Mn is produced.
4
4
9 A. True B. False
0043
0973303 A
12 14484 51 00450077008709
5 +3
2_
Cr may be oxidized to Cr O
by H O in acid solution.
0043
4
9 A. True B. False
27
22
0983001 B
12 14487 51 15731574037909
The technique of activation analysis is limited to those elements
that have naturally radioactive isotopes.
9 A. True. B. False.
0983002 A
12 14489 31 05781486
A mass spectrometer can be used to determine the charge_to_mass
ratio of positively charged particles.
9 A. True B. False
1000002 ACAABA 64 14491 32 0272027880011290
MACROITEM STEM
2To answer the following questions, mark space
2 A. if the statement has been proved by experiment or observation
2 B. if the statement is theoretical or hypothetical
2 C. if the statement is a definition
2 D. if the statement has been proved false by experiment or
0
observation
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 Heat is the kinetic energy of rapidly moving molecules.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
The acceleration of a body is equal to the time rate of change of
2 velocity.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 The mass of a hydrogen atom is 100 times that of an electron.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
An electric current may be produced in a coil of wire by moving
4 a magnet into the coil.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
The number of molecules in a liter of any gas is the same as the
5 number in a liter of any other gas under the same conditions.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
9 Wave motion transmits energy.
1000003 ABAD
44 14501 52 0021008180011190
MACROITEM STEM
2To answer the following items, select the most appropriate response
2from the key.
2 A. The second cannot occur unless the first has occured or is
2
occuring.
2 B. The first usually but not necessarily occurred before the
2
second.
2 C. The second usually but not necessarily occured before the
0009
0003
ETS2 OS
ETS2 OS
2
first.
2 D. There is NO relationship between the occurence of the first
0
and the second.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 Oxidation_spontaneous combustion
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 Solution in water_dissociation of ions
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 Gaseous ions_discharge of an electroscope
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
9 Rubbing with silk or fur_magnetization
1000004 CABBA
54 14509 32 0272027802811290
MACROITEM STEM
2To answer the following questions, mark space
2 A. if the statement has been proved by experiment or observation
2 B. if the statement is theoretical or hypothetical
2 C. if the statement is a definition
2 D. if the statement has been proved false by experiment or
0
observation
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 The mass of 1 cc of water at 4 degrees C is one gram.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 The pressure of a gas is due to the motion of the molecules.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
The gravitational attraction is the same at all places on the
3 surface of the earth.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
4 The number of different kinds of atoms is limited.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
9 The earth's diameter is greater at the equator than at the poles.
1100001 BDA
35 14517 31 0257025880011290
MACROITEM STEM
2To answer the following questions, choose from the key list the
2term most closely related to the statements.
2 A. catalysis
2 B. hydrolysis
2 C. electrolysis
2 D. diffusion
0 E. dialysis
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
A reaction in which a normal salt reacts with water to form
1 either an acidic or basic solution
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 Mixing of two substances by molecular motion
ETS2 OS
ETS2 OS
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
Changing the rate of a reaction by using a substance that remains
9 unchanged after completion of the reaction
1110001 D
15 14523 31 096109620963
Which of the following is not considered a valid reason for
studying chemistry?
A. The need to be aware of the effect of chemistry on each
citizen and his environment
B. The need to consider changes that may result as new
chemical knowledge is obtained
C. The need to know some of the important products that have
resulted from chemical explorations
D. The realization that chemistry is the answer to all the
world's problems
9 E. The need to think rigorously and with logic
0018
1110002 C
14 14530 31 1702
One formula_unit of Na SO contains:
4
2 4
A. 1 mole of Na SO B. 1 gram_atom of sulfur
4
2 4
9 C. one atom of sulfur D. 1 mole of sodium
0003
1110003 B
14 14533 31
One molecule of HCl:
A. contains 1 g of H
5
_23
B. weighs 6.06 x 10
g
C. weighs 36.461 g
9 D. contains 1 mole of Cl
0003
0703
1110004 B
14 14536 31 0706
The product of the pressure and the volume of a fixed weight of
ideal gas is:
A. constant
B. directly proportional to the temperature
C. inversely proportional to the temperature
9 D. approximately constant
1110005 D
14 14539 52 07060186
The density of methane (CH ) at 2.00 atm pressure and 248 K is:
4
4
is:
A. 26.0 g/liter B. 0.260 g/liter
9 C. 0.130 g/liter D. 1.30 g/liter
0003
0003
1110006 B
14 14542 31 0498
At a given pressure the boiling point is the same as the
A. freezing point
B. liquefaction point
9 C. critical temperature D. triple_point temperature
0003
1111101 C
15 14545 32 8003
Multiplying 75 x 273 x 600 gives
3
___ ___
300 750
9 A. 91 B. 91/125 C. 273/5 D. 273
2WVW
E. none of these
1111102 A
15 14548 32 8003
What percent of $12.50 is 25 cents?
9 A. 2 B. 1/5 C. 5 D. 20 E. 200
2WVW
1111103 C
15 14550 32 8003
x divided by x equals
9 A. 0 B. x C. 1 D. 0.5x E. 2x
2WVW
1111104 E
15 14551 32
y_y equals
9 A. _2y B. 2y C. 1 D. y
8003
2WVW
1111105 E
15 14552
6 _ r equals
3_ _
n n
A. 6r
3
__
5
2
N
B. 6n _ rn
C. 6_r
3
___
2n
D. 6 _ r
3
_____
5
2
N
9 E. none of these
32
8003
2WVW
1111106 A
32
8003
2WVW
_2
2
10 x 10
15 14555
E. 0
3__________ equals
4
_3
10 x 10
5
3
3
9 A. 1/10 B. 1/10
C. 10
_8
D. 1/10
E. 1/3
1111107 D
15 14558 32
The product of _7 and zero is
A. _7
B. 7
C. _1
D. 0
9 E. none of these
8003
2WVW
1111108 C
8003
2WVW
15 14560
32
5
2 3
4
Multiplying x , x and x gives
5
24
9 A. x
24
B. 3x
9
C. x
9
D. 3x
E. 9x
1111109 B
15 14562 32 8003
On a given map, one_fourth of an inch represents a distance of one
mile. How long is a line which represents 12 miles (in inches)?
9 A. 1/3 B. 3 C. 36 D. 48 E. None of these
2WVW
1111110 E
15 14565 32 8003
The amount of money that will buy d dozen eggs at c cents per
dozen will buy how many pounds of potatoes at e cents per pound.
9 A. dce B. ce/d C. de/c D. d(c+e) E. None of these
2WVW
1111111 A
15 14568 32 8003
How many kilograms are there in 242 pounds (1 kilogram = 2.2 pounds)
9 A. 110 B. 11 C. 0.009 D. 532.4 E. None of these
2WVW
1111112 B
15 14570 32
5
1/2
Simplifying 2 + 12
gives
3
___________
2
2 1/2
A. 1 + 2 x (3 )
2WVW
1/2
B. 1 + 3
8003
1/2
C. 6
9
1/2
D. 12
E. none of these
1111113 D
15 14574 32 8003
A store advertised that the price of an article had been reduced
30% and the new selling price was 98 cents. What was the original
price?
A. $0.69
B. $1.27
C. $1.31
D. $1.40
9 E. none of these
2WVW
1111114 C
15 14577 32 8003
The number of cubic feet in a rectangular tank 8 inches by 15 inches
by 10 feet is
9 A. 1200 B. 100 C. 25/3 D. 25/36 E. None of these
2WVW
1111115 D
2WVW
15 14579
32
8003
5
2
2
What is the value of x _ y if x = 3 and y = 1
3
_______
2y _ 3x
9 A. _2 B. _64/7 C. 8/3 D. _8/7 E. 64/3
1111116 E
15 14582 32 8003
The outer diameter of a pipe is 3.257 inches and the inner diameter
is 2.635 inches. What is the thickness of the pipe wall, in inches?
A. 2.946
B. 0.301
C. 0.622
D. 1.882
9 E. none of these
2WVW
1111117 A
15 14585 32 8003
7 1/2 is 3/4 of 5/6 of what number?
9 A. 12 B. 1/12 C. 75/16 D. 16/75
2WVW
1111118 D
15 14587 32 8003
When y is 9% of x and y = 18, then x equals
E. 75/9
2WVW
9
A. 162
B. 1.62
C. 2
D. 200
E. none of these
1111119 C
15 14589 32 8003
From a rectangle of length a and width b, squares of side x are cut
out at the four corners. Find the area remaining
2WVW
5
2
2
A. (a_2x ) (b_2x )
B. (a_2x) (b_2x)
5
2
C. ab _ 4x
5
2
D. 4x _ ab
9 E. none of these
1111120 D
15 14593 32
Given a = p + prt, then r equals
A. a _ p _ pt
B. a _ p
3
__
pt
C. a
3
__
p+pt
D. a _ p
3
_____
pt
E. a _ pt
3
_
9
p
8003
2WVW
1111121 B
15 14596
5
_1/3
Simplifying _27 gives
A. 1
3
_
3
B. _ 1
3
_
3
C. 9
8003
2WVW
32
5
3
D. _27
E.
1
3
_____
5
9
3
27
1111122 A
15 14599 32 8003
A mixture is to be made of two substances a and b in the proportion
seven parts of a to 13 parts of b. What percent of the mixture is b?
A. 65
B. 54
C. 35
D. 19
9 E. none of these
2WVW
1111123 D
15 14602 32 8003
If a number, when divided by d, gives quotient q and remainder r,
then the number is
A. d + rq
B. q + r
3
_
d
C. q + rd
D. dq + r
9 E. qrd
2WVW
1111124 C
15 14605 32 8003
How many cents are there in d dollars, q quarters, and t dimes?
A. d + q + t
B. d + q + t
3
___ __ __
100 25 10
C. 100d + 25q + 10t
D. dqt
9 E. none of these
2WVW
1111125 A
15 14608 32 8003
When the simultaneous equations
3x + 5y = 9
2x _ y = _7
are solved, the value of y is
A. 3
B. _2
C. _ 3
2WVW
3
_
7
D. _ 3
3
__
13
E. 25
9
13
1111126 C
15 14612 32 8003
The surface area of a cube is 294. Find the length of one edge.
5
1/3
A. 294
5
3
B. (294)
C. 7
5
1/2
D. 294
9 E. None of these
2WVW
1111127 B
15 14615 32 8003
A diagonal of a square is 50. Find the length of a side.
A. 25
5
1/2
B. 25 X 2
5
1/2
C. 25 x 3
5
1/2
D. 25 x 5
9 E. none of these
2WVW
1111128 D
15 14618 32 8003
If the weight of a box containing n apples is a, and the weight
of the empty box is b, what is the average weight of six apples?
A. 6n (a_b)
5
a
B. (6_b)/n
C. 6na _ b
D. 6 (a _ b)
3
_
n
9 E. none of these
2WVW
1111129 D
15 14622 32 8003
The radius of a circle is r inches. By how many inches would the
circumference be increased if the radius were increased 3 inches?
A. 6
2WVW
9
B. 6 pi r
C. 6r
D. 6 pi
E. none of these
1111130 D
15 14625 32 8003
5
2
The surface area S of a sphere is given by the formula S=4 pi r
where r is the radius. What is the effect on S if r is reduced by
50%?
A. reduced by 25%
B. reduced by 50%
C. reduced by 75%
D. reduced by 200%
9 E. none of these
2WVW
1111131 E
15 14630 32 8003
If y = a sin 0 and x = b cos 0,then it is necessarily true that
3
/
/
2WVW
5
2
2
2
2
A. x + y = a + b
5
2
2
B. x + y
__ __ = 1
5
2
2
a
b
C. xy = ab
D. y = tan 0
3
_
/
x
9 E. none of these is necessarily true
1111132 C
15 14635 32
If py _ rq = y (r + p), then p =
3 _______
qx
A. (qr + xy)/y
B. 2qr/x
C. qr(xy + 1)
3
__________
y _ qxy
D. qr(1 _ xy)
3
__________
y (1 _ qx)
8003
2WVW
9
E. none of these is correct
1111133 C
15 14638 32
90
2In the study of the physical sciences it is frequently necessary
2to proceed from a verbal statement to a symbolic representation of
2this statement. Show that you can do this with the following
statements (assume k and k' to be constants).
under certain conditions, the product of the pressure (P) and volume
(V) is proportional to the absolute temperature (T).
A. PV = T
B. P + V = T
C. PV = kT
D. PVT = 1
9 E. PV = kT + k'
2WVW
1111134 B
15 14644 32 8003
The effective wavelength, w, of a beam of electrons is inversely
proportional to the square root of the mean kinetic energy
of the electrons, E.
5
1/2
A. (wE)
=k
5
1/2
B. w x E
=k
C. w = 1
3
______
5
1/2
E
5
9
1/2
D. w
=k+1
_____
E
E. none of these is correct
1111135 B
15 14650 32 8003
The atomic number of an atom is equal to
A. the charge on the atom
B. the number of protons in the nucleus
C. half the atomic weight of the atom
D. the number of electrons in the valence shell
9 E. the number of neutrons in the atom
1111136 E
15 14654 32
An aqueous sodium chloride solution conducts electricity better
2WVW
2WVW
than does a solution containing an equal concentration of acetic
acid because
A. acetic acid reduces the dissociation of water markedly
B. all acids are poor conductors in aqueous solution
C. concentrated solutions conduct better than dilute solutions
D. organic compounds never ionize at all
9 E. many more ions are present in the salt solution
1111137 B
15 14660 32 8003
Isotopes of nitrogen differ in the number of
A. protons
C. charged particles E. electrons
9 B. neutrons D. deuterons
2WVW
1111138 B
15 14663 32 8003
The fact that sulfur is a non_metal implies that it is
A. monatomic
B. a poor conductor of electricity
C. malleable
D. easily oxidized
9 E. able to displace hydrogen from an acid solution
2WVW
1111139 D
15 14666 32 8003
The term "acid" is used chemically to refer to
A. anything which tastes sour
B. any compound which contains hydrogen atoms
C. any substance which has or can furnish hydrogen atoms
D. any substance which has or can furnish hydrogen ions
9 E. any substance which can accept hydrogen ions
2WVW
1120001 D
14 14670 51 15100317
The strongest of the four fundamental interactions is the
A. gravitational B. weak nuclear
9 C. electromagnetic D. strong nuclear
0041
1120002 A
14 14672 51 15100317
The weakest of the four fundamental interactions is the
A. gravitational B. weak nuclear
9 C. electromagnetic D. strong nuclear
0041
1120003 C
14 14674 51 151009850627
The interaction primarily responsible for the formation of atoms
from nuclei and electrons is the
A. gravitational B. weak nuclear
9 C. electromagnetic D. strong nuclear
0041
1120004 C
0042
15 14677
32
180504451646
Considering significant figures, what is the total weight of a
series of beakers which weigh 125.2 gm, 90.3 gm, 56.2 gm, and
20.237 gm respectively?
5
2
A. 2.91 x 10 gm, B. 292 gm, C. 291.9 gm, D. 291.937 gm,
9 E. 291.23 gm.
1120005 D
15 14681 32 18050288
Pay attention to significant figures and solve the problem:
35.00 + 1.02
4
________________ = ?
5
2
(3.0)
9
A. 4
B. 4.002
C. 0.120
D. 4.0
0042
E. 12
1120006 B
15 14684 32 01950150
What is the volume of a box which is 200 mm x 10.0 cm x 0.400 m?
0028
A. 10.0 liters B. 8.00 liters C. 800 milliliters
9
D. 1000 milliliters E. 2000 milliliters
1120007 E
15 14687 31 096112870588
A study of chemistry can include a study of
A. matter
B. pesticides
C. dyes
D. photography
9 E. all of these
0020
1120008 C
15 14689 31 096103820014
Organic chemistry is
A. the study of organisms
B. the study of metallic compounds
C. a study of compounds containing carbon
D. a branch of quantitative analysis
9 E. a minor branch of biology
1120009 B
15 14692 31 026902040961
The science dealing with the composition of materials and the
changes in composition which these materials undergo is
A. biology
B. chemistry
C. physics
D. mathematics
9 E. all of these
0020
0020
1120010 B
15 14695
32
1301
0020
5
_7
The number 1.23 x 10 is
A. 00.12300
B. 0.000 000 123
C. 0.000 000 0012 23
D. 0.000 001 23
9 E. 0.000 012 3
1120011 D
15 14698 32
5
_2
8.80 cm plus 1.36 x 10 cm is
9 A. 8.94 cm B. 10.16 cm C. 8.93 cm
0020
D. 8.81 cm
E. 8.8136 cm
1120012 E
15 14700 32
5
_7
5
3.80 X 10 times 5.60 x 10 is
5
1
2
A. 2.13 x 10
B. 0.00213 C. 0.0213 D. 2.13 x 10
9 E. none of these
1120013 C
15 14703 32 1302
5
_8
8
5.60 X 10 divided by 2.80 x 10 is
5
16
_16
0
A. 2.0 B. 2.0 x 10
C. 2.0 x 10
D. 2.0 x 10
9 E. none of these
1120014 E
15 14706 32 13031302
5
5
_5
_3
The results of (1.0 x 10 )(2.0 x 10 ) divided by 2.0 x 10 is
5
_3
3
_3
A. 100 B. 2.0 x 10
C. 2.0 x 10 D. 1.0 x 10
5
3
9 E. 1.0 x 10
1120015 C
15 14710 31 054501140798
The inflation of an automobile tire to a pressure of "20 pounds"
means:
5
2
A. the pressure exerted by the air in the tire is 20 lb/in
B. the weight of the air in the tire is 20 pounds
5
2
C. the pressure of the air in the tire is 20 lb/in higher than
the air pressure outside the tire
0020
0020
0020
0009
5
9
2
D. the pressure of the air inside the tire is about 5 lb/in
E. the mass of the air is 20 lb.
1120016 B
14 14718
5 2.699
10
equals
A. log 2.699
B. 500
C. 2.699 log 10
9 D. 699.
52
19441827
0055
1120017 D
14 14720 52 19441805
The number of significant figures in 0.002060 is
A. six
B. two
C. three
9 D. four
0055
1120018 A
14 14722 52 19441950
By experiment, a student found 39.08% of oxygen in KClO . The
4
3
theoretical percentage is 39.17%. The percent of experimental
error is calculated as follows:
A. (39.08 _ 39.17)100/39.17
B. (39.08 _ 39.17)100/39.08
C. (39.08 _ 39.17)100
9 D. (39.17 _ 39.08)100
0055
1120019 B
14 14727 52 194416540398
The weight of an object w, is equal to the product of its mass m,
and the acceleration due to gravity a, (w = ma). if w is in dynes
5
_2
and a is in cm sec , then m is in
5
_2
A. dyne cm sec
5
2 _1
B. dyne sec cm
5
_1
2 _1
C. dyne sec cm
5
_1
_2
9 D. dyne sec cm
0055
1120020 C
14 14732 52 19441328
5
_6
The multiple 10 is denoted by the prefix
A. mega
B. milli
C. micro
9 D. nano
0055
1120021 B
14 14734 52 1944
The number of chirps per minute made by a cricket is temperature
dependent as follows: deg F = 0.25 (chirps/min) + 39.0. If a cricket
chirps 144 times per minute the Fahrenheit temperature is
9 A. 36 B. 75 C. 105 D. 114
0055
1120022 D
15 14738 72 1955
A solid lead sphere is 1 cm in diameter. A second solid lead
sphere is 2 cm in diameter. The mass of the second sphere is
how many times that of the first?
9 A. 2 B. 3.14 C. 4 D. 8 E. 16
0062
1122001 C
15 14741 52
The number 134537.5, expressed to three significant figures is:
5
5
5
9 A. 134. B. 135. C. 1.35x10
D. 1.34x10
1122002 BDA
35 14744 52
MACROITEM STEM
Maria says to Gwenda, "I have four experimental values for the
atomic weight of chlorine. They are:
36.7665, 33.7762, 34.9112 and 35.8726."
Gwenda determines the average and says to Maria, "Your precision
0 is much better than your accuracy.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
On the basis of this information, it can be concluded that
A. Gwenda is correct in her assessment of Maria's data.
B. Gwenda is incorrect in her assessment of Maria's data because
Maria's accuracy is better than her precision.
C. Gwenda is incorrect in her assessment of Maria's data because
1
Maria's precision is just about equal to her accuracy.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
Maria's average deviation for these four results is (in atomic
mass units)
2 A. 0.1 B. 0.3 C. 0.5 D. 1 E. 2
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
OS
OS
Maria would be justified in reporting her average atomic weight to
how many significant figures?
9 A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 6
1122003 BDE
35 14756 52
MACROITEM STEM
The atomic weight of aluminum is determined five times. The
results of these trials are shown below:
Trial 1 26.872
Trial 2 26.849
Trial 3 26.867
Trial 4 26.844
Trial 5 26.853
OS83
0 If the accepted value of the atomic weight of Al is 26.982, then
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
it can be concluded from these data that
A. the accuracy of these determinations is significantly greater
than the precision.
B. the precision of these determinations is significantly greater
than the accuracy.
C. the precision and accuracy are about the same.
D. the precision and accuracy are not the same, but one is not
1
significantly greater than the other.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
Based on the precision of these measurements, the experimental
value for the atomic weight of aluminum should be reported to
____________ significant figures.
2 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
Of the five experimental values, the one which seems to deviate
from the mean because of an effect other than random experimental
error is
A. 26.872
B. 26.849
C. 26.867
D. 26.844
9 E. none of them. They seem to be fairly evenly distributed.
1122004 B
15 14771 52
071101
A mixture is prepared by mixing 7.65 g of A and 6.95 g of B.
The total weight of the mixture can be reported to ______
significant figures. The ratio, wt of A/wt of B, in the
mixture can be reported to ______significant figures. The
difference, A _ B, can be reported to _____significant figures.
The numbers required to fill the blanks are, respectively,
0064
9
A. 3,3,3
B. 4,3,2
C. 4,3,3
D. 4,4,3
E. none of these
1122005 D
15 14777 52
071101
Two samples were weighed using different balances
sample (1) = 3.529 g and sample (2) = 0.40 g.
How should the total weight of the samples be reported?
9 A. 3.929 g B. 3 g C. 3.9 g D. 3.93 g E. 4 g
0064
1122006 C
15 14780 52
071101
A 0.060_g sample of Al wire was found to weigh 56.0 mg
after treatment with hydrochloric acid. How should the
percent weight loss be reported?
9 A. 6.7% B. 15% C. 7% D. 6.67% E. 10%
0064
1122007 D
15 14783 52
071101
Which of the following contains 4 significant figures?
A. 0.0005 g B. 0.0050 mL
C. 0.0500 m D. 0.5000 cm
9 E. all of these
0064
1122008 C
15 14785 52
071101
Add 5.17 g, 0.251 g and 0.0023 g. The answer to the correct
number of digits after the decimal point is
9 A. 5.4233 g B. 5.423 g C. 5.42 g D. 5.4 g E. 5 g
0064
1122009 D
15 14788 52
071101
Two samples were weighed using different balances
sample (1) = 3.529 g and sample (2) = 0.40 g.
How should the total weight of the samples be reported?
9 A. 3.929 g B. 3 g C. 3.9 g D. 3.93 g E. 4 g
0064
1122010 D
15 14791 52
071101
Which of the following masses is reported to four significant
figures?
5
_4
A. 2.0110 mg
B. 17.4 x 10 g
C. 0.0020 g
5
4
9 D. 3.030 kg
E. 3 x 10 g
0064
1122011 B
15 14794 52
071101
A mixture of X and Y weighing 14.00 g is found to contain 13.50 g
of X. The percentage of Y (by weight) in this mixture should be
reported to ____significant figure(s).
9 A. one B. two C. three D. four E. eight
0064
1122012 E
15 14797 52
071101
The density of the element gold, Au, is to be calculated from the
0064
following data
Mass of a golden coin
= 13.512 g
Volume of the coin and water = 25.1 ml
Volume of the water alone
= 24.4 ml
The density of the metal in the coin should be reported as
A. 19.303 g/ml
B. 19.30 g/ml
C. 19.3 g/ml
D. 19 g/ml
5
1
9 E. 2 x 10 g/ml
1122013 B
13 44559 31
Maria says to Gwenda, "I have four experimental values for the
atomic weight of chlorine. They are:
36.7665, 33.7762, 34.9112 and 35.8726."
Gwenda determines the average and says to Maria, "Your precision
is much better than your accuracy." On the basis of this
information, it can be concluded that
A. Gwenda is correct in her assessment of Maria's data.
B. Gwenda is incorrect in her assessment of Maria's data because
Maria's accuracy is better than her precision.
C. Gwenda is incorrect in her assessment of Maria's data because
9
Maria's precision is just about equal to her accuracy.
1122014 B
15 45148 71
How many significant figures are there in the value 2,100,100?
9 A. 7 B. 5 C. 4 D. 3 E. 2
1122015 D
15 45150 71
What is the best answer to report for the following:
2.521 x 13.51
_____________ + 0.31
2.78
4
9
A. 12.5613
B. 12.561
C. 12.56
12.6
E. 13
1122016 B
15 45154 71
The age of a wooden artifact was determined by carbon_14 dating.
Three different measurements gave values of 6295, 4815, and
5485 years. Its age would best be reported as (in years):
9 A. 5531.7 B. 5532 C. 5530 D. 5500 E. 5000
1123001 E
15 14802 52
071101
If you could count individual atoms at the rate of one atom per
second, about how many years would be required to count
0064
5
23
6.02 x 10 atoms?
5
2
3
9 A. 10
B. 10
9
C. 10
12
D. 10
16
E. 10
1124001 C
15 45158 51
Which of the following is NOT an SI unit?
9 A. meter B. kilogram C. angstrom D. pascal
E. joule
1128001 ADE
35 14806 72 1977
90
MACROITEM STEM
A determination of the atomic weight of chlorine is carried
out five times. The values obtained are 35.436,35.440,35.445,35.458
0 and 35.493.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
If the accepted atomic weight of chlorine is 35.453,
A. the accuracy of this series of trials is significantly greater
than the precision.
B. the precision of this series of trials is significantly
greater than the accuracy.
C. the accuracy and the precision of this series of trials are
about the same.
D. no judgment regarding the accuracy or precision of this series
of trials can be made, as the mean of the measurements is
much too low.
E. no judgment regarding the accuracy and precision of this series
of trials can be made, as the mean of the measurements is
1
much too high.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
The experimental value from this series of measurements should be
reported to _____ significant figures.
2 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
Of the five experimental values, the one which appears to deviate from
the mean because of an effect other than random experimental error is
9 A. 35.436 B. 35.440 C. 35.445 D. 35.458 E. 35.493
1128002 D
15 14821 52
Michele asks Ivan, "Did you weigh our sample yet?" Ivan replies,
"Yes, I weighed it on each of three top loading Mettler balances.
Here are my results."
Balance
1
2
3
Mass of sample
1.206 g
1.237 g
1.285 g
OS
OS82
Michele says, "Do you mind if I weigh it once again?"
From this brief conversation, one could conclude that the MOST
reasonable explanation for Michele's request is that
A. the Mettler balances have scales accurate only to 0.1 g, so
Ivan could not have achieved his reported results.
B. Only with four weighings can one safely assume that accurate
results will be achieved.
C. Ivan should have used the Centogram balance, because it would
have produced more precise results.
D. The agreement between the three values should be better than
it is, even if one uses separate Mettler balances.
9 E. Only one balance should have been used for this weighing.
1128003 DBCA
45 45743 51
MACROITEM STEM
A solution is known to have a concentration of 0.1126+0.0002 M HCl
3
_
Five students carry out a standardization of the solution using
Na CO and report the following values:
4 2 3
Student
Sample 1
Sample 2
Sample 3
A. Juliet
0.1129 M
0.1184 M
0.1106 M
B. Brian
0.1120 M
0.1118 M
0.1124 M
C. Michael 0.1104 M
0.1109 M
0.1116 M
D. Shelley 0.1100 M
0.1115 M
0.1163 M
E. Tramy
0.1118 M
0.1123 M
0.1130 M
0 Of these five reports, which exhibits
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 the highest accuracy?
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 the highest precision?
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 the lowest accuracy?
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
9 the lowest precision?
1200001 B
15 14834 31 02790269028011
Galileo considered his sciences to be "new" in the sense that they
A. take into account the facts of nature
B. deal with phenomena never before investigated
C. avoid abstractions and adhere to inductions from observations
D. involve novel and original uses of mathematical proof
E. rest upon application of mathematical methods to physical
9
principles heretofore unknown
ETS2 OS
1200002 E
15 14840 52 02920293800111
Avogadro's suggestion that in some elements molecules might be
identical with atoms but that in other elements as well as in
compounds, each molecule might consist of several atoms, is
a good example of
A. a conceptual scheme which could not be directly tested or
proved
B. a hypotheses that had some truth in it but, in general, had
little consequence
C. a conceptual scheme that had an immediate application
D. a concept that had no practical use
9 E. a hypothesis that led directly to new knowledge
1200003 DDAEDCDDA95 14847 32 0271027380011190
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions should be answered in accordance with the
0 opinions and point of view expressed by Conant.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The significance of Toricelli's experiment for those studying
the methods of science lies in the fact that
A. it can be easily and quickly duplicated in any laboratory
B. it can be readily verified
C. it is a broad hypothesis or conceptual scheme
D. it is simple evidence of one consequence of a broad
hypothesis or conceptual scheme to a pressing problem of
1
the day
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
One of the reasons why the phlogiston hypothesis was not accepted
for over a hundred years was that
A. scientists of that day were less intelligent than modern
scientists
B. gases were commonly believed to have zero or negative weight
C. scientists of that day were not really good observers
D. men were too set in their ways to accept the theory of
oxidation
E. a better theory could not have been formulated until Dalton's
2
atomic theory became known
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
According to Conant, the rebirth of the idea of air as an elastic
medium is an example of
A. a concept arising from an experiment
B. a limited working hypothesis
C. an experiment giving rise to deduced consequences
D. a limited working hypothesis arising from a concept
3 E. none of these
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
ETS2 OS
ETS2 OS
4
5
6
7
8
Conant believes that
A. few if any hypotheses on a grand scale can be directly
tested
B. unlike hypotheses, conceptual schemes can be directly tested
C. unlike conceptual schemes, most hypotheses on a grand scale
can usually be tested directly
D. hypotheses on a grand scale are tests of conceptual schemes
E. both hypotheses on a grand scale and conceptual schemes
can usually be tested directly
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
According to Conant, the idea that Galileo used to explain the
failure of pumps to raise water more than 34 feet was that
A. nature abhors a vacuum
B. mechanical defects existed in all pumps
C. water is incompressible
D. a water column, like a long wire, breaks under a stress
E. atmospheric pressure was a causal factor
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
select the one condition which contributes least toward
the development of a conceptual scheme.
A. The time must be ripe for scientific discovery to be
effective.
B. Scientific variables must be controlled.
C. A previous accepted conceptual scheme which already explains
the phenomena.
D. The adoption of ad hoc (special or for this purpose only)
assumptions to support theories.
E. The use of deductive experimentation or tests.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
Avogadro's hypothesis concerning the relationship between volumes
of gases and the number of particles or molecules they contain is
now considered a
A. generalization
B. conceptual scheme
C. discarded hypothesis
D. law
E. fruitful hypothesis
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 8
The concept of atmospheric pressure
A. was proved by the simple process of deductive reasoning
B. depended upon the presence of a funiculus
C. could never have arisen without a knowledge of Gay Lussac's
law
D. led Boyle into a series of fruitful experiments dealing with
vacuums
E. proves that nature abhors a vacuum
9
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 9
their contemporaries
1200004 D
15 14889 32 01530281800112
The lowering of the temperature of a liquid by evaporation was
probably first discovered by
A. deducing the consequences of the kinetic theory
B. controlled experimentation
C. speculation
D. observation
9 E. inductive reasoning
1200005 CECA
45 14893 52 0304007780011290
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions refer to Lavoisier's experiments with
0 muriatic acid.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
Of the following methods, Lavoisier would best support his
contention that the acidity of muriatic acid is due to the
presence of oxygen by
A. showing that oxygenated muriatic acid is stronger than
muriatic acid itself
B. showing that all other oxygen_containing substances are
acidic
C. showing that other substances are capable of uniting with a
sufficient amount of oxygen to form acids
D. preparing muriatic acid by combining a non_acidic or weakly_
acidic substance with oxygen
1 E. isolating oxygen as a decomposition product of muriatic acid
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
The subsequent discovery that muriatic acid contains no oxygen
A. invalidates the criteria by which Lavoisier identified acids
B. excludes muriatic acid from the class of acids
C. necessitates postulating another element as the cause of
acidity
D. makes this one exception necessary to the theory that oxygen
is the cause of acidity
E. invalidates the oxygen theory of acidity but retains the
2
criteria by which acids are recognized
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
Lavoisier states, we cannot have the slightest doubt that it
(muriatic acid), like all other acids is composed by the union of
oxygen with an acidifiable base. This statement may be best
characterized as
A. a tentative hypothesis designed to guide further investigation
B. a redefinition of the term "acid" in terms of observables
ETS2 OS
ETS2 OS
C. a conclusion arising from similarity of properties of muriatic
acid and oxygen_containing acids
D. an inference from experimental data on muriatic acid
E. a necessary consequence of the theory that all substances
3
containing a maximum amount of oxygen are acids
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
In view of the subsequent finding that muriatic acid contains no
oxygen, which of the following comments is best justified?
A. Lavoisier erred in basing conclusions on qualitative rather
than quantitative data.
B. Lavoisier violated his own precepts by making hypotheses.
C. Lavoisier's error demonstrates the need of an atomic theory
as a guiding principle.
D. To the extent that a scientist may feel it unnecessary to
prove all highly probably conclusions, Lavoisier was
justified.
E. Lavoisier's entire scheme of classification is invalid, since
9
it contains a false assumption.
1200006 BBCE
45 14925 32 0304010980011290
MACROITEM STEM
2The following items refer to Lavoisier's experiments with
0 mercury to determine the composition of air.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
In Lavoisier's determination of the composition of air, the
experiment in which mercury was calcined in the presence of a
restricted amount of air is best considered to be
A. a complete analysis of the air
B. a step in an analysis of the air
C. a step in a synthesis of the air
D. a complete synthesis of the air
1 E. simultaneous analysis and synthesis of the air
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
The subsequent experiment in which the red calx of mercury was
heated in the absence of air is best considered to be
A. a complete analysis of the air
B. the final step in a partial analysis of air
C. the final step in a partial synthesis of air
D. the final step in a complete synthesis of the air
2 E. none of the above
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
The heating of the red calx of mercury can also be looked on as
A. an analysis of the mercury
B. a synthesis of the mercury
C. an analysis of the mercuric calx
D. a synthesis of the mercuric calx
ETS2 OS
3
E. a part of the synthesis of the mercuric oxide
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
In terms of Lavoisier's criteria for adequate chemical evidence,
proof that ordinary air is composed of the two parts, "mephitis"
and "highly" respirable air, requires that Lavoisier
A. use no more than the results of the experiments mentioned
in the previous questions
B. prove that "mephitis" and "highly" respirable air cannot
themselves be separated into any more substances
C. show that no substance other than air is composed of
"mephitis" and "highly" respirable air.
D. show that "mephitis" and "highly" respirable air can each be
obtained from other compound substances, although not
necessarily from the same compound substances
E. show that when "mephitis" and "highly" respirable air only
are combined in the proportions in which they were obtained
9
from air, the mixture behaves in all ways as air
1200007 C
14 14951 31 056106168004
In some cases Moseley found that the variation in the wave lengths
of x_rays between two successive elements was twice as great as
his conclusions justified. He concluded that
A. the atomic weight of the first element was incorrect
B. the atomic weights of the second element was incorrect
C. the element was misplaced in the periodic table
9 D. the existence of an inert gas was indicated
1200008 CBE
35 14957 52 0323032480011390
MACROITEM STEM
2Davy found that the combining volumes of oxygen with 100 volumes of
0 nitrogen are 49.5, 108.9 and 204.7.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
From these results Gay_Lussac concluded that the volume ratios
are 2:1, 1:1, and 1:2. What justification did Gay_Lussac have for
such a conclusion?
A. The measured values are closer to these simple ratios than to
any others.
B. Combination in definite proportions had already been
established; simple volume ratios are, therefore, to be
expected.
C. The other gas reactions studied showed similar clusterings
of data around simple ratios.
D. Although subsequent measurements justified the conclusion,
these data do not justify it.
1 E. Natural laws take the simplest possible forms.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 OS
ETS2 OS
Rayleigh found that the density of nitrogen isolated from air is
about 0.47% greater than that of nitrogen prepared by chemical
means. May this difference be regarded as significant?
A. Only if two kinds of nitrogen gas are assumed to exist
B. Only if this difference is much larger than the experimental
error involved
C. Only if the experimental error is considered to be zero
D. Any discrepancy among related data must be regarded as
significant
2 E. This difference is too small to have any real significance
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
In view of your answers to the preceding two items, what general
statement may be made as to the criteria for significance of
deviations in experimental data?
A. The point at which deviations are great enough to be considered
significant are arbitrarily decided by each investigator
concerned.
B. Deviations of less than 1% may be attributed to experimental
error but greater deviations are real.
C. Deviations may be considered significant only if they
reappear in a great many similar measurements.
D. The only criterion is whether or not the best theory
available can account for such deviations.
E. The significance of deviations is determined by the precision
9
of measurement.
1200009 D
15 14984 52 02650312800111
In order to help determine the existence of a degree of order and
organization in a constantly changing environment, certain
methods of investigation have been emphasized especially in
connection with the studies on physical and chemical changes and
the derivation of two of the gas laws. These methods are
A. obtaining data, classifying the data, and then placing it
on graphs
B. identification, recognition and classification of dynamic
relationships between quantities
C. identification of all variables involved, then keeping one
variable fixed while others are varied one after another
D. direct and inverse comparisons of observed differences
E. application of external agents, careful observation of
results, and formulation of hypotheses leading to fruitful
9
investigations
ETS2 OS
1200010 D
15 14995 31 04830293800111
The Brownian movement was so named because a man named
Brown noticed that finely divided solid particles suspended in a
ETS2 OS
liquid moved about continuously. He attributed this to
A. convection currents in the liquid
B. electrical forces of attraction and repulsion
C. chemical activity between the substances
D. molecular movement of liquid particles
9 E. Newton's law of universal gravitation
1200011 C
15 15001 71 0189
05
Which of the following elements was NOT named for a
geographical area?
9 A. Francium B. Thulium C. Samarium D. Copper E. Ruthenium
1200012 B
14 15003 31 018906638004
An element discovered by the use of the spectroscope is
A. lithium
B. cesium
C. potassium
9 D. sodium
2 OS
1200013 B
14 44866 31 019501138004
The statement, "Equal volumes of all gases, under the same
conditions of temperature and pressure, contain the same number
of molecules, is credited to
A. Gay_Lussac C. Berthollet E. Dalton
9 B. Avogadro
D. Proust
2 OS
1200014 D
14 45640 31 018906068004
An element whose discovery was not predicted by Mendeleev is
A. scandium
C. gallium E. they were all predicted by
9 B. germanium D. helium
Mendeleev
2 OS
1200015 C
15 15010 31 018502630580
The charge on the electron was originally determined by
A. using Avogadro's principle.
B. measuring the equivalent conductance of ions.
C. Millikan's oil_drop experiment.
D. hysteresis measurements.
9 E. alpha_particle bombardment.
0042
1200016 C
15 15014 31 079702680757
Which name_idea association is incorrect?
A. Mendeleev_periodic table B. Moseley_atomic number
C. De Broglie_uncertainty principle
D. Pauli_exclusion principle
9 E. Rutherford_alpha particle scattering.
0042
1200017 E
15 15017 51 141402680272
Each of the following statements describes the significance of a
certain key experiment or idea. Which one is not correct?
3
___
A. J. J. Thomson used a primitive mass spectrometer to measure
the charge_to_mass ratio of the electron. Subsequently
R. A. Millikan's oil drop experiment provided a value for
the electronic charge.
B. The solution to the Schroedinger wave equation for the
hydrogen atom does not exactly specify the electron's
position but only the probability of finding the electron
in a given region of space.
C. Einstein explained the photoelectric effect by applying
Planck's idea of the quantization of radiant energy to
the ionization of atoms.
D. Rutherford's experiment on the scattering of alpha particles
showed that the mass of the nucleus is concentrated in a
very small volume.
E. Roentgen discovered x_rays and noted that they were
deflected by electric and magnetic fields and therefore
9
were beams of charged particles.
0044
1200018 D
15 15032 51 036103510357
Bohr proposed a theory of atomic structure for the hydrogen atom
that was influenced by Rutherford's nuclear model of the atom,
the quantum hypothesis and the experimental results of atomic
spectroscopy. Which of the below statements is not a correct
3
___
statement of some aspect of Bohr's theory?
A. The energy of the electron in the hydrogen atom depends on
only one quantum number, the principle quantum number, n.
B. The radius of the hydrogen atom in the ground state (n=1) is
0.529 angstrom.
C. The energy of the electron in the hydrogen atom is
restricted to certain quantized values, given by
5
2
E = _k/n
(n=1,2,3,4,...), where k is a constant
D. Although the theory worked well for hydrogen and other atoms
of low atomic number, it failed to explain the spectra
5
+
2+
of ions such as He or Li .
E. The Rydberg constant used to calculate the frequencies of
the lines in the hydrogen spectrum could be precisely
calculated from independently determined physical
constants (Planck's constant, mass of electron, and
9
charge of electron).
0044
1200019 D
15 15049 31 060609640965
Who was responsible for the discovery of dynamite?
9 A. Dalton B. Kekule C. Meyer D. Nobel E. Curie
0018
1200020 C
15 15051 31 018906060440
In which of the following time periods were the greatest number
of elements discovered?
A. 1600_1700 B. 1700_1800 C. 1800_1900 D. 1900_1930
9 E. 1930_1975
0040
1200021 D
15 15054 31
Alchemy probably began in the
A. 4th century B.C.
B. 1st century B.C.
C. 1st century A.D.
D. 4th century A.D.
9 E. 8th century A.D.
1650
0034
1200022 D
15 15057 31 1651
0474
The first generally accepted scheme of our physical and
biological world was formulated by
A. Plato. B. Thales of Miletos C. Socrates
9 D. Aristotle E. Democritus
0034
1200023 C
15 15060 31 16501472
To the alchemists, the transmutation of metals into gold was a
process that required
A. changing the basic composition of the metal
B. changing the properties of the metal
C. changing the aristotelian qualities of the metal
D. purifying the metal
9 E. changing the atomic structure of the metal
0034
1200024 E
15 15065 31 1652
0008
The concept that the primary basis of all nature was water was
announced by
A. Aristotle B. Lavoisier C. Priestly D. Plato
9 E. Thales of Miletos
0034
1200025 C
15 15068 31
0513
The 17th century (A.D.) saw the rise of
A. deductive logic B. inductive logic C. the atomic theory
9 D. the law of conservation of mass E. all of the above
1200026 B
15 15071
31
030302900043
0034
0034
The Phlogiston theory failed in its inability to explain
A. the qualitative changes which occurred on combustion
B. the weight changes that occurred during combustion
C. the phenomenon of respiration
D. the "improvement" in the quality of the air when mercury
oxide is heated
E. the "reduction" of metal oxides to the metal on heating with
9
charcoal
1200027 A
15 15076 31 03030304
The overthrow of the Phlogiston theory is due primarily to
9 A. Lavoisier B. Priestly C. Cavendish D. Franklin E. Dalton
1200028 A
15 15078 31 0114
The inability to pull apart the Magdeburg hemispheres was due to
A. the external pressure exerted on the hemispheres
B. the fact that nature abhors a vacuum
C. the vacuum in the hemispheres holds them together
D. the hemispheres were too large
9 E. all of the above
1200029 B
15 15082 31
04330114
The column of mercury in a Torricelli barometer is held up by
A. the upward pull of the vacuum in the space above the mercury
B. the downward pressure of the air on the pool of mercury
C. the attraction between the mercury and the glass tubing wall
D. all of the above play a role in holding up the mercury
column
9 E. none of the above
0034
0034
0034
1200030 D
15 15087 31
04330321
A mercury barometer placed on the moon would
A. be higher than on earth because of the lower gravity
B. be lower than on earth because of the lower gravity
C. be higher because of the absence of a gaseous atmosphere
D. be lower because of the absence of a gaseous atmosphere
9 E. be the same as on earth
0034
1200031 A
15 15092 31 02920113
Avogadro realized that events involving gases at the macroscopic
level (gas laws, combining volumes, etc.) could be interpreted in
terms of
A. events at the molecular level
B. collisions between the molecules in the gas
C. the sizes of the individual molecules
5
23
D. the number 1.06 x 10
0034
9
E. the kinetic molecular theory
1200032 C
14 15097 31 16500039
The alchemists were:
A. early physicians
B. French chemists at the time of the revolution
C. primarily interested in making gold from base metals
9 D. the men who first developed the scientific method
0041
1200033 B
15 15100 71 1966
Which of the following elements was not named for a
3
___
geographical location?
9 A. Lutetium B. Indium C. Erbium D. Magnesium
OS
E. Holmium
1200034 D
15 15103 71 1966
Each option below contains three elements. All elements in one
set are named for objects in space. That set is ______.
A. Uranium, Selenium, Cesium
B. Thorium, Mercury, Krypton
C. Cerium, Neptunium, Promethium
D. Phosphorus, Palladium, Tellurium
9 E. Plutonium, Helium, Thorium
OS
1200035 E
15 15107 71 1966
Each option below is followed by a set of three elements. One
set contains elements all of which are named for geographical
areas. Which set is that?
A. Thulium, Osmium, Lutetium
B. Iodine, Holmium, Europium
C. Yttrium, Gallium, Lanthanum
D. Samarium, Francium, Magnesium
9 E. Americium, Copper, Hafnium
OS
1200036 B
15 15112 31 19661469
________ hypothesized that it is impossible to know both the
exact location and the exact momentum of an object at the
same time.
9 A. Planck B. Heisenberg C. Pauli D. Bohr
1200037 D
15 15115 51
Which element is not named after a person?
9 A. Fermium B. Gadolinium C. Curium D. Tellurium E. Nobelium
1220001 BB
25 15117
MACROITEM STEM
32
0304030380011390
NGLS
MSU
ETS2 OS
2Answer the following questions concerned with the Phlogiston
0 theory
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
A theory widely held in Lavoisier's time was that combustion
consisted in the escape of a material substance, Phlogiston,
from a burning material into the surrounding atmosphere. By
which of the following assumptions can the Phlogiston theory best
account for the fact that a wax candle burns only for a short time
in a closed jar, but can be burned again if the jar is opened?
A. The amount of Phlogiston in the wax is limited.
B. The atmosphere can become saturated with Phlogiston.
C. Part of the Phlogiston is in stable combination with the wax.
D. Phlogiston is repelled by the atmosphere under certain
conditions.
E. The pressure of the surrounding atmosphere is necessary in
1
order to expel the Phlogiston.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
Which of the following observations is most difficult to explain
on the basis of the statements given above about the Phlogiston
theory?
A. Air in which mercury is heated decreases in volume.
B. Combustion of some substances results in an increase in
weight; combustion of others, in a decrease.
C. Air in which mercury is heated is rendered unfit for breathing.
D. Air in which the red calx of mercury is strongly heated
supports combustion more vigorously than does ordinary
air.
E. If a candle is burned in a closed vessel, the total weight
9
of the contents does not change.
1220002 E
15 15136 32 03220304800113
On mixing the mephitic air with vital air in the proportion
of 73 to 27, Lavoisier obtained a gas precisely similar to
atmospheric air in all its properties, how can this result, taken
by itself, be reconciled with the Phlogiston theory?
A. By postulating an excess of Phlogiston in mephitic air and a
deficiency in vital air.
B. By identifying vital air as Phlogiston and mephitic air as
dephlogisticated air.
C. By postulating that mephitic air is pure Phlogiston.
D. No reconciliation is necessary since the rival theories
agree on the interpretation of this result.
E. No reconciliation is possible; this result is incompatible
9
with the Phlogiston theory.
ETS2 OS
1220003 A
ETS2 OS
15 15146
32
03010302800114
According to the Phlogiston theory, when wood burns its ashes
weigh less than the original wood, and the decrease in weight may
be reasonably interpreted as the weight of the Phlogiston which
has escaped. When a metal is heated, however, the resulting
powder weighs more than the original metal. In terms of the
Phlogiston theory, this would seem to indicate that
A. Phlogiston could also have a negative weight, so that its
escape would therefore make a substance heavier
B. Burning is a different chemical process than that which
is involved in the heating of a metal until it changes
into a powder
C. While burning liberates Phlogiston, heating a metal attracts
Phlogiston
D. In burning a substance some of the Phlogiston which is
present is consumed as the product of combustion, while in
heating a metal Phlogiston combines with the metal to
form scale
9 E. More than one of these could account for the results
1220004 B
15 15159 32 00590303800112
When a large jar is placed over a lighted candle, the candle
burns for a few minutes and then goes out. On the basis of the
Phlogiston theory, this would suggest that
A. all the Phlogiston in the air was consumed by the burning
candle
B. the air in the jar became saturated with Phlogiston
C. the air in the jar becaue too hot to receive Phlogiston
D. carbon dioxide produced by the burning candle extinguished
the flame
E. this is a phenomenon that could not be explained by the
9
Phlogiston theory
ETS2 OS
1220005 C
15 15167 52 03038001001514
We no longer accept the Phlogiston hypothesis of combustion
because prediction does not agree with observation in one of the
3
___
following instances.
A. Combustion of a substance results in a new substance being
formed.
B. New properties may appear when a substance is burned.
C. When a metal is burned Phlogiston is expelled from it,
resulting in a loss of weight.
D. Metals can be recovered from their ores by heating with
charcoal.
E. A substance heated in a limited amount of air is only
9
partially burned.
ETS2 OS
1300001 B
14 15175 31
A hydrated proton is called a
A. deuterium
B. hydronium ion
C. hydroxide ion
9 D. hydrogen ion
019080040255
2 OS
1300002 B
14 15177 31 007001928004
The term ionization is correctly used with substances which
A. are electrovalent
B. form polar molecules
C. are hygroscopic
9 D. form macromolecules
2 OS
1300003 D
14 15180 31 010905158004
On exposure to air a deliquescent substance
A. oxidizes
B. crystallizes
C. loses water of hydration
9 D. becomes moist
2 OS
1300004 C
14 15182 31 040708068004
A reaction in which the products possess more energy than the
reactants is
A. an isothermic reaction
B. reversible reaction
C. endothermic reaction
9 D. exothermic reaction
2 OS
1300005 C
14 15185 31 022400668004
The simplest formula for a compound is
A. the correct formula
B. the molecular formula
C. the empirical formula
9 D. the atomic formula
2 OS
1300006 B
14 44453 31 007300948004
When calcium metal reacts with elemental sulfur, the compound formed
is calcium
A. sulfate
B. sulfide
C. sulfite
D. thiosulfate
9 E. persulfate
2 OS
1300007 B
14 15190 31 006601891296
Which of the following compounds contains only two elements?
A. sodium sulfate B. potassium chloride
9 C. potassium nitrate D. magnesium carbonate
0041
1300008 E
15 15193 32 081217951507
In which case is the symbol of the nuclide accurately described?
0042
5
1
A. H is isotopic with hydrogen_1,
4
1
5
65
B. Cu is an isobar of copper_65
4
29
5
19
F has Z=19,
4
9
5
80
D. Br will have 36 electrons when ionized so as to possess 2
4
35
negative charges,
C.
5
E.
4
9
37
Cl when mixed with 77% of chlorine_35 will provide an
17
average atomic weight of 35.45 for the mixture.
1300009 A
15 15200 31 079701920705
What is the name of a substance whose empirical formula is LiH?
A. lithium hydride B. lithium hydrate C. lithium amide
9 D. lithium hydroxide E. none of these is correct.
1300010 D
15 15203 31 02241178
Write the formula of the hydrogen carbonate ion.
5
2_
_
_
2_
A. H CO , B. HCO , C. H CO , D. HCO , E. HCO
94
2 3
3
2 4
3
3
1300011 B
15 15206 31 0224
The correct formula of calcium hydroxide is:
A. Ca(OH) B. Ca(OH) C. Ca (OH) D. CaOH
94
2
2
2
0042
0042
.
0042
E. Ca(OH) .
3
1300012 A
15 15209 31 132803510094
The "thio" prefix indicates that an atom of sulfur has replaced
0042
an atom of
9 A. oxygen B. chlorine C. hydrogen D. nitrogen E. carbon
1300013 D
14 15211 51 17611178
The ferricyanide ion is:
5
6_
4_
6_
A. Fe(CN)
B. Fe(CN)
C. Fe(CN)
94
4
6
3
0043
3_
D. Fe(CN)
6
1300014 D
14 15214 51 0457
The following is not an alum:
A. KAl(SO ) .12H O B. NH Al(SO ) .12H O
4
42
2
4
42
2
C. NH Cr(SO ) .12H O D. Al (SO ) .18H O
94
4
42
2
2 43
2
0043
1300015 D
14 15217 31 1769
Carborundum is:
A. CaC B. Fe C C. CaCO D. SiC.
94
2
3
3
0043
1300016 A
14 15219 31 019212540695
Compounds with the same molecular formula but different
structures are called:
9 A. isomers B. polymers C. esters D. isotopes E. allotropes
1300017 D
14 15221 31 08790094
Although the details of the structure of monoclinic sulfur are
not all known, it probably consists of:
A. S chains B. S molecules C. S rings D. S rings.
94
8
2
4
8
0043
0043
1300018 D
14 15224 31 0094
It is known that rhombic sulfur consists of:
A. S chains B. S molecules C. S rings D. S rings.
94
8
2
4
8
0043
1300019 A
14 15227 51 0077
Hypobromous acid is:
A. HOBr B. HOBrO C. HOBrO D. HOBrO
94
2
3
0043
1300020 C
15 15229 31
0115
Sodium stearate is a component of
9 A. table salt B. sand C. soap D. margarine E. detergent
0047
1300021 D
14 15231 32 0081
The number of syllables in the word dissociation is:
9 A. 8 B. 7 C. 6 D. 5
1300022 D
14 15233 31 022408130176
The formula of anhydrous copper sulfate is:
A. CuSO .5H O B. Cu(H O) SO .H O C. Cu(H O) SO
94
4 2
2 4 4 2
2 4 4
0043
0043
D. CuSO
4
1300023 A
15 15236 31 07970037
Select the proper set of names for the following four compounds:
1. Cu(CN) 2. Sn(ClO ) 3. Fe (SO ) 4. AgCl
4
2
34
2 33
2
A. 1. copper(II) cyanide 2. tin(IV) chlorate
3. iron(III) sulfite 4. silver(II) chloride
B. 1. curium(II) cyanide 2. tin(IV) chlorate
3. iron(III) sulfate 4. gold(II) chloride
C. 1. copper(II) cyanide 2. tin(IV) perchlorate
3. iron(III) sulfite 4. silver(II) chloride
D. 1. curium(II) cyanide 2. tin(IV) chlorate
3. iron(III) sulfite 4. silver(II) chloride.
9 E. None of the above.
0044
1300024 B
15 15245 31 07970037
Which of the following four compounds is incorrectly named?
3
___________
A. TiSe
B. Na C O
C. V(ClO )
D. AlPO
4
2
224
33
4
A. titanium(IV) selenide B. sodium acetate
C. vanadium(III) chlorate D. aluminum phosphate
9 E. none of the above.
0044
1300025 C
15 15250 31 07970037
Select the proper set of names for the following four compounds:
1. Au(MnO )
2. NiS
3. Cu(CrO )
4. Zn(NO )
4
43
4
32
A. 1. gold(III) permanganate 2. niobium(II) sulfide
3. copper(I) chromate
4. zinc nitrite
B. 1. gold(III) permanganate 2. nickel(II) sulfide
3. copper(II) chromate 4. zinc nitrite
C. 1. gold(III) permanganate 2. nickel(II) sulfide
3. copper(II) chromate 4. zinc nitrate
D. 1. gold(III) manganate
2. nickel(II) sulfide
3. copper(II) chromate 4. zinc nitrate
9 E. none of the above.
0044
1300026 C
15 15259 31 07970037
Which of the following four compounds is incorrectly named?
3
___________
A) Cu(CrO ) B) Al(NO )
C) Bi (C O )
D) Ag Se
4
4
23
2 243
2
A. copper(II) chromate B. aluminum nitrite
C. bismuth(III) acetate D. silver(I) selenide
9 E. none of the above.
0044
1300027 E
15 15264 31
00350797
The correct name for NaClO is
4
4
A. sodium hypochlorite B. sodium chlorite
C. sodium perchlorite
D. sodium chlorate
9 E. sodium perchlorate
0028
1300028 B
15 15267
Slaked lime is
A. calcium carbonate
B. calcium hydroxide
C. calcium oxide
D. calcium phosphate
9 E. none of these
31
1166
1300029 E
15 15269 51 128912900943
The publication that is the key to the world's chemical literature
is
A. the A.C.S.
B. Chemical Reviews
C. J. Chemical Education
D. Chemistry Today
9 E. Chemical Abstracts
0020
0020
1300030 E
15 15272 31 07971325
A better name for stannous nitrate is
A. stannic nitrate
B. tin(IV)nitrate
C. tin(III) nitrate
D. stannous nitrite
9 E. tin(II) nitrate
0020
1300031 E
15 15275 31 00661326
Which of the following compounds is not a binary compound?
A. sodium hydride
B. lead dioxide
C. phosphorus pentachloride
0020
9
D. calcium iodide
E. all are binary
1300032 A
15 15278 31
The Greek prefix for seven is
A. hepta
B. hexa
C. septa
D. nona
9 E. none of these
13271328
0020
1300033 D
15 15280 31 00661329
The compound PCl can correctly be called
4
3
A. phosphorus trichloride
B. monophosphorus trichloride
C. phosphorus(III) chloride
D. all of the above
9 E. none of the above
0020
1300034 E
15 15283 31 0224
The formula for aluminum sulfate is
A. AlSO B. Al SO C. Al(SO ) D. Al (SO )
94
4
2 4
42
3 42
0020
E. Al (SO )
2 43
1300035 A
15 15286 31 006607971326
A compound whose name has an _ide ending even though it is not a
binary compound is
A. KCN B. HNO (aq) C. KMnO D. KClO E. H CO
94
3
4
3
2 3
0020
1300036 D
15 15289 31 02600083
NaHCO is called
4
3
A. baking soda
B. sodium hydrogen carbonate
C. sodium bicarbonate
D. all of these
9 E. none of these
0020
1300037 D
15 15291 31 11781330
5
_
The ClO ion is called
A. perchlorate B. hypochlorate C. perchlorite
9 D. hypochlorite E. chlorite
0020
1300038 A
15 15293 51 032813470161
The emission of light from matter at low temperatures is called
A. luminescence
B. radium emission
C. gamma radiation
D. symbiosis
9 E. none of these
0020
1300039 C
15 15296 52 134706651348
Which of the following is not a luminescent phenomenon?
A. bioluminescence
B. television pictures
C. light from flashlight
D. phosphorescence
9 E. luminous watch dial
0020
1300040 E
15 15299 51 006602240355
The compound nitric oxide has
A. the formula NO
4
2
5
3
B. sp hybrid bonds
C. 90 degree bond angles
D. 8 electrons around each atom
9 E. none of these
0020
1300041 C
15 15302 31 117814610025
Which of the following polyatomic ions does not contain oxygen?
3
________
A. sulfate B. acetate C. cyanide
9 D. peroxide E. permanganate.
0040
1300042 B
15 15305 51 117801850851
Which of the following polyatomic ions has a negative two charge
associated with it?
A. phosphate B. carbonate C. chlorate
9 D. both A and B E. both B and C.
0040
1300043 B
15 15308 31 021814610066
The name of the compound Mg N is
4
32
A. manganese nitride B. magnesium nitride
C. magnesium nitrate D. manganese nitrate
9 E. magnesium nitrate
0040
1300044 D
0040
15 15311
31
146107260006
Which of the following groups of compounds would be named by
using Roman numerals to represent oxidation numbers?
A. NO , N O , N O B. KCl, KBr, KI
4
2 24 25
C. H SO , H SO D. CoCl , CoCl
4
2 3 2 4
2
3
9 E. both B and C.
1300045 D
15 15315 31 146102180025
The compound N O can correctly be called
4
25
A. nitrogen pentoxide B. dinitrogen tetroxide
C. nitrogen trioxide D. dinitrogen pentoxide
9 E. dinitro pentoxide.
0040
1300046 B
15 15318 31 146101000077
HNO is called nitric acid. Therefore, the name of HNO is
4 3
2
A. pernitric acid B. nitrous acid
C. hyponitrous acid D. hydronitric acid
9 E. no correct response is given.
0040
1300047 A
15 15322 31 146100770056
Which formula is followed by its correct name?
A. H SO __sulfurous acid B. HClO __chlorous acid
4
2 3
3
C. H S__sulfuric acid D. HNO _ nitric acid
4
2
2
9 E. both A and B.
0040
1300048 C
15 15326 31 001814610066
Which of the following compounds has a name ending in the
suffix_ate?
A. KCN B. H SO C. KClO D. H S
4
2 3
3
2
9 E. both A and C.
0040
1300049 B
15 15329 32 003500570025
The name for the oxide of sulfur in which the sulfur has an
oxidation number of +4 is
A. sulfur monoxide B. sulfur dioxide
C. sulfur trioxide D. disulfur monoxide
9 E. sulfurous oxide.
0040
1300050 E
15 15332 31 00640354
Which of the following is an inert gas?
0035
9
A. Mg B. Si C. C D. P E. Ar
1300051 D
15 15334 31 166109610066
Organic chemistry may be defined as that branch of chemistry that
includes
A. molecules that contain only the element carbon
B. molecules that are synthesized only in living systems
C. substances that are endowed with a "vital force"
D. compounds of carbon and other elements
9 E. molecules capable of forming long chains
1300052 E
15 15339 32 1461
The compound Fe O is named
4
23
A. iron(II) oxide
D. ferrous oxide
B. iron dioxide
E. iron(III) oxide
9 C. ferric oxalate
0034
05
1300053 A
14 15342 32 1461
0540
The compound Na S is named
4
2
A. sodium sulfide
C. sodium sulfite
9 B. sodium sulfate
D. sodium sulfone
1300054 A
14 15344 32 1461
The compound K SO is named
4
2 4
A. potassium sulfate C. potassium sulfite
9 B. sodium sulfate
D. sodium sulfite
1300055 C
14 15347 52 1948
The formula of gallium (III) perchlorate is:
A. GaClO
B. Ga ClO
C. Ga(ClO )
94
4
3 4
43
1300056 A
14 15350 52 1948
The formula of tin (II) sulfate is:
A. SnSO
B. Sn SO
C. Sn(SO )
94
4
2 4
42
0540
E. potassium sulfide
0059
D. GaClO
3
0059
D. Sn (SO )
2 43
1300057 C
14 15352 52 19470224
The formula for lithium orthophosphate is:
A. LiPO
B. LiPO
C. Li PO
D. Li(PO )
94
4
3
3 4
33
1300058 A
14 15354
52
1949
0058
0060
The formula of hypophosphorous acid is:
A. H PO
B. H P O
C. H P O
D. H P O
94
3 2
425
426
427
1300059 D
14 15356 52 1949
The anhydride of H VO is:
4
3 4
A. VO
B. VO
C. V O
D. V O
94
3
4
23
25
0060
1300060 EDD
35 15358 52
MACROITEM STEM
0 Match the name to the formula:
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
bicarbonate
5
=
_
=
=
A. C O
B. HC O
C. H CO
D. CO
E. HCO
14
24
24
2 3
3
3
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
bromate
5
_
_
_
_
_
A. Br
B. BrO
C. BrO
D. BrO
E. BrO
24
2
3
4
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
phosphite
5
3_
3_
3_
3_
3_
A. P
B. PO
C. PO
D. PO
E. PO
94
2
3
4
OS
1300061 D
14 15366 31 029300728004
A difference between a molecule of ammonia and an ammonium ion is
one
A. electron
B. neutron
C. positron
9 D. proton
1300062 A
15 45181 31
Choose the pair of names and formulas that do not match.
A. sodium sulfite, Na S
D. aluminum bromide, AlBr
4
2
3
B. calcium fluoride CaF
E. iron(III) oxide Fe O
4
2
23
C. potassium permanganate, KMnO
94
4
2 OS
1300063 B
15 45186 71
The oxoanion which comes from nitrous acid is:
5
_
_
_
A. NO
B. NO
C. NO
D. N O
E. HNO
94
2
3
23
3
1600001 C
15 15368 31 02670266800111
Inductive reasoning is a phase of logic concerned primarily with
A. solving problems by formula
B. classification and systematic organization of facts
C. developing laws from a study of assembled facts
D. observing natural phenomena
9 E. the statement of a theory
ETS2 OS
1600002 A
15 15372 32 02690268800111
One of the baffling features of the advance of science lies in the
A. unpredictable way in which revolutionary ideas have developed
B. reluctance of famous scientists to accept new ideas or
concepts
C. slow development of new ideas by logical thought
D. reluctance of professors and scientists to mingle with
artisans
E. reluctance with which new ideas have been applied to
9
everyday events
ETS2 OS
1600003 C
14 15378 32 02760277800111
A theory is
A. used interchangeably with the word "principle"
B. the method of applying some principle to the solution of a
problem
C. a generalization standing midway between a hypothesis and
law
D. a generalization standing midway between a hypothesis and
9
principle
ETS2 OS
1600004 A
14 15383 31 02810282800111
The process in which one systematically observes and builds up
piecemeal scientific principles is called
A. deduction
B. induction
C. intuition
9 D. hypothesis
ETS2 OS
1600005 B
15 15386 52 02100277800111
Proust's Law of definite proportions which states that the
elements which make up a chemical compound are combined in a
ETS2 OS
definite proportion by weight, is a
A. concept which arose out of abstract thinking
B. generalization which was developed as a means of integrating
many observed facts
C. hypothesis which stemmed from a concept by means of a chain
of reasoning
D. conceptual scheme which was theorized from a set of proven
hypotheses
E. general unsubstantiated belief becoming accepted as law as a
9
result of the passage of time
1600006 A
14 15394 32 02850031800111
F=k x m x m is an expression of
4
1
2
3
_______
5
2
d
A. a natural law
B. an hypothesis
C. a theory
9 D. an assumption
ETS2 OS
1600007 D
15 15397 32 02868001028811
A statement such as "The heats of formation between the halogens
and carbon were checked and they increase from iodine to fluorine,"
represents
A. a hypothesis
B. a problem
C. the specification of a problem
D. data used in the solution of a problem
9 E. none of these
ETS2 OS
1600008 B
15 15401 52 02890283800111
From the general principle that "To every action there is always
an equal reaction," it may be concluded that a rocket ship will
travel out in space moving forward by reaction from the materials
ejected. This best illustrates
A. inductive reasoning
B. deductive reasoning
C. testing an hypothesis experimentally
D. discovering a scientific law
9 E. utilization of common sense
ETS2 OS
1600009 C
15 15407 52 02900278800111
When one evolves a new explanation of why a certain cause
produces a certain effect with the idea of testing the
ETS2 OS
explanation observationally or experimentally, it is MoSt
appropriate to call the explanation
A. a deduction
B. a scientific law
C. an hypothesis
D. a general theory
9 E. an example of inductive reasoning
1600010 B
15 15412 31 00870089800111
In solution, all electrolytes break down into atoms or groups of
atoms carrying positive or negative charges. This is classified
as a/an
A. hypothesis
B. theory
C. definition
D. natural law
9 E. unverifiable hypothesis
ETS2 OS
1600011 C
15 15416 32 03260054800114
A photoelectric cell for measuring intensities of light has been
constructed on the theory that electrons exist. Calculations based
on this theory give correct values for the intensity of light
falling on the cell for all values of the current through the cell.
If in the future scientists find evidence against the existence of
electrons,
A. we should stop using the cell
B. we should have to reconstruct the cell
C. we could use the cell but not the electron theory for
calculating the intensity of light
D. we could continue using the electron theory for calculating
the intensity of light
9 E. none of the above is true
ETS2 OS
1600012 CE
25 15425 52 0284027680011190
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions involve terms used in science. Select from
2the key the most closely related term for each item.
2 A. definition
2 B. observation
2 C. theory
2 D. verification of hypothesis
0 E. natural law
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The atom consists of a positive nucleus with one or more planetary
1 electrons revolving around it in orbital motion.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
ETS2 OS
In every sample of any compound substance, formed or decomposed,
the proportion by weight of the constituent elements is always
9 the same.
1600014 AEC
35 15432 52 0284027680011190
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions involve terms used in science. Select
2from the key the most closely related term for each item.
2 A. definition
2 B. observation
2 C. theory
2 D. verification of hypothesis
0 E. natural law
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
About 1887 congress passed a law making the yard 3600/3937 of the
1 standard meter.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
In every sample of any compound substance, formed or decomposed,
the proportion by weight of the constituent elements is always
2 the same.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
The molecules of an electrolyte are broken up in solution into
9 their constituent radicals, each being charged
1600015 DAACDEBAB95 15440 52 0296029780011190
MACROITEM STEM
2Read the following selection carefully.
2The northwestern tip of Quebec just south of Baffin Island, is
2flat, sodden tundra sprinkled thickly with little lakes. Most of
2them are irregularly shaped. But prospector Fred W. Chubb noticed,
2while poring over an aerial photograph, that one lake was almost
2round and surrounded by a wall of rock. This week Dr. V. B. Meen,
2field geologist Ontario Department of Mines, returned from a quick
2air visit to the lake and reported that it was almost certainly a
2meteorite crater (there was no lava or other sign of volcanic
2activity), and the biggest yet discovered. The lake in the crater
2is two and one_half miles across compared with Arizona's famed
2meteorite crater, which is four_fifths of a mile across. Its
2level is about 90 feet above that of other small lakes in the
2vicinity, and around it is a ring of shattered granite that rises
2550 feet above the tundra. The rim is lowest on the north_west
2side, which suggests that the meteorite came from that direction
and hit the ground obliquely.
2Dr. Meen found no meteoric iron, only a reddish rock that might
2prove to be the peculiar stony material of which some meteorites
2are made. But there was plenty of other evidence that some enormous
2body had buried itself in the earth shattered blocks of stone from
ETS2 OS
ETS2 OS
2football to freight_car size, and concentric circles in the granite
2around the crater, like ripples stirred up by a pebble dropped
2into still water. Dr. Meen estimated that the meteorite must have
2fallen at least 3,000 years ago, since there are no Indian or
2Eskimo legends about it. He named it Chubb crater after the
2sharp_eyed prospector, and promised that a full_dress expedition
2would report on it within a year. Time, August 14, 1950. by
permission. Copyright Time, Inc., 1950.
2Directions: For each of the following questions select the best
0 answer, then mark the corresponding space on the answer sheet.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The basic problem which faces a scientist in the case of this
lake is the
A. the shape of the lake
B. size of the lake
C. high elevation of the lake
D. origin of the lake
1 E. depth of the lake
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
This problem was suggested by the
A. shape of the lake
B. size of the lake
C. high elevation of the lake
D. origin of the lake
2 E. depth of the lake
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
Which one of the following statements is least related to the
3
_____
basic problem?
A. The northernwestern tip of Quebec...is flat, sodden tundra,
sprinkled thickly with little lakes.
B. ..one lake was almost round, and surrounded by a wall of
rock.
C. There was no lava or other sign of volcanic acitivity.
D. Its level is about 80 feet above that of other small lakes
in the vicinity, and around it is a ring of shattered
granite that rises 550 feet above the tundra.
E. (there were) concentric circles in the granite around the
crater, like ripples stirred up by a pebble dropped into
3
still water.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
Which one of the following statements would represent the attitude
of a scientist?
A. He would not say that the lake was of meteoric origin unless
he had seen the meteor fall.
B. He would say that the lake was of meteoric origin if he had
4
5
6
7
any evidence that pointed in that direction.
C. He would say that the lake was probably of meteoric origin
if evidence from many different sources pointed in that
direction.
D. He would state that the lake was of meteoric origin and then
would attempt to prove it.
E. The economic conditions of the regions would influence his
interest in the origin of the lake.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
The statement "It was almost certainly a meteorite crater" is
A. a scientific fact
B. evidence in support of a scientific fact
C. an unfounded assumption
D. a reasonable hypothesis
E. a chance guess
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
Which one of the following lines of study would probably furnish
the most conclusive means of testing the idea of meteoric origin
of the lake?
A. Compare the lake with other lakes in the immediate vicinity.
B. Accurately survey the lake and territory immediately around
it.
C. Look for other lakes like this lake in other parts of Quebec
and Baffin Island.
D. Compare the lake in detail with known meteoric craters.
E. Determine the structure and composition of the rock found
in the vicinity of the lake.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
Which one of the following statements is the best example of an
hypotheses?
A. Dr. Meen found no meteoric iron, only a reddish rock that
might prove to be the peculiar stony material of which
some meteorites are made.
B. The rim is lowest on the northwest side, which suggests that
the meteorite came from that direction and hit the ground
obliquely.
C. Prospector Fred W. Chubb noticed... that one lake was almost
round and surrounded by a wall of rock.
D. The lake in the crater is two and one_half miles across,
compared with Arizona's famed meteorite crater, which is
four_fifths of a mile across.
E. Dr. Meen promised that a full_dress expedition would report
on it within a year
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 8
The face of the moon shows many craters similar to the Chubb and
Arizona craters, most of which are larger than either of these.
If these craters on the moon were formed by meteorites, why are
there fewer of them on the earth?
A. The moon has no atmosphere, and therefore there is no erosion
working on the moon to destroy the craters.
B. More meteorites strike the moon than the earth because the
moon is located out in space where the meteorites can
reach it more easily.
C. The moon is smaller than the earth and therefore the moon is
more susceptible to being buffeted by meteorites.
D. The natural laws that operate on the earth do not operate
on the moon.
E. The moon is older than the earth, and therefore has had more
8
time for meteorites to strike it.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 9
9
Uninhabited places
1600016 DDEAAE 65 15518 52 0299029380011690
MACROITEM STEM
2Read the following selection carefully.
2At a temperature of 0 degrees centigrade and standard barometric
2pressure there are about 27,000,000,000,000,000,000 molecules
2in one cubic centimeter of air. These molecules are in constant
2motion, and have an average velocity of about one_quarter of a
2mile per second. This is slightly greater than the speed of
2sound. Under these conditions the average distance traveled by
2a molecule before it strikes another is eight millionths of a
centimeter.
2In interstellar space a molecule is believed to travel about 50
2billion miles before it collides with another. Each molecule in
2space collides with another on the average of about once a year.
2For each of the following questions, select the best answer and
0 mark the corresponding space on the answer sheet.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The statements in the selection are
A. wild guesses
B. true, because they are based on statements in a reputable
textbook
C. incredible, because no one can even see molecules, much less
measure their speeds and number of collisions
D. probably close to the truth because they are the results of
calculations based on a well_established theory
E. incredible, because no one has ever been able to travel to
1
interstellar space
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
The statements in the selection are
A. observed facts
ETS2 OS
B. generalized presentations of fact
C. hypotheses
D. reasoning based on a theory
2 E. experimental data upholding or disproving an hypothesis
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
The statements in the selection are obtained by the process of
A. experimentation
B. generalization
C. observation
D. reasoning from specific data to a principle
3 E. applying a general principle to a specific case
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
The statements in the selection are
A. impossible to prove or disprove because one cannot see or
handle individual molecules
B. impossible to prove or disprove because no instruments are
available to measure such distances or speeds
C. possible to check experimentally by direct methods
D. possible to check experimentally by indirect methods
E. impossible to check because of the very large and very
4
small numbers involved
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
If the statements about molecules are true
A. the average distance a molecule travels between collisions
is large in comparison to its diameter
B. there is much more space occupied by molecules than between
molecules in the air
C. when one molecule strikes another, the first one is
destroyed
D. the distances between molecules are small compared to their
diameters
5 E. each molecule always travels at the same speed
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
if the statements in the selections are true, which one of the
following is inconsistent with them?
3
____________
A. Matter must be evenly distributed in interstellar space.
B. Man can build a machine which will travel as fast as an
average air molecule.
C. Probably in air few molecules travel as far as one centimeter
before colliding with others.
D. In interstellar space, molecules travel an average distance
of 50,000,000,000 miles before changing directions.
9 E. Interstellar space is a complete vacuum.
1600017 B
14 15560 31 02810320028712
The observation of data without allowing one's personal motives to
ETS2 OS
"color" the observations is known to social science
A. intuition
B. objectivity
C. subjectivity
9 D. bias
1600020 E
15 15570 52 02760272800111
A scientific theory is usually established when
A. it agrees with about half of the observed experimental facts
B. it is based on plain common sense
C. almost every person believes it
D. about half of the leading scientists accept it
E. it accounts for every bit of experimental evidence known at
9
the time
ETS2 OS
1600021 C
15 15575 32 03080276800111
A geologist, in attempting to prove a theory
A. looks only for evidence that supports the theory
B. limits his evidence to observations in easily accessible
localities
C. records any observations that prove or disprove the theory
D. builds on previous concepts despite new evidence
9 E. supports and correlates all evidence with a geologic map
ETS2 OS
1600022 E
15 15580 32 02720299800111
The earliest investigator in this field observed after one
experiment that water boiled at 100 degrees centigrade
(212 degrees F). He concluded that water would always boil at
this temperature. His conclusion may be classified as
A. a proven fact
B. a scientific law
C. a deliberate lie
D. a haphazard guess
9 E. an invalid assumption
ETS2 OS
1600023 B
15 15585 32 02780310800111
A satisfactory scientific hypothesis
A. is a collection of accurate observations relating to the same
phenomenon
B. is an educated guess which explains a large number of
observations or a scientific law and can be subjected to
further experimental test
C. is a summary, often in the form of an equation, of a series
of related measurements
D. is the name given to a theory which has survived a large
number of experimental tests
ETS2 OS
9
E. is necessary before any accurate scientific measurement can
be made
1600024 A
15 15593 32 03110278800111
The scientific method
A. begins with the formation of reasonable hypotheses
B. is applied only to the natural sciences
C. deduces facts only on the basis of the laws which have been
discovered
D. evolves laws to fit the theories which have been established
E. proceeds in the following order; fact, law, hypothesis,
9
theory
ETS2 OS
1600025 B
15 15598 32 02660267800111
Logic, both inductive and deductive, is a necessary part of
scientific thinking; but its conclusion must
A. be accepted beyond question
B. always be tested by experiment
C. be based upon a few observations
D. never be used today
E. be accepted whenever the scientist presenting the theory is an
9
authority in his field
ETS2 OS
1600026 A
15 15603 32 02910318800112
A scientist thinks that he understands why a certain cause produces
a certain effect, but he refuses to more than tentatively accept
his explanation until he has collected adequate data. It is evident
from the above alone that this scientist possesses
A. scientific attitude
B. common sense
C. scientific knowledge
D. the correct solution to his problem
9 E. a willingness to rationalize
ETS2 OS
1600027 D
15 15609 32 02720319800112
A scientific observation
A. deals only with living things
B. is peculiar to the field of investigation
C. provides no possibility of bein duplicated
D. can be challenged on the basis of reproducibility
9 E. is conducted only in a laboratory
ETS2 OS
1600028 B
14 15613 31 02940295800111
By obtaining knowledge through the logical processes of reason, we
are using
A. authoritarianism
ETS2 OS
9
B. rationalism
C. intuitionalism
D. experimentalism
1600029 EABACBBDE95 15616 52 80018002
1490
MACROITEM STEM
2The following exercise follows the general pattern of scientific
2thinking. A scientist on observation of a given phenomenon
2formulates an hypothesis or several hypotheses, which are
2tentative explanations of the phenomenon. He then thinks about the
2hypothesis or hypotheses in terms of his data. Finally, he derives
2from his data and his thinking about the hypothesis or hypotheses
2a general conclusion, which is his best answer to the problem
2presented by the phenomenon. Be sure to read the directions
2carefully and to follow them explicitly. Base your judgments
2wholly on the information given in the selection. You may refer
2back to the selection as often as you wish.
2As the words imply, a continuous spectrum is a spectrum in which
2there is a continuous band of colors from one end to the other.
2This necessarily means that the light source is emitting all
2frequencies of light between the spectral limits. A bright_line
2spectrum is a spectrum in which there are one or more vertical lines
2of light in certain specific positions. This means that the light
2source is emitting light waves of certain specific frequencies.
2In the isolated atom the electrons have certain definite and
2characteristic motions, which are related to the emission or
2absorption of light waves of certain specific frequencies. Hence,
2when atoms are sufficiently far apart, as in a rarefied gas, and
2are heated to incandescence, the light waves emitted from them
2produce the bright_line spectrum characteristic of the elements
2of the luminous source. However, when the natural motions of
2electrons of each atom are altered by force due to the presence
2of nearby atoms, as in the case of a condensed gas, liquid, or
2solid, the light waves emitted, instead of being of certain
2specific frequencies, are of numerous different frequencies.
2Therefore, incandescent solids, liquids, and dense gases produce
continuous spectra. Rarefied gases produce bright_line spectra.
2As previously stated, because of the forces exerted upon them by
2their neighbors, atoms of solids and liquids have their emitting
2frequency ranges greatly widened. For the same reason their
2absorbing frequency ranges are likewise widened. On the other
2hand, since the atoms of vapors and gases at ordinary or low
2pressures are comparatively free to emit waves of their own
2natural frequencies, they can absorb waves of those particular
2frequencies. Consequently, the absorption spectrum of a vapor is
2a spectrum in which there are dark lines corresponding to the
ETS2 OS
2bright lines in the bright_line spectrum that the vapor would
yield if it were incandescent.
2The spectrum obtained from the glowing carbon of a carbon arc is
2continuous and has no vertical lines. When sodium metal is heated
2in a metal spoon held over the flame of a bunsen burner placed
2below the arc, sodium vapor is produced, which surrounds and to
2some extent obscures the arc. A dark line then appears in the
2spectrum of the arc. If the burner and spoon are removed and a tiny
2piece of sodium is inserted between the terminals of the arc, a
2bright yellow line instantly appears in the exact position
2previously occupied by the dark line.
2When light from the sun is observed by means of a spectroscope, the
2continuous spectrum contains a number of vertical lines, which
2appear dark by contrast with the rest of the spectrum.
2
2Problem: What causes the relatively dark lines of the solar
2spectrum?
2Below are given a series of hypotheses, each of which is followed
2by numbered statements. After the answer sheet number corresponding
2to that of each statement, blacken space
2 A. if the statement supports the hypothesis, and this statement
2 B. if the statement supports the hypotheses, but this statement
2
is not justified by the information given
2 C. if the statement contradicts the hypothesis, and this
2
statement is justified by the information given
2 D. if the statement contradicts the hypothesis, but this
2
statement is not justified by the information given
2 E. if the statement is not relevant to the hypothesis, or the
2
statement neither supports nor contradicts the hypothesis.
2Hypothesis I. Sodium atoms, when vaporized but not heated to
0 incandescence, absorb light waves of a definite frequency.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
Sodium is a metal which ignites easily when vaporized in air.
1 (Refer to hypothesis I).
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
When sodium vapor surrounds a carbon arc, a dark line appears in
2 the spectrum of the arc. (Refer to hypothesis I).
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
Sodium vapor under the conditions described absorbs light of a
definite frequency, because the natural motions of the electrons
of each of its atoms are altered by forces due to the presence of
3 nearby atoms. (Refer to hypothesis I).
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
Blacken space A if hypothesis I is true, or space B if it is false.
4 (Refer to hypotheses I).
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
Hypothesis II. Incandescent solids yield bright_line spectra.
The atoms of a solid are SO closely packed together that the
5 natural motions of the electrons of its atoms are altered.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
Atoms of incandescent solids are far enough apart that the motions
of the electrons are unaltered by atomic forces; hence, such atoms
6 yield bright_line spectra. (Refer to hypothesis ii).
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
blacken space a if hypothesis ii is true, or space b if it is false.
7 (Refer to hypothesis ii).
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 8
hypothesis III. The atmosphere of the sun contains atoms less
incandescent than the atoms on the surface of the sun.
A brilliant corona is observed during a total eclipse of the sun by
the moon; hence the atmosphere of the sun is more incandescent
8 than its surface.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 9
9 Cooler than the rest of the surface. (Refer to hypothesis III).
1600030 D
15 15689 32 05560048800114
A glowing splint placed in oxygen will burst into flame. Assume
that if placed in other gases lacking in oxygen, the glowing
splint is extinguished. A jar of oxygen and a jar of nitrogen
were placed with their mouths separated by a glass plate. The plate
was removed for a few seconds, then a glowing splint was placed
in each jar. The splint burst into flame in both containers. This
provides direct evidence that
3
______ ________
A. the two gases intermingled
B. the oxygen diffused into the nitrogen
C. the nitrogen diffused into the oxygen
D. oxygen is present in both jars
9 E. none of the above is correct
1600032 BACBABD 74 15698 51 0513049980011190
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions relate to one of the four theories listed
2below. After each item blacken the space
2 A. if the statement belongs to the atomic theory
2 B. if the statement belongs to the kinetic theory
2 C. if the statement belongs to the theory of ionization
0 D. if the statement belongs to the theory of isostacy
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 The molecules of a substance attract one anoTher.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 Matter is discontinuous.
ETS2 OS
ETS2 OS
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 The charge of an ion is proportional to its valence.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
The distance between the molecules of a gas is extremely
4 great in comparison to their diameters.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
5 Compounds are formed by the union of atoms in simple ratios.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
6 Heat is molecular motion.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
There has been progressive subsidence in the Mississippi
9 deltaic region through long intervals of geologic time.
1600033 CDBCDB 64 15708 52 0272060880011690
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions are to be answered in accordance with the
2key
2 A. The statement has been proved by experiment or observation.
2 B. The statement is theoretical or hypothetical.
2 C. The statement is a definition.
2 D. The statement has been proved false by experiment or
0
observation.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 The mass of 1 cc. of water at 4 degrees C. is one gram.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
The gravitational attraction is the same at all places on the
2 surface of the earth.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 The number of different kinds of atoms is limited.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
The acceleration of a body is equal to the time rate of change
4 of velocity.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
5 The mass of a hydrogen atom is 100 times that of an electron.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
The number of molecules in a liter of a gas at 0 degrees C. and
76 cm. of mercury pressure is the same as the number of molecules in
9 a liter of any other gas at the same pressure and temperature.
1600034 A
14 15719 31 026905888003
The science that deals with the study of matter is
A. chemistry
B. zoology
C. botany
9 D. physics
1600037 CCDCADBC 85 15721
52
0278027680011190
ETS2 OS
2WVW
ETS2 OS
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions involve terms used in science. Select
2from the key the most closely related term for each of the items.
2
Key
2 A. deduction
2 B. theory
2 C. natural law
2 D. definition
0 E. none of these
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 Our senses observe and interpret within certain limitations.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 The atom is composed of electrons, protons, and usually neutrons.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
Natural philosophy is concerned with fundamental concepts of
time and space, matter and energy, and their relationship with
3 each other.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
F=kxm xm
4
1
2
_______
5
2
4
d
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
One of the explanations of the origin of the solar system is
5 known as the planetesimal.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
A conclusion drawn from many particular observations is known
6 as a special type of reasoning.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
Science frequently uses statements agreeing with all observations
made so far or a tentative principle which is plausible on the
7 basis of observations.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 8
In every sample of any compound substance formed or decomposed
the proportion by weight of the constituent elements is always the
9 same.
1600038 A
14 15735 31 80038004
Three of the following constitute advantages that may arise from
the use of symbolism. Which one is a disadvantage?
A. The symbol may become completely dissociated from the object
it represents.
B. Under certain conditions the symbol makes unnecessary the
manipulation of the object it represents.
C. Information can be stored.
9 D. Experience can be gained vicariously.
2WVW
1600039 C
14 15741 31 80038004
A symbol, if it is to have value as a means of communication
between one person or group and another, must possess which one
of the following characteristics?
A. It must suggest to the person using it some characteristic
of the object or concept that it represents.
B. It must suggest to the person using it as wide a variety of
objects or concepts as possible.
C. It must suggest the same object or concept to all persons
using it in the same way.
9 D. It must have only one meaning regardless of how it is used.
1600040 D
15 15749 31 027802650279
Which of the following sequences for the scientific theory is
correct?
A. facts_experiments_hypothesis_theory_laws
B. hypothesis_facts_experiments_laws_theory
C. facts_hypothesis_experiments_theory_laws
D. facts_hypothesis_experiments_laws theory
9 E. none of the above
1600041 C
14 15753 31
0311
A goal of chemistry is to be able to explain phenomena of matter
on the basis of its
9 A. laws B. facts C. structure D. macroscopic properties.
2WVW
0018
0026
1600042 A
14 15756 31
02650269
A summarization of a large body of related facts is a(n)
A. law B. theory C. example of deductive thinking
9 D. synthetic hypothesis.
0026
1600043 D
14 15758 31
11570269
All of the following are true of submicroscopic models except one
A. could be mathematical B. could be pictorial
C. use macroscopic phenomena to portray or explain ideas about
parts of matter too small to be seen
9 D. become laws with sufficient passage of time.
0026
1600044 E
15 15762 32 027606311288
A sample of metal has a density of 6.75 g/cc. Its specific
gravity is
A. 6.75 g/cc
B. 0.148
C. 1.48 g/cc
D. 0.675 g/ml
0020
9
E. 6.75
1600045 D
15 15765 52 031102761402
The correct scientific reaction to a situation involving
different theories concerning the same chemical and physical
properties should be
A. Always reject out of hand any new theory by young upstarts.
B. When several cases of agreement of two theories with
experiment are found, one may conclude that both theories
are always equally valid.
C. Always accept the word of a professor as gospel and not
subject to change__since he makes out grades and gives
the degrees.
D. Seek to find an experimental measurement for a case which
has differing predictions according to which theory is
used.
E. Form a hybrid of the two theories so that a given answer
9
is either 100% correct or at least 50% correct.
0019
1652001 C
14 15776 31 000808198004
Water extinguishes a fire mainly by
A. lowering the kindling temperature
B. raising the kindling temperature
C. lowering the temperature
9 D. removing the combustible material
2 OS
1700001 B
15 15779 31 04360186800111
An instrument which is used to measure liquid density is a
A. hygrometer
B. hydrometer
C. pyrometer
D. barometer
9 E. none of these
ETS2 OS
1700002 D
15 15782 31 01490158800111
A device for the direct measurement of the specific gravity of a
liquid is the
A. burette
B. optical pyrometer
C. barometer
D. hydrometer
9 E. hygrometer
ETS2 OS
1700003 D
15 15785 51 04400439800111
Time is involved in all of these except
3
______
ETS2 OS
9
A. watts
B. horsepower
C. rate of working
D. calories
E. power
1700004 EAD
35 15788 31 0149065080011490
MACROITEM STEM
2The key presents brief references to experiments
2and demonstrations of traditional significance in physical
2science. Recall the observations and conclusions of the total
2experiment and indicate which activity yields the most
2information toward explaining the situations described in the
2statement.
2 A. A pycnometer was filled with water and carefully weighed.
2 B. The extension produced in a spring by the rotation
2
of an attached weight was recorded.
2 C. A weight was suspended and then allowed to fall
2
in such a way as to leave equal time intervals marks
2
on sensitive paper.
2 D. The weight and temperature of a cup of water was
2
recorded before and after a known amount of electricty
2
had flowed through a resistance immersed in the water.
2 E. The weight and temperature of a cup of water was
2
recorded before and after a cube of ice was melted
0
in it.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
Farmers sometimes place a tube of water in cellars where
1 potatoes are stored.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
A hydrometer can be used to estimate the freezing temperature
2 of the coolant in an automobile radiator.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
The temperture of a mass of water will rise if placed in a
9 container and agitated.
1700005 C
15 15804
A unit of work is the
A. poundal
B. coulomb
C. erg
D. esu
9 E. dyne
31
ETS2 OS
03850387800111
ETS2 OS
1700006 D
15 15806 31 01590387800111
Energy may be defined as capacity for
ETS2 OS
9
A. exerting force
B. action
C. great power
D. doing work
E. producing motion
1700007 A
15 15808
An erg is equal to a
A. dyne_centimeter
B. dyne
C. gram_centimeter
D. foot_pound
9 E. poundal
31
03880389080011
ETS2 OS
1700008 C
15 15810 31 03920385800111
Measurement of which of the following quantities cannot be
3
______
expressed in the units indicated?
A. electricity__coulombs
B. force__dynes
C. work__horsepower
D. pressure__millibars
9 E. acceleration__feet per day per hour
ETS2 OS
1700009 D
14 15814
Energy is
A. work
B. a force
C. power
9 D. ability to do work
31
01590387800111
ETS2 OS
1700010 D
15 15816
Kinetic energy is
A. energy of position
B. weight times height
C. force times distance
5
2
D. (1/2) mv
5
2
9 E. (mv )/r
31
04190159800111
ETS2 OS
1700011 D
15 15819 31
Power may be measured in
A. ergs
B. dynes
C. foot_pounds
03840418800111
ETS2WVW
9
D. horse power
E. b.t.u.
1700012 CDBACCE 75 15821 31 0385014903911190
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions refer to various units of physical
2measurement in the metric system which have their counterpart in
2the english system of units. For each question select from the
2key the analogous unit or concept involved.
2 A. poundal
2 B. foot_pound per second
2 C. foot_pound
2 D. cubic inch
0 E. pound per cubic foot
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 joule
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 liter
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 watt
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
4 dyne
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
5 erg
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
6 kilogram_meter
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
5
3
9 gm./cm.
1700013 DBDC
45 15827 31 0385039101491190
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions refer to various units of physical
2measurement in the English system. For each question select from
2the key the analogous unit or concept involved.
2 A. ergs
2 B. dynes
2 C. liters
2 D. watts
0 E. none of these
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 foot_pound per second
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 poundal
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 horsepower
ETS2 OS
ETS2 OS
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
9 cubic inches
1700014 BDBBCDA 75 15832 31 0385014903921190
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions refer to units of measurement of fundamental
2quantities in physical science. For each question select from the
2key the term which relates to it.
2 A. mass
2 B. work
2 C. force
2 D. power
0 E. two of the above
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 joule
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 ft. lb./sec.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 erg
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
4 k.w.h.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
5 poundal
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
6 watts
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
9 gram
1700015 C
15 44510 31
The metric unit which is analagous to the cubic inch is the
9 A. joule B. newton C. liter D. watt E. pascal
1700016 C
15 15837 31 03840385800111
A unit of power is the
A. dyne
B. erg
C. watt
D. foot_pound
9 E. gram_centimeter
1700017 B
15 15839 31 01140113800111
Which of the following is a good definition of the pressure
of a gas?
A. The pressure of a gas is the force exerted by the gas
against its containing walls
B. The pressure of a gas is the force exerted by the gas
against a unit area of its containing walls
ETS2 OS
ETS2 OS
ETS2 OS
9
C. The pressure of a gas is the force exerted upon the
gas by its containing walls
D. Each of the above is a good definition of the pressure
of a gas
E. None of the above is a good definition of the pressure of a gas
1700018 B
15 15846 31 03850159800111
Suitable units for expressing energy are
9 A. watts B. joules C. meters D. newtons E. hours
ETS2 OS
1700019 B
15 15848 52 8003
Colorado River water contains 700 ppm of dissolved solids. If half
of this is chloride ion, one liter of Colorado River water contains
5
_
______ grams of Cl .
A. 0.7 g
B. 0.35 g
5
_6
C. 3.5 x 10 g
5
_3
D. 1 x 10 g
2WVW
5
_4
9 E. 7 x 10 g
1700020 C
15 15853 31 075507568003
5
+1
A krypton ion (Kr ) gas laser emits light of several different
wavelengths in the visible region. If the energy of the electronic
transition associated with one of these wavelengths is
5
_19
3.82 x 10
Joule, what color would you expect the beam of light
emerging from the laser to be? The wavelength ranges for the
different colors in the visible spectrum are shown in the figure
below.
5
8
_1
_34
(c = 3.00 x 10 m sec , h = 6.62 x 10
J sec)
wavelength (nm) 400
500
600
700
:
:
:
:
:
:
:
:
:______________________________:
:v :
:
: y:
: :
:i :
:
: e:
: :
:o :blue : green : l:orange:red:
:l :
:
: l:
: :
:e :
:
: o:
: :
2WVW
:t :
:
: w:
: :
________________________________
9
A. violet
B. blue
C. green
D. yellow
E. orange
1700021 D
15 15868 31 033007318003
5
_1
If the first ionization energy of neon is 500 kcal mole , what
type of electromagnetic radiation would you need to ionize a neon
atom? (refer to the figure below, which shows the electromagnetic
spectrum as a function of wave number, n)
5
_1
_14
_1
(1.00 kcal mole = 6.95 x 10
erg atom ;
2WVW
10
_1
_27
c = 3.00 x 10 cm. sec. ; h = 6.62 x 10
erg sec.)
5 _1
2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
cm
1
10
10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10
|
|
| | | | | | | |
____________________________________________________________________
:
:
::
:
:
radio :
:
::
:
: gamma
waves :
MW
:
IR
:V: UV :
: rays
:
:
::
:
:
____________________________________________________________________
A. microwave (MW)
B. x rays
C. infrared (IR)
D. ultraviolet (UV)
9 E. visible (V)
1700022 B
15 15883 52 030603281233
The 1970 standard established by the United States government for
carbon monoxide emission for automobiles limits exhaust to
23.0 grams CO per vehicle mile. Assume that in a typical
metropolitan area of 565,000 people there are 90,400 automobiles,
driven an average of 15.6 miles per 24 hour period. How much CO
(in tons) is (legally) discharged into the area's atmosphere per
day? (1 ton = 2000 x 454 gr.)
A. 0.0677 tons/day B. 35.8 tons/day
5
_9
C. 4.38 x 10 tons/day D. 0.146 tons/day
5
13
9 E. 2.95 x 10 tons/day.
0044
1700023 A
0044
15 15891
52
030603281233
The 1970 standard established by the United States government for
carbon monoxide emission for automobiles limits exhaust to 23.0
grams CO per vehicle_mile. Assume that in a typical metropolitan
area of 571,000 people there are 91,300 automobiles, driven an
average of 15.6 miles per 24 hour period. How much CO (in tons)
is (legally) discharged into the area's atmosphere per day?
(1 ton = 2000 x 454 grams)
5
_2
36.1 tons
6.83 x 10 tons
0.414 tons
A. _________ B. ________________ C. __________
day
day
day
5
_9
13
4.33 x 10 tons
2.98 x 10 tons
D. ________________ E. ________________.
9
day
day
1700024 A
15 15901 32 015007950288
Convert 2270 g to lb.
9 A. 5.00 lb B. 50.0 lb C. 10.0 lb D. 1,040,000 lb E. 2.27 lb
0028
1700025 B
15 15903 32 087101490440
All the systems of measurement use the same units for
A. mass
B. time
C. force
D. volume
9 E. length
0020
1700026 E
15 15905
A foot equals
A. 0.472 m
B. 4.72 m
C. 30.5 m
D. 0.135 m
9 E. none of these
32
129412910144
0020
1700027 C
15 15907
A 50 mg pill has a mass of
A. 0.00731 oz
B. 0.0563 oz
C. 0.00176 oz
D. 0.00563 oz
9 E. none of these
32
039812951077
0020
1700028 A
15 15909 32
A fifth of whiskey contains
129612970546
0020
9
A. 0.75 liters
B. 0.84 liters
C. 1.32 liters
D. 1.06 liters
E. none of these
1700029 E
15 15911 31 043304180114
A barometer measures
A. volume of a gas
B. density of mercury
C. molecular motion
D. temperature of the atmosphere
9 E. pressure of the atmosphere
0020
1700030 A
15 15914 31 139001141391
An apparatus for measuring the pressure of a gas in a vessel is
a
A. manometer
B. gasometer
C. Boyle's apparatus
D. gas meter
9 E. none of these
0020
1700031 A
15 15917 31 019203980067
Which of the following is an intrinsic property of a substance?
A. mass B. temperature C. volume D. pressure
9 E. none of these
1700032 C
15 15919 32
If there are 10 globs in a blot, and I have 20 blots, how many
globs do I have?
9 A. 2 B. 0.50 C. 200 D. 30 E. none of these
0019
1700033 B
14 15921 31 0615
09
The wavelength of a wave is the wave velocity divided by the
A. wave number
C. wave amplitude
9 B. wave frequency
D. value of the node
1700034 B
14 15924 31 0615
09
The frequency of any wave is
A. the time it takes a whole wave to pass a particular
point
B. the number of crests which pass a stationary point in
one second
C. the number of wave nodes present in a given distance
9 D. the distance between two successive wave crests
0019
1720001 C
15 15928 31 014901500151
The metric system is superior to the English system of measurement
in that
A. measurements can be made more accurately with it
B. 1000 cubic centimeters of water at 40 degrees C. weighs
exactly 1000 grams
C. multiples of the fundamental units are related by the factor
10 or a multiple of ten
D. it includes familiar units of time
E. one can get more kilometers per gallon of gasoline than
9
miles per gallon with any automobile
ETS2 OS
1720002 B
14 15935 31 03510019800111
When two atoms react to form an ionic compound, we assume
in accordance with the atomic theory that
A. one or more pairs of electrons are shared in common between
the two atom
B. one or more electrons are transferred from one atom to the
other
C. the atoms are held together by the electrostatic force
between protons and neutrons
9 D. the atoms are held together by the force of gravity
ETS2WVW
1720003 D
15 15941 31 80018002
Which one of the following is not correct?
3
___
A. there are 1000 milligrams in a gram
B. there are 1000 milliliters in a liter
C. there are 100 centimeters in a meter
D. there are 100 millimeters in a centimeter
9 E. there are 1000 grams in a kilogram
11
ETS2 OS
1720004 B
14 15945 31 046308698004
A chemical balance is calibrated in
A. cubic centimeters
B. grams
C. liters
9 D. inches
2WVW
1720005 A
15 15947 31 088601500385
Which of the following is a standard unit of length in the
metric system?
A. meter B. liter C. gram D. Celsius degree
9 E. none of these
0018
1720006 D
15 15949
31
01450150
0028
The prefix meaning 1/1000 of a unit is:
A. kilo_
B. deci_
C. centi_
D. milli_
9 E. none of these
1720007 D
15 15951
Weight units are
A. mass units
B. grams
C. metric units
D. force units
9 E. size units
31
044503850317
1720008 D
A Joule is a
5
_2
9 A. kg m s
31
0388
15 15953
_1
B. newton m
C. force unit
0020
0020
2 _2
D. kg m s
1720009 B
14 15955 32 019514001401
What is the volume in cubic centimeters of a cube which is 100
mm along each edge?
5
2
3
2
3
9 A. 10 B. 10 C. 100 D. 100
1720010 B
14 15958 52 19441956
One microlitre equals
5
_3
A. 10 litre
B. 1 cubic millimetre
C. 1 millilitre
5
_6
9 D. 10 cubic metre
E. erg
0019
0055
1730001 C
15 15960 32 01430144800111
A liter is to a cubic centimeter as a meter is to a
A. centimeter
B. dekameter
C. millimeter
D. decimeter
9 E. micron
ETS2 OS
1730002 B
15 15962 52 01880143800111
One cubic inch is equivalent to approximately
A. .048 cubic centimeters
B. 2.54 cubic centimeters
ETS2 OS
9
C. 6.5 cubic centimeters
C. 6.5 cubic centimeters
D. 16 cubic centimeters
E. 1000 cubic centimeters
1730003 C
15 15965 32 00390479800213
Gold can be beaten so thin that a square piece of leaf 10 cm
5
3
on a side weighs 0.0193 g. The density of gold is 19.3 g/cm , so
the thickness of the leaf must be
5
_7
A. less than 10 cm.
5
_3
B. greater than 10 cm.
5
_6
_3
C. between 10 cm. and 10 cm
5
_4
_3
D. between 5 x 10 and 10 cm.
5
3
6
9 E. between 10 and 10 cm.
1730004 BCC
35 15972 72 02030186
1390
MACROITEM STEM
2The following items refer to the experimental use of a pycnometer
2(specific gravity bottle). In this case the object was to determine
2the density of an unknown solid in the form of small shot
2which could be poured into the bottle. Assume that the density of
5
3
water is 1 gm./cm. . The following data were collected
2Weight of empty bottle................................18.3 gm.
2Weight of bottle when filled with water...............43.3 gm.
2Weight of bottle when partly filled with shot.........67.2 gm.
2Weight of bottle with shot and water to fill
2the crevices..........................................77.3 gm.
0 Using the information given, answer the following questions.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The volume of shot used was (in cc)
A. 25.0
B. 14.9
C. 48.9
D. 10.1
1 E. none of these
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
5
3
The density of the unknown shot in gm./cm. was calculated by
A. 49.9/25
ETS2 OS
ETS2 OS
B. 48.9/10.1
C. 48.9/14.9
D. 67.2/14.9
2 E. none of these
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
The best explanation of the use of a bottle stopper with
a hole through the center is
A. it helps to prevent breakage if hot water is used
B. it allows for expansion when the temperature changes
C. it permits complete filling of the bottle
D. it helps to remind the student to keep the bottle
upright while weighing
9 E. it admits air to the top of the water surface while weighing
1730005 C
14 15991 32 1944
One metric ton of molten sulfur is loaded on a barge at the rate of
1200 tons per hour. The loading rate in kg per minute is
9 A. 20 B. 100 C. 20000 D. 10000 E. 2000
1730006 B
15 15994 31 030614471804
One United State "standard" pound (avoirdupois) is equivalent to
A. 543.6 grams B. 453.6 grams C. 354.6 grams
9 D. 534.6 grams E. 654.3 grams.
1730007 B
14 15997 31 18231291
One liter_atmosphere equals:
9 A. 19.2 Joules B. 101 Joules C. 4.18 Joules D. 8.31 Joules.
1730008 B
15 15999 32 04200144
The distance from the earth to the moon is 236,000 miles. What
is the distance in meters? (1 km = 0.625 mile)
5
10
8
8
A. 3.78 x 10 m B. 3.78 x 10 m C. 2.36 x 10 m
5
5
8
9 D. 3.78 x 10 m E. 1.48 x 10
1730009 D
15 16003 32
How many significant digits are in the number 0.00754?
9 A. six B. five C. four D. three E. none of these
0055
0042
0043
0018
0028
1730010 A
15 16005 32 015004450441
Convert 65 mg to kilograms
A. 0.000065 kg B. 0.0000065 kg C. 65 kg
9 D. 65,000 kg E. 65,000,000 kg
0028
1730011 C
15 16007
Convert 0.41 dg to cg
0028
32
015004450441
9
A. 0.041 cg B. 0.0041 cg C. 4.1 cg D. 41 cg E. 410 cg
1730012 D
15 16009 32 015004450441
Add the following masses: 2.000000 kg, 450 mg, 30.0 cg, 0.21 dg.
What is the total mass in grams?
A. 2000.690 g B. 2000.501 g C. 2001.160 g
9 D. 2000.771 g E. 2.771 g
0028
1730014 A
15 16014 32 01500445
Convert 20.0 inches to meters
9 A. 0.508 m B. 0.254 m C. 2.54 m D. 5.08 m E. 50.8 m
0028
1730015 D
15 16016 32 04710150
Convert 21.2 quarts to mL
9 A. 20.0 mL B. 200 mL C. 2000 mL D. 20,000 mL E. 21.2 mL
0028
1730016 E
15 16018 32 015005050391
Convert 0.00500 mile/hr to cm/min.
A. 1.13 cm/min B. 1340 cm/min C. 2.23 cm/min
9 D. 0.223 cm/min E. 13.4 cm/min
0028
1730017 E
15 16020 32 079501500288
Convert 26.0 mg to grams.
9 A. 260 g B. 26.0 g C. 2.60 g D. 0.260 g E. 0.0260 g
0028
1730018 B
14 16022 32 044504710288
Approximately how many grams in 4 pounds?
9 A. 1816 B. 4000 C. 114 D. 0.0088
0026
1730019 C
15 16024 32 01430546
500 cc equals
9 A. 50 L B. 0.05 L C. 0.500 L D. 5.00 L
1730020 E
15 16026
293 mg equals
A. 2930 g
B. 293 000 kg
C. 2.93 g
D. 0.0293 g
9 E. 0.000 293 kg
32
0020
E. 500 L
079512911292
0020
1730021 E
15 16028 32 042003901293
A distance of 100 cm is approximately
A. 12 inches
B. 3 yards
C. 1/10 of a mile
0020
9
D. 254 inches
E. 1 yard
1730022 D
15 16030
One meter is equal to
A. 10 decimeters
B. 1000 mm
C. 100 centimeters
D. all of the above
9 E. none of the above
32
014412910390
0020
1730023 C
15 16032 32 129812990195
A box has the following dimensions: 50.0 cm by 0.100 m by 600 mm.
The volume of the box is
A. 30.0 ml
B. 3000 cc
C. 30.0 liters
D. 300 liters
9 E. none of these
0020
1730024 D
15 16035 32 053503980186
80.0 ml of alcohol has a mass of 63.3 g. Its density is
A. 1.26 g/cc
B. 0.126 g/ml
C. 0.802 g/cc
D. 0.791 g/ml
9 E. none of these
0020
1730025 B
15 16037 32 139613970390
5
3
Given that 10 microns = 1 mm
5
8
10 Angstroms = 1 cm
how many microns are in one Angstrom?
5
4
_4
5
_5
11
9 A. 10 B. 10
C. 10 C. 10
E. 10
0019
1730026 D
15 16040 52 00140589
A 10_carat diamond would weigh
A. 200 mg B. 10 mg C. 10 g D. 2 g
9 E. no correct response is given.
1730027 A
14 16042
One btu/lb deg F equals
A. 1 cal/g deg C
B. 252 cal
52
194419510439
0040
0055
9
C. 252 cal x 454 g/lb
D. 252 cal/454g/lb
1730028 E
15 16044 52
071101
A car is rated with a highway mileage of 41 miles per gallon of
gasoline. Given that 1 mile = 1.6093 kilometers, how many liters
of gasoline will be needed for a highway trip of 500 kilometers?
5
3
9 A. 74 B. 3.0 x 10
C. 2.0
D. 2.0
E. 29
0064
1730029 C
15 16048 52
071101
A soft drink bottler distributes its product in 2.00_liter
bottles. What is the volume in quarts?
9 A. 1.89
B. 2.00
C. 2.11
D. 8.00
E. 9.39
0064
1730030 D
15 16051 52
071101
A typical freshman chemistry exam consists of pages measuring
8 and 1/2 by 11 inches. What is the approximate area (reported
to one significant figure) of one side such a page in square
meters?
9 A. 0.001
B. 2
C. 0.01
D. 0.06
E. 0.0006
0064
1730031 B
15 16055 52
071101
The density of lead, 11.2 g/cubic centimeter, when expressed
5
3
in lb/ft is:
9 A. 2.60
B. 699
C. 11.2
D. 0.179
E. 0.753
0064
1730032 C
15 16057 52
071101
A latex semigloss enamel paint is advertised as having a coverage
5
2
of 450 ft /gal when used on sealed surfaces. What is the average
thickness of the coat of paint in millimeters?
9 A. 10.1
B. 188
C. 0.0905
D. 0.378
E. 1.01
0064
1730033 E
15 16061
one cm is the same as
A. 100 mm B. 2.54 in
9 E. none of these
0064
52
C. 1 mL
071101
D. 0.1 m
1730034 A
15 16063 52
071101
Suppose that a standard snail's pace is measured to
be 0.040 ft/min. The snail's pace measured in cm/sec
would be:
9 A. 0.020 B. 0.010 C. 0.079 D. 0.19 E. 0.60
0064
1730035 A
15 16066 52
071101
A velocity of 98 ft/sec corresponds (in units of
km/sec) to
5
_2
A. about 3 x 10
B. about 2
C. about 0.005
5
2
9 D. about 5 x 10
E. about 0.8
0064
1730036 A
15 16069 52
071101
In order to convert square feet into square centimeters
the area in square feet should be multiplied by
9 A. 929 B. 30.5
C. 77.4
D. 366
E. 22.3
0064
1730037 B
15 16072 52
071101
5
3
A metallic sphere (V=4/3 pi r ) has a diameter of 0.200 inches
and weighs 0.0066 oz. What is the density of the metal in
g/cc?
9 A. 18 B. 2.7 C. 0.18 D. 3.6 E. 5.6
1730038 B
15 16075 52
071101
One cubic centimeter is the same as
5
3
A. 100 mm
B. 1 ml
C. 0.4 in
D. 1 liter
9 E. none of these
0064
0064
1731001 B
15 16078 52
The base units of the International System of Units (S.I.) refer
to length, mass, time, temperature, electric current, amount of
substance and luminous intensity. Which of the following DERIVED
quantities can be gotten from mass and length only?
9 A. pressure B. density C. force D. concentration E. volume
OS82
1732001 E
15 16083 52
A nanometer is to a millimeter as a meter is to a _____meter.
9 A. centi B. deci C. deka D. kilo E. mega
OS82
1740001 DCE
35 16085 31 0286800180031290
MACROITEM STEM
2Choose from the key list the device or mechanism
2that is most dependent upon the principle as stated.
2 A. Photoelectric cell
2 B. Photographic light meter
2 C. Optical pyrometer
2 D. Thermostat
0 E. Thermocouple
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
ETS2WVW
Two metals of different coefficients of linear expansion
riveted or welded together will warp or bend under
1 changes in temperature.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
The color and intensity of light emitted from a heated
2 object depends on the temperature of the object.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
An electric current will flow through two wires of
dissimilar metal if the junctions are kept at different
9 temperatures.
1740002 E
15 16093 52 01618001800312
A room thermometer graduated in the Fahrenheit scale reads
40 degrees. Outside the window a Centigrade thermometer reads
1.8 degrees. The temperature difference in Fahrenheit degrees
between the inside and outside is
9 A. 38.2 B. 35.2 C. 33.0 D. 12.2 E. 4.8
ETS2WVW
1740003 A
15 16097 52 01618001800312
Using the appropriate formula, what is the Centigrade equivalent
of 23 deg. F?
A. _5 deg. C
B. 30 5/9 deg. C.
C. 73 2/5 deg. C.
D. 99 deg. C.
9 E. _19 2/9 Deg. C.
ETS2WVW
1740004 E
15 16100 52 01618001800312
A pilot takes the temperature in the cockpit of his plane and finds
it to be 50 degrees Fahrenheit. He reads the outside air
3
__________
temperature on the Centigrade scale and finds it to be 10 degrees
3
__________
Centigrade. The temperature difference in degrees Fahrenheit between
3__________
__________
the inside and outside is
A. 75.6
B. 23.3
C. 37.6
D. 12.3
9 E. there is no difference
ETS2WVW
1740005 A
15 16107 32 01618001800312
One could take a bath comfortably in water at a temperature of
5
o
o
9 A. 303 K B. 75 C C. 95 K D. 150 F E. 250 K
ETS2WVW
1740006 AE
25 16110 52 0161
5290
MACROITEM STEM
2Answer the questions below according to the diagram below
2
I
I
2
I
I
2
100 degrees _ _ _ _ _ b.p. _ _ _ _ _ 185 degrees
2
I
I
2
I
I
2
I
I
2
t" _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ 145 degrees
2
I
I
2
I
I
2
I
I
2
I
I
2
I
I
2
I
I
2
C
I
I
X
2
I
I
2
I
I
2
I
I
2
I
I
2
I
I
2
20 degrees _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ t
2
I
I
2
I
I
2
I
I
2
0 _ _ _ _ _ f.p. _ _ _ _ _ 25 degrees
2
I
I
2
I
I
2C represents a centigrade thermometer and X a thermometer
2on which the boiling point of water at 76 cms. pressure has
0 been marked 185 degrees and the freezing point 25 degrees.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
When the Centigrade thermometer reads 20 degrees the
corresponding reading t on the X thermometer is
A. 32 degrees
B. 37 degrees
C. 57 degrees
D. 67 degrees
1 E. 52 degrees
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
When the X thermometer reads 145 degrees, the corresponding
reading t on the Centigrade thermometer is
A. 50 degrees
B. 64 degrees
ETS2WVW
9
C. 72 degrees
D. 75 degrees
E. 90 degrees
1740007 AC
25 16136 31 02860649
1390
MACROITEM STEM
2A householder is interested in increasing the effiency of
2his heating system, consisting of a gas burner used in conjunction
2with a circulating hot water system. He knows that
2the combustion of the fuel used is approximated
closely by the equation CH _ 2O ___> CO + 2H O in which
4
4
2
2
2
CH is methane gas. The methane and air (20% oxygen) are forced
4 4
0 into the furnace from separate pipes.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
Some liquids heat more quickly than water; that is, they
require less heat for the same temperature rise. Is
there a great advantage in circulating such liquids?
A. No; they would also release less heat on cooling.
B. No; they would produce excessive heat throughout
the house.
C. No; they would boil at too low a temperature.
D. Yes; less fuel would be needed for the same heating effect.
E. Yes; they would retain their heat better and reduce
1
the amount of insulation needed.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
For most efficient transfer of heat, water pipes in a
furnace should
A. be coated with a white heat_resisting enamel
B. be covered with asbestos
C. have a rough blackened surface
D. have a bright polished surface
9 E. be blacked inside and brightly polished outside
1740008 ECDAB
55 16152 52
MACROITEM STEM
Use the key below to match the appropriate property to each
of the units of measurement listed beyond the key.
0 A. mass B. length C. time D. temperature E. volume
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 cubic centimeter
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 second
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
5o
ETS2WVW
OS
3 C
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
4 gram
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
9 kilometer
1740009 B
15 16156 52
The boiling and freezing points of water were determined
and marked on the glass of a new, and as yet "blank" thermometer.
If these two points are 9 cm apart, how far apart would the degree
marking be if it were desired to make a Celsius thermometer?
9 A. 9/180 cm B. 0.09 cm C. 0.90 cm D. 0.562 cm E. 0.286 cm
OS86
1740010 C
15 16161 31 01610008800111
The temperature at which water boils may be increased by
A. decreasing the area of exposed surface
B. insulating the container
C. adding salt
D. raising the gas flame
9 E. dissolving alcohol in the water
ETS2 OS
1740011 C
15 16164 31 01610159800111
The temperature in a medium refers to
A. the quantity of molecules present
B. the total potential energy of the molecules
C. the average kinetic energy of the molecules
D. the total caloric content of the individual molecules
9 E. the average potential energy of the molecules
ETS2 OS
1740012 E
15 16168 31 04860114800131
The absolute zero is considered to be _273 degrees C. because
A. all gases liquefy before that temperature is reached
B. that is the lowest temperature that has ever been
reached experimentally
C. the Centigrade and Fahrenheit scales come together at
that point
D. Dulong and Petit's law holds at this point
E. the pressure of a constant volume of gas at 0 degrees
decreases 1/273 for every degree C
of temperature
9
decrease
ETS2 OS
1740013 C
15 16175 51 04870161800111
The critical temperature of a substance is
A. the temperature required to liquefy the gas at one
atmosphere pressure
B. the temperature at which the substance begins to decompose
ETS2 OS
9
C. the highest temperature at which the sustance can be a
liquid
D. the temperature at which the liquid evaporates
E. the lowest temperature at which the substance may be liquefied
1740014 A
15 16181 31 01618001800311
5
o
o
o
The freezing point is 32 F, or 0 C. The boiling point is 212 F,
5
o
or 100 C. By which one of the following formulas could a
5
o
o
temperature reading in F be converted to its equivalent C reading?
A. C = (5/9)(F _ 32) C. C = (9/5)F + 32 E. C = (5/9)F _ 32
9 B. F = (9/5)C _ 32
D. F = (5/9)C _ 32
1740015 C
15 16187 32 01618001800312
What Fahrenheit temperature is equivalent to 373 degrees Kelvin?
A. 32 degrees Fahrenheit
B. 122 degrees Fahrenheit
C. 212 degrees Fahrenheit
D. 0 degrees Fahrenheit
9 E. 273 degrees Fahrenheit
1740016 C
15 16190 31 06548001800312
If a sample of gas is heated in a rigid container
A. it may change its weight
B. it may increase in volume
C. it must increase its pressure
D. it must increase its density
9 E. it must increase its volume
ETS2WVW
ETS2WVW
ETS2WVW
1740017 B
14 16193 31 083608378003
Identify the thermometer scale on which the zero level is 273
degrees above the point of no molecular motion of matter
A. Reamur
B. Celsius
C. Kelvin
9 D. Fahrenheit
2WVW
1740018 B
15 16196 32 029901610441
Convert 35.0 degrees C to degrees F
A. 121 degrees F B. 95.0 degrees F C. 1.67 degrees F
9 D. 37.2 degrees F E. 51.4 degrees F
0028
1740019 C
15 16198 32 029901610441
Convert 900 degrees K to degrees C
A. 673 degrees C B. 527 degrees C C. 627 degrees C
0028
9
D. 1190 degrees C E. 1173 degrees C
1740020 D
15 16200 32 015001610288
Convert 35.0 degrees C to degrees F.
A. 121 degrees F B. 1.67 degrees F C. 37.2 degrees F
9 D. 95.0 degrees F E. 63.0 degrees F
0028
1740021 A
15 16202
_22 degrees F equals
A. _30 degrees C
B. _97 degrees C
C. _29.9 degrees C
D. 6.6 degrees C
9 E. none of these
32
054412910299
0020
1740022 C
15 16204
5 degrees C equals
A. _21 degrees F
B. 15.4 degrees F
C. 41 degrees F
D. 278 degrees F
9 E. none of these
32
054402991304
0020
1740023 A
15 16206 32 043804981315
Liquid hydrogen boils at 20 degrees K. What is the boiling
temperature on the Fahrenheit scale?
9 A. _423 B. _253 C. _293 D. 293 E. _901
0019
1740024 D
15 16208 32 016114471304
5
o
A temperature reading of _10 C is equivalent to
5
o
o
o
9 A. _10 F B. 283 K C. 483 R D. 14 F
0035
E. 273 K
1740025 B
15 16211 51 0161
1653
The belief that an absolute zero of temperature exists depends on
the fact that
A. most gases cannot be cooled to below that temperature
B. extrapolation of the V vs. T curve for all gases gives the
same T at V = 0
C. at the absolute zero, all motion ceases
D. all gases liquify before reaching the absolute zero
9 E. all of the above contribute to the belief
1740026 C
5
14 16217
72
1944
o
0034
0055
The freezing point of mercury is _39 C and the freezing point of
5
o
cadmium is 321 C. If you devised a temperature scale using the
5
o
freezing point of mercury as 0 N and the freezing point of cad_
5
o
mium as 100 N, what would be the Celsius temperature correspond_
5
o
ing to 90 N?
5
o
A. _6.6 C
5
o
B. 254 C
5
o
C. 285 C
5
o
9 D. 324 C
1740027 A
15 16224 52
071101
100.0 g of liquid water at 95.0 degrees C is mixed with l35.0 g
of liquid water at 13.6 degrees C. Assuming that no heat is lost
to the surroundings, what would be the resultant temperature of
the mixture?
5
o
o
o
o
o
9 A. 48.2 C
B. 42.4 C
C. 38.7 C
D. 35.5 C
E. 54.3 C
0064
1740028 C
15 16229 52
071101
An increase in temperature of 15 degrees C corresponds to an
increase in temperature of ____degrees F.
9 A. 15
B. 8.3
C. 27
D. 59
E. 32
0064
1740029 A
15 16232 52
071101
Experimentally it is found that 163 kJ of thermal energy (heat) is
evolved when 10.0 g of Al O is formed from the elements. To what
4
23
5
o
final temperature would 4.00 kg of water at 20 C be
heated by absorbing this quantity of heat?
5
o
(specific heat of water = 4.18 J/g_ C)
5
o
o
o
o
o
9 A. 29.5 C B. 10.8 C
C. 28.7 C
D. 28.5 C E. 20.02 C
0064
1740030 D
15 45141 52
071101
5
o
A 10.0_kg piece of iron at 50.0 C is placed in 1.00 kg water at
0064
5
o
10.0 C. The iron and water will come to the same temperature.
What is that temperature, assuming that no heat is lost to the
5
_1 o
outside? (The specific heat of iron is 0.481 J g
C)
5
o
o
o
o
o
9 A. 13.4 C
B. 25.0 C
C. 30.0 C
D. 31.4 C
E. 43.1 C
1760001 B
14 16245 72 02050206800113
Six hundred grams of substance A at 50 degrees C was mixed
with 600 grams of substance B at 30 degrees C in a calorimeter.
The equilibrium temperature was 43 degrees C. Disregarding any
heat change in the calorimeter, the specific heat of substance A
can be calculated to be
A. equal to that of substance B
B. higher than that of substance B
C. lower than that of substance B
D. a comparison of the specific heats cannot be made from this
9
data
1760002 ADBCA
54 16252 51 0286800180031490
MACROITEM STEM
2The following passage concerns the caloric theory
2of heat. The items concern an evaluation of the theory.
2Read the passage carefully before answering.
2The caloric theory of heat was the most widely accepted theory
2of heat in the early 19th century. It was recognized by a large
2majority of the leading men of science, many of whom contributed
2greatly to the advance of science in their time. It stated
2
A. heat was a fluid, caloric, which was made up of
2
particles or corpuscles.
2
B. the corpuscles were able to push their way between
2
the particles (molecules) of matter.
2
C. the corpuscles were mutually repellent (much as
2
the electrons of negative electricty).
2
D. all matter attracted the corpuscles but some matter
2
more strongly than other matter.
2
E. the fluid was indestructible and could not be created.
3
_____ ___ __ _______
2Select from the key the most appropriate phrase. (Assume the
2caloric theory to postulate only the points given above.)
2 A. The statement is true and can be explained by both
3
____
___
2
the caloric theory and the kinetic theory.
2 B. The statement is true and can be explained by the
3
____
___
ETS2 OS
ETS2WVW
2
kinetic theory but not by the caloric theory.
2 C. The statement is false and can be shown to be false
3
_____
2
by either the kinetic or caloric theories.
3
______
2 D. The statement is false but if true would be a point
3
_____
0
in favor of the caloric theory.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
When two substances of unequal temperature are placed
1 in contact the colder one is warmed and the warmer one cooled.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
Only a certain amount of heat may be obtained from a
body by friction, when that body is rubbed, even though
the friction does not continue long enough to wear the
2 body away.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 Iron expands when it is heated.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
Two cakes of ice may be melted by friction if they are
rubbed together rapidly even though the temperature
4 of the surroundings is below 32 degrees F.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
9 Milk when churned will rise in temperature.
1760003 B
14 16280 31 02860161800111
Regions near large bodies of water are much less subject to
wide variations of temperature than inland regions because of the
A. low heat capacity of water
B. high heat capacity of water
C. low heat conductivity of water
9 D. high heat conductivity of water
ETS2WVW
1760004 D
15 16284 31 02868001800311
Heat transfer by convection requires
A. differences in thermal conductivity
B. temperatures above freezing
C. a change of state
D. differences in density within the medium
9 E. that the medium be in the form of a gas
ETS2WVW
1760005 B
15 16288 32 043902860161
How many calories of heat are required to raise the temperature
of 20.0 g of water from 40 degrees to 60 degrees C?
A. 40 cal
B. 400 cal
0020
9
C. 20 cal
D. 200 cal
E. none of these
1760006 B
15 16291 52
071101
A coffee cup containing 100 cc of liquid water at 100 degrees F
is heated to a final temperature of 180 degrees F. The number
of joules absorbed by the water is
5
4
4
_10
A. 6.0 x 10
B. 1.9 x 10
C. 6.0 x 10
5
3
_10
9 D. 1.1 x 10
E. 1.9 x 10
0064
1760007 B
15 16296 52
071101
A 200 g metal bar requires 1.200 kcal to change its temperature
from 0 degrees C to 100 degrees C. What is the specific heat
of the metal in J/g_degree C?
9 A. 69.9
B. 0.251
C. 10.0
D. 0.0837
E. none of these
0064
1760008 A
15 16299 52
071101
200 g of copper shot at 25.0 degree C is added to 200 ml of water
at 80.0 degree C. The final temperature of the mixture is 75.3
degree C. Assuming that the specific heat of water is 1.0 cal/
g_degree C and that no heat is lost to or gained from the
surroundings, what is the specific heat of copper metal in
cal/g_degree C?
9 A. 0.093
B. 0.10
C. 1.0
D. 10
E. none of these
0064
1770001 E
15 16305 31 06630054800111
The spectroscope
A. is most useful to the chemist in studying the light
emitted by incandescent solids
B. is used for the analysis of x_rays
C. is only useful for the analysis of molecules
D. makes use of the tyndall effect
E. causes light of different wave_lengths to follow
9
different paths through a prism
ETS2 OS
1770002 D
15 16310 31 03300627800111
In the electromagnetic spectrum
A. ultra_violet has longer wave lengths than the
infra_red
B. blue light is of higher frequency than x_rays
C. radio waves have shorter wave lengths than gamma
rays
D. gamma rays have higher frequency than infra_red
ETS2 OS
9
E. cosmic rays are low_frequency radio waves
1770003 B
14 16315 31 033006638003
The characteristic color spectrum for an element is readily
identified through the use of one of the following devices
A. electroscope
B. spectroscope
C. microscope
9 D. optical bench
1770004 C
15 16318 51
00540615
Small objects in a microscope can be observed with better
resolution with blue light rather than red because:
A. many men are red_green colorblind.
B. blue light is more intense than red light.
C. the wavelength of blue light is shorter than the
wavelength of red light.
D. the wavelength of red light is shorter than the
wavelength of blue light.
9 E. blue light is dispersed more easily than red light.
1770005 C
14 16324 31
Loudness in sound corresponds in light to
A. color
B. doppler effect
C. brightness
9 D. frequency
12
2WVW
0047
ETS2JPB
1770006 D
14 16326 31 050504290054
The speed of light in space always has the value
A. 1000 kilometers per hour
B. 32 feet per second
5
2
C. 3.4 x 10 meters per second
5
8
D. 3 x 10 m/sec.
9 E. 650 miles per hour
0026
1770007 B
15 16329 31 042900541322
The velocity of light in a vacuum is
5
8
10
A. 299 792.5 cm/s B. 3 x 10 m/s C. 3 x 10 km/s
5
10
8
9 D. 3 x 10 m/s E. 3 x 10 cm/s
0020
1770008 E
0020
15 16332
31
005413400159
Light is
A. a form of energy
B. electromagnetic radiation
C. photons
D. A, B and C
9 E. none of these
1770009 C
15 16334 51 134101591202
Which of the following has the greatest amount of energy per
photon?
A. x_rays
B. ultraviolet light
C. gamma rays
D. infraredlight
9 E. visible light
0020
1770010 A
15 16337 51 015913421291
Energy equals Planck's constant times
A. c/lamda
B. mc
5
2
C. mc
D. c/lambda
9 E. none of these
0020
1770011 E
15 16339 51
Photons are
A. the same as quanta
B. particles of light
C. have energy=hc/lambda
5
2
D. have energy = mc
9 E. all of these
0020
062403650054
1770012 A
15 16342 51 043606250663
An instrument used to separate and display, in the order of
increasing wavelengths, the component parts of light coming from
a radiation source is
A. a spectroscope
B. an electromagnetic spectrum
C. prism meter
D. mass spectrograph
9 E. none of these
0020
1770013 D
15 16346 51 134306641344
When sunlight passes through a glass prism one sees a
0020
9
A. line spectrum
B. absorption spectrum
C. mercury spectrum
D. continuous spectrum
E. emission spectrum
1770014 C
15 16349 31 059001590627
Electromagnetic radiation increases in energy in the order
3
______
A. ultraviolet < visible < infrared < x_ray
B. x_ray < ultraviolet < visible < infrared
C. visible < ultraviolet < x_ray < gamma ray
D. ultraviolet < visible < x_ray < gamma ray
9 E. all electromagnetic radiation is of the same energy
0034
1770015 B
14 16354 31 0615
05
The wavelength of any wave is
A. the length of time it takes one wave to travel a set
distance
B. the distance between two successive crests of the wave
C. the distance between two successive nodes of a wave
9 D. the point of zero amplitude on a wave
1770016 C
14 16358 31 0615
05
The wavelength of any wave is
A. the wave frequency times the wave velocity
B. the wave frequency divided by the wave velocity
C. the wave velocity divided by the wave frequency
9 D. the wave frequency plus the wave velocity
1770017 B
14 16362 31 0615
The accepted symbol for wavelength is
A. nu
C. theta
B. lambda D. psi
9
E. alpha
05
1780001 C
15 16364 52 01950158800112
The volume of 50 grams of sulfuric acid, specific gravity, 1.86 is
A. 83 ml.
B. 1.86 times the molecular weight
C. 26.9 ml.
D. 26.9 g.
9 E. none of these values
ETS2 OS
1780002 BC
25 16367
MACROITEM STEM
ETS2 OS
52
01580015
1390
2A piece of metal weighs 100 gm. in air, 60 gm. in water, and 70 gm.
5
3
when immersed in gasoline. (The density of water is 1 gm./cm. )
0 Using this information, answer the following questions.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The specific gravity of the above metal is
A. 0.6
B. 2.5
C. 3.3
D. 10.0
1 E. none of these
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
the volume of gasoline displaced by the above piece of metal is
5
3
A. 10 cm.
3
B. 3/ cm.
5
3
C. 40 cm.
5
3
D. 50 cm.
9 E. none of these
1780003 C
14 16375 32
One cubic foot of water weighs
A. 33_1/3 lbs.
B. 64.2 lbs.
C. 62.4 lbs.
9 D. 8 lbs.
00088001800211
1780004 BBBDC
55 16377 52 0445019501581390
MACROITEM STEM
2A piece of rock weighs 100 gm. in air. When it is immersed in
2water, the buoyancy force is 40 gm. and when it is immersed in an
2unknown liquid it weighs only 70 gm.
0 Based on this information, answer the following questions.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The weight in gm. of the water displaced is equal to
A. 30
B. 40
C. 60
D. 70
1 E. none of these
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
5
3
The volume in cm. Of the unknown liquid displaced is equal to
ETS2 OS
ETS2 OS
A. 30
B. 40
C. 60
D. 70
2 E. none of these
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
5
3
The volume of rock in cm.
A. 30
B. 40
C. 60
D. 70
3 E. None of these
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
The specific gravity of the unknown liquid is
A. 30
B. 57
C. 70
D. 75
4 E. some other value
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
The density of the rock is
5
3
A. less than 62.4 lb./ft.
5
3
B. 1.75 gm./cm.
5
3
C. 2.50 gm./cm.
5
3
D. 1.67 gm./cm.
9 E. some other value
1780005 CB
25 16390 52 0446047801861390
MACROITEM STEM
2Some boys playing with a floating rectangular raft noticed that it
2projected 1/10 ft. out of water, but when they got on it, the raft
2just barely floated. The combined weight of the boys was 187.5 lbs.
2The density of the water is 62.5 pounds per cubic foot.
0 Using this information, answer the following questions.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
When the boys got on the raft, the additional volume of water
displaced was
A. 18.75 cu. ft.
B. .30 cu. ft.
C. 3.0 cu. ft.
D. 30 cu. ft.
ETS2 OS
1
E. none of these
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
The area of cross section of the raft must have been
A. 3 sq. ft.
B. 30 sq. ft.
C. 6.25 ft.
D. 18.75 sq. ft.
9 E. None of these
1780006 C
15 16399 31 01860435800111
Which one of these is true concerning density?
5
3
A. The density of water in lb./per ft. has the same value
5
3
numerically when measured in gm./per cm. .
B. Density and specific gravity have the same meaning.
C. In metric units of measurement, density and specific gravity
have the same numerical value.
D. The density of water is greater than that of any other
liquid.
9 E. Density is a ratio number.
ETS2 OS
1780007 C
15 16406 31 04338001800211
Four of these are related in some way. Which one is not?
3
___
A. hydrometer
B. Archimedes
C. barometer
D. density
9 E. specific gravity
ETS2 OS
1780008 B
15 16409 32 04130008800112
Comparing equal volumes of mercury and water, one cubic foot of
mercury weighs
A. 848.64 lbs.
B. 968 lbs.
C. 13.6 lbs.
D. 462 lbs.
9 E. 1204 lbs.
ETS2 OS
1780009 B
14 16412 32 00088001800311
50 cubic centimeters of water weighs
9 A. 62.4 g B. 50 g C. 25 g D. 88 g
ETS2 OS
1780010 C
14 16414 32 04140186800112
If coal has a specific gravity of 1.3, a cubic foot of coal weighs
ETS2 OS
9
A. 62.4 lbs.
B. 72 lbs.
C. 81.12 lbs.
D. 2184.24 lbs.
1780011 A
14 16416 32 01860165800112
If ice has a density of .9 then a cubic foot of ice weighs
A. 56.16 lbs.
B. 60.2 Lbs.
C. 71.3 Lbs.
9 D. 43.08 Lbs.
ETS2 OS
1780012 C
14 16418 32 013800188001
To standardize the concentration of a salt solution by adding salt
until the solution will float an egg is based on the assumption
that
A. all eggs have equal volume
B. all eggs have equal weight
C. all eggs have equal density
9 D. all eggs are about the same shape
ETS2 OS
1780013 A
14 16422 32 01960478800113
A paper bag is fully inflated with hydrogen and so weighted that
it will float half way between the floor and ceiling of a high
auditorium of still air. If the average air temperature of the
auditorium is raised 10 degrees F., the bag will
A. float lower
B. float higher
C. remain at the same height
D. the bag cannot be made to float half way to the ceiling. It
9
will either rise all of the way or not rise at all.
ETS2 OS
1780014 B
15 16428 32 00390158800113
Gold has a specific gravity of 19.3. What is the weight, in grams,
of 10 cubic centimeters of gold?
A. 19.3
B. 193
C. 393
D. 493
9 E. 593
ETS2 OS
1780015 C
15 16431 32 01950158800113
If an object floats in water with exactly one_half its volume
submerged, the specific gravity of the object
A. cannot be determined unless the total volume is known
B. cannot be determined unless the weight is known
ETS2 OS
9
C. is one_half
D. is one
E. is two
1780016 A
15 16435 32 00080186800212
Water has a density of 62.4 lbs. per cubic foot. If the specific
gravity of a piece of cork is .25, a cubic foot of cork weighs
A. 15.6 lbs.
B. 46.8 lbs.
C. 62.15 lbs.
D. 78 lbs.
9 E. None of these answers
ETS2 OS
1780017 E
15 16438 52 00080186800112
Water has a density of 62.4 lbs. per cubic foot. A certain sample
of ore has a specific gravity of 2.5. Therefore its density is
A. 2.5 lbs. per cu. Ft.
B. 2.5 grams per cu. ft.
C. 24.76 lbs. per cu. ft.
D. 64.9 lbs. per cu. ft.
9 E. 156 lbs. per cu. ft.
ETS2 OS
1780018 B
15 16442 32 01860158800112
If the density of a substance is 9 grams per cu. cm., its specific
gravity is (density of water is 62.4 lb. per cu. ft.)
5
3
A. 9 gm. per cm.
B. 9
C. 9 lb. per cu. ft.
D. 561.6
9 E. 561.5 lb. per cu. ft.
2 OS
1780019 A
15 16446 32 01580016800112
The specific gravity of aluminum is 2.6. The weight of 5 cu. ft.
of aluminum is about
A. 812.5 lbs.
B. 5 lbs.
C. 130 lbs.
D. 13 lbs.
9 E. 32.5 lbs.
2 OS
1780020 D
15 16449 32 80010186019512
A certain mineral has a density of 300 lbs/cu. ft. The
volume of a block of it which weighs 450 lbs. is
A. 450 cu. ft.
B. 0.5 cu. ft.
2 OS
9
C. 2/3 cu. ft.
D. 1.5 cu. ft.
E. 4.5 cu. ft.
1780021 CE
25 16452 52 0477019501861390
MACROITEM STEM
Using this information, answer the following questions.
A mineral specimen weighs 300 gm. in air, 180 gm. when submerged
0 in water, and 210 gm. in gasoline.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The volume of gasoline displaced by the mineral is
5
3
A. 30 cm.
5
3
B. 90 cm.
5
3
C. 120 cm.
5
3
D. 150 cm.
1 E. None of these
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
The density of the specimen in the preceding question is
5
3
A. 1.67 gm./cm.
5
3
B. 3.33 gm./cm
5
3
C. 0.40 gm./cm.
5
3
D. 1.0 gm./cm.
5
3
9 E. 1.50 gm./cm.
ETS2 OS
1780022 D
14 16460 31
An ice cube will float highest in
A. alcohol
B. gasoline
C. fresh water
9 D. salt water
2WVW
80038004
1780023 D
14 16462 31 011301868004
The property of a gas usually expressed in the units, grams _ per
_ liter, is the
A. specific gravity
B. mole
C. molar volume
2 OS
9
D. density
1780024 E
15 16465 32 018610970015
What is the density of a sample of metal that weighed 50.0 grams
and which, on immersion, raised the water level in a graduated
cylinder from 10.3 ml to 16.2 ml?
9 A. .12 g/ml B. 8 g/ml C. 85 g/ml D. 5.5 g/ml E. 8.47 g/ml.
0042
1780025 C
15 16469 31 01860284
The density of a substance divided by the density of some
substance taken as a standard is the definition of:
A. specific heat B. a calorie C. specific gravity
9 D. density E. none of these
0028
1780026 E
15 16472 32 01860158
Calculate the volume in milliliters at 18 degrees C occupied by
75 g of sulfuric acid.
5
o
5 18 C
d
= 1.83 g/ml
9 A. 140 ml B. 14 ml C. 0.024 ml D. 4.1 ml E. 41 ml
0028
1780027 C
15 16475 32 01860158
An experiment calls for 252 ml glycerol
5
o
5
20 C/4
sp gr = 1.26
. How many grams would be required?
9 A. 200 g B. 300 g C. 318 g D. 342 g E. 252 g
0028
1780028 A
15 16478 32 01860158
Calculate the number of milliliters at 25 degrees C in 0.0355
5
o
5
25 C/4
kg of ethyl ether. Sp gr = 0.71
9 A. 50 ml B. 25 ml C. 5.0 ml D. 2.5 ml E. 71 ml
0028
1780029 C
15 16482 52 018601500288
Carbon tetrachloride has a density of 1.59 g/ml. How many
milliliters will 0.282 lb occupy?
9 A. 890 ml B. 390 ml C. 80.5 ml D. 17.8 ml E. 101 ml
1780030 C
15 16485 31 01860008
The density of water is
A. less than that of ice at 0 degrees C
B. constant at all temperatures
C. a maximum at 3.98 degrees C
0028
0020
9
D. a minimum at 3.98 degrees C
E. none of these
1780031 A
15 16488 32 018601940195
What is the density of a metal alloy, 1500 g of which has a
volume of 300 cc?
A. 5.00 g/ml
B. 0.450 g/ml
C. 0.500 g/cc
D. 4.50 g/cc
9 E. none of these
1780032 C
15 16491 32
Expressed with an accuracy of three significant figures, the
number 345689.7 is
5
6
5
5
4
6
9 A. 3.46x10 B. 3.45x10 C. 3.46x10 D. 3.45x10 E. 3.45x10
0020
0020
1780033 B
15 16494 32 018613981399
A piece of nickel weighing 44.5 g displaces 5.0 ml of water when
submerged. The density of nickel is __________g/ml.
9 A. 0.11 B. 8.9 C. 4.45 D. 5.0 E. 1.1
0019
1780034 C
14 16497 32 019201860398
A substance X has a density of 3 g/ml. Substance Y has a density
of 2 g/ml. If you had 250 g of X and 125 ml of Y, then it
follows that you have
A. a greater mass of X than Y
B. a greater mass of Y than X
C. equal masses of both substances
9 D. no way of telling how to compare the masses of the two
0019
1780035 A
15 16502 32 043801860195
A liquid has a density of 2.5 g/ml. What volume in ml would
500 mg of this substance occupy?
9 A. 0.20 B. 1.25 C. 2.5 D. 5.0 E. none of these
0019
1780036 D
15 16505 32 047701860195
A certain mineral has a density of 300 lbs/cu. ft. The volume of
a block of it which weighs 450 lbs. is
A. 450 cu. ft. B. 0.5 cu. ft. C. 2/3 cu. ft.
9 D. 1.5 cu. ft. E. 4.5 cu. ft.
0035
1780037 B
14 16508 32 01860195
05
What is the volume of a cube which has a density of 4 g/cc
and a mass of 5 grams?
9
A. 0.8 cc's
B. 1.25 cc's
C. 20.0 cc's
D. 9 cc's
1780038 A
15 16510 32 01860195
05
5
3
What is the volume (in cm ) of a block of manganese which has a
5
3
density of 7.0 g/cm and a mass of 3.5 g?
9 A. 0.50 B. 2.0 C. 10.5 D. 24.5 E. 49.0
1780039 D
14 16513 32 01860195
05
The density of a 3 cc piece of boron is 4.0 g/cc. What is
its mass?
A. 0.75 g C. 7.0 g
9 B. 1.33 g D. 12.0 g
1780040 D
14 16515 32 01860195
05
An 8 cc block has a density of 2 g/cc. What is its mass
A. 0.25 g C. 6.0 g
9 B. 4.0 g D. 16.0 g
1780041 B
14 16517 32 01860195
05
The density of a 2 cc block of metal is 6.0 g/cc. What is
the density of a 4 cc block of this same metal
9 A. 3.0 g/cc B. 6.0 g/cc C. 8.0 g/cc D. 12.0 g/cc
1780042 B
14 16520 32 01860195
05
The volume of a 6 g block of metal is 2 cc's. What is the
density?
9 A. 0.33 g/cc B. 3.0 g/cc C. 4.0 g/cc D. 12.0 g/cc
1780043 A
14 16522 32 01860195
05
The mass of a 5 cc block is 2 g. What is the density of
this block?
9 A. 0.4 g/cc B. 2.5 g/cc C. 4.0 g/cc D. 10.0 g/cc
1780044 D
14 16524 52 1944
5
3
3
A 100 cm graduated cylinder has water to the 35.0 cm mark;
5
_3
20.0g of sand (density = 2.65 g cm ) are added. What is the new
level of water in the cylinder?
5
3
A. 88.0 cm
5
3
B. 55.0 cm
5
3
0055
C. 53.0 cm
5
3
9 D. 42.5 cm
1780045 A
14 16529 52 1944
Aluminum has a density of 2.7 g/cc. Copper has a density of
8.9 g/cc. An alloy made from 270 g Al and 89 g Cu has a
density of
5
_3
A. 3.3 g cm
5
_3
B. 5.5 g cm
5
_3
C. 5.8 g cm
5
_3
9 D. 7.6 g cm
0055
1780046 B
14 16533 52 19550138
5
3
The volume of one mole of AgCl, the density of which is 5.56 g/cm :
9 A. 1/(5.56 x 143) B. 0.143/5.56 C. 5.5/14.0 D. 5.56 x 143
0062
1780047 D
15 16536 52
071101
A sulfuric acid solution has a density of 1.84 g/cc and contains
98% sulfuric acid, H SO by weight. How many milliliters of this
4
2 4
solution should be taken in order to supply 1000 g of H SO ?
4
2 4
5
3
3
2
A. 1.8 x 10
B. 1.9 x 10
C. 7.5 x 10
5
2
9 D. 5.5 x 10
E. none of these
0064
1780048 C
15 16542 52
071101
A solution prepared by dissolving 26.0 g of a substance in
101 ml of pure water has a density of 1.14 g/cc. What is the
volume of this solution?
9 A. 89 ml
B. 101 ml
C. 111 ml
D. 127 ml E. 145 ml
0064
1780049 A
15 16545 72
071101
How many grams of KOH are contained in 50.00 ml of a KOH solution
that has a density of 1.46 g/cc and contains 45% KOH by weight?
5
2
9 A. 33
B. 15
C. 1.6 x 10
D. 1.6
E. 56
0064
1780050 A
0064
15 16548
52
071101
A solution is prepared by dissolving 25 g of substance X in 100 ml
of pure water. The resulting solution has a density of 1.136 g/cc.
How many milliliters of this solution should be taken in order to
provide 2 g of X?
9 A. 9
B. 4.0
C. 7
D. 8
E. 0.8
1780051 B
15 16552 52
071101
At one time gold sold for $400/Troy ounce. If the density of gold
is 19.3 g/cc, calculate the cost of 4.54 ml of gold at that price.
(1 Troy pound = 12 Troy ounces = 373 g.)
9 A. $0.353
B. $1130
C. $33.4
D. $980
E. $3.03
0064
1780052 E
15 16556 52
071101
5
21
The planet Earth has a volume of 1.1 x 10
cubic meters and an
average density of 5.5 g/cubic centimeter. What is the mass of
the earth in kilograms?
5
20
30
A. 5.0 Mg
B. 5.5 x 10 kg
C. 4.2 x 10 kg
5
23
24
9 D. 2.0 x 10 kg
E. 6.1 x 10 kg
0064
1780053 B
15 16561 52
071101
Mercury has a density of 13.6 g/ml. What volume, in cubic inches,
would 34.0 pounds of mercury occupy?
9 A. 46.2
B. 69.3
C. 227
D. 448
E. 1160
0064
1780054 B
15 44506 31
5
3
3
If a cube with a density of 6.0 g/cm has a volume of 3.0 cm ,
then its mass is
5
2
9 A. 2.0 g B. 18 g C. 0.50 g D. 1.6 x 10 g E. 0.22 g
1780055 B
15 44755 31
If a 2 cc block has a mass of 5 g, then its density is
9 A. 10 g/cc B. 2.5 g/cc C. 0.5 g/cc D. 5.0 g/cc
E. variable
1780056 A
15 44853 51
If a 3 cc block has a mass of 2 g, then its density is ___ g/cc.
9 A. 0.67 B. 1.5 C. 3 D. 6 E. 2
1780057 D
15 45165 51
Calculate the mass of copper which occupies the same volume as
5
3
75.0 g of magnesium. The density of Cu = 8.96 g/cm and
5
3
and Mg = 1.74 g/cm .
9 A. 14.56 g B. 14.6 g
C. 15 g
D. 386 g
E. 386.2 g
1900001 A
15 16564 31 03980067800111
The mass of a substance is
A. described as a property of a substance by virtue of which it
possesses inertia
B. the density of its particles
C. dependent upon the gravitational pull of the earth or some
other body
D. a force which accelerates a body
9 E. its weight in any set of weight units
ETS2 OS
1900002 D
15 16569 51 00140066800114
Which of the following is characteristic of carbon
compounds?
A. carbon atoms join other carbon atoms only in such
manner as to form chain compounds.
B. once a carbon compound is formed it cannot be
chemically changed unless some atoms are removed.
C. once a carbon compound is formed it cannot be
chemically changed unless some atoms are added.
D. many carbon compounds are soluble in water.
E. carbon atoms may share from one to eight valence
9
bonds with other carbon atoms.
ETS2 OS
1900003 C
15 16576 32 04750504800111
The particles of which all matter is composed are believed to be
A. moving at the same rate regardless of the mass or physical
state of the matter
B. moving at different rates, the differences depending on the
quantity or mass of the matter
C. moving at different rates, the differences depending on the
physical state and temperature of the matter
D. moving at different rates, the differences depending on
the weight of the matter observed
9 E. stationary and immovable
ETS2 OS
1900004 E
15 16583 31 01610195800111
At constant temperatures, volume varies inversely with
pressure for enclosed
A. solids, liquid, and gases
B. solids and liquids
C. solids and gases, but not liquids
D. liquids
ETS2 OS
9
E. gases
1900005 A
15 16586 31 03170293800111
The attractive forces between molecules becomes less when
A. temperature is raised at constant pressure
B. temperature is lowered at constant pressure
C. pressure is raised at constant temperature
D. volume is decreased at constant temperature
9 E. volume is decreased at constant pressure
ETS2 OS
1900006 D
15 16590 31 04930494800111
One can infer that the cooling of any substance results in a
decrease in
A. weight of the molecules
B. decomposition of the molecules
C. volume of the molecules
D. number of collisions between the molecules
9 E. attractive forces between the molecules
ETS2 OS
1900007 ECAB
45 16594 31 0258052580011290
MACROITEM STEM
2Select from the key the term that is best described in the
2questions below.
2 A. Diffusion
2 B. Immiscibility
2 C. Viscosity
2 D. Compressibility
0 E. Surface tension
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
It is almost as if the water were covered wIth a thin, stretched
sheet of rubber, which must be ruptured before the water can make
1 contact with metal or glass.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
Observations suggest that the liquid moves by the sliding of one
2 layer over the other.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
If a heavy gas, like carbon dioxide, is placed in the bottom of a
container, and a light gas, such as hydrogen, is placed on top of
3 the heavy gas, within a few hours the two will be completely mixed.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
Two liquids shaken together give a cloudy mixture with tiny
globules of one liquid suspended in the other; when the shaking
stops the globules coalesce, and the liquids separate into
9 distinct layers.
1900008 CDEA
45 16605
31
800405170803 90
ETS2 OS
2 OS
MACROITEM STEM
2For each of the numbered items which follow, choose the option
2which best matches.
2 A. Boyle's law
2 B. Charles' law
2 C. Resonance
2 D. Adsorption
0 E. Absorption
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The property of an atom or molecule of shifting its electronic
1 structure between two or more different patterns
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 A soaking up of one substance through the entire mass of another
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 The accumulation of one substance on the surface of another
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
The volume of a certain amount of dry gas is inversely
proportional to the pressure, provided the temperature remains
9 constant
1900009 EDAB
45 16613 32 001905638004 90
MACROITEM STEM
2For each of the numbered items which follow, choose the option
2which best matches.
2 A. Valence
2 B. Allotrope
2 C. Ion
2 D. Radical
0 E. Ionic bonding
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
Bonding in which one or more electrons are transferred from one
1 atom to another
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
A group of atoms which usually behaves as if it were a single
2 atom
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
The number of electrons gained, lost, or shared by an atom in
3 bonding with one or more atoms
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
9 One of the two or more different forms of an element
1900010 C
14 16620 31 019601138004
Hydrogen is a gas which is
A. colorless and quite soluble
B. odorless and a supporter of combustion
C. combustible and a reducing agent
2 OS
2 OS
9
D. both a catalytic and an oxidizing agent
1900011 BDAC
45 16623 31 023708208004
MACROITEM STEM
2For each of the numbered items which follow, choose the option
2which best matches
A. covalent bond
2 B. period
2 C. radical
2 D. shell
0 E. chemical bond
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 A horizontal row of elements in the periodic table
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 A region about the nucleus of an atom in which electrons move
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 Bonding in which atoms share a pair of electrons
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
9 An atom or group of atoms with an unpaired electron
2 OS
1900012 D
14 16629 31
01540159
Energy added to matter may cause
A. an increase in temperature
B. a change of state
C. a chemical reaction
9 D. any of the preceding answers depending upon the conditions.
0026
1900013 E
15 16632 31 140203481426
In which of the following pairs are both properties classified as
chemical?
A. odor, flammability
B. melting point, color
C. hardness, explodes upon heating
D. odor, density
9 E. flammability, explodes upon heating
0040
1900014 E
15 16636 31 159301720186
Which of the following is not a property of both liquids and
3
______
solids?
A. density
B. small degree of compressibility
C. small degree of thermal expansion
D. vapor pressure
9 E. melting point.
0040
1900015 B
14 16640 52 19470415
The element found in the largest number of known compounds is:
9 A. C B. H C. N D. O
0058
1920001 B
15 16642 51 00940172800111
When sulfur is heated
A. the monoclinic variety changes to the rhombic
B. at the melting point, the liquid is dark brown in color and
very viscous
C. monoclinic crystals are formed by allowing liquid sulfur, not
heated much above its melting point, to freeze
D. various isotopes of sulfur are formed as the temperature
rises
E. plastic sulfur is a mixture of the monoclinic and rhombic
9
varieties
ETS2 OS
1920002 A
15 16648 52 04990169800111
All of the following would be contradictory to the
kinetic theory except
A. a gas that liquefies at 300 degrees below zero centigrade
B. two solids that diffuse into each other
C. a greater force of attraction between two molecules
of steam at 212 degrees F. than between two molecules
of water at the same temperature
D. a material in which all molecular motion stops at 0 degrees C.
9 E. a solid which evolves heat as it changes to a liquid
ETS2 OS
1920003 E
15 16655 31 01130195800111
When a given mass of gas is heated while its volume is held constant
A. the gas condenses to a liquid
B. the pressure of the gas decreases
C. the pressure of the gas remains the same
D. the kinetic energy of the molecules will decrease
9 E. the molecules will move faster
ETS2 OS
1920004 B
15 16659 31 01130438800111
Indicate which of the following statements is most nearly correct
with respect to the difference between a gas and a liquid.
A. Gases are invisible, liquids are visible.
B. Gases can be greatly compressed, liquids cannot.
C. Molecules of a gas are smaller than molecules of
a liquid.
D. Molecules of a gas will diffuse, molecules of a liquid will
not.
E. Molecules of a gas have a higher kinetic energy than the
9
molecules of a liquid at the same temperature.
ETS2 OS
1920005 B
15 16666 31 03960397800111
Great resistance to compression is a property of all
A. solids, liquids, and gases
B. solids, liquids, but not gases
C. solids only
D. solids and gases, but not liquids
9 E. liquids only
ETS2 OS
1920006 D
15 16669 31 02930113800111
When the molecules of a confined gas are made to move faster,
A. the volume of the gas decreases
B. the temperature of the gas decreases
C. the temperature of the gas remains constant
D. the temperature of the gas increases
9 E. the gas condenses to a liquid
ETS2 OS
1920007 B
15 16673 52 02780113800111
The hypothesis that gases expand and contract because the
molecules expand and contract while remaining in contact is
best refuted by
A. the observation that all gases are transparent
B. the observation that gases interdiffuse rapidly
C. the theory that molecular diameters are constant
D. the observation that the fog tracks of alpha particles
through hydrogen are long and straight
9 E. the theory that gases are mostly empty space
ETS2 OS
1920008 C
15 16679 31 01130438800111
The individual molecules of a substance which changes
from a gas to a liquid to a solid, experience the greatest
change in their
A. kinetic energy
B. mass
C. potential energy
D. volume
9 E. coefficient of expansion
ETS2 OS
1920009 D
15 16683 32 05370161800112
A given amount of gas in a closed container is heated from room
temperature to 100 degrees F.; disregarding the possible
expansion of the container, according to the kinetic theory
A. the gas has increased in weight
B. the individual molecules of the gas have expanded
C. the average distance between molecules has increased
D. the average velocity of the molecules has increased
ETS2 OS
9
E. the pressure on the sides of the container has decreased
1920010 A
15 16689 31 04380169800111
Which one of the following is true in the comparison
of a liquid and a solid at the same temperature?
A. Liquid molecules have a greater degree of freedom.
B. Heat must be applied to make the molecules of a solid move.
C. Liquid molecules vibrate about a fixed position.
D. There is less space between the molecules of a liquid.
9 E. Liquid molecules are more dense.
ETS2 OS
1920011 E
15 16694 31 01130195800111
When a given mass of gas is heated while its volume is held constant
A. the gas condenses to a liquid
B. the pressure of the gas decreases
C. the pressure of the gas remains the same
D. the kinetic energy of the molecules will decrease
9 E. the molecules will move faster
ETS2 OS
1920012 D
14 16698 31 025804388004
Three of the following statements about diffusion are true.
Which one is false?
A. Substances diffuse from regions of their greater
concentration to regions of their lesser concentration.
B. Small particles will difuse for more readily than large
particles.
C. Diffusion occurs more readily in a gas than in a liquid.
9 D. Diffusion is more readily visible in a liquid than in a gas.
2 OS
1920013 B
15 16704 31 041305040588
Mercury is an example of which one of the following states of
matter at room temperature and atmospheric pressure:
A. solid B. liquid C. gas
9 D. liquid and gas E. none of these
0028
1920014 A
14 16707 31 02930113
Molecules are, in general, farthest apart from one another in
A. gases B. liquids
9 C. crystalline solids D. amorphous solids
1920015 D
14 16709 31 16550871
A portion of the universe isolated for study is called a
A. phase
C. heterogeneous mixture
9 B. homogeneous mixture
D. system
1920016 D
15 16711
31
08710588
0041
How many phases are present in the following system: a
vessel containing water, pure copper, carbon tetrachloride,
and air. Note: water and carbon tetrachloride do not mix.
9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
1920017 C
14 16714 51 189704900748
The triple point on the phase diagram for a substance
A. is the only set of conditions under which none of the three
phases of the substance can exist in equilibrium
B. is the point above which three separate phases of the substance
are in equilibrium
C. is the intersection of the three two_phase equilibrium lines
D. is the point below which the three phases of the substance
9
are in equilibrium
1920018 D
14 16720 51 1897
On a phase diagram of a substance, the areas between lines
represent
A. the conditions under which all three phases can exist
in equilibrium with one another
B. the conditions under which none of the three phases of
the substance is present
C. areas in which two phases exist
9 D. conditions under which only one phase exists
1920019 B
14 44658 51 189702450114
On a pressure_temperature phase diagram, the conditions under which
two phases can exist in equilibrium with one another are indicated
by
A. the area delineated by two or more lines
B. points on a line in the diagram
C. the intersection of two lines
D. the intersection of three lines
9 E. the horizontal axis
1920020 B
14 16729 51 189704900245
The triple point in a phase diagram represents
A. the temperature at which the solid and liquid coexist
in equilibrium with the vapor when the pressure is 1
atm.
B. the temperature and pressure at which the solid,
liquid, and vapor coexist in equilibrium.
C. the region in a phase diagram in which one pure phase
exists.
D. the temperature of the normal boiling point of the
9
substance.
1920021 B
14 16735 51 18970558
Where, on a phase diagram, can you locate conditions where
one phase only exists?
A. on a line
B. in an area bounded by lines
C. at an intersection of two lines
9 D. at an intersection of three lines
1920022 A
14 16738 51 189705580245
Where, on a phase diagram, can you locate conditions where
two phases coexist in equilibrium?
A. on a line
B. in an area bounded by lines
C. at an intersection of two lines
9 D. at an intersection of three lines
1920023 D
14 16742 51 18970245
Where, on a phase diagram, can you locate conditions where
all three phases may coexist in equilibrium?
A. on a line
B. in an area bounded by lines
C. at an intersection of two lines
9 D. at an intersection of three lines
1920024 C
14 16746 51 189714090558
On a phase diagram of a substance, the lines represent
conditions where how many phases may exist?
9 A. 0
B. 1 C. 2
D. 3
1920025 C
14 44481 31 1429
The temperature above which a gas cannot be liquefied, no
matter how great the applied pressure, is called the
A. triple point
C. critical temperature E. dew point
9 B. normal boiling point D. condensation point
1920026 BA
25 16751 52
MACROITEM STEM
Draw smooth curves through the points in the diagram below:
|
.
|
.
|
.
|
.
|
.
|
.
|.
OS82
0
|_______________________
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
This diagram describes phenomena associated with the behavior of
A. acid_base equilibria
C. ideal gases
B. phase equilibria
D. ideal solutions
1
E. heat transfer across a boundary
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
The correct labels for the axes of this diagram are
9
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
x
temperature
pressure
volume
temperature
enthalpy change
y
pressure
temperature
temperature
solubility
concentration
1922001 A
15 16762 52 01950114800112
A gas occupies 3 liters at S.T.P. Its volume at +546 degrees C.
and at 380 mm. pressure will be
A. 18 liters
B. 3 liters
C. 1.5 liters
D. 4.5 liters
9 E. none of these answers
ETS2 OS
1922002 B
15 16765 72 02180025800113
If the atomic weights of nitrogen and oxygen are 14 and 16
5
o
respectively, the volume of 4.6g NO at 0 C and
4
2
0.5 atm pressure is
A. 2.24 liters
C. 8.96 liters
E. 44.8 liters
9 B. 4.48 liters
D. 224 ml
ETS2 OS
1922003 C
15 16769 31 06548001800312
If the temperature of a fixed volume of gas is 0 deg. C., the
temperature to which the gas must be raised to approximately
double the pressure is
5
o
o
o
o
9 A. 2 C B. 100 C C. 273 C D. 273 K E. 546 C
ETS2WVW
1922004 C
15 16773 31 03170113800111
The force exerted on the walls of a vessel by a contained
gas is caused by
A. the repulsive forces between the molecules
B. slight loss in average speed suffered by the molecules
ETS2 OS
9
at the walls
C. changes in the momentum which the molecules experience
at the walls
D. attraction between the walls and the gas
E. elastic collisions between molecules of the gas
1922005 E
15 16779 31 01140113800111
The pressure exerted on the walls of a vessel by a confined gas
arises from
A. the repulsion between molecules
B. a loss in speed when the molecules hit the walls
C. the attraction of the walls for the gas molecules
D. the stored_up energy of the molecules
9 E. the kinetic energy of the molecules
ETS2 OS
1922006 E
15 16784 32 01950161800111
To state that the volume of a gas changes by 1/273 for each
degree centigrade change in temperature can be true only if
A. the volume is expressed in metric units
B. the gas consists of only one element or compound
C. the change in temperature is decreasing
D. the temperature is expressed in absolute rather than in
centigrade degrees
9 E. no chemical reaction is caused
ETS2 OS
1922007 E
15 16790 52 04990379800111
The kinetic theory can be used to explain all of the following
phenomena except
A. the difference in riding quality between a flat and a
properly inflated tire
B. the presence of cooking odors in rooms adjacent to a
kitchen
C. Boyle's law
D. Charles' law
9 E. artificially induced radioactivity
ETS2 OS
1922008 C
15 16795 31 01950113800111
That the volume of an ideal gas is directly proportional to
the absolute temperature is
A. an inaccurate expression
B. true if the centigrade scale of temperatures is used
C. true if the pressure is held constant
D. true if the volume is held constant
9 E. true without qualification
ETS2 OS
1922009 A
ETS2 OS
15 16799
32
01950113800111
Which one of the following would not affect the volume of a
single gas in a rubber balloon?
A. chemical composition of the gas
B. temperature of the gas
C. pressure of the gas
D. altitude of the balloon
9 E. more than one of the above
1922010 E
15 16803 31 04998001800211
Of the following statements concerning the kinetic theory the one
which is incorrect is
A. matter is comprised of small discrete particles called
molecules
B. molecules are in motion in all substances except at the
temperature of absolute zero
C. for gases it is assumed that molecules are very far apart
in relation to the size of the molecules
D. for gases it is assumed that molecules exert practically
no attraction on each other
9 E. all of the above statements are incorrect
ETS2 OS
1922011 C
15 16810 31 01130293800111
Which one of these is not a characteristic of a gas
molecule in motion?
A. very high velocities
B. a vast number of collisions per second
C. a speed directly proportional to the mass of the
molecule
D. motion in straight lines between collisions
9 E. erratic motion as exemplified in the brownian movement
ETS2 OS
1922012 C
15 16815 51 00670509800111
Which of the following is not a general property of gases?
3
___
A. They mix homogeneously unless they react.
B. When molecules collide with each other, there is no
loss of energy in the gas.
C. They are always clear and colorless.
D. The molecular attraction between the molecules is
less than it is for liquids and solids.
E. The temperature of a gas is a measure of the average
9
kinetic energy of its molecules.
ETS2 OS
1922013 E
15 16822 31 01610113800111
At a constant temperature, the volume of a constant mass of gas
A. increases as the pressure increases
ETS2 OS
9
B. decreases as the pressure increases
C. is inversely proportional to the pressure
D. is directly proportional to the pressure
E. two of the above are correct
1922014 B
15 16826 31 05100161800111
Boyle's law which states that, at a constant temperature,
pressure is inversely proportional to volume, can be applied
A. to all liquids
B. to all gases
C. only to combinations of liquids and gases
D. to any combination of liquids, gases, and solids
9 E. to all of these
ETS2 OS
1922015 D
15 16830 52 80010290051211
For which one of the following does the kinetic theory offer
the least satisfactory explanation?
A. the growth of crystals
B. the elasticity of solids
C. heat as a form of molecular motion
D. the magnetization of a magnet
9 E. the near incompressibility of liquids and solids
ETS2 OS
1922016 D
15 16834 51 04990517800111
The kinetic_molecular theory
A. is based on the law of constant proportions
B. was originally derived from observations on crystals
C. explains why large molecules exert a greater pressure
than do the same number of small molecules at the
same temperature in the same volume
D. gives a satisfactory explanation of charles"law
9 E. explains the law of dulong and petit
ETS2 OS
1922017 A
15 16840 51 01130397800111
Gases, in general, show abnormally large compressibilities
A. at ordinary temperatures upon moderate increases in pressure
B. at very large increases in pressure
C. because the molecules occupy a definite volume
D. because of the tendency of molecules to repel each other
9 E. because of Boyle's law
ETS2 OS
1922018 C
15 16845 51 01138001047211
According to the gas laws,
A. every gas, at constant pressure, expands to twice its
former volume when the centigrade temperature is doubled.
B. gases, at constant temperature, diffuse with speeds
ETS2 OS
9
directly proportional to the square roots of their
densities.
C. The volume of a gas is not changed if it is heated from
0 degrees C to 273 degrees C,and at the same time the
pressure is increased from 760 mm to 1520 mm.
D. if gases are mixed, the pressure of each lowers the
pressure of the other.
E. if the law of Boyle is to hold, the gas must be kept
at constant pressure.
1922019 A
15 16854 52 02650499800111
Deviations from the gas laws
A. are not explained by the kinetic_molecular theory
B. appear only when gases are exposed to very high pressures
C. indicate that the molecules themselves occupy NO space
D. result in gases being slightly more compressible under
moderate increases than is in accordance with the
law of Boyle
9 E. are present only in the conduct of the hypothetical perfect gas
ETS2 OS
1922020 D
15 16860 51 02180400800111
Nitrogen is least significantly associated with
A. the explosive industry
B. dyes and the dyeing industry
C. soil fertility
D. poison war gases
9 E. proteins
ETS2 OS
1922021 E
15 16863 51 04110412000811
Which one of the following pure compounds contains water vapor?
A. dry ice
B. hydrogen peroxide
C. ammonia
D. hydrogen chloride
9 E. none of these
ETS2 OS
1922022 A
15 16866 32 01130195018612
A given mass of gas is enclosed in a suitable container so that it
may be maintained at constant volume. This procedure necessarily
implies that there can be no change in
A. density
B. pressure
C. molecular kinetic energy
D. total heat content
9 E. temperature
ETS2 OS
1922023 A
15 16870 51 02180449045111
Nitrogen
A. forms one of the most stable diatomic molecules known
B. is used in the space above the mercury in thermometers
because it liquefies at a very low temperature
C. forms nitrites when heated with nearly all metals
D. forms ammonia when heated to an extremely high temperature in
the presence of platinum
E. is used in electric light bulbs to eliminate oxidation of
9
the tungsten filament
ETS2 OS
1922024 A
15 16876 31 02120454044811
Methane
A. is the principal constituent of natural gas
B. is formed when hydrogen is discharged at a graphite cathode
C. requires three times its own volume of oxygen for complete
combustion
D. is the simplest branched_chain hydrocarbon
9 E. mixed with steam constitutes water gas
ETS2 OS
1922025 B
15 16880 51 01140113016111
When the pressure on a given mass of gas is decreased
A. the molecules of the gas will gain kinetic energy
B. the temperature of the gas will decrease
C. more collisions between gas molecules will occur
D. the volume will decrease
9 E. the molecules will move more rapidly
ETS2 OS
1922026 D
15 16884 31 01130161800111
A gas in a closed container is heated from room temperature to
5 o
100 C. Assume that the volume of the container remains unchanged.
According to the kinetic molecular theory, the
A. gas has increased in weight
B. individual molecules of the gas have increased in size
C. average distance between molecules has increased
D. average velocity of the molecules has increased
9 E. pressure on the sides of the container has decreased
ETS2 OS
1922027 B
15 16890 31 01618001019511
Increasing the temperature of a confined gas would
A. decrease the pressure if the volume is also decreased
B. increase the pressure if the volume were held constant
C. increase the pressure if the volume were also increased
D. increase the volume if the pressure were also increased
9 E. decrease the volume if the pressure were also decreased
ETS2 OS
1922028 E
15 16895 31 01130286800111
When a given mass of gas is heated while its volume is held
constant,
A. the gas condenses to a liquid
B. the pressure of the gas decreases
C. the pressure of the gas remains the same
D. the kinetic energy of the molecules will be reduced
9 E. the molecules will move faster
ETS2 OS
1922029 B
15 16899 32 02720113800111
In a laboratory experiment in which the weight of 22.4 liters
of oxygen was determined by collecting the gas over water
A. 22.4 liters of oxygen were collected
B. the vapor pressure of water was subtracted from the existing
atmospheric pressure
C. the collected oxygen was dried and weighed
D. it was necessary to decompose all the potassium
chlorate originally in the ignition tube
9 E. no pressure or temperature corrections were required
ETS2 OS
1922030 D
15 16906 31 02930113800111
When the molecules of a confined gas are made to move faster, the
A. volume of the gas decreases
B. temperature of the gas decreases
C. temperature of the gas remains the same
D. temperature of the gas increases
9 E. molecular motion has no effect on the temperature
ETS2 OS
1922031 B
15 16910 51 01090397800112
When air from a compressed air tank expands, the air is reduced in
temperature mainly because
A. convection takes place
B. work is done at the expense of heat energy
C. air is a good conductor of heat
D. expansion increases the degree of molecular freedom
E. the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to the
9
absolute temperature
ETS2 OS
1922032 C
15 16915 31 02728001029312
The experimental observation that the volume of a gas may be
greatly decreased by applying pressure is best explained by the
assumption that
A. the average kinetic energy of gas molecules is directly
proportional to the absolute temperature
B. gas molecules collide without loss of kinetic energy
ETS2 OS
9
C. gas molecules are small compared to the distance between them
D. gas molecules exert almost no attraction on one another
E. none of the above explains the assumption
1922033 D
15 16922 31 02860195800112
If, in heating a particular type of gas, the volume is maintained at
a constant value, then the net result will be
A. a fall in temperature of the contained gas
B. inability of the gas to take on more heat
C. a drop in the pressure of the contained gas
D. an increase in the pressure of the contained gas
9 E. none of the above
ETS2 OS
1922034 B
15 16927 31 02728001025812
Indicate the experimental or observational study giving best support
for the statement "Molecules of a gas are in constant motion."
A. winds exert pressure.
B. Two gases interdiffuse quickly.
C. Warm air rises.
D. Heat is necessary to vaporize a substance.
9 E. Gases are highly compressible.
ETS2 OS
1922035 B
15 16932 52 01920351800113
If we had a substance made up of atoms which had no attraction
for one another, which of the following would be most nearly
correct?
A. Ten million atoms of this substance as a gas would occupy
a much larger volume than 10 million molecules of the
gas O , at the same temperature and pressure.
4
2
B. This substance would be a gas which could not be liquefied
or changed to a solid.
C. This substance could never exist as a gas at all but would be
a solid or a liquid.
D. If this substance were contained in a stoppered bottle and the
temperature were increased, the pressure the substance
exerts on the sides of the bottle would decrease.
E. As a gas it would behave like any other gas since all gases
9
are of this type.
ETS2 OS
1922036 D
15 16943 52 80010114032113
One liter each of four gases, W, X, Y, and Z, at standard
conditions are passed into a one_liter container, where they
combine to form a new gas (compound Q). The pressure of gas Q is
found to be one atmosphere at 0 degrees C. What conclusions may
be drawn?
ETS2 OS
9
A. The number of molecules of Q formed is greater than the
number of molecules in any one of the reactants.
B. The number of molecules of Q formed equals the number of
molecules of all the reactants.
C. The number of molecules of Q formed is less than the number
of molecules in any one of the reactants.
D. The number of molecules of Q formed equals the number of
molecules in any one of the reactants.
E. One mole of Q was formed.
1922037 A
14 16953 32 02728001018714
Experimental evidence that a gas consists mostly of empty space
is the fact that
A. the density of a gas becomes greater when it is liquefied.
B. gases exert pressure on the walls of their containers.
C. gases are transparent
9 D. heating a gas increases molecular motion
ETS2 OS
1922038 C
15 16957 31 04450293800114
The weight of a molecule of oxygen is 16 times as much as the
weight of a molecule of hydrogen. One balloon is to be inflated
with two liters of oxygen and another balloon of the same size
with two liters of hydrogen. If both are kept at the same
temperature, the pressure of the oxygen in the first balloon
necessary to attain the same volume as the second balloon will be
A. sixteen times as great as in the second
B. one_sixteenth as great as in the second
C. equal to that in the second
D. four times as great as in the second
9 E. one_fourth as great as in the second
ETS2 OS
1922039 CD
25 16965 52 0196011480011390
MACROITEM STEM
0 Answer the following questions.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
A liter of hydrogen gas at 0 degrees C. and a pressure of one
atmosphere weighs 0.09 gram. If hydrogen is placed in a rigid
container and the temperature is raised from 0 degrees C. to
273 degrees c., the weight of the liter of gas will
A. become 1/273 as great
B. be reduced by one_half
C. remain the same
D. become twice as great
1 E. become 273 times as great
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
The pressure of the gas on the walls of the container will
ETS2 OS
9
A. become 1/273 as great
B. be reduced by one_half
C. remain the same
D. become twice as great
E. become 273 times as great
1922040 B
14 16973 51 087101930548
A system consists of nothing but gaseous H and gaseous N .
4
2
2
Which of the following is true?
A. H and N do not mix
4
2
2
B. H and N form a homogenous mixture
4
2
2
C. H and N form a heterogenous mixture
4
2
2
D. H and N form two phases
94
2
2
1922041 A
15 16978 32 01130195800112
A given mass of gas is enclosed in a suitable container so that it
may be maintained at constant volume. This procedure necessarily
implies that there can be no change in
A. density
B. pressure
C. molecular kinetic energy
D. total heat content
9 E. temperature
ETS2 OS
1922042 D
15 16982 31 01140438800111
The vapor pressure of a liquid
A. is the pressure at which its pressure is equal to that of the
atmosphere
B. decreases more rapidly with temperature as the temperature
falls
C. is the pressure necessary to cause bubble formation
at atmospheric pressure
D. is the pressure at which the rate of evaporation is equal
to the rate of condensation
9 E. is normally large for electrovalent than for covalent compounds
ETS2 OS
1922043 B
15 16988 51 01090472800111
When air from a compressed air tank expands, the air is reduced
in temperature mainly because
A. convection takes place
B. work is done at the expense of heat energy
ETS2 OS
9
C. air is a good conductor of heat
D. expansion increases the degree of molecular freedom
E. the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to the
absolute temperature
1922044 B
15 16993 31 01130114800111
When air is let out of a tire, the temperature of the air is reduced
because
A. the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to the
absolute temperature
B. expansion increases the degree of molecular freedom
C. work is done at the expense of heat energy
D. air is a good conductor of heat
9 E. convection takes place
ETS2WVW
1922045 B
15 16998 31 02930195800111
The number of molecules in equal volumes of all gases
under the same conditions of temperature and pressure are
A. widely different
B. equal
C. numerous
D. comparatively few
9 E. unknown
ETS2 OS
1922046 D
15 17001 52 02760025800111
According to theory, in a given mixture of oxygen and
nitrogen, of uniform temperature throughout,
A. all the molecules are moving at the same speed.
B. all the molecules possess the same kinetic energy.
C. the average speed of the nitrogen molecules is the
same as the average speed of the oxygen molecules.
D. the averrage kinetic energy of all the molecules in this
mixture is the same as that of any other gas at the
same temperature.
E. the average kinetic energy of all the molecules in
this mixture is the same as that of any other gas at
9
the same pressure.
ETS2 OS
1922047 C
15 17010 51 80010511029311
Select the true statement or statements.
1. If a gas expands against an external pressure, without
absorbing heat from the enviroment, then the average
kinetic energy of the gas molecules is increased.
2. If a gas is compressed, without losing heat to the environment,
then the average kinetic energy of the gas molecules is unchanged
3. If the volume of a gas remains constant while the gas
ETS2 OS
absorbs a certain quantity of heat, then the average
kinetic energy of the gas molecules is increased.
The correct selection includes only
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 1 and 2
9 E. 2 and 3
1922048 D
15 17018 71 80010186016111
Which of the following is the best statement of the
reason for defining the term "pressure" as we do?
A. The expansive force of a gas is its most characteristic
property.
B. The "elasticity" of a gas can be measured by observing
the amount of force necessary to keep it
confined in its volume.
C. A gas of a given kind (e.g., hydrogen), at a specified
density and temperature, always exerts the same
force against its containing walls regardless of the
shape or volume of that container.
D. A gas of a given kind (e.g., hydrogen), at a specified
density and temperature, exerts against a plane portion
of its containing walls a force proportional to the
area of that portion.
E. A term can be defined in any way one pleases, the
only admissible question is whether the term as defined
9
can be applied to anything.
ETS2 OS
1922049 B
15 17030 31 01610195800112
When the temperature and the volume are held constant,
the pressure of a gas remains unchanged. Which
one of the following principles is most closely associated
with the explanation of this?
A. The addition of heat increases the speed of the
molecules.
B. Molecules collide without loss of kinetic energy.
C. In an adiabatic change work is done at the expense of
internal energy.
D. At a given temperature, the pressure exerted by a
confined gas is proportional to the number of molecules
it contains.
9 E. The volume coefficient of expansion for gases is a constant.
ETS2 OS
1922050 C
15 17039 52 01140493800112
The reduction in pressure as a gas is cooled in a container of
ETS2 OS
constant volume is best explained on the basis that the molecules
A. hit each wall of the vessel less often
B. hit each wall of the vessel with less force
C. hit each wall of the vessel with less force and less often
D. contract
9 E. get closer together
1922051 B
14 17044 32 05330109800112
When pumping air into an automobile tire, we notice
the wall of the pump becomes quite warm to the touch.
This is because
A. the air being taken in is warmer than the air in
the tire
B. some of the mechanical energy of pumping is converted
to heat
C. the air molecules have increased their frictional drag
9 D. warm air rushes back into the pump from the tire
1922053 BBD
35 17050 31 0025034580011290
MACROITEM STEM
2Read the following paragraph to answer the questions below.
2Chemists using oxygen, atomic weight 16 and molecular weight 32,
2as standard, and the known weight under standard conditions of
21 liter of oxygen 1.429 gms., show that the volume occupied by
232 gms. of oxygen equals 32/1.429 or 22.4 liters. When nitrogen
2is used, the weight of 22.4 liters is 28 instead of 32. the two
2numbers, 28 and 32, must be the relative weights of an equal number
2of molecules of the gases. In numbers, the molecular weight of any
2gaseous element or compound is the same as the weight in grams of
0 22.4 liters of the gas.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The above paragraph makes particular use of the
A. law of definite proportions
B. law of Avogadro
C. law of conservation of mass
D. law of multiple proportions
1 E. law of Gay Lussac
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
If the density of hydrogen is .08987 gm./liter under standard
conditions, 22.4 liters of hydrogen should weigh
A. 1.008 gms.
B. 2.016 gms.
C. 4.064 gms.
D. 32/.08987 gms.
2 E. None of these
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
ETS2 OS
ETS2 OS
If the atomic weight of chlorine is 35.5, 22.4 liters under standard
conditions
A. weigh 1.58 gm.
B. weigh 35.5 gm.
C. weigh 32 gm.
D. weigh 71 gm.
E. weigh an amount which cannot be determined without knowing
9
the weight of 1 liter
1922054 A
15 17067 31 01610114800111
Which of the following statements is not correct?
3
___
A. At constant temperature the pressure of a certain
amount of gas increases with increasing volume.
B. At constant volume the pressure of a certain amount of
gas increases with increasing temperature.
C. At constant pressure the volume of a certain amount
of gas increases with increasing temperature.
D. In dealing with gas laws the most convenient scale of
temperature to use is the absolute or Kelvin.
E. Equal numbers of molecules of all gases exert about the
9
same pressure at a certain temperature and volume.
1922056 D
15 17076 52 07078003
According to the kinetic molecular theory, for an equimolar
mixture of two ideal gases, A and B, (where the molecular weights
of A and B are different)
A. all molecules have the same velocity
B. the average molecular kinetic energy is greater for the
lighter gas
C. the average molecular kinetic energy is greater for the
heavier gas
D. the average molecular velocity is greater for the lighter gas
E. the partial pressure exerted by the heavier gas is greater
9
than that exerted by the lighter gas
1922057 A
15 17084 52 070807098003
The effusion of different gases from a pinhole can be compared
under the same conditions. Compared to oxygen (O ), the time
4
2
A. 4 times shorter
C. 16 times shorter
C. 16 times shorter
D. 16 times longer
9 E. none of the above is correct
ETS2 OS
2WVW
2WVW
1922058 BDC
35 17089 31 8001019501611190
MACROITEM STEM
2Mark the following questions according to the key below. (Assume
2an ideal gas.)
2 A. True without qualification
2 B. False
2 C. True if the temperature is constant
2 D. True if the volume is constant
0 E. True if the pressure is constant
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 The pressure of a gas varies directly as the volume
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 The pressure of a gas varies directly as the absolute temperature
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
9 The volume of a gas varies inversely as the pressure
ETS2 OS
1922060 A
14 17095 31 80038004
Which of the following is a physical property which determines
the method of collection of a gas?
A. solubility in water
B. color
C. ease of liquefaction
9 D. state
2WVW
1922061 B
14 17098 32 011304968002
The gas which diffuses more rapidly than other bases under
similar conditions is
A. oxygen
B. hydrogen
C. nitrogen
9 D. chlorine
2 OS
1922062 D
14 17100 31 011305388002
When an ideal gas expands adiabatically against a resisting pressure
A. the temperatue remains constant
B. energy is liberated
C. the pressure increases
9 D. the environment remains unchanged
2 OS
1922063 A
14 17103 32 05990884039851
An unknown gas occupies a volume of 725 ml at STP and has a
mass of 1.036 g. This gas could be
9 A. oxygen B. nitrogen C. carbon dioxide D. chlorine.
9000
1922064 C
5
9000
14 17106
32
01141543054651
o
A 10_liter tank contains argon at 1.0 atm pressure and 25 C.
What pressure will be exhibited by the argon if the tank is
5
o
heated to 250 C?
9 A. 10 atm B. 2.01 atm C. 1.75 atm D. 1.08 atm.
1922065 B
14 17110 32 01950114
51
A balloon containing hydrogen gas at STP has a volume of 45
liters. What is its volume at 77 degrees C and 0.2 atm pressure?
9 A. 11.5 liters B. 57.7 liters C. 77 liters D. 288 liters.
1922066 A
14 17113 32 05530546088451
How many moles of nitrogen gas are there in 4.42 liters volume at
STP?
9 A. 0.197 B. 1.07 C. 4.4 D. 8.8
1922067 A
14 17115 32 05531097011351
How many moles are present in a sample of gas which occupies 15.8
liters at 20 degrees C and 0.4 atm pressure?
9 A. 0.26 B. 3.9 C. 3.1 D. 0.32
9000
9000
9000
1922068 C
14 17118 32 12010114016851
Calculate the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases
composed of 7.0 g N , 20 g Ar, and 0.5 g H . the mixture is
4
2
2
5
o
contained in a 5.0 liter vessel at 127 C.
9 A. 0.48 atm B. 2.08 atm C. 6.56 atm D. 10.0 atm.
9000
1922069 A
15 17123 32 018606540288
Calculate the density of carbon dioxide in grams per liter at
2.00 atmospheres and 0 degrees C.
A. 3.92 g/l B. 0.880 g/l C. 0.509 g/l D. 1.96 g/l
9 E. 1.02 g/l
0028
1922070 D
14 17126 31
01130707
All of the following are a part of the kinetic molecular theory of
gases except
A. a gas is composed of molecules in ceaseless motion,
colliding in perfectly elastic collisions.
B. As the temperature is increased, the molecules move faster.
C. The molecules of a gas are very small compared to the space
they occupy.
D. The pressure of a gas results from the close packing of the
molecules in the container like the pressure exerted by
9
oranges packed tightly in a crate.
0026
1922071 C
14 17133 31 070706540802
The pressure_volume relationship expressed by Boyle's law can be
explained by the kinetic molecular theory as follows
A. When more pressure is applied to a gas, a greater volume of
the gas dissolves in a liquid.
B. The volume of a gas decreases as the pressure on the gas
increases.
C. When the volume of a gas is decreased the molecules are
closer together causing more frequent collisions with the
walls of the container.
D. When the volume is decreased, the increased temperature
causes the molecules to move faster and to hit the walls
9
of the container harder and more often.
1922072 A
14 17142 31
01810707
According to the kinetic molecular theory, the heat of
vaporization is used primarily
A. to speed up the molecular motion
B. to increase the potential energy of the molecules
C. to move the molecules closer together
9 D. to melt a solid.
0026
0026
1922073 B
14 17146 32 152401340321
In a synthetic atmosphere made up of He and O , the mole fraction
4
2
of He is 0.80. The weight % of He is:
9 A. 80 B. less than 80 C. greater than 80 D. cannot tell
0009
1922074 E
15 17149 31 030614090884
Which of the following represents standard conditions of
temperature and pressure(STP)?
A. 0 degrees F, 1 inch Hg
B. 0 degrees K, 1 atm
C. 0 degrees K, 1 mm Hg
D. 0 degrees C, 1 mm Hg
9 E. none of the above
0019
1922075 D
15 17152 31 14121291
Atmospheric pressure is equal to
A. the reciprocal of the volume times the gas constant
B. the weight of a column of mercury at sea level
C. the height of mercury in an inverted tube supported by
weight of air above the surface of the mercury
D. 760 mm
9 E. 760 atm
0019
1922076 D
15 17156 31 011303400451
Of the following gases the only one which does not consist of
3
________
diatomic molecules at room temperature is
B. nitrogen B. carbon monoxide C. oxygen D. helium
9 E. both B and D.
0040
1922077 B
15 17160 31 080201130528
Boyle's law, which states that at a constant temperature,
pressure is inversely proportional to volume, can be applied to
A. all liquids B. all ideal gases
C. combinations of liquids and gases only
D. any combination of liquids, gases, and solids.
9 E. to all of these.
0035
1922078 B
14 17164 51 011404330113
When the pressure of a sample of gas is increased, the
mercury level in a barometer which is measuring this
pressure will
A. drop C. remain constant
9 B. rise D. depend on yet other variables
1922079 A
14 17167 52 011404130321
A pressure of 760 mm of Hg equals
A. 1 atmosphere
C. 760 atmospheres
9 B. 273 torr
D. 1 torr
1922080 D
14 17169 52 032101141790
A pressure of one atmosphere is equal to
A. 1 torr C. 14.7 mm Hg per square inch
9 B. 1 cm Hg D. 760 torr
1922081 C
14 17171 51 139101140413
A U_tube manometer is open on the right arm and connected to
a gas sample at the other arm. If the pressure of the gas
increases
A. the mercury level in the right arm drops
B. there is no change in the levels of Hg
C. the mercury level in the left arm drops
9 D. difference in mercury levels in the two arms decreases
1922082 B
14 17176 51 139104130114
A U_tube manometer is open on the left arm and connected to
a gas sample on the other arm. If the mercury level in the
left arm is higher than in the right, which of the following
is true?
9
A. The pressure of the gas is less than the prevailing
atmospheric pressure
B. The pressure of the gas is greater than the prevailing
atmospheric pressure
C. The pressure of the gas is equal to the prevailing
atmospheric pressure
D. One can derive nOne of the above information about the
gas sample pressure unless a torricellian barometer
is used.
1922083 A
14 17184 51 139104130114
A U_tube manometer is open on the left and connected to a
gas sample on the other arm. If the mercury level in the
right arm is higher than in the left, which of the following
is true?
A. The pressure of the gas is less than the prevailing
atmospheric pressure.
B. The pressure of the gas is greater than the prevailing
atmospheric pressure.
C. The pressure of the gas is equal to the prevailing
atmospheric pressure.
D. One can derive none of the above information about the
gas sample pressure unless a Torricellian barometer
9
is used.
1922084 C
15 17192 31 0706
Which of the following gases is the most nearly ideal?
A. CO
B. NO
C. O
D. ICl
94
2
1922085 B
14 17195 31 0706
Which of the following gases would you expect to deviate
most from ideality?
A. N
B. NO
C. O
D. CO
94
2
2
2
1922086 C
15 17198 31 13900706
Which of the following factors causes a gas to deviate the
most from ideal behavior?
A. Polarity of the bonds in the molecule
B. Mass of the molecules
C. Polarity of the molecule overall structure
D. Nonspherical shape of the molecules
9 E. Molecular electronic
1922087 D
14 17202
31
11390706
E. NH
3
Carbon monoxide and nitrogen are both gases at room
temperature. Which one of them is more ideal and why?
A. Carbon monoxide because the bond is stronger
B. Nitrogen because its mass is less
C. Carbon monoxide because the bond is more polar
9 D. Nitrogen because the molecule is less polar
1922088 D
14 17207 31 11390706
CH and NH are both gasses, and CH is the more ideal gas
4 4
3
4
because
A. the N_H bonds in NH are less polar than C_H bonds in CH
4
3
4
B. the NH molecules have greater mass than CH molecules
4
3
4
C. carbon is more electronegative than nitrogen
D. CH molecules are less polar than NH molecules
94
4
3
1922089 D
14 17214 31 1429
Which of the following gases has the highest critical
temperature?
A. N
B. H
C. CH
D. H O
94
2
2
4
2
1922090 B
14 17217 31 1429
Which of the following gases has the highest critical
temperature?
A. O
B. HF
C. CO
D. He
94
2
2
1922091 D
14 17220 31 1429
Which of the following gases has the highest critical
temperature?
A. SO
B. H
C. O
D. H O
94
2
2
2
2
1922092 A
14 17223 31 1429
Which of the following gases has the lowest critical
temperature?
A. H
B. NH
C. SO
D. HCl
94
2
3
2
1922093 A
14 17226 31 1429
Which of the following gases has the lowest critical
temperature?
A. CH
94
4
B. NH
3
C. H O
2
D. HF
1922094 D
14 17229 31 1429
Which of the following gases has the lowest critical
temperature?
A. NH
B. H O C. HCl D. He E. O
94
3
2
3
1922095 B
14 17232 31 14271430
A gas can be most easily liquefied if it has
A. low forces of intermolecular attraction
B. high forces of intermolecular attraction
C. molecules of large size
9 D. molecules of small size
1922096 B
14 17235 31 14300502
Which of the following properties has no effect on whether
or not a gas can be liquefied?
A. The temperature of the gas.
B. The surface tension of the liquid phase.
C. The pressure applied to the gas sample.
9 D. The intermolecular forces among gas molecules.
1922201 C
15 17239 32 01130305038001
It is found that 2.00 liters of a gas at standard conditions weigh
4.50 grams. The gram_molecular weight of the gas (in grams) is
9 A. 4.50 B. 2.25 C. 50.4 D. 25.2 E. 9.0
ETS2 OS
1922203 B
15 17242 52 012800370113
Determine the molecular weight of a compound given the following
gas phase data: mass = 3.42 grams; temperature = 31.1 degrees C;
pressure = 862 torr; and volume = 1.83 liters.
5
_3
9 A. 54.1 B. 41.1 C. 42.6 D. 420 E. 5.53 X 10 .
0044
1922204 B
15 17246 32 070601280288
If 2.00 g of a gas occupy 1.12 liters at STP, what is its
molecular mass?
9 A. 4.00 amu B. 40.0 amu C. 10.0 amu D. 100 amu E. 400 amu
0028
1922205 E
15 17248 32 070601280288
Calculate the molecular mass of a gas if 1.00 g has a volume
of 550 ml at 27 degrees C and 760 torr.
9 A. 33.6 amu B. 56.0 amu C. 40.7 amu D. 22.4 amu E. 44.8 amu
0028
1922206 C
15 17251 32 012801130114
What is the molecular mass of a gas if 10 grams of the gas
occupies 82 liters at a pressure of 1 atmosphere and
25 degrees C?
9 A. 33.3 B. 3.3 C. 2.98 D. 29.8 E. 164
0019
1922207 C
15 17254 32 088401130398
At STP, 3.50 g of an unknown gas were found to occupy 2.24
liters. What is the mass of a mole of this gas?
9 A. 0.350 g B. 7.94 g C. 35.0 g D. 79.4 g E. none is correct
0019
1922208 D
15 17257 52 022401131649
In order to decide whether the formula of a gas is NO , or N O ,
4
2
24
or N O , the best procedure is to find:
4
36
A. the structure of the N and O atoms
B. the percentage composition of the compound
C. the relative volumes of oxygen and nitrogen in the compound
D. the weight of a fixed volume of the gas at a known pressure
and temperature
E. the nature of the acid produced when the gas reacts with
9
water
0038
1922209 C
14 17264 32 07060128
The molecular weight of a gas, 7.98 g of which occupies 4.48
liters at STP, is:
9 A. 4.00 amu B. 20.2 amu C. 39.9 amu D. 83.8 amu
0003
1922210 B
14 17266 32 07060128
The molecular weight of a gas, 44.3 g of which occupies 16.8
liters at 0 degrees C and 700 torr, is:
9 A. 46.7 amu B. 64.2 amu C. 79.3 amu D. 84.0 amu
0003
1922211 A
15 17269 52 0128
What is the molecular weight of a gas if 11.2 grams occupy
11.2 liters at 380 torr and 0 degrees C?
A. 45 g/mole
C. 90 g/mole
E. 5.6 g/mole
9 B. 22.5 g mole
D. 11.2 g/mole
1922212 D
15 17272 52 0128
A 2240 ml container confines 10.0 grams of gas at 2.00 atm
and 273 degrees C. What is the molecular weight of this gas?
A. 4.00 g/mole
C. 50.0 g/mole
E. 10.0g/mole
9 B. 25.0 g/mole
D. 100 g/mole
1922213 B
15 17275 52 0128
Exactly 25.0 grams of a 5.6 liter sample of an unknown gas
at 278 degrees C is found to exert a pressure of 2.02 atm. The
molecular weight of the gas is
A. 0.020 g/mole
C. 51.0 g/mole
E. 4.00 g/mole
9 B. 100 g/mole
D. 10.0 g/mole
1922214 C
15 17279 52 0128
A 3.60 liter flask contains 10.0 grams of an unknown gas at
a pressure of 1.02 atm and 87 degrees C. what is the molecular
weight of the gas?
A. 980 g/mole
C. 80 g/mole
E. 8.0 g/mole
9 B. 240 g/mole
D. 19 g/mole
1922215 B
14 17283 52 0128
An 11 ml sample bulb at a temperature of 57 degrees C is filled with
a 0.020 g gas sample whose pressure is found to be 82 torr.
The molecular weight of the gas is
9 A. 79 g/mole B. 456 g/mole C. 1260 g/mole
D. 790 g/mole
1922216 D
14 17287 52 0128
A 0.20 gram sample of an unknown gas confined in a 160 ml
container at a temperature of 47 degrees C is found to exert a
pressure of 0.55 atm. What is the molecular weight of the
gas?
9 A. 227 g/mole B. 8.7 g/mole C. 298 g/mole D. 60 g/mole
1922217 D
14 17291 52 0128
At a temperature of 277 degrees C, a 0.200 gram sample of a compound
is found to exert a pressure of 380 torr when it is confined
in a volume of 820 ml. What is the molecular weight of the
compound?
9 A. 550 g/mole B. 290 g/mole C. 3.40 g/mole D. 22.0 g/mole
1922401 B
15 17295 51 80010189006612
Suppose 2 liters of a gaseous element X combine with 3 liters of a
gaseous element Y to form 3 liters of a gaseous compound. If one
assumes that the separate and independent particles of elementary
gases are atoms, what conclusion necessarily follows?
A. gases X and Y do not have the same number of atoms in equal
volumes.
B. There are more atoms of gas X than gas Y per liter.
C. There are fewer atoms of gas X than gas Y per liter.
D. Equal volumes of gases contain the same number of atoms.
9 E. None of these is a necessary conclusion.
ETS2 OS
1922402 A
15 17303 51 80010293039811
In computing the kinetic energy of a gas molecule, it is
necessary to consider both the velocity of the molecule as well as
A. its mass
B. the number of atoms in the gas molecule
C. the kinds of atoms in the gas molecule
D. its physical properties
9 E. all of the above
ETS2 OS
1922403 A
15 17307 52 80010161011413
If both the volume and the absolute temperature of a gas under
standard conditions were tripled, the pressure would be
A. unchanged
B. three times as great
C. six times as great
D. nine times as great
9 E. one_ninth as great
ETS2 OS
1922404 E
15 17311 52 01950161800113
If the volume and the absolute temperature of a given mass of gas
were both reduced to one_half their former value, the pressure
exerted by the gas would be
A. one_half as great
B. one_fourth as great
C. twice as great
D. four times as great
9 E. unchanged
ETS2 OS
1922405 C
15 17315 52 01950445800113
To triple the volume of a given weight of gas at 27 degrees C,
keeping pressure constant, raise the temperature to
A. 81 degrees C.
B. 273 degrees C.
C. 900 degrees absolute
D. 627 degrees absolute
9 E. 546 degrees absolute
ETS2 OS
1922407 B
15 17319 52 01140113800113
To halve the pressure on a given mass of gas at 27 degrees C,
keeping its volume constant, change the temperature to
A. 54 degrees C.
B. 150 degrees absolute
C. 13.5 degrees C.
D. 600 degrees absolute
9 E. _27 degrees C.
ETS2 OS
1922408 E
15 17323 72 04290025800113
The mean velocity of oxygen molecules at 0 degrees C is
460 m/s. If the molecular weight of oxygen is 32 and the
molecular weight of helium is 4, then the mean velocity of a helium
molecule at 0 degrees C is (in m/s)
9 A. 230 B. 326 C. 650 D. 920 E. 1300
1922409 A
15 17327 72 01138001054613
5
o
One liter of a gas has a pressure of 1 atmosphere at 0 C.
What will be the volume of the same quantity of gas at 570 mm Hg
5
o
and 27 C (in liters)
9 A. 1.47 B. 1.21 C. 1 D. 0.68 E. 0.825
ETS2 OS
1922410 A
15 17331 72 01138001016113
A gas in a 200 cc container has a pressure of 60 torr at 27 deg C.
If the temperature is raised to 127 deg C and the container
expands to 250 cc, what will be the pressure of the gas?
9 A. 64 torr B. 100 torr C. 36 torr D. 56 torr E. 226 torr
ETS2 OS
1922411 D
15 17335 52 05490161800113
A certain mass of gas is confined in a cylinder and occupies a
volume of 5 cubic feet when the absolute temperature (K degrees)
is 1000 degrees. If the applied pressure on the piston is kept
constant and the absolute temperature of the gas is lowered to
800 degrees (F degrees), the volume occupied by the gas is, in
cubic feet,
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4.3
D. 4
9 E. 6.2
ETS2 OS
1922412 C
15 17340 52 01860025800113
The density of oxygen at 273 degrees C and a pressure of 2
atmospheres is
5
3
A. 0.002 gm/cm
5
3
B. 0.007 gm/cm
5
3
C. 0.0014 gm/cm
5
3
D. 0.0056 gm/cm
5
3
9 E. 0.0098 gm/cm
ETS2 OS
ETS2 OS
1922413 AB
25 17344 52 0113032180011390
MACROITEM STEM
0 Answer the following questions.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
A certain specimen of gas has a volume of 1.5 liters, at 0 degrees C
and atmospheric pressure. At 0 degrees C. and a pressure of 3
atmospheres, this specimen of gas will occupy a volume of
A. 0.5 liter
B. 1.0 liter
C. 1.5 liters
D. 3.0 liters
1 E. 4.5 liters
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
The same specimen of gas, at 273 degrees C. (=546 degrees absolute)
and a pressure of 3 atmospheres, will occupy a volume of
A. 3.5 liter
B. 1.0 liter
C. 1.5 liters
D. 3.0 liters
9 e 4.5 liters
ETS2 OS
1922414 C
15 17351 32 01140300800112
Assuming that the pressure remains constant in both
cases, if a particular type of gas occupies 273 cc of space
at 0 degrees C, at a temperature of 10 degrees C it will occupy a
space of
A. 263 cc.
B. 273 cc
C. 283 cc.
D. 278 cc.
9 E. 293 cc.
ETS2 OS
1922415 E
15 17355 32 01950161800112
If the volume and the absolute temperature of a certain
mass of gas were both doubled, the pressure would be
A. one_half as great
B. twice as great
C. one_fourth as great
D. four times as great
9 E. unchanged
ETS2 OS
1922416 E
15 17358 32 01950012800112
If the volume and absolute temperature of a given mass
of gas were both reduced to one_half their former value,
the pressure would be
ETS2 OS
9
A. one_half as great
B. one_fourth as great
C. twice as great
D. four times as great
E. unchanged
1922417 C
15 17362 32 01140526800112
If the pressure is constant and a gas has a volume of 10 liters
5
o
o
at 20 C, its volume at 20 C will be (in liters)
9 A. 5 B. 20 C. 10.7 D. 9.36 E. 8.24
ETS2 OS
1922418 C
15 17365 32 01610195800112
If the temperature of a fixed volume of gas is 0 degrees C, the
temperature to which the gas must be raised to approximately
double the pressure is
A. 2 degrees C.
B. 100 degrees C.
C. 273 degrees C.
D. 273 degrees A.
9 E. none of these
ETS2 OS
1922419 A
15 17369 32 04860114800112
If the volume and the absolute temperature of a given
mass of gas under standard conditions were each tripled,
the pressure would be
A. unchanged
B. three times as great
C. six times as great
D. nine times as great
9 E. changed by some quantity other than the above three
ETS2 OS
1922420 B
15 17373 32 01610195800112
If the temperature of a gas is 0 degrees C, the temperature to
which the gas must be raised to approximately double
the volume while maintaining the pressure constant is
A. 273 K
B. 273 degrees C.
C. 2 degrees C.
D. 100 degrees C.
9 E. none of these
ETS2 OS
1922421 B
15 17377 31 03980195800112
A certain mass of gas has a volume of 200 cc under a
barometric pressure of 76 cm of mercury. If this gas
is subjected to an additional pressure of 4 cm of
ETS2 OS
mercury, without changing its temperature, its volume
will be approximately
A. 280 cc
B. 190 cc
C. 3800 cc
D. 120 cc
9 E. none of these
1922422 D
15 17382 52 07068003
What is the volume occupied by 0.200 mole of an ideal gas
at 380 torr and 300 deg K?
5
_1
_1
(R=0.0820 liter atm mole deg )
A. 1.73 liters
B. 3.67 liters
C. 8.20 liters
D. 9.84 liters
9 E. 16.4 liters
2WVW
1922423 A
15 17386 31 06548003
A gas in volume V at a pressure P is allowed to expand at
4
1
1
constant temperature, so that its new volume V is 3(V ).
4
2
1
its new pressure is
A. P /3 B. P x V
C. P x V /V
D. P
E. 3(P )
94
1
1 1
1
2 1
1
1
2WVW
1922424 D
15 17391 52 8003
What is the volume occupied by 0.200 mole of an ideal gas at
380 torr and 300 deg. K?
A. 1.73 liters
B. 3.67 liters
C. 8.20 liters
D. 9.84 liters
9 E. 16.4 liters
2WVW
1922425 D
15 17394 52 8003
A sample containing 1.6 gram of O and 2.02 gram of Ne are placed in
4
2
an 8.2 liter flask. What is the total pressure of the gas mixture at
27 deg. C.?
A. 0.15 atm.
B. 0.30 atm.
C. 0.40 atm.
D. 0.45 atm.
2WVW
9
E. 0.60 atm.
1922426 B
14 17398 32 019501138002
If the volume which a certain number of gas molecules occupies
remains constant as the temperature is lowered, then the pressure
exerted by this number of molecules
A. remains constant
B. steadily decreases
C. steadily increrase
9 D. first increases and then decreases
1922427 A
14 17402 52 0706
At 380 torr and 0 degrees C, an 11.2_liter container will hold how
many moles of an ideal gas?
9 A. 0.25 B. 0.50 C. 1.00 D. 2.00 E. 11.2
2 OS
0003
1922428 B
14 17405 32 019500258002
The volume of 16 grams of oxygen at standard temperature and
pressure is
A. 1 liter
B. 11.2 liters
C. 16 liters
9 D. 22.4 liters
2 OS
1922429 D
14 17407 32 019500258002
The volume occupied by 3 moles of oxygen at standard temperatures
and pressure is
A. 1 liter
B. 22.4 liters
C. 3 liters
9 D. 67.2 liters
2 OS
1922430 C
14 17410 31 011401138002
Doubling the pressure of a gas at the same time that its Kelvin
temperature is doubled, causes its volume to
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain the same
9 D. increase by 100 per cent
2 OS
1922431 B
15 17413 52 072706548003
A sample of pure argon gas (Ar) occupies a volume of
0.082 liter at 0.30 atm when the temperature is 27 deg C.
how many moles of Ar are there in the sample?
5
_1
_1
(At. Wt Ar=40; R=0.082 liter atm mole deg )
2WVW
5
_3
_5
A. (1.0 x 10 )/40 = 2.5 x 10
5
_3
B. 1.0 x 10
5
_2
C. 1/90 (about 1.1 x 10 )
5
_2
D. 4.0 x 10
9 E. 22.4
1922432 B
15 17420 52 070607278003
In an 18_liter mixture of gases whose temperature and pressure
were 825 deg C and 1520 torr the partial pressure
of helium was 76 torr. Calculate the number of moles
of helium in the mixture.
5
_1
_1
(R=0.082 liter atm mole deg )
A. 0.0050
B. 0.020
C. 0.080
D. 0.32
9 E. 0.80
2WVW
1922433 B
14 17425 31 07950113141209
One gram of any gas at 0 degrees C and atmospheric pressure
occupies 22.4 liters.
9 A. True B. False
0041
1922434 D
14 17427 31 141205530113
At 0 degrees C and atmospheric pressure, 1 mole of any gas
occupies a volume
A. that depends upon the mass of its molecule
B. that depends upon its formula mass
C. of Avogadro's number of liters
9 D. of 22.4 liters
0041
1922435 D
15 17431 32 019507061790
What is the volume occupied by 0.200 mole of an ideal gas at
380 torr and 300 degrees K?
A. 1.73 liters B. 3.67 liters C. 8.20 liters
9 D. 9.84 liters E. 16.4 liters
0042
1922436 D
15 17434 32 109714070114
A sample containing 1.6 gram of O and 2.02 gram of Ne are placed
4
2
in an 8.2 liter flask. What is the total pressure of the gas
0042
mixture at 27 degrees C?
9 A. 0.15 atm B. 0.30 atm C. 0.40 atm D. 0.45 atm E. 0.60 atm
1922437 E
15 17438 32 021801141201
Nitrogen gas was placed in a 22.4_liter container at 273 degrees
absolute. The resulting pressure of the nitrogen was 2
atmospheres. Calculate the number of grams of nitrogen in the
container.
9 A. 5.6 B. 2.8 C. 28 D. 1.4 E. None of these.
0042
1922438 C
15 17442 32 120101860114
Calculate the density, in grams per liter, of oxygen at 546
degrees C. and 760 mm. pressure
A. 0.715 B. 0.357 C. 0.476 D. 16
9 E. can not be calculated from this data.
0042
1922439 D
15 17445 32 044501130161
Given a constant mass of an ideal gas, if both the Kelvin
temperature and the volume are halved, what will be the new
pressure relative to the original pressure?
9 A. 3/2 B. 2/3 C. 5/1 D. 6/1 E. the same.
0042
1922440 C
15 17448 32 019507060161
The volume of an ideal gas is reduced by one half at constant
temperature. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The average speed of the molecules increase.
B. The average speed of the molecules decrease.
C. The number of collision of molecules with unit area of the
wall increase by a factor of two.
D. The number of collisions of molecules with unit area of the
wall remains constant.
9 E. None of the above.
0047
1922441 C
15 17454 52
01140195
At the upper level of the troposphere (the atmosphere closest to
the earth) about 7 miles above sea level, the air pressure is
190 mm of Hg and the temperature about _55 degrees C. What
would be the volume of one mole of air? The average molecular
weight of air is 29 and the gas constant is 0.082 1 atm
5 _1
_1
deg mole .
A. 7.15 liters B. 22.4 liters C. 71.5 liters
9 D. 142.0 liters E. 73.0 liters.
1922442 A
14 17460 51 141204130433
When the atmospheric pressure decreases, the mercury level
0047
in a barometer measuring it will
A. drop C. remain constant
9 B. rise D. depend on yet other variables
1922443 A
15 17463 52 070606540288
A gas occupies a volume of 200 ml at 400 torr. To what pressure
must the gas be subjected in order to change the volume to
20.0 ml? The temperature remains constant.
A. 4000 torr B. 400 torr C. 40.0 torr D. 800 torr
9 E. 1600 torr
0028
1922444 A
15 17467 32 088406540288
A given mass of gas occupies a volume of 200 ml at
273 degrees C and 3.00 atmospheres. What volume would the gas
occupy at standard temperature and pressure?
9 A. 300 ml B. 1200 ml C. 333 ml 600 ml E. 100 ml
0028
1922445 D
15 17470 32
06540288
At 27 degrees C the volume of a given gas is 600 ml. Holding the
pressure constant, what would be the volume of the gas if placed
in a room at 0 degrees C?
9 A. 660 ml B. 819 ml C. 300 ml D. 546 ml E. 136 ml
1922446 C
15 17473 52 088406540288
If 2.00 g of a gas occupy 1.12 liters at STP, what is the
molecular mass of the gas?
9
0028
0028
A. 100 amu B. 4.00 amu C. 40.0 amu D. 10.0 amu E. 1.00 amu
1922447 D
15 17476 52 019501960161
A volume of hydrogen was measured to be 1.00 liter at a
temperature of 80 degrees C and a pressure of 700 torr. What
volume will the gas occupy at STP?
A. 0.812 liters
B. 1.19 liters
C. 1.34 liters
D. 0.713 liters
9 E. none of these
0020
1922448 C
15 17480 52 088401610113
Given 10.0 liters of a gas at STP, what would the temperature of
the gas be if the pressure is increased to 3.00 atmospheres and
the volume is decreased to 5.00 liters?
A. 290 degrees K
B. 186 degrees C
C. 410 degrees K
0020
9
D. no change in temperature
E. not enough information is available to solve the problem
1922449 D
15 44407 52 0224
Which of the following formulas does NOT describe the behavior of
one mole of an ideal gas?
A. V =(P /P )x(T /T )x V
4
2
1 2
2 1
1
B. P V = P V at constant T
4
11
22
C. PV/T = a constant
D. none of these
9 E. all of these
0020
1922450 C
15 17488 31 011413890317
Pressure can be expressed in
A. grams per unit area
B. atmosphere per liter
C. force per unit area
D. mass of mercury per unit area
9 E. all of these
0020
1922451 D
15 17491 32 019501130161
The volume of a gas is 100 ml at a temperature of 25 degrees C
and a pressure of 760 torr. Its volume at the same temperature
but at a pressure of 500 torr is
9 A. 200 ml B. 100 ml C. 66.0 ml D. 152 ml E. none of these
0020
1922452 C
15 17495 32 011301140195
1.00 liter of a gas is initially at one atmosphere pressure and
room temperature. What is the new volume if the pressure is
increased to 2 atmospheres and the temperature remains constant?
A. 2 liters
B. 50 ml
C. 500 ml
D. the same
9 E. none of these
0020
1922453 E
15 17499 32 016101130195
If the temperature of a gas is decreased but the volume is held
constant
A. the average kinetic energy increases
B. the density of the gas decreases
C. the average velocity of the molecules increases
D. the gas molecules make more collisions with the walls of
the vessel
0020
9
E. none of the above
1922454 E
15 17504 32 039801130114
A mass of oxygen gas occupies 10.0 liters under a pressure of
800 torr. What volume will this same mass of gas occupy at a
pressure of one atmosphere? assume the temperature to remain
constant.
A. 80.0 liters
B. 100 liters
C. 95.0 liters
D. 105 liters
9 E. none of these
0020
1922455 A
15 17508 32 053701140113
Two three_liter containers are connected by a closed valve. One
container has a pressure of 600 torr of hydrogen and the other a
pressure of 1200 torr of hydrogen. Both gas samples are at the
same temperature. What is the final pressure in both containers
when the valve is opened?
A. 900 torr
B. 1800 torr
C. 1200 torr
D. 1000 torr
9 E. none of these
0020
1922456 C
14 17513 32 053201140195
A certain mountain rises to 14,100 feet above sea level. The
pressure at the top is about 17.7 inches (of mercury). If you
blew up a balloon at sea level, where the pressure happened to be
29.7 inches, and carried it to the top of the mountain, by what
factor would its volume change?
A. there would be no change B. 29.7 _ 17.7
9 C. 29.7/17.7 D. 17.7/29.7
0009
1922457 D
15 17518 52 055301130321
There are_____________moles of a gas in 3.5 liters at 5
atmospheres and 182 degrees C.
A. 3.5/22.4
B. (3.5)(5)/22.4
C. (3.5)(8/5)(5)
D. (3.5)(3/5)(5)/22.4
9 E. 22.4/35
1922458 A
15 17521 32 011310970553
A gas sample occupies a volume of 16.4 liters at 27 degrees C
and 0.30 atm. How many moles of the gas are present?
9 A. 0.20 B. 0.45 C. 3.5 D. 5.0 E. none is correct
0019
0019
1922459 B
15 17524 32 109701130195
A sample of gas occupies 8 liters. If the pressure increases by
a factor of 4 and the absolute temperature is doubled, what
will be the new volume in liters?
9 A. 1 B. 4 C. 16 D. 64 E. none is correct
0019
1922460 A
14 17527 32 011301860884
A gas has a density of 5.4 g/liter at 0 degrees C and 2 atm of
pressure. What will be its density at STP?
A. 2.7 g/liter B. 5.4 g/liter C. 10.9 g/liter
9 D. none is correct
0019
1922461 D
15 17530 32 027214080195
During an experiment, 350 ml of oxygen were collected over water
at 22 degrees C and a barometric pressure of 749 mm. Which of
the following will give the volume of dry oxygen at STP? (Vapor
pressure of water at 22 degrees C = 20 mm.)
0019
273 degrees K 749 mm
A. 350 ml x _____________ x ______
295 degrees K 760 mm
295 degrees K 760 mm
B. 350 ml x _____________ x ______
273 degrees K 729 mm
273 degrees K 729 mm
C. 350 ml x _____________ x ______
293 degrees K 760 mm
273 degrees K 729 mm
D. 350 ml x _____________ x ______
295 degrees K 749 mm
9
E. none of the above is correct
1922462 B
15 17540 32 011401611097
At a pressure of 2.0 atm, 0.30 moles of hydrogen was found to
occupy a volume of 3.7 liters. What was the temperature in
degrees centigrade of the sample?
9 A. 17 B. 27 C. 37 D. 67 E. none is correct
0019
1922463 C
15 17543 32 016107060553
At what temperature would two moles of a perfect gas occupy 82
liters and exert a pressure of 1 atmosphere?
0019
9
A. 5 degrees K B. 50 degrees K C. 500 degrees K
D. 1000 degrees K E. none of these
1922464 E
15 17546 32 019501610398
If the volume and the absolute temperature of a certain mass of
gas were both doubled, the pressure would be
A. one_half as great B. twice as great C. one_fourth as great
9 D. four times as great E. unchanged
0035
1922465 D
15 17549 32 019501140161
To triple the volume of a given weight of gas at 27 degrees C,
keeping pressure constant, raise the temperature to
A. 81 degrees C B. 273 degrees C C. 546 degrees K
9 D. 900 degrees K E. 627 degrees K
0035
1922466 E
15 17552 32 119905530114
A one liter vessel contains three moles of a gas at 273 degrees
C. The pressure in the cylinder expressed in atmospheres is
A. 33.6 atm. B. 100.8 atm C. 145.6 atm.
9 D. 67.2 atm. E. 134.4 atm.
0035
1922467 D
15 17555 32 054201140195
A balloon occupies 1000 ml under a pressure of 1 atmosphere and a
temperature of 0.0 degrees C. Calculate the volume it will
occupy under a pressure of 2 atmospheres and at a temperature of
273 degrees C.
9 A. 500 ml B. 2000 ml C. none of these D. 1000 ml E. 4000 ml
0035
1922468 B
15 17559 32 016103920113
If the temperature of a given quantity of gas is held constant
and its pressure is doubled, its volume will
B. double B. be reduced to one half the orginal volume
C. not be affected D. be divided by 1/2
9 E. reduced to one fourth the original volume
0034
1922469 C
15 17563 32 019503920113
If the volume of a given quantity of gas is held constant and its
temperature is raised, the pressure will
A. double B. be reduced C. be increased
D. be reduced to one half the original pressure
9 E. impossible to tell from the facts given
0034
1922470 D
15 17567 32 011401130161
If the pressure of a given quantity of gas is held constant and
its temperature is lowered from 300 degrees K to 200 degrees K,
the volume will
0034
9
A. be reduced to one half the original volume
B. be raised to three halves the orginal volume
C. be doubled
D. be reduced to two thirds the original volume
E. be reduced by an amount that cannot be predicted from the
data given
1922471 B
14 17573 32 1429
The critical temperature of H O is higher than that of O because
4
2
2
the H O molecule has:
4
2
A. fewer electrons than O B. a dipole moment
4
2
9 C. two covalent bonds D. a linear shape
1922472 A
14 17577 52 07060884
The volume occupied at STP by 1.00 g of C H (g) is:
4
38
9 A. 0.508 liter B. 0.988 liter C. 1.01 liters D. 22.4 liters
0003
0003
1922473 B
14 17580 32 0706
The volume occupied by 0.100 mole of an ideal gas at 0 degrees C
and 0.250 atm pressure is (in liters):
9 A. 0.448 B. 0.560 C. 4.48 D. 8.96 E. 2.24
0003
1922474 C
14 17583 32 0706
The volume occupied by 0.500 mole of an ideal gas at 273 degrees
C and 1.00 atm pressure is:
9 A. 5.60 liters B. 11.2 liters C. 22.4 liters D. 44.8 liters
0003
1922475 C
14 17586 32 0706
A sample of Cl gas having a volume of 0.750 liter at 20 degrees
4
2
C and 725 torr has a weight equal to:
0003
5
3
9 A. 1.60 x 10 g B. 10.6 g C. 2.11 g D. 0.320 g
1922476 C
14 17589 32 0706
The molar volume of acetylene (C H ) at 300 degrees K and 0.450
4
22
atm pressure is:
9 A. 22.4 liters B. 26.2 liters C. 54.7 liters D. 105 liters
0003
1922477 A
0003
14 17592
32
0706
The density of carbon monoxide at STP is:
A. 1.25 g/liter B. 0.800 g/liter
9 C. 22.4 g/liter D. 28.0 g/liter
1922478 A
14 17594 51 06160612
The x_ray diffraction picture of a liquid shows:
A. a concentric_ring pattern B. a regular spot pattern
9 C. parallel straight lines D. lines radiating from a point
1922479 C
14 17597 52 07060884
0540
What is the volume at standard temperature and pressure of
45 grams of nitrogen(II) oxide gas, which has the molecular
formula NO ? ( atomic weights N = 14 , O = 16 )
A. 22.4 liters C. 33.6 liters
9 B. 11.2 liters D. 44.8 liters
1922480 A
14 17601 52 07060884
0540
What is the volume at standard temperature and pressure of
18 grams of gaseous oxygen diflouride , OF ?
4
2
A. 7.5 liters
C. 22.4 liters
9 B. 11.2 liters
D. 33.6 liters
1922481 A
14 17605 52 07060884
0540
What is the volume at standard temperature and pressure of
8.8 grams of carbon dioxide gas, CO ? ( atomic weights C =
4
2
12, O = 16)
A. 4.5 liters
C. 7.1 liters
9 B. 2.2 liters
D. 7.1 liters
1922482 B
14 17609 52 07060884
0540
What is the volume at standard temperature and pressure of 8
grams of methane gas, CH ? ( atomic weights C = 12 , H =
4
4
1.0)
A. 5.6 liters
C. 16.8 liters
9 B. 11.2 liters
D. 22.4 liters
1922483 C
14 17613 52 07060884
0540
What is the volume at standard temperature and pressure of
16 grams of gaseous sulfur dioxide, SO ? ( atomic weights O
4
2
= 16, S = 32)
A. 22.4 liters
C. 5.6 liters
9 B. 11.2 liters
D. 16.8 liters
0003
1922484 D
14 17617 52 07060884
0540
What is the volume at standard temperature and pressure of
10 grams of gaseous hydrogen fluoride, HF ? ( atomic weights
H = 1.0, F = 19)
A. 22.4 liters
C. 33.6 liters
9 B. 44.8 liters
D. 11.2 liters
1922485 A
14 17620 52 07060884
0540
What is the volume at standard temperature and pressure of
7.3 grams of gaseous hydrogen chloride, HCl? ( atomic weights
H = 1.0 , Cl = 35.5 )
A. 4.5 liters C. 11.2 liters
9 B. 5.6 liters D. 22.4 liters
1922486 D
14 17623 52 07060884
0540
What is the volume at standard temperature and pressure of
8.1 grams of gaseous hydrogen bromide, HBr? ( atomic weights
H = 1.0 , Br = 80 )
A. 22.4 liters C. 5.6 liters
9 B. 11.2 liters D. 2.2 liters
1922487 A
14 17626 52 07060884
0540
What is the volume, in liters, at STP of 9.2 g gaseous
nitrogen(IV) oxide, NO ?
4
2
9 A. 4.5 B. 5.6 C. 6.9 D. 10.1 E. 112
1922488 D
15 17630 52 07060884
0540
What is the volume at standard temperature and pressure of
14 grams of nitrogen gas, N ? ( atomic weight N = 14 )
4
2
A. 22.4 liters
C. 33.6 liters
E. 5.6 liters
9 B. 44.2 liters
D. 11.2 liters
1922489 A
15 17634 52 07060884
0540
At standard temperature and pressure, what volume will 28
grams of nitrogen gas, N , occupy? ( Atomic weight N = 14 )
4
2
A. 22.4 liters
C. 33.6 liters
E. 5.6 liters
9 B. 44.2 liters
D. 11.2 liters
1922490 C
15 17638 52 0706
0540
A sample of oxygen gas, O , has a volume of 33.6 liters at
4
2
standard temperature and pressure. How many grams are present?
A. 24 grams
C. 48 grams
E. 12 grams
9
B. 32 grams
D. 64 grams
1922491 A
15 17642 52 0706
0540
A sample of nitrogen gas, N , has a volume of 22.4 liters at
4
2
standard temperature and pressure.
How many grams does it
weigh? ( atomic weight N = 14 )
A. 28 grams
C. 7 grams
E. 42 grams
9 B. 14 grams
D. 56 grams
1922492 B
15 17646 52 0706
0540
A sample of fluorine gas, F , has a volume of 11.2 liters at
4
2
standard temperature and pressure.
How many grams does it
weigh? ( Atomic weight F = 19 )
A. 38 grams
C. 9.5 grams
E. 28.5 grams
9 B. 19 grams
D. 57 grams
1922493 C
15 17650 52 0706
0540
Which of the following quantities of matter contains the
same number of particles (atoms, molecules, or ions) as 0.1
mole of He atoms ?
A. 0.8 gram of O molecules
4
2
B. Avogadro's number of marbles
5
22
C. 6.02 x 10 atoms of Na
D. 0.05 gram_atom of H molecules
4
2
5
+2
9 E. 2.0 grams of Ca ions
1922494 C
14 17656 51 05490317
The pressure of a gas is a measure of
A. the speed of a gas molecule
B. the number of gas molecules in a sample
C. the force exerted by a gas on a specified area
D. the total energy of a gas sample which is dependent on
9
the temperature of that sample
1922495 B
15 17660 52 0549
An 8.2 liter sample of Cl gas is found to contain 0.10 mole
4
2
of the gas at a temperature of 27 degrees C. The pressure of the
gas is
A. 3.3 atm
C. 0.027 atm
E. 3.0 atm
OS85
9
B. 0.30 atm
D. 37.0 atm
1922496 D
15 17664 52 0549
A 4.10 liter sample of NO gas confined at a temperature of
127 degrees C is found to contain 0.333 mole of the gas. The
pressure of the sample is
A. 0.0420 atm
C. 0.847 atm
E. 1.18 atm
9 B. 0.370 atm
D. 2.66 atm
1922497 C
15 17668 52 0549
A 0.60 mole sample of NH gas is found to occupy a volume of
4
3
16.4 liters at a temperature of 77 degrees C. The pressure of the
gas is
A. 0.34 atm
C. 1.05 atm
E. 0.0023 atm
9 B. 0.23 atm
D. 0.95 atm
1922498 A
14 17672 52 0114
What is the pressure exerted by a 10 mole sample of H at
4
2
0 degrees C which is confined in a 22.4 liter vessel?
9 A. 10 atm
B. 5.0 atm
C. 3.0 atm D. 1.0 atm
1922499 B
14 17676 52 0114
Calculate the pressure in a cylinder of argon gas if the
cylinder has a volume of 15.0 liters and contains 12.5 moles
of the gas at a temperature of 27 degrees C.
9 A. 40.0 atm
B. 20.5 atm
C. 10.1 atm D. 1.00 atm
1922501 B
15 17679 32 19660884
The volume of 16 grams of oxygen at STP is:
A. 1 liter
B. 11.2 liters
C. 16 liters
D. 160 liters
9 E. insufficient information to do the calculation
1922502 A
15 17682 31 01610114019511
Which of the following statements is not correct?
3
___
A. At constant temperature the pressure of a certain
amount of gas increases with increasing volume.
B. At constant volume the pressure of a certain amount of
gas increases with increasing temperature.
C. At constant pressure the volume of a certain amount
of gas increases with increasing temperature.
BRHM
ETS2 OS
9
D. In dealing with gas laws the most convenient scale of
temperature to use is the absolute or kelvin.
E. Equal numbers of molecules of all gases exert about the
same pressure at a certain temperature and volume.
1922601 D
15 17691 52 04100711
A sample containing 1.6 g of O and 2.02 g of Ne are placed
4
2
in a 8.2_liter flask. What is the total pressure of the gas
mixture at 27 deg C?
5
_1
(At. Wt O=16.0, Ne=20.2; R=0.082 liter atm mole
A. 0.15 atm
B. 0.30 atm
C. 0.40 atm
D. 0.45 atm
9 E. 0.60 atm
2WVW
_1
deg )
1922602 E
15 17696 32 077101130168
What is the partial pressure in torr of the gas B H in a
4
26
mixture of gases containing 7.0 g B H , 4.0 g CH and 7.0 g C H
4
26
4
24
at standard conditions?
3
9 A. 190 B. 380 C. 25.3 D. 570 E. 253
0042
1922603 C
15 17701 52 129107710445
When equal weights of helium gas and methane gas are added to an
empty container at 25 degrees C, the fraction of the pressure
exerted by the helium is:
A. 1/2 total pressure B. 1/5 total pressure
C. 4/5 total pressure D. 1/2 total pressure x 273/298
9 E. 4/5 total pressure x 273/298
0042
1922604 B
15 17705 52 109713060771
A 7.20 g sample of pure Cu(NO ) was placed in an evacuated
4
32
container and heated until it completely decomposed as follows:
2 Cu(NO ) _____> 2 CuO
+O
+ 4 NO
4
32
(s)
2(g)
2(g)
If the total pressure in the container is now 930 torr, what is
the partial pressure of O ?
4
2
A. 35.7 torr B. 186 torr C. 133 torr
0044
9
D. 159 torr E. 310 torr.
1922605 B
15 17711 52 011301680771
A gas mixture contains an equal number of CO molecules and CO
4
2
molecules, and no others. Assuming ideal gas behavior, which of
the following statements is true?
A. The total mass of CO is the same as the CO.
4
2
B. Since CO molecules have more mass, they have more inertia
4
2
and contribute more to the pressure.
C. The average velocity is the same for CO and CO .
4
2
9 D. None of the above.
0044
1922606 C
15 17719 52 011417900168
The total pressure of a mixture of gases is 1420 torr. The
mixture is analyzed and found to contain only 3.47 moles of
H S, 2.22 moles of O , and 4.80 moles of N . What is
42
2
2
the partial pressure of O in torr?
4
2
5
4
4
_2
9 A. .142 x 10 B. .315 x 10 C. 301 D. .332 x 10
E. 639.
0044
1922607 C
15 17725 52 011401811790
Suppose 4.60 grams of CH OH and 5.20 grams of CH O are injected
4
3
2
into a large evacuated container maintained at 25 degrees C.
After all the CH OH and CH O have vaporized, the total pressure
4
3
2
is found to be 329 torr. What is the partial pressure of CH O?
4
2
(MW's: CH OH _ 32.0, CH O _ 30.0 g/mole)
4
3
2
A. 382 torr B. 0.056 torr C. 177 torr
9 D. 283 torr E. 152 torr.
0044
1922608 C
15 17733 52 109711491408
A sample of O was collected over water at 47.2 degrees C when
4
2
the barometric pressure was 783 torr. The volume of the gas as
it was collected was 2.67 liters. What would the volume of dry
O be at STP? (The vapor pressure of H O at 47.2 is 81.8 torr)
42
2
0044
9
A. 3.04 liters B. 2.21 liters C. 2.10 liters
D. 14.2 liters E. 3.22 liters.
1922609 C
15 17739 52 179001610114
A 1.91 liter tank containing O at 320 torr is connected to a
4
2
2.11 liter tank containing O at 199 torr, and the contents
4
2
allowed to mix, at constant temperature. The final pressure in
torr is:
9 A. 488 B. 103 C. 257 D. 520 E. 2.74
0044
1922610 A
15 17744 52 140717900134
A 2.69 liter flask contained He at 711 torr. A 3.60 liter flask
contained ar at 790 torr. The contents of the two flasks were
mixed by opening a stopcock connecting them. What is the mole
fraction of He in the mixture? (assume constant temperature,
ideal gas behavior, and neglect the volume of the connecting
stopcock.)
9 A. .402 B. .526 C. .598 D. .474 E. 1.28
0044
1922611 E
15 17749 52 109713060771
A .800 g sample of pure (NH ) CO was placed in an evacuated
4
42 3
container and heated until it completely decomposed as follows:
(NH ) CO _____> 2 NH
+ CO
+HO
4
42 3
3(g)
2(g)
2 (g)
If the total pressure in the container is now 652 torr, what is
the partial pressure of H O?
4
2
A. 6.33 torr B. 130 torr C. 239 torr
9 D. 5.43 torr E. 163 torr.
1922612 A
15 17755 52 011301680771
A gas mixture contains an equal number of CO molecules and CO
4
2
molecules, and no others. Assuming ideal gas behavior, which of
the following statements is true?
A. The partial pressures of CO and CO are the same.
4
2
B. The total mass of CO is the same as the CO.
4
2
C. If the temperature is increased at constant volume, the
pressure due to CO will rise more rapidly than that of
4
2
co.
D. Since CO molecules have less mass, they have higher
0044
0044
9
velocity, make more frequent impacts, and hence
contribute more pressure.
E. None of the above.
1922613 C
15 17765 52 088407710654
Exactly 380 ml of oxygen are collected over water at 27 degrees C
and 627 torr. Compute the volume of dry oxygen at STP. Vapor
3
___
pressure of water at 27 degrees C is 27 torr.
9 A. 546 Ml B. 286 ml C. 273 ml D. 1090 ml E. 137 ml
0028
1922614 C
15 17769 31 011401680771
The total pressure of a mixture of gases is
A. always constant
B. increased as the temperature is lowered
C. equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the individual
gases
D. inversely propotional to the square of the vapor pressures
9 E. none of the above
0020
1922615 B
15 17773 52 109714070771
A 100 ml sample of nitrogen at 0.5 atm and 50 degrees C is placed
in an evacuated 200 ml flask at 50 degrees C. Helium at
50 degrees C is then added until the total pressure is 750 mm of
Hg. The partial pressure of nitrogen in the mixture is _____ mm Hg.
9 A. 380 B. 190 C. 750_380 D. 750_190 E. 760
0019
1922616 C
15 17778 32 016807710134
In a gas mixture, the partial pressure of gas A is 380 mm Hg,
when the total pressure is equal to 1140 mm Hg. What is the mole
fraction of gas A?
9 A. 3.0 B. 0.30 C. 0.33 D. 3.3 E. 0.432
0019
1922617 D
14 17781 31 129105530114
When equal numbers of moles of two gases at the same temperature
are mixed in a container, the pressure of the gaseous mixture is
A. given by Gay_Lussac's law of combining volumes
B. the product of the pressures each gas would have if alone
C. the difference of the pressures each gas would have if alone
in the container
9 D. the sum of the pressures each would have if alone
0009
1922618 A
15 17787 32 002508840114
If 200 ml of oxygen and 400 ml of nitrogen, measured at STP, are
forced into a 100 milliliter container at 25 degrees C, the total
pressure will be
0035
9
A. 6 atm. B. 3 atm C. 5 atm. D. 2 atm. E. 4 atm.
1922619 D
15 17790 52 016801130771
A mixture of gases contains 4.0 g each of SO , O and CH .
4
2 2
4
5
o
At 27 C the total pressure is 644 mm Hg. The partial pressure
in mm Hg of the CH is
4
4
9 A. 161 B. 184 C. 92 D. 368 E. 215
1922620 A
14 17794 52 1947
A mixture of O (g) and O (g) had a volume of 1 liter at STP. The
4
3
2
O (g) was completely converted to O (g) and the volume expanded to
43
2
1.10 liters at STP. Calculate the % volume of O (g) in the ori_
4
3
ginal mixture.
9 A. 20 B. 15 C. 10 D. 5
1922621 C
15 17799 52 0771
What is the partial pressure of helium when 8.0 grams of He
and 16 grams of oxygen are in a container with a total
pressure of 2.00 atm?
9 A. 1.33 atm B. 0.67 atm C. 1.60 atm D. 1.0 atm E. 1.7 atm
1922622 B
15 17802 52 07710445
What weight of hydrogen gas (in grams) would give a partial pressure
of 0.67 atm when confined in a container with 8.0 g of helium
at 2.0 atm total pressure of both gasses?
9 A. 2.67 B. 2.0 C. 1.0 D. 5.33 E. 1.33
1922623 E
15 17805 52 0771
The total pressure exerted by oxygen and nitrogen in a
container is 4 atm and the partial pressure of the oxygen is
0.5 atm. What is the partial pressure of nitrogen?
9 A. 2.0 atm B. 4.5 atm C. 2.5 atm D. 8 atm E. 3.5 atm
1922624 B
15 17809 52 0771
A 2.0 liter vessel contains nitrogen at 2.2 atm and has a
total internal pressure of 4.4 atm. What is the partial
pressure of the remaining gas?
9 A. 1.1 atm B. 2.2 atm C. 6.6 atm D. 2.0 atm E. 1.2 atm
1922625 E
15 17812
52
0771
0042
0058
When 3.0 liters of argon at 2.0 atm is mixed with 2.0 liters
of xenon at 1 atm and the final volume is 5.0 liters, what
are the partial pressures of the gasses?
A. 0.4 atm Xe 3.3 atm Ar D. 3.3 atm Ar 2.5 atm Xe
B. 1.2 atm Xe 0.4 atm Ar E. 1.2 atm Ar 0.4 atm Xe
9 C. 1.2 atm Ar 2.5 atm Xe
1922626 D
15 17816 52 0771
A 4.0 liter container of N at 2.5 atm and a 3.0 liter
4
2
container of Ne at 4.0 atm are allowed to mix at constant
temperature without any change in total volume. What are
the respective partial pressures?
A. 2.5 atm N , 4.0 atm Ne B. 4.4 atm N , 9.3 atm Ne
4
2
2
C. 3.3 atm N , 3.0 atm Ne D. 1.4 atm N , 1.7 atm Ne
4
2
2
E. 0.83 atm N , 1.3 atm Ne
94
2
1922627 B
15 17823 52 0771
A 2.0 liter vessel contains a 1.0 liter bulb of N at 1.0
4
2
atm and the rest of the space is occupied by Cl gas also at
4
2
1.0 atm. If the bulb breaks, what is the resulting partial
pressure of the N in the vessel?
4
2
9 A. 1.0 atm B. 0.5 atm C. 2.0 atm D. 0.7 atm E. 1.5 atm
1922628 E
15 17829 52 0771
The original pressures of helium and methane are each 760
torr when in separate 2 liter compartments of a box. When
the partition is removed, what is the partial pressure of
the methane in the box?
A. 760 torr
C. 1520 torr
E. 380 torr
9 B. 1140 torr
D. 330 torr
1922701 C
14 17833 31 119707061410
The value of the ideal_gas constant R in joules per mole_degree
is:
9 A. 101 B. 19.2 C. 8.31 D. 4.18
0043
1922702 D
15 17835 52 019507061790
What is the volume occupied by .277 mole of an ideal gas at
0044
5
o
764 torr and 14.1 C?
A. 0.154 liters B. 0.319 liters C. 3.13 liters
9 D. 6.49 liters E. 0.00854 liters.
1922703 C
15 17838 52 011401130161
The pressure of a gas in a 25.0 liter tank is 709 torr. If the
gas is transferred to a 43.9 liter container at the same
temperature, what is the final pressure of the gas (in torr)?
A. 709 torr B. 0.00495 torr C. 404 torr
9 D. 0.531 torr E. more information is required.
0044
1922704 A
15 17842 52 011407060128
5
o
What is the pressure on 2.85 grams of an ideal gas at 10.8 C
occupying 7.71 liters? (The molecular weight of the hypothetical
gas is 20.1 grams per mole.)
A. 326 torr B. 2.33 torr C. 0.0162 torr D. 0.429 torr
9 E. 61.6 torr.
0044
1922705 C
15 17846 72 018601130287
Determine the density (g/liter) of a gas, given the following data:
5
_1
o
MW = 53.2 grams mole ; pressure = 782 torr; temperature = 42.5 C
A. 15.7
B. .473
C. 2.11
D. 1610
9 E. more information is required
1922706 A
15 17851 52 139201611097
Absolute zero is defined as the temperature at which:
A. a straight line graph of P vs. T for a confined sample of
an ideal gas intersects the T axis.
B. The density of a liquid equals that of its vapor.
C. Mercury freezes solid.
D. A straight line graph of V vs. 1/P intersects the 1/P axis.
9 E. None of the above.
0044
1922707 A
15 17856 52 011401130161
The pressure of a gas in a 25.0 liter tank is 720 torr. If the
gas is transferred to a 47.4 liter container at the same
temperature, what is the final pressure of the gas (in torr)?
5
2
_3
_1
A. 3.80 x 10 B. 2.63 x 10
C. 5.00 x 10
5
2
9 D. 7.20 x 10 E. more information is required.
0044
0044
1922708 B
15 17861 52 011301610195
A 46.4 liter vessel containing hydrogen gas at a fixed
temperature and pressure and a 23.2 liter vessel containing
oxygen gas at the same temperature and pressure are mixed in a
reaction chamber and sparked. After the temperature and pressure
of the resulting gas(es) are returned to the initial temperature
and pressure, what is the total volume (in liters) of the
gas(es)? (assume all the water is present as water vapor.)
A. 23.2 B. 46.4 C. 92.8 D. 2.07
9 E. more information is required.
0044
1922709 D
15 17868 52 016107061790
At what temperature will 0.171 mole of an ideal gas at 501 torr
occupy 6.78 liters?
5
2
_2
A. 3.19 x 10 degrees C B. 2.16 x 10 degrees C
5
_3
1
C. 1.36 x 10 degrees C D. 4.63 x 10 degrees C
5
5
9 E. 2.42 x 10 degrees C.
0044
1922710 C
15 17873 52 070606470114
A fixed amount of an ideal gas undergoes the following changes:
Initial conditions
Final conditions
P = 782 torr
P = ? torr
41
2
T = 40.5 degrees C
T = 6.8 degrees C
41
2
V = 47.2 liters
V = 17.3 liters
41
2
what is the value of P ?
4
2
47.2 (40.5 + 273)
47.2 6.80
A. 782 x ____ x ____________ B. 782 x ____ x ____
17.3 (6.80 + 273)
17.3 40.5
0044
47.2 (6.80 + 273)
17.3 (40.5 + 273)
C. 782 x ____ x ____________ D. 782 x ____ x ____________
17.3 (40.5 + 273)
47.2 (6.80 + 273)
17.3 (6.80 + 273)
E. 782 x ____ x ____________.
47.2 (40.5 + 273)
9
1922711 B
15 17885
52
019507061790
0044
What is the volume occupied by 15.6 grams of an ideal gas at
701 torr and 31.8 degrees C? The molecular weight of the
hypothetical gas is 62.1 grams per mole.
5
_3
A. 8.97 X 10 liters B. 6.82 liters C. 0.712 liters
9 D. 1.41 liters E. 0.147 liters.
1922712 D
15 17889 52 132202930706
Using modern vacuum techniques, a 3.02 liter flask was evacuated
5
_9
to 2.27 x 10 torr at 15.4 degrees C. How many molecules of an
ideal gas would be present under these conditions?
5
_9
17
32
A. 5.44 x 10
B. 8.94 x 10
C. 1.11 x 10
5
11
12
9 D. 2.29 x 10
E. 4.31 x 10 .
0044
1922713 A
15 17894 52 018601130287
Determine the density of a gas given the following data:
molecular weight = 65.9 grams per mole; pressure = 821 torr;
temperature = 45.8 degrees C.
5
3
A. 2.72 g/liter B. 19.0 g/liter C. 2.07 x 10 g/liter
5
_1
9 D. 3.67 x 10 g/liter E. more information is required.
0044
1922714 A
15 17899 52 018601131790
The density of a gas is 3.31 grams per liter at 36.6 degrees C
and 792 torr. What is the density of the gas at STP?
A. 3.61 g/l B. 0.425 g/l C. 0.462 g/l
9 D. 23.7 g/l E. 3.31 g/l.
0044
1922715 C
15 17902 52 139201611097
Absolute zero is defined as the temperature at which:
A. a straight line graph of V vs. 1/P intersects the 1/P axis.
B. All gases must liquify.
C. A straight line graph of P vs. T for a confined sample of
an ideal gas intersects the T axis.
D. A straight line graph of P vs. 1/V intersects the 1/V axis.
9 E. None of the above.
0044
1922716 E
15 17907 52 070602650706
Which one of the following statements is a required postulate for
the theoretical derivation of the ideal gas law?
A. When a molecule penetrates the wall and sticks there, all
its kinetic energy gets transferred to the wall.
0044
9
B. The mass of the molecules is so small that it can be
neglected.
C. Molecules are spherical in shape and incompressible.
D. Because of Van Der Waal's forces all molecules are attracted
to each other, especially at short distances.
E. The average kinetic energy of the molecules is proportional
to the absolute temperature.
1922717 B
15 17915 32 0706
0288
Calculate the mass in grams of 5.60 liters of O gas at STP.
4
2
9 A. 16.0 G B. 8.00 g C. 4.00 g D. 56.0 g E. 32.0 g
0028
1922718 B
15 17918 31 051701950161
The law that relates the volume of a gas to the temperature at
constant pressure is
A. Boyle's law
B. Charles's law
C. Gay_Lussac's law
D. Dalton's law
9 E. Avogadro's law
0020
1922719 D
15 17921 52 019505420161
The initial volume of a balloon is 6.00 liters at a temperature
5
o
of 270 C and 760 torr. What is its volume in liters if the
5
o
temperature is increased to 400 C with no change in pressure?
9 A. 3.81 B. 4.05 C. 4.87 D. 7.44 E. 8.89
0020
1922720 A
15 17925
Charles' Law states
A. V /T = V /T
4
1 1
2 2
B. V T = V T
4
11
22
C. P V = P V
4
11
22
D. V T = a constant
4
11
9 E. none of these
51
0517
1922721 D
15 17928 31 114501131146
Avogadro's law states
A. all gases contain the same number of molecules
B. equal volumes of gases at the same pressure have the same
0020
0020
9
temperature
C. equal volumes of gases at the same pressure contain equal
numbers of molecules
D. equal volumes of gases at the same temperature and pressure
contain equal numbers of molecules
E. none of these
1922722 C
15 17934 52 011308840351
A 2_liter cylinder of oxygen gas at STP contains
A. more molecules than a 2_liter cylinder of hydrogen at STP
B. fewer molecules than a 2_liter cylinder of carbon dioxide
at STP
C. the same number of atoms as a 2_liter cylinder of argon at
STP
D. all of the above
9 E. none of the above
0020
1922723 A
15 17939 51 011305360114
Gases approach ideal behavior when
A. the pressure is low and the temperature is high
B. the temperature is low and the pressure is high
C. when both the temperature and the pressure are low
C. when both the temperature and the pressure are high
9 E. none of these
1922724 E
15 17943 31 080201130114
Boyle's law states
A. gases are in constant random motion
B. the pressure of a gas is proportional to the temperature if
the volume remains constant
C. the volume of a gas is directly proportional to the
pressure if the temperature remains constant
D. all of the above
9 E. none of the above
0020
1922725 C
15 17948
Boyle's law says
A. P/V=k
B. V/P=k
C. V=k/P
D. V=kP
9 E. none of these
31
0802
1922726 D
14 44962 31 019505531504
The volume of a mole of gas is
A. 22.4 L, regardless of T and P.
B. directly proportional to pressure and absolute temperature
0020
0020
0009
9
C. directly proportional to pressure, inversely proportional to
absolute temperature
D. inversely proportional to pressure, directly proportional to
absolute temperature
E. inversely proportional to pressure, inversely proportional to
absolute temperature
1922727 E
15 17955 31 016101130195
If the temperature of a gas sample is decreased but the volume is
held constant
A. the density of the gas decreases
B. the average kinetic energy increases
C. the average velocity of the molecules increases
D. the number of collisions of the molecules with the walls
increases
9 E. none of the above is correct
0019
1922728 B
13 17960 32 034001141406
A welder has a cylinder of helium. The cylinder has a volume of
32 liters and the gas is under a pressure of 110 atm at
27 degrees C. The cylinder will burst if the pressure reaches
200 atm. Which of the following is false?
A. The pressure of the gas is 8360 cm of mercury
B. The welder can safely heat the cylinder to 327 degrees C
C. The helium could fill a 3500 liter balloon at 27 degrees C
9
and 1 atm of pressure
0019
1922729 C
15 17966 52 131912010113
Which expression is best suited for the calculation of the
temperature when the pressure, volume, and amount of gas are
known?
A. T = PV/nRT
B. PV/T = constant
C. PV/nR = T
D. V is proportional to T
9 E. none of the above
0019
1922730 E
15 17970 31 119714101174
The value of the molar gas constant R
A. is 0.08203 under all circumstances
B. is dependent on the units used for the pressure and the
volume but not dependent on the units used for moles and
temperature
C. changes as the temperature changes
D. is dependent upon the particular gas being studied
9 E. none of the above is correct
0019
1922731 D
15 17975 32 129901131201
When the universal gas constant, R, has the value 0.082, it is
expressed in units of
A. proportional quantities
0019
5
liters K
B. ___________
4
atm mole
5
liters mole
C. ___________
4
atm K
5
liters atm
D. __________
4
K mole
9
E. R is a dimensionless quantity
1922732 C
15 17980 31 143307061434
The factor PV/nRT for an ideal gas will show
A. a negative deviation from unity at low pressures
B. a positive deviation from unity at high pressures
C. no deviation at any pressure
D. a positive deviation from unity at low pressures
9 E. a negative deviation from unity at high pressures
0019
1922733 D
15 17984 31 019507061388
That the volume of a given mass of an ideal gas is directly
proportional to the absolute temperature is
A. an inaccurate expression.
B. true if the centigrade scale of temperature is used.
C. true if the volume is held constant.
D. true if the pressure is held constant.
9 E. true without qualification.
0035
1922734 B
14 17989 32 06540706
When an ideal gas undergoes unrestrained expansion, no cooling
occurs, because the molecules:
A. are below the inversion temperature
B. exert no attractive forces on each other
C. do work equal to the loss in kinetic energy
9 D. collide without loss of energy
0003
1922735 C
0003
14 17993
31
07060161
The absolute temperature of an ideal gas:
A. is proportional to the average potential energy of the
molecules
B. is proportional to the average speed of the molecules
C. is proportional to the average kinetic energy of the
molecules
9 D. is inversely proportional to the partial pressure
1922736 D
14 17998 32 0161
One way to increase the average speed of the molecules of an
ideal gas is to:
A. decrease the temperature
B. expand the gas against a piston
C. expand the gas into a vacuum
9 D. add heat, holding v and p constant
0003
1922737 D
14 18001 31 01611429
The critical temperature is:
A. the temperature below which a gas undergoes cooling when
expanded into a vacuum
B. the temperature at which a gas liquefies at 1 atm pressure
C. the temperature at which the average kinetic energy of the
molecules is a maximum
D. the temperature above which it is impossible to liquefy a
9
gas
0003
1922738 B
14 18006 31 01610706
The behavior of a real gas approaches that of an ideal gas when:
A. the temperature is low B. the temperature is high
9 C. the pressure is high D. the volume is low
0003
1922739 A
14 18009 31 011301950114
When a gas is forced into a smaller volume without a change in
temperature, its pressure increases because its molecules
A. strike each square centimeter of the container walls more
often
B. strike each square centimeter of the container walls at
higher speeds
C. strike each square centimeter of the container walls with
greater force
9 D. have more energy
1922740 B
15 18015 52 1966
5
_2
Stated with appropriate units, the number 4.46 x 10 is
A. the gas constant, R.
0041
GRHL
9
B. the number of liters per mole of an ideal gas at STP.
C. the number of moles per liter of an ideal gas at STP.
D. degrees Fahrenheit at STP
E. none of the above.
1922741 E
15 45329 51
Absolute zero is the temperature at which:
A. gaseous helium liquefies.
B. a straight_line graph of P versus 1/V intersects the 1/V axis.
C. a straight_line graph of V versus 1/P intersects the 1/P axis.
D. a graph of P versus V at constant T intersects the V axis.
9 E. a straight_line graph of P versus T intersects the T axis.
1922742 C
15 45334 71
The pressure of 4.0 L of nitrogen in a flexible container is
decreased to one_third of its original pressure, and its absolute
temperature is decreased by one_half. The volume is now:
9 A. 1.0 L B. 4.0 L C. 6.0 L D. 8.0 L E. 24 L
1922801 C
15 18020 32 02930025800113
The weight of a molecule of oxygen is 16 times as much as the weight
of a molecule of hydrogen. One balloon is to be inflated with 2
liters of oxygen and another balloon of the same size with 2 liters
of hydrogen measured under standard conditions. If both are kept
at the same temperature, the pressure in the first balloon necessary
to attain the same volume as the second balloon is
A. sixteen times as great as in the second
B. one_sixteenth that in the second
C. equal to that in the second
D. four times as great as in the second
9 E. one_fourth as great as in the second
ETS2 OS
1922802 A
15 18028 51 04990114800112
On the basis of the kinetic theory, gas pressure is explained by the
A. change in momentum when the molecules collide with the walls
of the container
B. change in kinetic energy with changes in the temperature of the
gas
C. assumption that the molecules exert little or no attractive
force on one another
D. assumption that the molecules collide without loss in
kinetic energy
E. assumption that the distances between molecules are large
9
compared to their diameters
ETS2 OS
1922803 E
ETS2 OS
15 18035
51
02930196800112
If the molecules in a tank of hydrogen have the same average speed
as the heavier molecules in a tank of oxygen, we may be sure that
A. the pressure is the same in the two cases
B. the hydrogen is at the higher temperature
C. the hydrogen exerts the greater pressure
D. the temperature is the same in the two cases
9 E. the oxygen is at the higher temperature
1922804 A
15 18040 32 01610293800112
From the generalization that "all gases at the same temperature
have the same average molecular kinetic energy," it is possible to
deduce that at the same temperature
A. heavy molecules should move more slowly than light
molecules
B. light molecules should move more slowly than heavy molecules
C. light molecules move at the same speed as heavy molecules
D. the relative speeds of light and heavy molecules have no
relation to the molecular kinetic energies
9 E. more than one of the above could be considered correct
1922805 B
15 18048 72 01090511800113
When the temperature of the air is increased from 20 degrees C
to 30 degrees C., the approximate increase in the average
kinetic energy of the molecules according to the kinetic molecular
theory would be
A. 0.34 percent
B. 3.4 percent
C. 10 percent
D. 50 percent
9 E. none of these
ETS2 OS
ETS2 OS
1922806 E
15 18052 52 01610398800113
Two gases, X and Y, at the same temperature are in containers
of different sizes. The mass of an X molecule is greater than
that of a Y molecule. It follows, therefore, that
A. Y molecules have a higher average speed than X molecules
B. the average kinetic energy of X molecules is greater than that
of Y molecules
C. the pressure exerted by the gas in the smaller container is
greater than the pressure of the other gas
D. the molecules are closer together in the smaller container
E. the information given does not warrant any of the above
9
statements
ETS2 OS
1922807 A
14 18060 52 05430168800113
An unglazed pottery jug has walls that are porous. If such a jug
were corked and placed in a room containing equal parts of several
ETS2 OS
gases, after a reasonable time the jug would contain a mixture of
the gases. The gas that would represent the greatest component of
the mixture would be the one with the
A. lowest density
B. lowest temperature
C. highest specific heat
D. highest molecular weight
9 E. highest valence
1922808 B
14 18066 52 01610544800113
To raise the temperature of 1 gm. of gas 1 degree C. would require
A. more heat if the gas were not allowed to expand on heating
B. more heat if the gas were allowed to expand on heating
C. the same amount of heat regardless of the above conditions
of confinement
D. the answer depends upon the kind of gas employed and thus
9
cannot be answered with the above data
ETS2 OS
1922809 E
15 18072 32 01610114800114
If the temperature of a confined gas were kept constant, then
A. the volume would increase as the pressure increased
B. the pressure would decrease as the volume increased
C. the volume and the pressure would be directly proportional
D. the volume would decrease as the pressure increased
9 E. more than one of the above are correct
ETS2 OS
1922810 B
14 18077 31 011304048003
At the same temperature and pressure, the gas which has the
highest density is
3_______
A. carbon monoxide
B. chlorine
C. sulfur dioxide
9 D. hyrogen sulfide
1922811 CA
25 18080 52 0541054201091390
MACROITEM STEM
2A meteorologic balloon, inflated with helium when the air
2temperature is 20 degrees C. and the barometric pressure is 1000
5
3
millibars, has a volume of 10 m .
0 Using this information, answer the following questions.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
5
o
If the air temperature should decrease to 0 C, (pressure
5
3
2WVW
ETS2 OS
remaining constant) the volume of the balloon (in m ) would be
A. 1/0.7 B. 10.0 C. 9.30 D. 0.00
E. Some value appreciably different than any of the preceding
1
choices
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
If the balloon should be allowed to rise until it reached a height
5
o
of 3,048 m, where the air temperature is 0 C and the barometric
5
3
pressure is 700 millibars, the volume of the balloon (in m )
would be
9 A. 13.3 B. 14.6 C. 15.0 D. 6.5 E. 7.0
1922812 CAD
35 18093 51 0527052801131290
MACROITEM STEM
Van Der Waals' equation states (for one mole of gas)
5
2
[P + (a/V )]x(V_b) = RT
0 Using this information, answer the following questions.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
ETS2 OS
5
2
The term (a/V ) represents
A. the volume occupied by the gas molecules
B. the mean velocity of the gas molecules
C. the attractive force between molecules
D. the universal gas constant
1 E. none of these
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
The constant "b" represents
A. the volume occupied by the gas molecules
B. the mean velocity of the gas molecules
C. the attractive force between molecules
D. the universal gas constant
2 E. none of these
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
The constant "R" represents
A. the volume occupied by the gas molecules
B. the mean velocity of the gas molecules
C. the attractive force between molecules
D. the universal gas constant
9 E. none of these
1922813 B
15 18104 31 01130265800112
From the generalization that, "The pressure of a gas approaches
zero as its temperature approaches _273 degrees C," it is
ETS2WVW
possible to deduce that
A. at a temperature of _273 degrees C. all gases would become
solids.
B. at a temperature of _273 degrees C. the gas molecules would
lose their kinetic energies completely.
C. at a temperature of _273 degrees C. the gas would have
absolutely no weight.
D. at a temperature of _273 degrees C. the gas would have
absolutely no volume.
9 E. More than one of the above could be correct.
1922814 B
14 18112 31 019602618003
If a container is filled with hydrogen and another container of
the same size is filled with carbon dioxide, both containers
will, at the same temperature and pressure, contain the same
A. number of atoms
B. number of molecules
C. weight of gas
9 D. number of neutrons
2WVW
1922815 B
14 18116 52 044500258003
The weight of two liters of oxygen gas at standard temperature
and pressure is about
A. 1.43 grams
B. 2.86 grams
C. 16.0 grams
9 D. 32.0 grams
2WVW
1922816 C
14 18119 52 018605698003
The density of krypton gas (atomic weight = 83.8) in grams per
liter is
A. 1.28
B. 1.88
C. 3.7
9 D. 7.5
2WVW
1922817 D
14 18121 32 044502188003
The weight in grams of 22.4 liters of nitrogen (atomic weight =
14) is
A. 3
B. 7
C. 14
9 D. 28
2WVW
1922818 C
5
15 18123
72
0161010980011390
o
ETS2 OS
o
When the temperature of the air is increased from 20 C to 30 C,
the approximate increase in the average kinetic energy of the
molecules will increase by the approximate factor
9 A. 1.0003 B. 1.003 C. 1.03 D. 1.50 E. 1.10
1922819 C
14 18134 72 1885
The mean free path of the molecules in a gas at 1 atm pressure and
5 o
25 C is
A. directly proportional to the square of their diameters.
B. the same as at 10 atm pressure.
C. inversely proportional to their collision frequencies.
9 D. independent of their diameters.
1922820 C
14 18138 52
According to the Kinetic Molecular Theory, the average kinetic
energy of gaseous molecules
A. depends on the kind of molecules and the temperature.
B. depends on the kind of molecules and is independent of the
temperature.
C. depends on the temperature and is independent of the kind
of molecules.
D. is proportional to the first power of the average velocity
9
of the molecules.
1922821 B
14 18144 31 011301148002
Real gases will approach the behavior of an ideal gas at
A. low temperatures and high pressures
B. high temperatures and low pressures
C. low temperatures and low pressures
9 D. high temperatues and high pressures
2 OS
1922822 C
15 18147 52 051107068003
5
_1
_1
Given, R=1.98 cal mole deg , calculate the average
kinetic energy in two moles of an ideal gas at 300 deg K.
A. 594 cal
B. 1190 cal
C. 1780 cal
D. 2500 cal
9 E. 3560 cal
2WVW
1922823 A
15 18150 72 19741975
How does the average speed of the molecules of a given gas at
constant temperature compare with their most probable speed? The
average speed
9
A. is greater. B. is less. C. is the same.
D. may be greater, equal, or less, depending on the temperature.
E. is constant
1922824 D
15 18154 52 025804911314
What is the relative rate of diffusion of O as compared to CH ?
4
2
4
5
1/2
1/2
9 A. 2/1 B. 1/2 C. 2 /1 D. 1/2
E. the same.
0042
1922825 A
15 18157 52 070816480113
According to Graham's law of gas effusion, helium gas will effuse
x times as fast as SO . What is the value of x?
4
2
9 A. 4.00 B. 16.0 C. 0.250 D. 256 E. 0.0624
0044
1922826 B
15 18160 52 1648
0161
If 90.0 liters of H effuse through a porous partition in 30.0
4
2
min., what volume of C F will effuse through the same partition
4
24
at the same temperature and pressure in 20.0 min?
(MW's: H = 2.02, C F = 100)
4
2
24
9 A. 1.21 B. 8.53 C. 422 D. 2970 E. 46.9
0044
1922827 D
15 18165 52 011301281648
Given: Gas
MW (grams/mole)
CH
26.0
4
22
H
2.02
4
2
What is the rate of effusion of C H compared to H ?
4
22
2
9 A. 3.59 B. 0.0777 C. 12.9 D. 0.279 E. 0.928
0044
1922828 C
15 18169 52 070816480113
According to Graham's law of gas effusion, helium gas will effuse
x times as fast as C H . What is the value of x?
4
24
9 A. .143 B. .378 C. 2.65 D. 112 E. 7.00
0044
1922829 E
Given: Gas
O
4
2
0044
15 18172 52 011301281648
MW(grams/mole)
32.0
Ne
20.2
What is the rate of effusion of O compared to Ne?
4
2
9 A. 1.26 B. .613 C. 1.58 D. .631 E. .795
1922830 C
15 18176 52 1648
0161
If 42.0 liters of Ar effuse through a porous partition in 21.0
min., what volume of HCl will effuse through the same partition
at the same temperature and pressure in 10.0 min?
(MW: Ar _ 39.9, HCl _ 36.5)
9 A. 19.1 B. 21.9 C. 20.9 D. 18.3 E. 4.78
0044
1922831 A
15 18180 72 164801131458
Two hypothetical gases effuse into a glass tube 120 cm long.
Gas A (MW=9.00) enters at the end marked 0 cm; gas B (MW=25.0)
enters the end marked 120. The point at which the gases meet is
marked by a white deposit. How far from the end marked 0 cm is
the deposit located?
9 A. 75.0 cm B. 31.8 cm C. 45.0 cm D. 3.53 cm E. 88.2 cm.
0044
1922832 C
15 18185 52 042902931791
5
o
The root mean square velocity of SO molecules at 25 C is 736
4
2
miles per hour. What is the rms velocity in miles per hour of
5
o
HBr molecules at 25 C?
5
___
7
(hint: v
= /3RT R = 8.314 x 10 erg/(deg mole)).
rms V
3
_____
m
9 A. 2920 mph B. 827 mph C. 655 mph D. 583 mph E. 736 mph
0044
1922833 C
15 18192 52 019501140161
Two rigid vessels of equal volume are at the same temperature and
pressure. One contains H (gas) and the other contains He(gas).
4
2
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. A rise in temperature will decrease the density in both
cases to the same extent, but the increased molecular
velocity will compensate and lead to the pressure
remaining constant.
B. The two vessels contain the same mass of gas.
C. The helium vessel is reduced to half its volume by
pushing in the walls. As a result, the helium pressure
0044
9
is doubled and the helium makes more impacts per unit
wall area than the hydrogen.
D. If both vessels are cooled, the helium, because it is
denser, will condense at a higher temperature.
E. The average momentum transferred per molecule per impact is
the same for both gases.
1922834 C
15 18204 52 049102580113
5
235
The relative rates of diffusion of the two gases
UF and
4
6
5238
UF are
4
6
A. 352/349
B. square root of 349/square root of 352
C. square root of 352/square root of 349
D. 1.43
9 E. 1.86
0020
1922835 B
15 18209 51 138513950293
A person is able to smell perfume because perfume molecules
A. are small
B. are in constant random motion
C. do not collide with other molecules
D. travel faster than other molecules
9 E. none of these
0020
1922836 E
15 18212 51 138602930429
The kinetic_molecular theory says
A. gas molecules are widely separated from one another
B. the velocity of gas molecules increases with increasing
temperature
C. gas molecules move at different speeds
D. gases contain molecules or atoms
9 E. all of these
0020
1922837 C
15 18216 51 029304941387
Molecular collisions are
A. rare
5
2
B. equal to (1/2)mv
C. perfectly elastic
D. more frequent at lower pressures
9 E. all of these
0020
1922838 B
15 18219 52 051113880429
Kinetic energy is
A. the same as heat energy
B. proportional to the square of the average velocity
C. inversely proportional to the temperature
D. constant at all temperatures
9 E. none of these
0020
1922839 B
15 18222 51 042902930161
The average velocity of molecules
A. is proportional to kinetic energy
B. increases with an increase in temperature
C. is the same for H and O at the same temperature
4
2
2
D. all of these
9 E. none of these
0020
1922840 A
15 18226 52 042902930161
The velocity of a hydrogen molecule at 25 degrees C is
A. approximately 4 times the velocity of oxygen molecules at
the same temperature
B. equals the velocity of oxygen molecules at the same
temperature
C. the same at all temperatures
5
_2
D. is approximately 4.6 x 10 m/s
9 E. decreases at higher temperatures
0020
1922841 C
14 18231 51 139201610299
At the absolute zero of temperature
A. molecular motion ceases
B. the kinetic energy of molecules is zero
5
o
C. the temperature is _273.15 C
9 D. all the above
0020
1922842 B
13 18234 52 011301611395
Your lecturer opens a bottle of hydrogen sulfide gas, H S, and a
4
2
bottle of gaseous diethyl ether, C H O, at the same time. Both
4
4 10
gases are at the same temperature and pressure. Which of the two
should you be able to smell first? (Both have characteristic
odors.)
A. the ether B. H S C. both at the same time
4
2
0009
9
D. neither gas would escape into the room
1922843 D
15 18241 31 138601610113
According to the kinetic molecular theory, the absolute
temperature of any gas is proportional to:
A. the mass of the molecules only
B. the potential energy of the molecules
C. the randomness of the molecules
D. the kinetic energy of the molecules
9 E. none of the above is correct
1922844 C
15 18245 31 011301610494
When a definite amount of gas is enclosed in a vessel at constant
temperature, the pressure exerted by it remains constant for any
length of time. This fact leads to the postulate of the kinetic
molecular theory that:
A. the molecules of the gas are constantly colliding with one
another and with the wall of the container
B. the collisions between molecules and the wall of the
container are inelastic
C. the collisions between molecules and the wall of the
container are elastic
D. the molecules of the gas move in straight lines
9 E. none of the above is correct
0019
0019
1922845 A
15 18253 51 140505940588
It is observed experimentally that gases are almost infinitely
expansible. From this one can reasonably postulate that
A. matter is discontinuous, i.e. composed of discrete particles
B. molecules are too small to be seen
C. molecules have energy which increases with temperature
D. molecular collisions are inelastic
E. matter is continuous, i.e. Composed of units which are
9
linked together in chains or sheets
0019
1922846 C
15 18259 52 016101130500
If the temperature of a certain gas sample is increased from
273 degrees K to 819 degrees K, the average momentum of the
molecules is expected to
A. double
B. triple
C. increase by a factor of square root of 3
D. increase by a factor of 546
9 E. remain unchanged
0019
1922847 C
15 18263 52 012812910429
The molecular masses of X and Y are equal. The average velocity
0019
of X at 200 degrees K is _____ that of Y at 400 degrees K.
A. One half
B. square root of 2 times faster than
C. 1/square root of 2 times
D. twice
9 E. the same as
1922848 D
15 18267 52 011301280429
Two gases A and B are compared at 0 degrees C. The molecular
mass of A is 25 times that of B. The average velocity of A is
________ that of the average velocity of B.
9 A. 25 times B. 1/25 C. 5 times D. 1/5 E. none is correct
0019
1922849 D
15 18271 52 011314110398
Two gases, X and Y, are examined at 20 degrees C. It is found
that the velocity of X is three times that of Y. It may be
concluded that the mass of X is ________ times that of Y.
A. Square root of 3
B. 1/square root of 3
C. 9
D. 1/9
9 E. none correct
0019
1922850 E
15 18275 32 14130511
The average kinetic energy of H at 10 degrees C is ________
4
2
the average kinetic energy of 0 at 50 degrees C.
4
2
A. higher than
B. the same as
C. 32/2 smaller than
D. 50/10 larger than
9 E. 283/323 smaller than
0019
1922851 B
15 18279 52 141613860423
According to the kinetic molecular theory, the heat of
vaporization goes primarily to
A. speed up molecular motion
B. increase the potential energy of the molecules
C. move the molecules closer together
D. melt the substance
9 E. both A and B.
0040
1922852 B
15 18283 31 070701130511
Which of the following is not a basic part of the kinetic theory
3
______
0040
of gases?
A. Gas particles are in constant motion.
B. Large gas particles have more average kinetic energy than
small ones at the same temperature.
C. The collisions of gas particles with the container walls
result in NO loss of energy.
D. Frequent collisions occur between the particles making up
the gas.
9 E. Both C and D.
1922853 D
15 18290 31 049901130438
Which of the following statements is correct for both gases and
liquids according to the kinetic theory of matter?
A. Constituent particles are in constant motion.
B. Constituent particles move in straight lines between
collisions.
C. The speed of the constituent particles increases with
temperature.
D. More than one response is correct.
9 E. Energy is gained when molecules collide.
0040
1922854 A
15 18296 31 049901130438
According to kinetic theory, a difference between liquids and
gases is
A. distance between molecules
B. average kinetic energy at a given temperature
C. the molecules of one are in constant motion
9 D. both A and B E. both B and C.
0040
1922855 B
15 18300 31 138611470442
According to the kinetic molecular theory, in most solids
A. there is no motion of the molecules
B. there is generally some vibrational movement of the
molecules
C. the molecules generally revolve around each other and the
lattice points
D. the molecules are packed together in a rather haphazard
fashion
9 E. both B and C.
0040
1922856 D
15 18305 31 051104420113
The kinetic energy of the following gas molecules is the same.
Which one is moving the fastest?
A. CO B. O C. NH D. H
4
2
2
3
2
9 E. all move the same speed.
0040
1922857 A
15 18308 31 049905110161
If the temperature of object A is higher than that of object B it
is true that
A. the average kinetic energy of the molecules in object A is
greater than that of the molecules in object B
B. the average kinetic energy of the molecules in object A is
less than that of the molecules in object B
C. the average kinetic energy of the molecules in objects A and
B is the same
D. it is impossible to predict which set of molecules has the
greatest kinetic energy
9 E. no correct response is given.
0040
1922858 D
15 18316 31 138604420317
Which of the following is not a postulate of the kinetic
3
______
molecular theory?
A. Matter is composed of molecules in constant motion.
B. As the temperature is increased, the molecules move faster.
C. All molecules exert an attractive force on one another.
D. The molecules of a gas or vapor are quite close together.
9 E. Both A and B.
0040
1922859 B
15 18321 31 049901130494
Which of the following statements concerning gases is not
3
______
consistent with the kinetic theory?
A. The molecules are in constant motion.
B. The molecules collide infrequently because of great
distances between them.
C. Any molecular collisions are perfectly elastic.
D. The speed of the molecules increases with increasing
temperature.
9 E. Both A and D.
0040
1922860 E
15 18327 31 049904420494
In a sample of liquid at constant temperature, the kinetic theory
3
____________________
tells us that
A. all molecules are moving with the same speed
B. the molecules are separated by relatively long distances
C. the average speed and energy of the molecules is independent
of the temperature
D. the molecules are arranged orderly
E. constituent particles move in straight lines between
0040
9
collisions.
1922861 C
15 18333 51 016105110293
The temperature in a medium refers to
A. the quantity of molecules present.
B. the total potential energy of the molecules.
C. the average kinetic energy of the molecules.
D. the total caloric content of the individual molecules.
9 E. the average potential energy of the molecules.
0035
1922862 D
15 18337 31 029301130161
When the molecules of a confined gas are made to move faster,
A. the volume of the gas decreases.
B. the temperature of the gas decreases.
C. the temperature of the gas remains constant.
D. the temperature of the gas increases.
9 E. the gas condenses to a liquid.
0035
1922863 C
15 18341 31 031701130500
The force exerted on the walls of a vessel by a contained gas is
caused by
A. the repulsive forces between the molecules.
B. slight loss in average speed suffered by the molecules at
the walls.
C. changes in the momentum which the molecules experience at
the walls.
D. attraction between the walls and the gas.
9 E. elastic collisions between molecules of the gas.
0035
1922864 A
15 44968 51 051102930398
In computing the kinetic energy of a gas molecule, it is
necessary to consider both the velocity of the molecule as well
as
A. its mass.
B. the number of atoms in the gas molecule.
C. the kinds of atoms in the gas molecule.
D. its physical properties.
9 E. the types of chemical bonds in the molecule
0035
1922865 D
15 18351 31 027601680511
According to theory, in a given mixture of oxygen and nitrogen,
of uniform temperature throughout
A. all the molecules are moving at the same speed.
B. all the molecules possess the same kinetic energy
C. the average speed of the nitrogen molecules is the same as
the average speed of the oxygen molecules.
0035
9
D. the average kinetic energy of all the molecules in this
mixture is the same as that of any other gas at the same
temperatures.
E. the average kinetic energy of all the molecules in this
mixture is the same as that of any other gas at the same
pressure.
1922866 C
15 18360 31 144501131388
Which one of these is not a characteristic of a gas molecule in
motion?
A. Very high velocities.
B. A vast number of collisions per second.
C. A speed directly proportional to the mass of the molecule.
D. motion in straight lines between collisions.
9 E. Erratic motion as exemplified in the brownian movement.
0035
1922867 E
15 18365 32 042902930128
The mean velocity of an oxygen molecule at 0 degrees C is 460
meters/sec. If the molecular weight of helium is 4, then the
mean speed of a helium atom (molecule) at 0 degrees C is
A. 230 m/sec. B. 326 m/sec. C. 650 m/sec.
9 D. 920 m/sec. E. 1300 m/sec.
0035
1922868 B
15 18369 31 030913860511
Which one of the following is NOT an assumption of the kinetic
theory of gases?
A. Gas particles are negligibly small.
B. Gas particles undergo a decrease in kinetic energy when
passed from a region of high pressure to a region of
lower pressure.
C. Gas particles are in constant motion.
D. Gas particles exert NO attraction for each other.
9 E. Gas particles undergo elastic collisions.
0035
1922869 D
15 18375 52 164814090491
SO effuses through a small hole (under prescribed conditions of
4 2
temperature and pressure) at the rate of 4 ml/min. The rate
(in ml/min.) at which helium effuses through the same hole under
the same conditions is:
A. 2 B. 1 C. 64 D. 16 E. none of these
9 Atomic weights: S = 32, O = 16, He = 4
0035
1922870 D
15 18380 52 016101140258
At any given temperature and pressure the relative diffusion
rates of CH and CS are (h = 1, C = 12, O = 16, S = 32)
0035
4
4
2
9 A. 1 to 2 B. 2 to 5 C. 4 to 1. D. 2 to 1 E. 1 to 4
1922871 D
15 18383 32 011305370429
A given amount of gas in a closed container is heated from room
temperature to 100 degrees F; disregarding the possible expansion
of the container, according to the kinetic theory
A. the gas has increased in weight.
B. the individual molecules of the gas have expanded.
C. the average distance between molecules has increased.
D. the average velocity of the molecules has increased.
9 E. the pressure on the sides of the container has decreased.
0035
1922872 A
15 18389 32 019501140113
At constant volume the pressure of gas Y increases with
increasing temperature because as the temperature increases
A. molecules of Y move faster.
B. the molecular volume of Y increases.
C. the mass of Y molecules increases.
D. molecular collisions are more elastic.
9 E. molecules are closer together.
0035
1922873 E
15 18394 31 059413860189
Which of the following is not a basic postulate of the kinetic
3
___
molecular theory
A. The molecules of a gas are in a state of perpetual random
motion
B. Gases consist of discrete particles of matter called
molecules
C. The temperature of a gas is a measure of average kinetic
energy of the molecules
D. The collisions between molecules of a gas are perfectly
elastic
9 E. Most gaseous elements consist of diatomic molecules
0034
1922874 D
15 18401 51 029013860113
Which of the following is explained by the kinetic_molecular
theory of gases?
A. The combustibility of gases
B. The color of gases
C. The chemical activity of gases
D. The high compressibility of gases
9 E. The molecular weights of gases
0038
1922875 A
14 18405
52
01130258
0038
Which will require the longer time for one liter of the gas to
diffuse through a small opening?
(Chlorine: GMW = 71; ammonia: GMW = 17)
A. Chlorine, because of its greater density
B. Chlorine, because its molecule Cl has fewer atoms than
4
2
ammonia, NH
4
3
9 D. there should be no difference
1922876 D
14 18410 72 1974
At the same temperature, the molecules of which gas have the highest
average velocity?
A. O B. CCl
C. CO
D. C H
E. C H
94
2
4
2
24
26
1922877 A
14 18413 72 0708
An equimolar mixture of CH and CO is allowed to effuse through a
4
4
2
small hole into a vacuum. At a later time the gas remaining will
contain
A. more CO than CH . C. an equimolar mixture of CH and CO .
4
2
4
4
2
B. more CH than CO . D. pure CH .
94
4
2
4
1922878 C
14 18419 72 197519769033
The figure below illustrates the distribution of molecular
velocities as predicted by the Maxwell distribution law.
|
|
fraction |
of
|
molecules |
that have |
T(1) = 1000 K
a
|
1
velocity |
11
=c
|
1 122
|
1 221 2 T(2) = 2000 K
|
12 1 2
| 1 2 1 22
| 12
1 2
| 12
1 22
| 12
1
22
| 12
1
22
|12
11
22
| 122
11
2222
|12
1111
_____________________________________________
c(velocity)
The abscissa value corresponding to the peak of each curve
represents
A. the mean velocity of the molecules.
B. the temperatures at which molecules have greatest velocities.
C. the velocity possessed by more molecules than any other
velocity.
9 D. the root mean square velocity.
1922879 C
14 18433 72 1885
In the design (or construction) of a vacuum system, large diameter
tubing is essential for the main manifold. The property of gas molecules
being considered in this instance is
A. collision diameter.
B. root mean square velocity.
C. mean free path.
9 D. average molecular weight.
1922880 C
14 18437 72
Methane, CH , has a higher thermal conductivity than O , Ar, CO
4
4
2
2
or Cl under the same conditions of temperature and pressure because of
4
2
its low molecular weight and consequent
A. lower vibrational energy.
B. lower heat capacity.
C. higher molecular velocity.
9 D. smaller molecular diameter.
1922881 B
14 18442 52 04290708138605
5
4
If the velocity of an oxygen molecule is 4.24 x 10 cm/sec
5
o
at 0 C, what is the average velocity of CO molecules at
4
2
the same temperature_pressure conditions (in cm/sec).
5
4
4
4
4
9 A. 3.10 x 10
B. 3.62 x 10
C. 4.66 x 10
D. 5.81 x 10
1922882 D
15 18448 51 19660708
Graham's Law states the relationship between the _______
of a gas and its diffusion rate at a constant temperature.
A. volume
C. number of molecules
CWHS
NGLS
9 B. pressure
D. molecular mass
1922883 B
15 45343 71
What is the ratio of the average kinetic energy of O to that of
4
2
CH at 298 K?
4 4
5
1/2
1/2
1/2
1/2
9 A. 2:1 B. 1:1 C. 1:2 D. (32) :(16)
E. (16) :(32)
1922901 D
14 18451 31 070601130293
The fact that the ideal gas law only approximately describes the
behavior of a gas can be partly explained by the idea that
A. R is not really a constant
B. gas molecules really do have zero volume
C. the kinetic energy of gas molecules is not really directly
proportional to the absolute temperature
9 D. gas molecules really do interact with each other
0009
1922902 A
14 18456 31 140407060161
Real gases behave most nearly like the ideal gas law says they do
at
A. high temperatures, low pressures
B. low temperatures, high pressures
C. high temperatures, high pressures
9 D. low temperatures, low pressures
0009
1922903 B
15 45073 51 143214310706
5
2
The van der Waals equation, P = RT/(V_b) _ a/V , incorporates
the following correction(s) to the ideal gas law in order to
account for the properties of real gases:
A. the possibility of chemical reaction between molecules
B. the finite volume of molecules
C. the quantum behavior of molecules
D. average kinetic energy is inversely proportional to
temperature
9 E. the infrared absorption spectra of gases
0009
1922904 B
15 18466 31 140407060114
Real gases approach perfect gas behavior at
A. low pressures and temperatures
B. low pressures and high temperatures
C. high pressures and low temperatures
D. high pressures and high temperatures
9 E. temperatures just above the boiling points of their liquids
0019
1922905 B
14 18470 31 08020114
Boyle's law if least likely to be obeyed at
A. high temperatures
B. high pressures
C. in small samples
9 D. none of the above is correct
0019
1922906 E
15 18473 32 14260706
Which of the following would be most likely to behave as an
ideal gas?
A. HCl B. SO C. H O (vapor) D. NH E. O
94
2
2
3
2
0019
1922907 E
15 18476 52 14291430
The critical temperature of nitrogen is _147 degrees C and that
of oxygen is _119 degrees C. At _100 degrees C ________ can be
liquefied.
9 A. nitrogen B. oxygen C. both D. all gases E. neither
0019
1922908 A
15 18479 51 143103091386
Certain corrections are made on the assumptions of the kinetic
molecular theory to explain the deviations of the real gases
from ideal behavior. These corrections are:
A. pressure and volume corrections only
B. pressure, volume and temperature corrections
C. pressure corrections only
9 D. volume and temperature corrections only
0019
1922909 B
15 18484 51 143213361427
The term a in the van der waals equation is:
A. a measure of the diameters of the molecules of the gas
B. a measure of intermolecular attractions between molecules
C. a measure of density of the gas
D. a measure of velocities of molecules of the gas
9 E. none of the above is correct
0019
1922910 A
5
0035
15 18488
52
143205400195
2
na
Van Der Waal's equation states (P + ____)(V_nb) = nRT. Using
5
2
V
this information, indicate what the term nb represents.
A. The volume occupied by the gas molecules.
B. The mean velocity of the gas molecules.
C. The attractive force between molecules.
9
D. The universal gas constant.
E. None of these.
1922911 A
14 18495 31 1430
The liquefaction temperature of a gas increases as the pressure
is increased because at higher pressures:
A. the average speed of the molecules is higher
B. the average speed of the molecules is lower
C. the average intermolecular distance is higher
9 D. the average intermolecular distance is lower
0003
1922912 C
14 18500 72 1432
The constant b in the van der Waals' equation
is proportional to
A. the radius of one molecule.
B. the force of attraction between two molecules.
C. the excluded volume per mole.
9 D. the temperature.
1922913 DA
25 18503 52
MACROITEM STEM
Draw a smooth curve through the points in the diagram below:
|.
|
.
|
.
|
.
|
.
|
.
|.
0
|__________________
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
This diagram describes phenomena associated with
A. reaction kinetics
D. the critical point
B. acid_base equilibria
E. Raoult's Law
1 C. solubility
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
The correct labels for the axes of this diagram are
x
y
A.
temperature
density
B.
volume
density
C.
temperature
pressure
D.
pressure
mole fraction
9 E.
density
pressure
1922914 A
15 45347 71
In the van der Waals equation of state for 1 mol of gas,
OS82
5
a
(P + __ )(V _ b) = RT
4
2
4
V
the effect of intermolecular forces is accounted for by:
5
2
2
9 A. P + a/V
B. P C. V _ b D. b E. (P + a/V )(V _ b)
1923001 B
14 18513 31
04110192
According to the chemical definition of a pure substance, which
of the following could be a pure substance?
9 A. milk B. quartz C. chalk D. air
0026
1924001 C
15 18516 31 01530008800111
The rate of evaporation of water into the air of a room may be
decreased by
A. increasing the temperature
B. placing the water in a pan of larger diameter
C. increasing the humidity of the room
D. decreasing the pressure over the water surface
9 E. increasing the molecular motion of the water
ETS2 OS
1924002 E
15 18521 31 05010502800111
The best explanation for the nearly spherical shape of
raindrops is based on
A. evaporation
B. gravity
C. capillary action
D. the brownian movement
9 E. surface tension
ETS2 OS
1924003 C
15 18524 51 04120397800111
If a saturated vapor is compressed at constant temperature,
A. the pressure rises
B. the vapor density increases
C. the vapor begins to condense
D. the pressure falls
9 E. the system obeys boyle"s law
ETS2 OS
1924004 E
15 18527 31 04470444800111
The hydraulic press
A. does more work than is done upon it
B. must make use of water as the liquid
C. gives better results when the atmospheric pressure is high
D. shows an application of Charles' law
ETS2 OS
9
E. shows an application of Pascal's principle
1924005 C
15 18531 52 04910153800111
The rate of evaporation of water may be increased by all of these
steps except
A. increasing the temperature
B. placing the water in a pan of larger diameter
C. increasing the humidity of the room
D. decreasing the pressure over the water surface
9 E. increasing the molecular motion of the water
ETS2 OS
1924006 D
14 18536 51 01140130800111
The pressure of a given saturated vapor depends on
A. the volume of the space to be filled
B. the amount of liquid to be vaporized
C. the density of the liquid only
9 D. the temperature only
ETS2 OS
1924007 D
15 18539 31 05350493800112
An alcohol rub cools the skin. This cooling effect
A. is an illusion arising from the effect of wetness
B. occurs because the skin is too dry
C. occurs because the alcohol is at a lower temperature
D. is the result of rapid evaporation of the alcohol
9 E. is the same for any liquid
ETS2 OS
1924008 C
15 18543 51 04120161800113
A pure liquid and its vapor, maintained at a constant temperature,
are contained in a tall cylinder fitted with a piston which exerts
a pressure just equal to the vapor pressure of the liquid. If the
pressure on the piston is doubled, the piston will
A. drop until the volume of the vapor is half its original volume
B. not change its position
C. drop until it touches the surface of the liquid, condensing all
the vapor
D. drop until the volume of the vapor and the volume of the liquid
are each one_half of their original volumes
9 E. none of the above
ETS2 OS
1924009 A
15 18551 52 01530505800111
Evaporation from a liquid results in
A. a decrease in the average speed of the molecules of the liquid
B. an increase in the temperature of the liquid
C. an increase in the rate of collision between molecules of
the liquid
D. an increase in the average speed of the molecules of the
ETS2 OS
9
liquid
E. a decrease in the amount of vapor above the liquid
1924011 A
14 18556 31 04380433800111
Two liquids, a and b, are introduced into two barometer
tubes, the temperature of each being the same. It is noticed (1)
that in both cases a little of the liquid does not
evaporate, and (2) that the mercury in the
tube containing a is more depressed than that in the
tube containing b. it follows from this that the vapor
pressure of liquid a
A. is greater than that of liquid b
B. is less than that of liquid b
C. the same as that of liquid b
D. cannot be estimated relative to that of liquid b
9
from the information given above
ETS2 OS
1924012 B
15 18564 31 04120293800112
The vapor collecting in the space above a liquid in a
container is considered to saturate the space when
A. the density of the vapor equals the density of the liquid
B. molecules leave and enter the liquid at equal rates
C. no more molecules leave the liquid
D. the liquid boils
9 E. the vapor density is equal to 1
ETS2 OS
1924013 C
15 18569 31 04950483800112
The apparently aimless, continuous movement of very
small particles which is known as the "Brownian movement"
is caused by
A. the influence of the earth's magnetic field
B. the pull or attraction of the electron shell of the
substance
C. collision or jostling about by molecules
D. the influence of an electric field
E. repulsion between protons of the particles and the
9
electrons of the surrounding media
ETS2 OS
1924014 C
15 18575 52 04930008800112
Water will keep cool in an unglazed earthenware jug because
A. the jug absorbs cold air
B. water vapor from the atmosphere condenses on the jug
C. there is a large surface from which the water can evaporate
D. the jug cools the water
9 E. earthenware material is always cool
ETS2 OS
1924015 B
14 18579 31 015904380499
As a pure liquid is heated, its temperature increases and it
becomes less dense. Therefore,
A. its potential energy increases
B. its kinetic energy increases
C. both its potential energy and kinetic energy increase
9 D. it necessarily undergoes a chemical change.
0026
1924016 B
14 18583 31 047110970161
To convert a sample of air into a liquid, you would probably have
to
A. increase the temperature and pressure of the sample
B. decrease the temperature and increase the pressure of the
sample
C. cool it to 0 degrees K
9 D. the task is an impossible one
0009
1924017 A
14 18587 52 019211491403
Which substance should have the highest vapor pressure at any
given temperature?
A. C H
B. C H
C. C H
D. C H
E. C H
94
26
38
4 10
5 12
66
0009
1924018 C
15 18590 52 051104230286
As a pure liquid is heated, its temperature increases and it
becomes less dense. Therefore:
A. its potential energy increases
B. its kinetic energy increases
C. both its potential and kinetic energy increase
D. its potential energy increases while kinetic energy
decreases
9 E. its potential energy remains constant.
0040
1924019 B
14 18595 31 04380652
Liquids have
A. stronger intermolecular forces than solids
B. more random molecular motion than solids
C. more molecular order than solids
D. very long range molecular attractive forces
9 E. symmetry
1924020 B
14 18598 31 13590438
Ordering of molecules in a liquid phase is
A. greater than in the solid phase of the same substance
B. short range and limited
C. nonexistent
9 D. high in some liquids and random in others
1924021 B
14 18601 31 0438
The molecules in a liquid are
A. in constant random motion, unconfined by any molecular
order or attraction.
B. in constant random motion, but are attracted to
neighboring molecules.
C. are held in a rigid spatial array, and only vibrate
within that array.
9 D. motionless.
1924022 C
14 18606 51 14270438
Intermolecular forces in liquids are
A. the greatest of any phase because of the fluidity of
liquids
B. the least of any phase because the molecules in a
liquid are always in constant random motion
C. intermediate between those of gases and solids
9 D. equal to zero
1924023 D
14 18610 51 07610438
The molecular theory for gases was at one time thought to
apply to liquids. Which of the following assumptions about
gases is least applicable to liquids?
A. the phase is fluid.
B. molecules in the phase exhibit random motion.
C. molecules in the phase have a large distribution of
energies.
D. molecules in the phase have negligible attraction for
9
one another.
1924024 B
14 18616 51 04380524
What property of a liquid explains the fact that a liquid
may be used to measure air pressure as in a barometer?
A. random molecular motion C. intermolecular attraction
9 B. low compressibility D. portions of the phase are ordered
1924025 C
14 18620 51 04380067
What property of a liquid explains the fact that liquids
have a vapor pressure associated with them?
A. low compressibility
B. fluidity of the phase
C. some molecules have energies high enough to overcome
molecular attractions
9 D. the phase conforms to the shape of its container
1924026 D
14 18625 31 05020438
The phenomenon of surface tension in a liquid is caused by
A. the regions of short range molecular order which are
found in liquids
B. the high kinetic energy of some molecules in the
liquid
C. the small compressibility of liquids
D. the imbalance of attractive forces on molecules at the
9
surface
1924027 D
14 18630 51 0502
Surface tension accounts for which of the following
observations?
A. Liquids can be used in hydraulic brakes.
B. A drop of ink diffuses slowly through water.
C. Water has a definite vapor pressure at 25 deg C.
D. The top of a column of liquid mercury is rounded
9
instead of flat.
1924028 C
14 18635 51 15460555
The horizontal plateau on the cooling curve of a liquid
represents
A. the cooling of the liquid to its freezing point.
B. a period of time when no heat is gained or lost from
the substance.
C. the freezing of the liquid at constant temperature.
9 D. the warming of the solid to its melting point.
1924029 D
15 18640 51
Draw a smooth curve through the points in the diagram below:
|
.
|
|
|
.
|
|
|
.
|.
|__________________
This curve could possibly describe which of the following
phenomena?
A. The behavior of an ideal gas at constant temperature.
B. The behavior of an ideal gas at constant pressure.
C. The reactant concentration (y_axis) for a first_order
reaction with respect to time.
OS82
9
D. The vapor pressure (y_axis) of a liquid with respect to
temperature.
E. The function (PV)/(nRT) for an ideal gas (y_axis) with
respect to pressure.
1924030 E
15 18649 51 11490438
The vapor pressure of a liquid depends on
A. only the temperature of the liquid.
B. only the volume of the liquid.
C. only the intermolecular forces in the liquid.
D. both the temperature and the volume of the liquid.
E. both the temperature and the intermolecular forces of
9
the liquid.
1924031 B
14 18654 51 05110438
When a liquid in an insulated vessel vaporizes
A. the average kinetic energy of molecules in the liquid
phase increases
B. the average kinetic energy of molecules in the liquid
phase decreases
C. the intermolecular forces are increased in the liquid
9 D. the surface tension of the liquid is decreased
1924032 B
14 18659 51 05110438
When a liquid evaporates from an insulated container, the
average kinetic energy of molecules remaining in the liquid
phase
A. increases until it equals the kinetic energy of the
molecules in the vapor
B. decreases steadily
C. decreases until it equals the kinetic energy of the
molecules in the vapor
9 D. remains the same
1924201 D
14 18664 31 00080130
Pure water is not
9 A. polar B. a good solvent C. a compound D. saturated
1924202 A
15 18666 52 024511490161
A sealed container partly filled with water is allowed to come to
equilibrium. The vapor pressure in the space above the water
depends upon which of the following?
A. The value listed in The vapor pressure tables as a function
of temperature.
B. The nature of the interior wall of the vapor space.
C. The volume of water.
D. The nature of the other gases in the vapor space.
0041
0044
9
E. None of the above.
1924203 D
15 18672 31 025804380652
Diffusion in liquids is explained by
A. surface tension
B. capillary attraction
C. vibrations of atoms
D. molecular motion
9 E. all of these
0020
1924204 A
15 18675 31 000811480336
Water rises in a capillary tube because
A. water wets the glass
B. water has a low vapor pressure
C. water has a high boiling point
D. glass is an extremely pure substance
9 E. none of these
0020
1924205 A
15 18678 31 043801530293
A liquid evaporates
A. because of the motion of the molecules
B. when a vessel containing the liquid is exposed to the
atmosphere
C. when molecules escape from the surface of the liquid
D. all of these
9 E. none of these
0020
1924206 E
15 18682 31 11490161
The vapor pressure of water
A. is constant at a given temperature
B. increases with temperature
C. decreases with temperature
D. is due to the pressure of water molecules in the gas phase
9 E. all of these
0020
1924207 B
15 18685 51 019211490165
Which of the following substances has the lowest vapor pressure?
A. water at 25 degrees C
B. ice at 0 degrees C
C. ether at room temperature
D. water at 100 degrees C
9 E. chloroform at room temperature
0020
1924208 D
15 18688 52 114904380161
The vapor pressure of a given liquid is constant at a given
temperature and does not depend on the size or shape of the
0020
container
A. as long as some liquid is present
B. because a dynamic equilibrium is established
C. because pressure is a per_unit_area phenomenon
D. all of the above
9 E. none of the above
1924209 B
15 18693 31 114904380498
When the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the atmospheric
pressure
A. no more liquid remains
B. the liquid boils
C. sublimation occurs
D. condensation occurs
9 E. none of these
0020
1924210 C
15 18696 32 083911500114
Foods can be cooked faster by
A. using less water in the pan
B. adding heat more rapidly
C. increasing the pressure above the food
D. decreasing the pressure above the food
9 E. none of these
0020
1924211 C
14 18699 31 049804381149
The boiling point of any liquid is:
A. 100 degrees C
B. the temperature at which as many molecules leave the liquid
as return to it
C. the temperature at which the vapor pressure is equal to the
external pressure
D. the temperature at which NO molecules can return to the bulk
9
of the liquid
0009
1924212 D
14 18704 31 049001610114
The triple point is
A. the temperature above which the liquid phase cannot exist
B. usually found at a temperature very close to the normal
boiling point
C. the temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid is
three times the value at 25 degrees C
D. the value of temperature and pressure at which solid, liquid
9
and gas may exist in equilibrium
0009
1924213 B
15 18710 31 049804381149
The boiling temperature of a liquid is
0019
9
A. the temperature at which the molecules leaving the liquid
is the same as the rate of molecules returning
B. the temperature at which the vapor pressure is equal to the
atmospheric pressure
C. 100 degrees C
D. the temperature at which the vapor pressure is greater than
atmospheric pressure
E. the temperature at which NO molecules of the liquid can
return to the body of the liquid
1924214 E
15 18717 52 141414370087
Which of the following statements is true of Henry's law?
A. valid for dilute solutions
B. valid for solvent
C. is expressed by P = kx
D. A, B and C are true
9 E. A and C are true
0019
1924215 C
15 18720 31 008702041307
Which of the following is characteristic of solutions?
A. heterogeneous
B. constant composition
C. variable composition
D. both A and B
9 E. both A and C
0040
1924216 D
15 18723 31 159314020662
Which of the following could best be called a physical property
of some substance?
A. color B. flammability C. density
D. both A and C
9 E. both B and C.
0040
1924217 C
15 18726 31 049815930161
The boiling point of a liquid is best described as a particular
A. vapor pressure B. vapor pressure at a specific temperature
C. temperature
D. vapor pressure at a specific altitude
9 E. both A and D.
0040
1924218 A
15 18729 31 114901611593
The vapor pressure of a liquid depends upon
A. the temperature of the liquid
B. the volume of the liquid
C. the container of the liquid
D. the boiling point of the liquid
0040
9
E. the altitude of the liquid.
1924219 D
15 18732 51 114915930317
The magnitude of the vapor pressure of a liquid at constant
temperature depends on
A. the size of the container
B. the atmospheric pressure
C. the boiling point of the liquid
D. the nature of the forces between liquid molecules
9 E. the surface area of the liquid
0040
1924220 C
15 18736 31 049815930161
The normal boiling point of any liquid is defined as
A. the temperature at which the liquid boils
B. 100 degrees C
C. the temperature at which the vapor pressure equals one
atmosphere of pressure
D. the temperature at which there is equilibrium
9 E. both B and C.
0040
1924221 C
15 18740 31 043815930786
Which of the following is a liquid at room temperature?
A. I B. Cl C. Br D. S
4
2
2
2
9 E. both B and C.
0040
1924222 C
14 18742 51 006716191416
The property of water that is most critical to the regulation of
body temperature is
A. high specific heat B. high boiling point
9 C. high heat of vaporization D. high surface tension
0009
1924223 C
15 18745 51 142901920438
The critical temperature of a substance is
A. the temperature required to liquefy the gas at one
atmosphere pressure.
B. the temperature at which the substance begins to decompose.
C. the highest temperature at which the substance can be a
liquid.
D. the temperature at which the liquid evaporates.
E. the lowest temperature at which the substance may be
9
liquefied.
0035
1924224 C
15 18751 31 051614300237
Van Der Waals' forces
A. cause the high melting point of most salts
0035
9
B. hold together the atoms in a diamond crystal.
C. are responsible for the liquifaction of covalent compounds.
D. disappear when gases are liquified.
E. promote the supercooling of liquids.
1924225 B
15 18755 32 043802860160
When a liquid is heated in an open vessel, its temperature rises
until
A. it is completely vaporized.
B. its vapor pressure equals atmospheric pressure.
C. the latent heat is all absorbed.
D. the kindling temperature is reached.
9 E. the air is saturated with vapor.
0035
1924226 B
14 18759 32 011408100171
When atmospheric pressure in the laboratory is 752 torr, distilled
water in an open vessel will boil:
A. at 100 degrees C
B. at less than 100 degrees C
C. at more than 100 degrees C
9 D. when its vapor pressure reaches 760 mm.
0038
1924227 A
14 18763 52 195401770498
When liquid air evaporates, the order of increasing boiling point
3
__________
(order of evaporation) for O , N , and Ar is:
4
2 2
A. N , Ar, O
B. Ar, N , O
C. O , N , Ar D. Ar, O , N
94
2
2
2 2
2 2
2 2
0061
1924228 D
14 18768 72 1890
The force opposing the motion of a spherical particle of radius r
moving at a speed of v through a viscous medium with a coefficient
f viscosity (eta) is approximately f=6 (pi)(eta)rv.
This is called
A. Graham's Law of Effusion.
B. Fick's First Law of Diffusion.
C. The barometric formula.
D. Stokes' Law.
9 E. Boyle's Law.
1924229 A
14 18773 31 00080186
At about 4 degrees centigrade, water has its maximum
A. density
B. vapor pressure
C. specific heat
2 OS
9
D. volume
1926001 B
15 18775 31 05070169800111
The expansion of a solid on heating is due to
A. an increase in the size of the particles of the solid
B. an increase in the agitation of the particles of the solid
C. the addition of caloric to the solid
D. application of the kinetic_molecular theory
9 E. none of the above
ETS2 OS
1926002 D
15 18779 31 01900128800111
A hydrate
A. is a moist compound
B. is a liquified element
C. is usually an organic compound
D. loses mass if heated sufficiently
9 E. is produced when an hydroxide and an acid react
ETS2 OS
1926003 B
14 18782 31 04810416800114
The center of gravity of any mass seeks the lowest point. The
potential energy of any system tends toward a minimum. These
statements are
A. equivalent
B. closely related, but not equivalent
C. both correct, but unrelated
9 D. mutually contradictory
ETS2 OS
1926004 D
15 18786 31 8001
13
The diagram represents a rectangular annealed brass plate in which
there is cut a rectangular hole, of dimensions (at 0 degrees C.) as
indicated. If now the temperature of the plate is raised to 150
degrees C,
I_______________________________________I
I
I
I
I
I
I
I
I___________________I
I
I
I
bI
I
I
I
a
I
I
I
I___________________I
I
I
I
I
I
I
I
i_______________________________________i
A. a will increase, while b decreases.
B. Both a and b will decrease.
ETS2WVW
C. b will increase while a decreases
D. both a and b will increase.
E. The new dimensions of the hole will depend upon the original
outside dimensions of the plate itself.
93
_____ ______
1926005 C
15 18802 51 05880244800111
Concerning matter in the crystalline state
A. a high electrical conductivity is evidence of an electrovalent
compound
B. the density is always higher than that of the same substance
in the liquid state
C. low melting point is usually characteristic of molecular
crystal
D. all elements fall in the category of atomic crystals with
covalent bindings
9 E. the vapor pressure is equal to 760 torr. At the melting point
ETS2 OS
1926006 C
15 18809 51 01140407800111
Changes in pressure have only a slight effect on reactions between
solids. The best explanation of this is that
A. molecules of solids move very slowly
B. solids are not appreciably reactive
C. solids are not appreciably compressible
D. in solids molecular freedom is limited
9 E. none of the above is a satisfactory explanation
ETS2 OS
1926007 E
15 18814 72 071507168003
Zinc metal crystallizes with a unit cell very close to a hexagonal
close packed array of hard spheres. Predict the density in g/cc if
the distance between the centers of the neighboring zinc atoms is
0.266 nanometers.
(At. Wt Zn=65.4; number of zinc atoms effectively located inside
the hexagonal close packed unit cell=6; volume of hexagonal close
5
3
packed unit cell containing atoms of radius r equals 34.0 (r )
9 A. 1.0 B. 1.6 C. 4.2 D. 5.0 E. 8.2
2WVW
1926008 B
15 18823 72 071907188003
A variety of stoichiometric compounds, known as interstitial
3
____________
compounds, can be produced by atoms of nonmetals such as hydrogen,
3_________
boron, carbon, and nitrogen occupying some or all of the vacant
holes in the close packed structures of certain metals. Zirconium
metal (Zr, Z=40) forms interstitial compounds, particularly with
2WVW
nitrogen. If zirconium metal adopts a face_centered cubic close
packed structure, what is the simplest stoichiometric formula of the
interstitial compound formed with nitrogen, if the nitrogen atoms
two thirds of the available tetrahedral holes?
A. ZrN B. Zr N
C. ZrN
D. Zr N
E. Zr N
94
34
2
32
43
1926009 E
15 18833 51 1 071607289020
95
The crystal structure of fluorite, CaF , is shown in the Figure 20.
4
2
if sodium monoxide, Na O, adopts an antifluorite structure, which
4
2
3
____________
of the following sets of coordination numbers for the Na(+1) and
O(_2) ions in sodium monoxide is correct?
3
_______
Na(+1)
O(_2)
3
______
_____
A. 3
6
B. 4
4
C. 8
4
D. 6
6
9 E. 4
8
2WVW
1926010 C
15 18841 52 071607178003
Strontium metal exists in three different crystalline forms known
as alpha, beta, and gamma strontium. The alpha form, which exists
at 25 deg. C., has a face centered cubic unit cell with an edge of
4.2 Angstrom. What is the density of alpha_strontium? (At.Wt. Sr=88)
5
_3
A. 0.42 g cm
5
_3
B. 2.0 g cm
5
_3
C. 8.0 g cm
5
_3
D. 28 g cm
5
_3
9 E. 88 g cm
2WVW
1926011 D
15 18847 51 8003
In the band theory for solids, a large band gap implies the material
is
A. a conductor
B. an intrinsic semiconductor
C. an impurity semiconductor
2WVW
9
D. an insulator
E. both answers B and C
1926012 E
15 18850 51 8003
A one_fold rotation axis means that we should rotate ______ degrees
to obtain a view similar to the original view.
A. 60
B. 90
C. 120
D. 180
9 E. 360
2WVW
1926013 D
15 18853 51 8003
A two_fold rotation axis means that we should rotate ______ degrees
to obtain a view similar to the original view.
9 A. 60 B. 90 C. 120 D. 180 E. 360
2WVW
1926014 C
15 18856 51 8003
A three_fold rotation axis means that we should rotate _____ degrees
to obtain a view similar to the original view.
A. 60
B. 90
C. 120
D. 180
9 E. 630
2WVW
1926015 B
15 18859 51 8003
A four_fold rotation axis means that we should rotate ______ degrees
to obtain a view similar to the original view.
A. 60
B. 90
C. 120
D. 180
9 E. 360
2WVW
1926016 A
15 18862 51 8003
A six_fold rotation axis means that we should rotate ______ degrees
to obtain a view similar to the original view.
A. 60
B. 90
C. 120
D. 180
9 E. 360
2WVW
1926017 E
15 18865 51 8003
A center of symmetry means that if we rotate _____ degrees and
2WVW
reflect through the mirror plane perpendicular to the rotation
we obtain a view similar to the original view.
A. 30
B. 45
C. 60
D. 90
9 E. 180
1926018 D
15 18868 51 8003
A four_fold inversion axis means that if we rotate _____ degrees
and reflect through the mirror plane perpendicular to the rotation
axis, we obtain a view similar to the original view.
A. 30
B. 45
C. 60
D. 90
9 E. 120
2WVW
1926019 E
15 18872 51 8003
A three_fold inversion axis means that if we rotate ______ degrees
and reflect through the mirror plane perpendicular to the rotation
axis, we obtain a view similar to the original view.
A. 30
B. 45
C. 60
D. 90
9 E. 120
1926020 C
15 18876 51 8003
A six_fold inversion axis means that if we rotate ______ degrees
and reflect through the mirror plane perpendicular to the rotation
axis, we obtain a view similar to the original view.
A. 30
B. 45
C. 60
D. 90
9 E. 120
2WVW
1926021 B
15 18880 51 8003
Electron diffraction experiments can provide all necessary
information regarding the symmetry, bond ______, and bond ______ of
a molecule.
A. Orders _ lengths
B. lengths _ angles
C. strengths _ angles
D. distances _ strengths
9 E. displacements _ geometry
2WVW
2WVW
1926022 C
14 18884 31 050405888002
The state of matter characterized by both a definite shape and a
definite volume is
A. fluid
B. liquid
C. solid
9 D. gas
1926024 D
14 18886 31 15931932
05
Isomorphism is defined as a condition in which
A. one compound has two different amorphous structures
B. one compound has two different crystalline structures
C. two different compounds have the same amorphous
structure
D. two different compounds have the same crystalline
9
structure
1926025 B
14 18891 31 15931933
05
Polymorphism is defined as a condition in which
A. one compound has more than one amorphous structure
B. one compound has more than one crystalline structure
C. two different compounds have the same amorphous
structure
D. two different compounds have the same crystalline
9
structure
1926026 B
14 18896 51 0715
0524
The unit cell is defined as the smallest portion of a
crystal which
A. contains one formula unit of the compound
B. is repeated throughout the crystal
C. shows the coordination number of one ion
9 D. contains a complete molecule
1926027 B
14 44521 51 0715
0524
The unit cell is defined as that portion of a crystal
lattice which
A. contains one formula unit of the compound
B. is the smallest repetitive unit with the full symmetry
of the lattice
C. shows the maximum coordination number for every ion
D. contains at least one of every kind of atom in the
formula unit
5
3
9 E. one cm of the substance
2 OS
1926028 C
14 18905 52 1949
Orthorhombic S and monoclinic S are:
9 A. isomeric B. homologous C. allotropic
0060
D. allelomorphic
1926029 C
14 18907 52 0172
Heat is supplied at a constant rate to a solid sample
initially at 0 degrees C. The temperature of the system after ten
minutes is 25 deg C. After 12 minutes the temperature is 30 deg C
and ceases to rise with further heat input. After fifteen
minutes, the temperature begins to rise again and reaches 55
at twenty minutes. What is the melting point of the initial
solid? ( in deg C)
9 A. 0 B. 25 C. 30 D. 55
1926030 C
15 18913 52 044511530286
A block of ice requires 33,356 J of heat to melt it at its
melting point. What is the weight of the ice?
(/\H for water = 333.2 J/g)
4 __ f
9 A. 10 g B. 18 g C. 100 g D. 148 g E. 36 g
1926031 D
14 18916 52 04451151
A piece of ice required 159.6 calories of heat to melt it at
its melting point. How much does the ice weigh?
9 A. 18 g
B. 15.9 g C. 5.0 g
D. 2.0 g
1926201 D
14 18919 31 017201691698
The lowest melting points are usually found in solids held
together by
A. covalent bonds C. metallic bonds E. polar bonds
9 C. ionic bonds
D. Van Der Waals bonds
1926202 C
14 18922 31 085205890067
Graphite and diamond are different in physical properties because
A. they are composed of different elements
B. diamond is pure carbon while graphite contains traces of
other substances
C. their crystal structures are different
9 D. their atomic weights are different
1926203 A
14 18926 52 01691178
The following solid consists of ions:
A. CaB O B. BI C. B H D. BF
94
24
3
26
3
1926204 C
15 18928 52 016914180172
Solids can be divided into four categories:
0041
0041
0043
0044
molecular, such as SO (solid), H O (ice, iodine, CCl (solid);
4
2
2
4
network, or covalent; such as diamond (carbon), silicon, silicon
carbide; metallic, such as copper, iron, sodium;
ionic, such as table salt (NaCl), potassium iodide(KI),
calcium carbonate(CaCO ).
4
3
Which of the following statements about the properties,
structures, etc., of these different categories of solids is
incorrect?
3_________
A. The bonding between atoms in a metal is ascribed to the
sharing of an electron 'sea" by a positive ion lattice.
B. The bonding between carbon atoms in diamond is similar
to that between carbon atoms in the ethane molecule.
C. Silicon carbide, like most covalent solids, has a low
melting point.
D. Molecular crystals are usually soft whereas metals range
from soft to hard.
E. Solid benzene, like most molecular solids, has a low melting
9
point.
1926205 B
15 18942 31 078701690170
The process in which a solid goes directly to a gas is called
A. effusion
B. sublimation
C. fusion
D. melting
9 E. condensation
0020
1926206 A
15 18944 31 115100080439
The heat of fusion for water is
A. 80 cal/g
B. 540 cal/g
C. the same as the heat of vaporization
D. the same as the heat of liquefaction
9 E. none of these
0020
1926207 A
15 18947 51 023701690355
Covalent solids
A. are very hard
B. are very soft
C. are good conductors of electricity
D. have molecules as structural units
9 E. have very low melting points
0020
1926208 E
15 18950 32 000502441159
Which of the following forms an ionic crystal?
9 A. Fe B. SiO C. N D. CO E. AgBr
0020
1926209 B
15 18952 32 006202441160
Metallic crystals conduct an electric current because of
A. the covalent bonding
B. the sea of electrons
C. the high boiling points
D. the ionic attraction between atoms
9 E. tne movement of ions
0020
1926210 E
15 18955 52 001602071415
The specific heat of aluminum (atomic mass = 27.0) is expected
by the law of Dulong and Petit to be about
A. 27.0 cal/gram deg
B. 0.29 cal/gram deg
C. 3.1 cal/gram deg
D. 6.4 cal/gram deg
9 E. none of the above is correct
0019
1926211 C
14 18959 31 055501701417
A wet towel hung out at _5 degrees C freezes solid but then
becomes soft and dry. This is an example of
9 A. fusion B. liquefaction C. sublimation D. disintegration
0019
1926212 E
15 18962 31 159301860172
Which of the following is not a physical property of matter
3
______
A. melting point B. density C. color D. odor
9 E. all are physical properties
0040
1926213 B
14 18965 51 161104980114
A chemistry handbook normally gives the pressure at which the
boiling point of a pure substance is measured but generally does
not indicate the pressure for the melting point. Why?
A. both melting point and boiling point are always measured at
the same pressure
B. the melting point is usually nearly independent of pressure
C. solids are more often impure and therefore have variable
melting points
9 D. all melting points are measured at one atmosphere
0009
1926214 A
14 18972 31 0169
One would expect a low molar heat of fusion for:
A. a molecular solid B. a covalent solid
0003
9
C. an ionic solid D. a metallic solid
1926215 B
14 18974 51 1701
05
A substance which melts over a wide temperature range is
A. Crystalline
C. cubic closest_packed
9 B. amorphous
D. hexagonal closest_packed
1926216 A
14 18977 51 17010336
05
Window glass is an example of which kind of solid?
A. amorphous
C. hexagonal closest_packed
9 B. crystalline
D. face_centered cubic closest_packed
1926217 B
14 18980 52 19441952
The gram atomic weight of potassium is 39.1 grams. The density of
5
_3
potassium is 0.861 g cm . the gram atomic volume of potassium is
then calculated as follows:
5
_3
A. (39.1 g/g At. Wt)x 0.861 g cm
5
_3
B. (39.1 g/g At. Wt)/ 0.861 g cm
5
_3
C. (0.861 g cm )/(39.1 g/g At wt)
5
_3
9 D. (1/39.1 g/g At. Wt) x (1/0.861 g cm )
0055
1926401 B
14 18987 31 135917010169
Short_range order is never present in
A. crystalline solids B. amorphous solids
9 C. liquids B. gases
0041
1926402 A
14 45643 31 170101690879
An amorphous solid is closest in structure to
A. a liquid
C. an ionic crystal E. an insulator
9 B. a covalent crystal D. a semiconductor
0041
1926403 D
14 18991 31 071610041698
Defects in crystal structure are not involved in
A. the flow of electrons in a semiconductor
B. the flow of holes in a semiconductor
C. the mechanical strength of a solid
9 D. the mechanism of van der waals bonding
0041
1926404 C
14 18994 31 049502441178
The individual particles in an ionic crystal are
9 A. atoms B. molecules C. ions D. electrons
0041
1926405 A
14 18996 31 049502440351
The individual particles in a covalent crystal are
9 A. atoms B. molecules C. ions D. electrons
0041
1926406 B
14 18998 31 049500660293
The individual particles in the Van Der Waals crystal of a
compound are
9 A. atoms B. molecules C. ions D. electrons
0041
1926407 C
15 19000 52 001511611798
Strontium metal exists in three different crystalline forms known
as alpha _, beta_, and gamma_strontium. The alpha form, which
exists at 25 degrees C, has a face centered cubic unit cell with
an edge of 4.2 Angstrom. What is the density of
alpha_strontium? (At. Wt. Sr = 88)
5
_3
_3
_3
A. 0.42 g cm
B. 2.0 g cm
C. 8.0 g cm
0042
5
_3
_3
9 D. 28 g cm
E. 88 g cm
1926408 C
15 19006 52 024414540767
A crystal of anhydrous KNO is composed of:
4
3
A. molecules of KNO ,
4
3
B. atoms of potassium, nitrogen and 3 atoms of oxygen
alternately spaced in the crystal
C. a geometrical pattern of potassium ions and nitrate ions in
the crystal
D. potassium nitrate molecules alternately spaced with water
molecules
E. molecules of KNO and water combined into larger molecules.
94
3
1926409 C
15 19013 52 109714090224
A sample of iron oxide prepared under certain laboratory
conditions has the formula Fe O. This is due to some of the
4
.97
5
++
lattice sites of Fe not being occupied. Electrical neutrality
5
++
is conserved by an appropriate nuber of Fe ions being converted
5
3+
to Fe . Let us consider a portion of the iron oxide that
0042
0047
contains 16 g of oxygen atoms. What would be the number of
5
2+
3+
moles of Fe and Fe in this portion if the oxygen ions has a
charge of _2.
5
2+
3+
2+
3+
A. 0.5 Fe
; 0.5 Fe
B. 0.97 Fe
; 0.03 Fe
5
2+
3+
2+
3+
C. 0.91 Fe
; 0.06 Fe
D. 1.0 Fe
; 0.0 Fe
5
2+
3+
9 E. 0.0 Fe
; 1.0 Fe
1926410 B
14 19025 51
The activity of a pure solid is:
9 A. 0 B. 1 C. _1 D. _2.
03750169
0043
1926411 B
15 19026 72 001515950026
Cu metal crystallizes in a face centered cubic unit cell with the
length of an edge equal to 3.62 Angstroms. Assuming the atoms
are identical hard spheres, calculate the atomic radius of the
metal.
5
.5
.5
.5
.5
A. 3.62 B. 2 x 3.62 C. 2 x 3.62 D. 3 x 3.62 E. 1.5 x 3.62
4
____
_________
_________
_________
94
2
4
2
2
0044
1926412 B
15 19033 72 001515950026
Cs metal crystallizes in a body centered cubic lattice with the
unit cell edge length equal to 6.17 angstroms. Assuming the
atoms are identical hard spheres, calculate the atomic radius of
the metal. (Hint: the square roots of 2 and 3 are 1.414 and
1.732 respectively.)
0044
(1.732)(6.17)
(1.732)(6.17)
6.17
(1.414)(6.17)
A. _____________ B. _____________ C. ____ D. _____________
2
4
2
4
9
E. none of the above.
1926413 C
15 19040 71 159507150026
Most metals crystallize in the body centered cubic (bcc), the
face centered cubic (fcc), or the hexagonal closest packed (hcp)
lattice. Select the one right statement below; where
3
_____
a = edge length of unit cell, and r = atomic radius
A. in fcc there are 6 atoms per unit cell.
B. In fcc, a times the square root of three = 2r.
0044
9
C. In bcc there are 8 nearest neighbors at a distance 2r.
D. in fcc there are 10 nearest neighbors at distance 2r.
E. In bcc there are 6 nearest neighbors at distance 2r.
1926414 A
15 19048 72 07150186
Pd metal crystallizes in a face centered cubic unit cell with the
length of an edge equal to 0.387 nm. What is the density (g/cc)
of Pd metal? (AW of Pd = 106.)
9 A. 12.1 B. 27.2 C. 90.9 D. 0.165 E. 6.06
1926415 B
15 19051 72 071501860351
The length of a unit cell of Ag metal is 4.07 Angstroms and its
density is 5.31 grams/cc. How many atoms of Ag are present in
5
_8
the unit cell? (1 Angstrom = 10 cm)
9 A. 9 B. 2 C. 4 D. 14 E. 5
0044
0044
1926416 E
15 19055 72 01861595
TlBr crystallizes in the CsCl lattice with the length of an edge
equal to 3.87 Angstroms. What is the density of TlBr?
(MW of TlBr = 284.)
A. 122 g/cc B. 488 g/cc C. 32.6 g/cc
9 D. .111 g/cc E. 8.16 g/cc.
0044
1926417 A
15 19058 72 07150186
NaI crystallizes into the NaCl unit cell. The density is equal
to 4.14 g/cc. What is the length of an edge of the unit cell
of NaI in nanometers (nm)?
5
7
9 A. 0.622 B. 0.117 C. 0.392 D. 5.25 x 10
E. 24.1
0044
1926418 A
15 19062 51 016902931147
In solids, the molecules can
A. vibrate about fixed positions
B. have any kind of motion
C. move freely relative to other molecules
D. have translational kinetic energy
9 E. none of these
1926419 CBAD
44 19065 52 07161593800290
MACROITEM STEM
Choose the best answer in the key for each of the
descriptions of a solid pure substance.
3
KEY
___
0020
OS
A. Covalent
B. Molecular
C. Ionic
0
D. Metallic
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 High melting point, brittle, soluble in water.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 Low melting point, insoluble in water.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
Insoluble in water, high melting point, and the
3 solid is a non_conductor of electricity.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
Insoluble in water, the solid is a conductor of
9 electricity and it has a high melting point.
1926420 B
15 19072 31 087901690351
The lattice points in a solid
A. are always occupied by molecules
B. may be occupied by atoms
C. cannot be occupied by atoms
9 D. are always occupied by single atoms E. are sharp.
0040
1926421 A
15 19075 31 078101730169
Which of the following types of solids is the hardest?
A. atomic solids B. ionic solids
C. nonpolar molecular solids D. polar molecular solids
9 E. cannot be determined from given information .
0040
1926422 D
15 19078 31 00140716
Each carbon atom in the diamond structure is located so that it
has
A. one nearest neighbor B. two nearest neighbors
C. three nearest neighbors D. four nearest neighbors
9 E. six nearest neighbors
1926423 C
14 44582 72 001501790026
A certain metal crystallizes in a face_centered cubic unit cell.
On the assumption that atoms are spherical, the relationship between
the atomic radius (r) of the metal and the length (a) of one edge of
the unit cell is:
5
1/2
A. 2r = a
C. 4r = (2)
x a E. r = a
5
1/2
1/2
9 B. 2r = (2)
x a D. 4r = (3)
xa
0040
0009
1926424 C
14 19086 51 130115721595
The number of closest neighbors in a body_centered cubic lattice
is
9 A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 12
0009
1926425 D
15 19088 31 141801690173
Molecular solids are usually:
A. good electrical conductors B. quite hard C. quite brittle
9 D. volatile E. heavy
0035
1926426 A
15 19090 31 024403170351
In a molecular crystal the forces holding together the atoms
within a given molecule are:
A. covalent
C. metallic bonds
E. London forces
9 B. ionic bonds D. Van Der Waals' forces
0035
1926427 D
14 19093 31 000501690793
Ionic solids tend to be
A. good electrical conductors C. volatile E. malleable
9 B. soft
D. brittle
0035
1926428 E
15 19095 31 000500660237
One way that ionic compounds differ from covalent compounds is
that ionic compounds
A. usually form well_defined crystals, covalent usually do not.
B. are all soluble in water, covalent are all insoluble.
C. never contain carbon, covalent always contain carbon.
D. are generally more volatile than covalent compounds.
9 E. none of these.
0035
1926429 B
14 19100 32 1894
05
Hexagonal closest packing in a crystal is found when the
particles of the substance are
A. six_sided
C. nonequivalent spheres
9 B. equivalent spheres
D. molecules composed of six atoms
1926430 A
14 19103 32 1892
05
Cubic closest packing in a crystal is found when the
particles of the substance are
A. equivalent spheres
C. molecules composed of eight atoms
9 B. nonequivalent spheres
D. eight_sided
1926431 C
14 19106 32 18921894
05
The basic difference between hexagonal closest packing and
cubic closest packing is that
A. the atoms are more closely packed in one of these
9
structures than in the other
B. the coordination number of nearest neighbors is
different
C. the repetition of the layers is ordered differently
D. the atoms are arranged in six_sided layers in the
former and in squares in the latter
1926432 B
14 19112 51 0716
05
The type of packing that is assumed by atoms (or ions) in a
crystal is determined by
A. the oxidation states of the atoms
B. the different sizes of the atoms
C. the kind of compound that is formed
9 D. physical properties of the crystal
1926433 C
14 19116 52 194801860715
5
3
The density of diamond is 3.515 grams per cm . Diamond and Si
possess the same structure. The unit cell edge lengths of diamond
and Si are 3.567 A and 5.430 A respectively. Atomic weights are:
C = 12.011 and Si = 28.086. density of Si may be calculated as
follows:
5
3
(3.567)
12.011
A. 3.515 x ________ x ______;
5
3
(5.430)
28.086
5
3
(5.430)
12.011
B. 3.515 x ________ x ______;
5
3
(3.567)
28.086
5
3
(3.567)
28.086
C. 3.515 x ________ x ______;
5
3
(5.430)
12.011
0059
3
(5.430)
28.086
D. 3.515 x ________ x ______.
5
3
9
(3.567)
12.011
1926434 C
14 19128
Crystal system of ice:
72
195501651893
0062
9
A. isometric
B. tetragonal
C. hexagonal
D. orthorhombic
1926435 A
14 19130 72 19551957
In which type of unit cell is the percentage of "empty" space the
greatest?
A. simple cubic
B. body_centered cubic
E. fluorite type
9 C. face_centered cubic D. hexagonal close packing
0062
1926436 D
14 19133 72 19550344
Which solid is relatively soft and a good electrical conductor?
A. Cr B. NaCl C. P
D. K
94
4
0062
1926437 A
14 19135 72 19550852
Which substance meets the requirements:
hexagonal, soft, high melting point?
9 A. graphite B. quartz C. ice D. tungsten
0062
1926438 D
15 19137 52
If a metal forms a face_centered crystalline structure with unit
cell edge length of x, the atomic radius of the metal may be
calculated as follows:
_
__
_
_
_
A. xV2 B. V2x C. xV2 D. xV2 E. /x
3
___
___
___
_
9
4
2
4
V2
1926439 B
14 19142 72 19550943
NaCl crystallizes in a face_centered cubic crystal lattice. The
crystallographic coordination number of Na in NaCl is
9 A. 1 B. 6 C. 8 D. 4 E. 12
0062
1926440 C
15 19145 72 159507150725
NaBr crystallizes into a lattice structure equivalent to that
of NaCl but with a unit cell edge length equal to 5.80 Angstroms.
If the ionic radius of Br is 1.95 Angstroms, what is the ionic
radius of Na?
A. 3.07 Angstroms B. 2.90 Angstroms C. .950 Angstroms
9 D. 1.90 Angstroms E. 3.85 Angstroms.
0044
1926441 C
15 19150 72 159501860715
Cu metal crystallizes in a face centered cubic lattice with four
atoms per unit cell. The density of Cu is 8.92 g/cc. What is the
length of an edge of the unit cell of Cu metal (in nanometers)?
5
8
9 A. 0.0907 B. 3.06 x 10
C. 0.362 D. 0.474 E. 0.456
0044
1926442 B
15 19155 52
Identical spheres are arranged in three different patterns:
simple cubic (SC), body centered cubic (BCC) and face centered
cubic (FCC). The coordination number of each sphere (the number
of nearest_neighbor spheres) is
9
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
SC
8
6
12
8
6
BCC
6
8
8
6
12
FCC
12
12
6
12
8
1926443 B
15 45469 71
How many atoms are there in a body_centered cubic unit cell of
tungsten?
9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6 E. 8
1926444 D
15 45471 71
Calcium fluoride crystallizes in a face_centered cubic lattice.
The fluoride ions occupy the interstitial sites in the unit cell,
and the calcium ions occupy the faces and corners of the unit cell.
The total number of ions in the unit cell is:
9 A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 E. 12
1926445 B
15 45475 71
What is the simplest formula of a solid containing A, B, and C
atoms in a cubic lattice in which the A atoms occupy the corners,
the B atoms the body_center position, and the C atoms the faces of
the unit cell?
A. ABC B. ABC
C. ABC
D. A BC
E. A BC
94
3
6
8 6
4 3
1926446 A
15 45480 71
5
o
An atomic face_centered cubic crystal is 3.92 A on an edge and has
5
3
a density of 21.5 g/cm . What is its atomic weight?
9 A. 195 B. 207 C. 48.8 D. 108 E. 63.5
1926447 A
15 45484 71
Silver crystallizes in the face_centered cubic system. If the edge
5
o
of the unit cell is 4.07 A, what is the radius of a silver atom in
5
o
_8
OS83
angstroms (1 A = 10 cm)?
9 A. 1.44 B. 1.76 C. 2.04
D. 2.88
E. 3.52
1926448 DCBB
45 45488 71
MACROITEM STEM
Answer the next four questions using the following information:
Lithium chloride crystallizes in a face_centered cubic structure.
5
_8
The unit cell length is 5.14 x 10 cm. The chloride ions are
touching each other along the face diagonal of the unit cell. The
0 lithium ions fit into the holes between the chloride ions.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
How many lithium ions are there in this unit cell?
1 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
What is the mass of LiCl in a unit cell?
5
_23
_22
_22
A. 7.04 x 10
g C. 2.82 x 10
g E. 5.63 x 10
g
5
_22
_22
2 B. 1.41 x 10
g D. 4.22 x 10
g
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
What is the density of the lithium chloride?
A. 1.04 g/cc C. 2.42 g/cc E. 3.78 g/cc
3 B. 2.08 g/cc D. 3.11 g/cc
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
What is the radius of the chloride ion?
_8
_8
_8
A. 1.29 x 10 cm C. 2.23 x 10 cm E. 2.76 x 10 cm
_8
_8
9 B. 1.82 x 10 cm D. 2.56 x 10 cm
1926449 E
15 45502 71
Which of the following as a solid has a crystal structure containing
discrete (or separate) molecules?
A. potassium C. quartz
E. hydrogen chloride
9 B. glass
D. carborundum, SiC
1930001 E
15 19161 52 01868001800211
Which of the following statements would tell you most about
whether a given portion of matter is a pure substance or a mixture?
A. It all dissolves in the same solvent.
B. Solutions of different concentrations are found to possess
different properties.
C. When heated unevenly, the portion which is hottest melts
first.
D. The matter is observed, under a microscope, to be composed of
ETS2 OS
9
particles of different sizes.
E. The large particles are found to be of greater density than
the small particles.
1930002 A
15 19169 72 01090187800111
Nitrogen and oxygen, the principle constituents of the air, are
present in a practically constant ratio of 3.2 grams of nitrogen
to every one gram of oxygen. The two elements can also be made
to combine chemically, forming the compound nitric oxide, which
contains seven grams of nitrogen to every eight grams of oxygen.
Both air and nitric oxide are colorless gases. An experimental
method for showing that one is a compound and the other is a
mixture, would be to
A. compress and cool a sample of each gas until liquefaction
took place
B. examine a sample of each gas under the microscope
C. weigh equal volumes of each gas
D. add a sample of one gas to a sample of the other, and let
them stand overnight
E. let them both stand undisturbed for a long period of time,
and then to carefully remove samples from both the top and
9
bottom of the containers for examination
1930003 CAEBA
55 19181 52 0189006680011190
MACROITEM STEM
2For the following items, choose the best answer from the key
2below.
2 A. Element
2 B. Compound
2 C. Mixture
2 D. Solution
0 E. Two of the above
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 Granite
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 A noble metal
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 Air
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
4 Silica
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
9 Graphite
1930004 A
15 19184 31 01920193800112
A substance may be considered to be homogeneous when
A. every particle is like every other particle
ETS2 OS
ETS2 OS
ETS2 OS
9
B. it is composed of particles whose properties may be quite
different
C. its density is 1 g/cc
D. it is composed of two different elements
E. its density approaches that of water
1930005 C
15 19189
All alloys can be termed
A. isotopes
B. elements
C. mixtures
D. compounds
9 E. polymers
31
01940168800111
1930006 CDABCAB 74 19191 52 0087017880011290
MACROITEM STEM
2Suppose that four samples of different materials in powdered form
2are subjected to the following treatments
2A. When heated, sample A melted at a relatively low temperature.
3
______
2When sample A was dissolved in water, no reaction took place with
3
________
2the water, and the solution thus obtained would not conduct an
2electric current.
2B. When an attempt was made to dissolve sample B in carbon
3
________
2disulfide, a solvent, a black residue remained undissolved. When
2the carbon disulfide was poured off from the black residue and
2allowed to evaporate, a yellow residue remained.
2C. When sample C was heated it melted at a much higher temperature
3
________
2than sample A. when sample C was dissolved in water, no reaction
2was observed to take place, but the solution thus obtained did
2conduct an electric current.
2D. Sample D was subjected to experimentation. Evidence was obtained
3 ________
2which showed that all of the atoms of D have the same atomic
2number, although there was some variation in mass.
2After each item number on the answer sheet, blacken the one
3
___
2lettered space which designates the sample material to which the
0 item correctly refers.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
When in solid form, positive and negative ions of this sample are
1 held together by electrostatic forces.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
ETS2 OS
ETS2 OS
2 All of the atoms in the sample are atoms of the same element.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 This sample evidently consists of a non_ionic or covalent compound.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
4 This sample is evidently a mixture.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
5 This sample is evidently an ionic or electrovalent compound.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
The molecules of this compound evidently have little attraction
6 for each other.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
9 The constituents of this sample are chemically uncombined.
1930007 EDAD
45 19214 51 0438018680011190
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions involve properties of certain substances.
2Select from the key the substance which has the property indicated
2by each item.
2 A. Carbon dioxide
2 B. Water
2 C. Oil
2 D. Mercury
0 A. Ethyl alcohol
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 A liquid which is miscible with water
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 The listed substance having the greatest density
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 The substance having the lowest boiling point
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
A substance capable of floating an alloy whose specific gravity
9 Is 10
1930008 D
15 19220 31 01090025800111
Under normal conditions air and oxygen differ in
A. state
B. color
C. odor
D. density
9 E. taste
1930009 D
14 19222 31 019202868004
A pure substance Z can be separated into pure substances X and Y
only by heating. Which of the following is true?
A. X and Y must be elements; Z must have been an element.
B. X and Y must be compounds; Z must have been a compoiund.
ETS2 OS
ETS2 OS
2WVW
9
C. X and Y must be elements; Z must have been a mixture.
D. X and Y could be either elements or compounds, Z must have
been a compound.
1930010 BCCDBABCC94 19228 31 0168018980011290
ETS2WVW
MACROITEM STEM
2After each item number on the answer sheet, blacken space
2 A. if the item is true only of mixtures
2 B. if the item is true only of elements
2 C. if the item is true only of compounds
0 D. if the item is true of both elements and compounds
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 Consists of a single variety of atoms.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 Always have a definite and constant composition.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
Its formation from simpler materials is always accompanied
3 by a loss or gain of energy.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
Are identified by specific physical and chemical
4 properties.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
5 A planned arrangement results in the periodic classification.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
6 Properties of the components are retained in the material.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
7 Can be approximately classified as metals or non_metals.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 8
8 Can be approximately classified as covalent or ionic.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 9
9 Have a definite composition of unlike atoms.
1930011 ABCABBADC94 19238 31 0189006680011290
ETS2WVW
MACROITEM STEM
2After each item on the answer sheet, blacken space
2 A. if the item is true only of elements
2 B. if the item is true only of compounds
2 C. if the item is true only of mixtures
0 D. if the item is true of both elements and compounds
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 Consists of the same atomic species
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 Have properties entirely different from those of the constituents
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
Have properties, dependent on the ratios of the substances
3 present
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
Are listed according to increasing atomic numbers on the
4 periodic chart
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
Energy is gained or lost when formed from simpler
5 materials
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
6 Usually classified as covalent or electrovalent
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
7 Usually classified as metals, non_metals or inert gases
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 8
8 Are homogeneous, that is, the same throughout
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 9
9 Physical means
1930012 A
15 19248 31 04570458800111
An alum
A. has the general formula M (SO )
4
2 43
B. does not necessarily contain aluminum
C. is an anhydrous salt
D. gives off CO when heated with cream of tartar
4
2
E. one variety, commonly called alundum, is commonly used
9
as an abrasive
ETS2 OS
1930013 D
15 19253 52 06900414800111
Select the true statement or statements.
A. Bituminous coal contains fixed nitrogen.
B. Anthracite coal is over 90% carbon
C. When melted, coke becomes coal tar.
The correct selection includes only
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. A and B
9 E. B and C
ETS2 OS
1930014 B
14 19257 31 80038004
A chemical property of a substance is its
A. color
B. combustibility
C. density
9 D. state
2WVW
1930015 CBE
35 19259 31 080106838004 90
MACROITEM STEM
2For each of the numbered items which follow, choose the option
2which best matches.
2 A. Exothermic
2 B. Endothermic
2 C. Element
2 D. Catalyst
0 E. Molecule
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 A substance which can't be decomposed by ordinary chemical means.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 Pertaining to a reaction which occurs with the absorption of heat.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
The smallest portion of a substance that can have a stable,
9 independent existence.
2 OS
1930016 CAEB
45 19265 31 058800668004 90
MACROITEM STEM
2For each of the numbered items which follow, choose the option
2which best matches
2 A. matter
2 B. compound
2 C. density
2 D. element
0 E. atom
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 The weight of a material per unit volume
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 Anything which occupies space and has weight
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
The smallest part of an element that can enter into combination
3 with other elements
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
A substance which can be decomposed into two or more simpler
9 substances by ordinary chemical means
2 OS
1930017 CAEB
45 19271 31 078704388004 90
MACROITEM STEM
2For each of the numbered items which follow, choose the option
2which best matches.
2 A. Precipitate
2 B. Reducing agent
2 C. Filtration
2 D. Distillation
2 OS
0
E. Specific gravity
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The process of removing suspended material from a liquid by
allowing the liquid to pass through a material such as paper or
1 layers of sand
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
An insoluble product formed by chemical action between the
2 solutions of two soluble substances
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
The ratio of the density of a substance to the density of a
3 standard of reference such as water
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
9 A substance which supplies electrons during a chemical reaction
1930018 D
14 19279 31 010901688004
A reason that air is a mixture is that
A. it becomes warm as it is compressed
B. it can be liquified
C. it supports combustion
9 D. its compositon varies
2 OS
1930019 D
14 19282 31
04110154
The chemist attemps to purify matter because
A. only by purifying matter can he precisely characterize the
components of nature
B. the behavior of matter in chemical changes would be
unpredictable unless pure matter is involved
C. he fundamentally opposes bacteria
9 D. two of the above answers.
0026
1930020 C
14 19287 31
01720192
Which one of the following properties may be used to specifically
identify a given substance?
9 A. temperature B. mass C. melting point D. volume.
0026
1930021 E
15 19290 31 079800870193
Air, water, pure carbon, and a solution of sugar in water are
similar in that they are all
A. heterogeneous
B. compounds
C. in the same state of matter
D. mixtures
9 E. homogeneous
0020
1930022 B
15 19293 31 058800870066
In which of the following sequences are the classifications of
0040
matter listed in order of decreasing complexity?
A. homogeneous, element, solution
B. homogeneous, solution, compound
C. pure substance, compound, solution
D. solution, element, compound
9 E. solution, homogeneous, compound
1930023 D
15 19297 31 008702040588
Which of the following classifications of matter may be
associated with a variable composition?
A. pure substance
B. homogeneous matter
C. solution
D. both B and C
9 E. both A and B
0040
1930024 A
15 19300 31 130701650018
Which of the following is an example of heterogeneous matter?
A. water containing crushed ice
B. a sample of pure table salt
C. a sample of salt water
D. a pure sample of iron
9 E. an ice cube.
0040
1930025 E
15 19303 31 093700660588
Which of the following classifications of matter could not
possibly contain heteroatomic molecules?
A. pure substance B. homogeneous matter
C. compound D. solution
9 E. no correct response is given.
0040
1930026 D
14 19306 31 144510970192
Of the following characteristics of a sample of a substance, the
one that is not a physical property is its
9 A. color B. density C. hardness D. temperature
0041
1930027 B
15 44757 31
Choose the option in the key below which best matches the statement
following the key:
A. exothermic C. element
E. molecule
9 B. endothermic D. catalyst
1932001 C
15 19309 32 00180152800111
For which one of the following reasons may we consider the
dissolving of salt in water to be a physical change?
A. The salt becomes invisible.
ETS2 OS
9
B. The water combines with the salt.
C. The residue from evaporation of the solution is unaltered.
D. The residue from evaporation of the solution is not salt.
E. None of the above; this is actually a chemical change, and
the above are not applicable.
1932002 D
15 19315 52 00110153800112
A certain material on extraction with water left a solid residue.
The water extract on evaporation also formed a solid residue.
These facts definitely show that the original material was
A. an electrolyte
B. an element
C. a compound
D. a mixture
9 E. a salt
ETS2 OS
1932003 A
15 19319 32 00080173800111
The hardness of water cannot be removed by which of the following?
3
______
A. boiling
B. addition of Na CO to precipitate CaCO
4
2 3
3
C. distillation
D. addition of MgCl
4
2
9 E. use of ion_exchange minerals or resins
ETS2 OS
1932004 C
15 19324 31 01770025800111
The fractional distillation of liquid air is used commercially to
obtain
A. dry ice
B. ammonia
C. oxygen
D. carbon dioxide
9 E. hydrogen
ETS2 OS
1932005 A
15 19327 32 00188001800211
A chalk and salt mixture could be separated into its component
substances by
A. adding water, stirring and filtering
B. adding water and boiling
C. adding water, and distilling
D. adding water, boiling, and cooling
9 E. subliming the salt out of the mixture
ETS2 OS
1932006 C
14 19331
31
018900668004
2WVW
Elements and compounds found in the same area but not chemically
combined form
A. an amino acid
B. a compound
C. a mixture
9 D. a molecule
1932007 B
14 19334 31 032108228004
The atmosphere surrounding the earth is an example of
A. a compound
B. a mixture
C. a molecule
9 D. an element
2WVW
1932008 B
14 19336 31 008700188004
A saturated solution of salt is an illustration of
A. the law of definite composition
B. a mixture
C. a compound
9 D. a nonhomogeneous solution
2WVW
1932009 A
14 19339 31 019201688004
A substance was separated from a mixture. It was flammable, did
not dissolve sugar, had a boiling point of 81 deg. C., had a density
of less than 1, and had a definite odor. This substance was
probably which of the following?
A. alcohol
B. sodium chloride
C. water
9 D. ammonia and water
2WVW
1932010 C
14 19343 32 016904388004
Depending upon the situation, there are many ways of separating
insoluble solids from liquids. Which of the following is not one
of these ways
A. pour the liquid off the top of the solid
B. skim the solid off the top of the liquid
C. use fractional crystallization
9 D. filter the substance
2 OS
1932011 B
15 19347 31 016801570504
Which one of the following is not an example of the formation of
3
___
a mixture?
A. mixing of hydrogen and oxygen
B. igniting of hydrogen and oxygen to form water
0028
9
C. dissolving of sodium chloride in water
D. dissolving of sugar in water
E. dissolving ethyl alcohol in water
1932012 D
15 19351 31 117001930192
Sea water
A. is a homogeneous mixture
B. is a solution
C. contains many dissolved substances
D. all of these
9 E. none of these
0020
1932013 B
15 19353 31 008701690194
Solutions of solids in solids are called
A. amalgams
B. alloys
C. heterogeneous mixtures
D. brass
9 E. none of these
0020
1932014 D
15 19355 31 016800870169
Which of the following mixtures cannot be a solution?
A. gases in gases
B. solids in solids
C. gases in liquids
D. solids in liquids
9 E. solids in gases
0020
1932015 B
15 19358 31 008707900552
Which of the following solutions is a nonelectrolyte?
A. salt in water
B. sugar in water
C. sea water
D. ammonium chloride in water
9 E. none of these
0020
1932016 E
15 19361 31 016813070193
A mixture is
A. always heterogeneous
B. sometimes a single substance
C. always a liquid
D. never homogeneous
9 E. none of these
0020
1932017 B
15 19363 32 055200870168
If a sugar solution is mixed with a salt solution, the result is
0020
9
A. a pure substance
B. a mixture
C. heterogeneous
D. a new compound
E. none of these
1932018 B
14 19366 32 039301680192
One way to definitely show that gasoline is a mixture of
substance would be to
A. measure its density
B. measure the temperature during boiling
9 C. burn it D. filter it
0009
1932019 B
14 19369 52 027401680714
The chemical analysis of a mixture of gases is most likely to
involve
A. density measurements B. mass spectroscopy
9 C. boiling point measurements D. fractional crystallization
0009
1932020 D
14 19372 31 078705880164
Which one of the following processes does not remove suspended
matter from water?
A. sedimentation B. coagulation
9 C. filtration D. chlorination
0009
1932021 C
15 19375 31 019305880087
Which of the following is an example of homogeneous matter?
A. concrete B. muddy water C. salt water D. wood
9 E. water containing crushed ice.
0040
1932022 B
14 19378 52 152801681565
To separate a mixture of monosaccharides, you would probably
use a(n):
A. centrifuge B. column chromatograph
9 C. mass spectrometer D. electrolytic cell
0009
1932023 A
14 19381 32 19550087
A salt solution is:
A. a homogeneous mixture
B. heterogeneous and consists of one phase
C. a compound
9 D. a heterogeneous mixture
1934001 C
15 19383 31 01920351800111
A substance composed of only one kind of atoms is
A. a colloid C. an element E. a solution
0062
ETS2 OS
9
B. a complex
D. a compound
1934002 C
15 19385 32 05660195800111
Ozone
A. is an isotope of oxygen
B. is an important constituent of the atmosphere
C. has a volume two_thirds of that of the oxygen from
which it was formed
D. absorbs heat when it is decomposed
9 E. is used industrially in the production of high temperatures
ETS2 OS
1934003 B
14 19389 31 049501898004
The smallest particle of an element is a/an
A. molecule
B. atom
C. compound
9 D. amino acid
2WVW
1934004 B
14 19391 31 018901928004
An element may be defined as a substance, all the atoms of which
have the same
A. atomic weight
B. atomic number
C. radioactivity
9 D. number of neutrons
2WVW
1934005 B
14 19394 31
Tritium is a radioactive form of
A. helium
B. hydrogen
C. nitrogen
9 D. carbon
80038004
1934006 C
14 19396 31 018903988004
The element with the lowest atomic mass is
9 A. oxygen B. aluminum C. hydrogen D. magnesium
1934007 D
14 19398 31
The symbol k+ represents one
A. atom of krypton
B. atom of potassium
C. ion of krypton
9 D. ion of potassium
2WVW
2 OS
E. boron
081200198004
1934008 B
14 19400 31 019602930926
Hydrogen atoms are held together to form hydrogen molecules by
2 OS
0041
9
A. ionic binding B. covalent binding
C. electron spin D. polar molecules
1934009 A
14 19402 31 035101890066
Atoms of two different elements
A. may form no compounds together.
B. Can form only one compound together
C. can always form more than one compound together
D. must have the same valence if they are to form a compound
9
together
0041
1934010 C
14 19406 31 018900660014
The element contained in the greatest number of compounds is
9 A. hydrogen B. oxygen C. carbon D. sulfur
0041
1934011 A
14 19408 31 115900941503
The form of sulfur which is stable at room temperature and
normal atmospheric pressure is:
9 A. orthorhombic B. hexagonal C. monoclinic D. amorphous.
0043
1934012 A
14 19411 51 00940114
When liquid sulfur at one atmosphere pressure is very slowly
cooled, unless supercooling occurs, the first solid to appear is:
A. monoclinic sulfur B. rhombic sulfur
9 C. hexagonal sulfur D. "metallic" sulfur.
1934013 D
15 19414 31 034103510263
Atoms of an elemet
A. must be indentical to each other in all aspects.
B. may differ in the number of electrons they contain
C. may differ in the number of protons they contain
D. may differ in the number of neutrons they contain
9 E. both D and B.
1934014 A
15 19418 32
071101
Which of the following represent elements:
O, O , O , P, P , S, S
4
2 3
4
8
A. all are chemical elements
B. only O, P, and S
C. only O , P, and S
D. only O , O , P , and S
4
2
2 3 4
8
E. only O , P , and S
94
2 4
8
1934015 C
14 19423 32 195404150064
The most abundant rare gas in earth's atmosphere is:
0043
0040
0064
0061
9
A. He B. Ne C. Ar D. Kr E. Xe
1936001 D
15 19425 32 80018002
11
When water is decomposed into its elements, the volume of hydrogen
produced is twice as great as the volume of oxygen. The weight
of the hydrogen is
A. twice as much
B. half as much
C. one_quarter as much
D. one_eighth as much
9 E. one_sixteenth as much
ETS2 OS
1936002 A
15 19429 51 00660263800111
All of these terms apply to an important class of chemical
compounds except
3
______
A. pairs of shared electrons
B. formation of ionized solutions
C. atoms forming rings of various sizes
D. formation of homologous series
9 E. atoms forming chains
ETS2 OS
1936003 E
15 19433 31 04450087800111
The following are the common names of the materials indicated
A. Ca(OH) is quick lime
4
2
B. a mixture of CaCO and CaO is mortar
4
3
C. CaCO is slaked lime
4
3
D. KHCO is baking powder
4
3
E. a solution of Ca(OH) is lime water
94
2
ETS2 OS
1936004 DCDEB
55 19438 52 1 012800429009129095
MACROITEM STEM
0 The following questions refer to Figure 9.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
the molecular weight of magnesium oxide is
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 42
1 E. none of the above.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
ETS2 OS
2
3
4
9
The number of protons and neutrons in ion number four is
A. 9p, 9n
B. 7p, 10n
C. 8p, 9n
D. 8p, 10n
E. 7p, 8n
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
The atomic weight of atom number one is
A. 12
B. 13
C. 24
D. 25
E. 26
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
Atom number two is
A. of positive valency
B. ionized
C. inactive
D. a reducing agent
E. non_metallic in character
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
Ion number three in the compound has been
A. oxidized and is now a negative ion
B. oxidized and is now a positive ion
C. reduced and is now a negative ion
D. reduced and is now a positive ion
E. made neutral
1936006 D
15 19452 51 00080128800111
Water is not used as the standard
3
___
A. of specific gravities
B. of specific heats
C. in calibrating thermometer scales
D. of molecular weights
9 E. of the metric system of weights
ETS2 OS
1936007 D
15 19455 31 00660189800111
A compound
A. is any substance that can be obtained in crystalline state
B. can only be obtained by the direct combination of its
constituent elements
C. varies slightly in composition according to the proportion
of the two elements combined together
D. is made up of two or more elements combined in
unchangeable proportions by weight
ETS2 OS
9
E. is always more stable at low temperature than high
temperature
1936008 B
14 19461 31 018900668004
Two or more elements chemically combined form a/an
A. amino acid
B. compound
C. enzyme
9 D. atom
2WVW
1936009 A
14 19463 31 018900668004
When active elements combine to form compounds, the compounds
A. are very stable
B. are very unstable
C. form with great difficulty
9 D. reverse themselves
2WVW
1936010 B
14 19466 31
Which choice is a compound?
A. carbon
B. carbon dioxide
C. hydrogen
9 D. nitrogen
2WVW
006302618004
1936011 D
14 44485 31 006603510945
In general, in a covalent compound,
A. electrons are transferred from one atom to another
B. only atoms with the same atomic number are present
C. there must be at least one carbon atom
D. adjacent atoms share electron pairs
9 E. electronegativity differences are quite large
0041
1936012 C
14 19471 31 040802441178
Sodium chloride crystals consist of
NaCl molecules B. Na and Cl atoms
5
+
_
_
+
9 C. Na and Cl ions D. Na and Cl ions
0041
1936013 B
14 19474 31 006609430020
Every simple chemical compound
A. is either an acid or base
B. contains the same number of positive and negative valences
C. is a member of the periodic table
9 D. contains at least one hydrogen atom
0041
1936014 B
0018
15 19477
31
003701930192
Homogeneous substances composed of two or more simpler
substances whose proportions are fixed and invariable by weight
are called
A. elements B. compounds C. mixtures
9 D. metals E. none of these
1936015 C
15 19480 31
00870504
Ammonia water would be classified according to which one of the
following states of matter:
A. solid in a gas B. gas in a solid C. gas in a liquid
9 D. liquid in a gas E. liquid in a liquid.
0028
1936016 B
15 19483 31 018901680037
Pure water is
A. an element C. a mixture E. always heterogeneous
9 B. a compound D. a solution
0026
1936017 D
15 19485 31 006601920943
A compound is
A. a pure substance that may be broken down into simpler
substances by physical means
B. a substance that cannot be broken down into simpler
substances by chemical means
C. a heterogeneous substance
D. a pure substance that can be broken down into simpler
substances by chemical means
9 E. the smallest part of a molecule
0020
1936018 D
15 19490 31 003701920943
A compound represents
A. a heterogeneous substance
B. a pure substance that may be broken down into simpler
substances by physical means
C. a substance that cannot be broken down into simpler
substances by chemical means
D. a pure substance that can be broken down into simpler
substances by chemical means
E. a homogeneous substance which is the smallest particle of an
9
element
0019
1936019 C
15 19496 31 006601890135
A pure substance a is found to change upon heating into two new
pure substances b and C. from this we may conclude that
A. A and B are both elements.
B. B and C are both compounds.
C. A is a compound, B and C may or may not be elements.
0040
9
D. A is an element, B and C are compounds.
E. A is a diatomic element
1936020 B
15 19501 31 018909360937
Molecules of compounds have one characteristic that is different
from molecules of elements. This characteristic is that
A. only compound molecules are homoatomic.
B. only compound molecules are heteroatomic.
C. only compound molecules may be heteroatomic or homoatomic.
D. compound molecules are always heavier than element molecules
9 E. element molecules are always heavier than compound molecules
0040
1936021 D
15 19507 31 019205880066
Which of the following statements relating to the various
subclassifications of matter is incorrect?
3
________
A. All elements are pure substances.
B. All compounds are pure substances.
C. All compounds have heteroatomic molecules.
D. All pure substances are compounds.
9 E. All elements are homonyclear
0040
1936022 E
15 19512 31 132600660075
Which of the following is not a binary compound?
3
______
A. sodium hydride B. lead dioxide
C. phosphorus pentachloride D. calcium iodide
9 E. sodium cyanide
0040
1936023 C
14 19515 31 031702930462
The forces most suited to account for the fact that atoms often
combine to form molecules are
9 A. nuclear B. magnetic C. electrical D. polar
0009
1938001 C
14 19517 31 005607978004
The common name for sulfuric acid is
A. muriatic acid
B. nitrose acid
C. oil of vitriol
9 D. oil of sulfur
2 OS
1938002 D
14 19519 31 001801898004
Common table salt contains the elements
A. hydrogen and oxygen
B. carbon and oxygen
C. aluminum and chloride
2 OS
9
D. sodium and chloride
1938003 A
14 19521 31 020980028004
Muriatic acid is the name for the technical grade of
A. hydrochloric acid
B. hydrofluoric acid
C. hydrobromic acid
9 D. hydriodic acid
2 OS
1950001 B
15 19523 32 01540155800111
Which of the following alterations of a substance would indicate
that this substance had undergone a chemical rather than a
physical change?
A. a change in density
B. change in odor or taste
C. change in volume
D. change in viscosity
9 E. all of these indicate that the change was chemical
ETS2 OS
1950002 E
15 19528 32 01578001800212
Which one of these represents a physical change rather than a
chemical one?
A. bleaching clothes
B. destructive distillation
C. roasting meat
D. synthesis of nitrates
9 E. none of the above
ETS2 OS
1950003 C
15 19531 31 01650166800112
Consider the following changes (a) the grinding of wheat to
flour; (b) the drying of clothes; (c) the drying of paint;
(d) the making of "burnt" toast; (e) the melting of ice. How many
of these are strictly physical changes?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
9 E. 5
ETS2 OS
1950004 C
15 19535 31 01690113800111
When a solid is changed to a gas or back again without melting, the
process is called
A. osmosis
B. electrolysis
C. sublimation
D. boiling
ETS2 OS
9
E. dissociation
1950005 B
15 19538 31 00080171800111
Chemically pure water may be made by
A. electrolysis
B. distillation
C. filtering
D. boiling
9 E. catalysis
ETS2 OS
1950006 D
15 19540 51 01548001800211
A chemical change is one in which
A. the substances alter their state (gas, liquid solid)
B. heat is always given off
C. new substances are formed the total energy of which is the
same as the total energy of the reactants
D. the identities of the substances are changed
E. new substances are formed the total weight of which is
9
always slightly less than the total weight of the reactants
ETS2 OS
1950007 A
15 19546 31 00090094800111
Which one of the following is true concerning the heating of
various substances in laboratory experiments?
A. Iron and sulfur combined on heating.
B. Halite remained unchanged on heating.
C. Steel wool decreased in weight on heating.
D. Sodium bicarbonate gained weight on heating.
9 E. Heat always produces a chemical change.
ETS2 OS
1950008 E
15 19551 32 01780087800111
Which one of the following is the best example of a chemical
change?
A. Defrosting a refrigerator
B. Filtering drinking water
C. Liquefying air
D. Adding anti_freeze to a car radiator
9 E. Passing an electric current through a solution
ETS2 OS
1950009 D
15 19555 31 01790180800111
The combining of a substance with a definite amount of water
during crystallization is called
A. sublimation
B. saturation
C. evaporation
D. hydration
9 E. ionization
ETS2 OS
1950010 E
15 19558 51 01780089800111
A chemical change is always produced in
A. changes of state of matter
B. crystallization of salts from saturated solutions
C. osmosis through a semi_permeable membrane
D. solution of a solute in a liquid
9 E. passing an electric current through an electrolyte
ETS2 OS
1950011 B
15 19562 31 01810171800111
The process of vaporizing a liquid and condensing the vapor is
known as
A. precipitation
B. distillation
C. sublimation
D. extrapolation
9 E. interpolation
ETS2 OS
1950012 CAACDBAD 84 19565 32 0162008080011190
MACROITEM STEM
2For each of the practices or observations indicate from the
2following list the kind of change involved.
2 A. Oxidation_reduction
2 B. Ionization
2 C. Neutralization
0 D. Physical change
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 Use of baking soda in leavening dough
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 Deterioration of rubber tires in storage
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 Use of chlorine in purifying water
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
4 Using ground limestone on certain kinds of soil
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
5 Beating an egg until it becomes light and foamy
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
6 The sour taste of vinegar
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
7 Production of heat in a gas range
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 8
9 Production of heat in an electric range
ETS2 OS
1950013 BCADDDBB 84 19572 32 0162008080011190
MACROITEM STEM
2For each of the practices or observations indicate from the
ETS2 OS
2following list the kind of change involved
2 A. OxidatIon_reductIon
2 B. ionization
2 C. Neutralization
0 D. Physical change
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 The sour taste of old milk
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 Use of soda to relieve distress after over_eating
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 Discoloration of fruit which is left in open air
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
Death or injury resulting from snapping an electric light switch
4 While standing in a tub of water
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
5 Whipping cream with an electric beater
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
6 Making maple sugar from sap
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
7 Injury to skin caUsed by strong soaps and washing powders
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 8
9 use of vinegar in removing hard water stains from glassware
1950014 BCEA
45 19580 52 0080016280011190
MACROITEM STEM
Many chemical and physical changes are involved in daily
2activities.
2For the following items select from the key the type of change most
2closely related to the statement.
2 A. Ionization
2 B. Neutralization
2 C. Oxidation_reduction
2 D. Physical change
0 E. None of these
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 Soil is often sweetened with lime.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
3
_________
2 Many families burn gas.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 The fission of uranium led to the development of the atomic bomb.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
3
_______
During thunderstorms flashes of lightning occur.
93
_______ __ _________ _____
ETS2 OS
1950015 E
15 19588 31 00878001800211
Which of the following would yield the most reliable evidence in
determining or distinguishing whether a substance had merely
gone into solution, or had actually undergone a chemical change?
A. a change in mass
B. a change in viscosiy
C. a change in miscibility
D. whether or not the substances would separate upon boiling
9 E. none of the above.
ETS2 OS
1950016 E
15 19593 31 00080190800111
Which of the following statements is not true?
3
___
A. Water is a polar compound.
B. Water molecules may form hydrogen bonds with other water
molecules.
C. Water will conduct electricity to a small extent.
D. Water ionizes to form hydronium ions and hydroxide ions.
E. Water combines with other compounds to form hydrates by a
9
process called hydrolysis
ETS2 OS
1950017 BBD
35 19599 32 0009009480011190
MACROITEM STEM
2A mixture of iron and sulfur was heated until the reaction ceased.
2When the product was tested with a magnet it was found to be
2magnetic. A sample of pure iron sulfide was tested with the magnet
2and found to be non_magnetic. Using this information , answer the
0 following questions.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
Which of the following assumptions would explain the magnetic
properties of the product?
A. An excess of sulfur is present in the product.
B. There was not enough sulfur in the reactants.
C. There was not enough iron in the reactants.
1 D. The relative amounts of iron and sulfur are not important.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
The product obtained in the reaction was a
A. compound
B. mixture
C. physical change
D. chemical change
2 E. change of state
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
The formation of the iron sulfide is an example of a
A. compound
B. mixture
ETS2 OS
9
C. physical change
D. chemical change
E. change of state
1950018 BDCED
55 19611 31 06530286
1290
MACROITEM STEM
2For the following items select from the key that portion of the
2curve in the diagram which furnishes the desired information.
2The relationships between the addition or removal of heat and the
2consequent changes in the temperature and physical state of
210 grams of water may be represented schematically as follows
2
*
2
* g
2
*
2
|
*
2
100 |___________________________****************
2 t
|
*| e
f|
2 e
|
*|
|
2 m
|
* |
|
2 p
|
* |
|
2
|
*
|
|
2 d
| b
c *
|
|
2 e 0 |___******************
|
|
2 g
| *|
|
|
|
2
|*|
|
|
|
2 C _10 |* |
|
|
|
3
__________________________________________________
2
a 50
850
1850
7250
2
heat (calories)
___________________________________________________________
2 A. a b
2 B. b c
2 C. c e
D. e f
0 E. f g
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 The heat of fusion
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 The heat of vaporization
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 The specific heat equals 1 cal./gm./deg. C.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
4 The volume change is The greatest
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
the vapor pressure and atmospheric pressure are approximately
9 equal
ETS2WVW
1950019 C
15 19633 31 05030493800111
The principle of most direct significance in the operation
of mechanical refrigeration is that
A. evaporation is a cooling process
B. it is impossible to convert heat wholly into work
C. cooling results when a vapor expands against the
attractive forces between the molecules
D. the volume occupied by a given mass of gas is inversely
proportional to the pressure applied
9 E. none of the above applies to refrigerators
ETS2 OS
1950020 A
15 19639 51 05150412800111
Substances do not deliquesce unless
A. the vapor pressure of their concentrated aqueous
solutions is less than the pressure of the water vapor
in the atmosphere
B. their vapor pressure is less than the pressure of the
atmosphere
C. they form dilute solutions which are saturated
D. they give off water of hydration
E. they are present in an atmosphere the humidity of
9
which is 100 percent
ETS2 OS
1950021 C
15 19645 52 03930394800111
Gasoline, a mixture of hydrocarbons, burns to carbon dioxide and
water. In order to maintain a dirigible, or lighter_than_air
airship, at a constant weight, the procedure used is to condense
water vapor present in the exhaust gases from the engines and allow
the co2 to escape. However, only about 70% of the water vapor need
be condensed. Why?
A. Water is denser than gasoline.
B. Dirigibles filled with helium are heavier than those filled
with hydrogen.
C. The water contains oxygen from the atmosphere.
D. Gasoline is about 70% carbon.
9 E. The gasoline is not completely burned in the engines.
ETS2 OS
1950022 A
15 19654 51 01820113800111
Activated charcoal
A. is used in gas masks because it absorbs gases with high
critical temperatures
B. catalyzes the oxidation of poison gas by air
C. is used to improve the wearing qualities of tires
D. is used to reduce iron ore to iron
9 E. is used in gunpowder
ETS2 OS
1950023 D
15 19658 31 04820113800111
The spontaneous process whereby two gases intermingle so as
to form a homogeneous mixture is known as
A. cohesion
B. sublimation
C. condensation
D. diffusion
9 E. osmosis
ETS2 OS
1950024 B
15 19661 31 04880489800111
Osmosis is
A. another name for dialysis
B. the flow through a semipermeable membrane of solvent from
dilute to concentrated solutions
C. the flow, as above, from concentrated to dilute solutions
D. the rise of liquids in tubes by capillary attraction
9 E. the flow of ions through the membrane of the primary cell
ETS2 OS
1950025 ABCEDE 65 19666 31 0020022480011190
MACROITEM STEM
2To answer the following questions, select from the key the idea most
2closely related to that expressed by each question.
2 A. Valence
2 B. Radical
2 C. Compound formation
2 D. Formula of a compound
0 E. None of these
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 The number of electrons lent, borrowed, or shared
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
Certain atoms within a molecule are held together by
2 Sharing electrons and behave as a unit
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 The number of electrons lent must equal The number borrowed
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
4 A combination of two atoms of an element
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
5 The total plus valence must equal The total negative valence
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
9 A charged atom
ETS2 OS
1950026 BDABCD 65 19674 32 0020019680011190
MACROITEM STEM
2Select from the key the most closely related description.
2 A. Valence of zero
ETS2 OS
2
2
2
0
B. Acquires or has a positive valence
C. Acquires or has a negative valence
D. Shares electrons
E. Shares electrons and may form chains
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 The behavior of hydrogen in the formation of water
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 Carbon
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 Neon
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
4 An element which lends electrons
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
The SO radical
54
4
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
9 The formation of gas molecules
1950027 CBEE
45 19680 32 0020026380011190
MACROITEM STEM
2Select from the key the most closely related description.
2 A. Acquires or has a positive valence
2 B. Acquires or has a negative valence
2 C. Valence of zero
2 D. Shares electrons and may form chains
0 E. Shares electrons
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 Argon
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 An element which borrows electrons
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 The formation of hydrogen molecules
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
9 The formation of water molecules
1950028 EBCE
45 19685 31
MACROITEM STEM
The following questions involve the highest oxidation state of the
3
_______
elements. For each element select the proper highest oxidation
state.
0 A. +1 B. +2 C. +3 D. +4 E. +5
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 Phosphorus
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 Calcium
ETS2 OS
OS85
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 Aluminum
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
9 Vanadium
1950029 E
15 19689 51 03510293800111
A group of atoms within a molecule which are held together
by sharing electrons and which behave as the unit
during chemical reaction is termed
A. a compound
B. a mixture
C. a salt
D. an alloy
9 E. a radical
ETS2 OS
1950030 D
15 19693 31 02930351800111
The formation of molecules through combination of atoms
does not occur in
3
___
A. oxygen
B. hydrogen
C. nitrogen
D. helium
9 E. iodine
ETS2 OS
1950031 ACBDAC 64 19696 32 0014048080011490
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions contain pairs of statements which are
2either in agreement with other or not in agreement, and either
2one of the statements may be true or false. For each item select
2from the key the correct response.
2 A. Statement I and II are in agreement and both false.
2 B. Statement I and II are in agreement and both true.
2 C. Statement I and II are not in agreement; I true, II false.
0 D. Statement I and II are not in agreement; I false, II true.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
I. Carbon is always of positive valence.
1 II. Carbon always lends electrons in chemical reactions.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
I. the activity of rock folding in the lithosphere has never been
observed.
II. The deformation (rock folding) takes place too rapidly to be
2
observed.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
I. At absolute zero the molecules of a substance do not move with
respect to each other.
ETS2 OS
3 II. No heat energy is possessed by a substance at absolute zero.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
I. If an air mass expands isothermally, its temperature will rise.
4 II. Heat must be added in the isothermal expansion of air.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
I. If a metal is oxidized its valence is lowered.
5 II. An oxidizing agent lends electrons to the metal it oxidizes.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
I. Any body having mass possesses inertia.
II. The gravitational pull of the earth determines the mass of a
9
body.
1950032 A
14 19713 31 040703518004
Chemical reactions occur in part because every atom
A. tends to complete its outer electron shell
B. contains an even number of electrons
C. contains an odd number of protons
9 D. requires another atom
2WVW
1950033 D
14 19716 31 025805558004
Diffusion of one substance through another can usually be
hastened by one or several of the following means. By which
means, however, would diffusion tend to be retarded?
A. Heating
B. Agitation
C. Rarefaction
9 D. Freezing
2WVW
1950034 A
14 44992 31 029302588004
Two groups of molecules are in a fluid state. One moves through
the other. The process is called
A. diffusion C. respiration E. separation
9 B. mitosis
D. excretion
2WVW
1950035 B
15 44396 32
5
+
A solution which contains K , when subjected to the Bunsen flame
test produces a color which is
9 A. yellow B. violet C. crimson D. green E. orange
1950036 DABC
45 19724 31 0484025880011190
MACROITEM STEM
2To answer the following questions, indicate the most closely related
2word or phrase from the key below.
2 A. Condensation
2 B. Crystallization
ETS2 OS
2 C. Diffusion
2 D. Distillation
0 E. Evaporation
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 A process in which a liquid is changed to a gas and back again
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 A change of state from a gas to a liquid
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
The formation of a definite arrangement of molecules, atoms,
3 or ions
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
The process by which a substance is equally distributed through
9 all parts of another substance
1950037 CA
25 44512 31
MACROITEM STEM
For each of the practices or observations indicate from the
following list the kind of change involved:
A. oxidation_reduction
B. ionization
C. neutralization
D. physical change
0 E. precipitation
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 Use of soda to relieve distress after over_eating
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
9 Discoloration of fruit which is left in open air
1950038 D
14 19731 31 80038004
When a lighted splint is placed in a tube of carbon dioxide, the
splint
A. glows brightly
B. causes a loud pop
C. remains the same
9 D. goes out
2WVW
1950040 B
14 19734 31 078703518004
The process by which two or more separate kinds of atoms or
molecules mix because of their atomic or molecular motion is
A. adsorption
B. diffusion
C. occusion
9 D. absorption
2 OS
1950041 A
14 19737 32 000900148004
A small sample of iron sulfide is changed to a powder and shaken
2 OS
with carbon disulfide. This results in
A. no change
B. the solution of the sulfur
C. the solution of the iron
9 D. the production of hydrogen sulfide
1950042 C
14 19741 31 009403028004
Burning sulfur produces a substance whose odor is
A. like that of rotten eggs
B. like that of boiled cabbage
C. choking
9 D. bitter
2 OS
1950043 C
14 19743 31
The tarnish on silver is silver
A. oxide
B. hydroxide
C. sulfide
9 D. sulfate
2 OS
079901258004
1950044 B
14 19745 31 003200948004
A piece of copper strip inserted into the hot vapors of sulfur
reacts in a manner which shows sulfur
A. burns
B. supports combustion
C. is a reducing agent
9 D. readily solidifies
2 OS
1950045 D
14 19748 31 009403518004
The type of sulfur composed of long chains of sulfur atoms is
A. rhombic sulfur
B. monoclinic sulfur
C. lambda_sulfur
9 D. mu_sulfur
2 OS
1950046 B
14 19750 31 009408008004
Slow cooling of carefully melted sulfur produces
A. rhombic sulfur
B. monoclinic sulfur
C. plastic sulfur
9 D. lac sulfur
2 OS
1950047 A
14 19752 31 001400948004
The form of sulfur prepared by evaporation from a carbon
disulfide solution is
A. rhombic
3 OS
9
B. monoclinic
C. plastic
D. amorphous
1950048 B
14 19754 31 040305358004
Solid iodine produces a solution with a deep brown color when
dissolved in
A. water
B. alcohol
C. carbon tetrachloride
9 D. carbon disulfide
2 OS
1950049 B
14 19757 31 018904038004
The element which may be collected as a solid on the bottom of a
cooled dish is
A. fluorine
B. iodine
C. bromine
9 D. chlorine
2 OS
1950050 D
14 19759 31 024400948004
Crystalline sulfur is readily soluble in
A. cold water
B. hot water
C. alcohol
9 D. carbon disulfide
2 OS
1950051 C
14 19761 31 016100948004
The temperature at which melted sulfur becomes so thick that it
hardly flows from an inverted tube is aproximately
5
o
o
o
o
9 A. 96 C B. 115 C C. 250 C D. 445 C
2 OS
1950053 C
14 19764 31 019008138004
Any hydrate may be converted to the anhydrous form by
A. recrystallization
B. evaporation from solution
C. heating
9 D. exposing it to air
2 OS
1950054 C
14 19767 31 003201098004
The black deposit formed when a piece of copper is heated in air
is
A. soot
B. carbon
C. cupric oxide
2 OS
9
D. cupric hydroxide
1950055 B
14 19769 31 045804458004
As blue cupric sulfate is heated its weight
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains the same
9 D. increases in direct proportion to the rising temperature
2 OS
1950056 C
14 19772 31 016901138004
When a solid is changed to a gas, without melting, the process is
called
A. diffusion
B. boiling
C. sublimation
9 D. osmosis
2 OS
1950057 C
14 19774 31 011301618004
In order for a gas to be liquefied it must be
A. above its critical temperature and above its equilibrium
vapor pressure
B. above its critical temperature and below its equilibrium
vapor pressure
C. below its critical temperature and above its equilibrium
vapor pressure
D. below its critical temperature and below its equilibrium
9
vapor pressure
2 OS
1950058 B
14 19780 31 000804048004
A water solution of chlorine exposed to sunlight
A. explodes
B. liberates oxygen
C. liberates hydrogen
9 D. forms a peroxide
2 OS
1950059 D
14 19782 31 019604048004
A jet of hydrogen will burn in chlorine and form
A. water
B. ammonia
C. carbon dioxide
9 D. hydrogen chloride
2 OS
1950060 B
15 44654 31 000801748004
Water with temporary hardness
A. will lather with soap after standing a while
B. may be softened by boiling
2 OS
9
C. cannot be softened by washing soda
D. regains its hardness quickly
E. may be softened by thawing out
1950061 D
14 19787 31 006700778004
A property of a material determined by its behavior when heated
with an acid is described as
A. its melting point
B. its boiling point
C. a physical property
9 D. a chemical property
2 OS
1950062 A
14 19790 31 000802448004
The presence of water of crystallization in a compound may be
detected by
A. heating
B. dissolving
C. feeling
9 D. weighing
2 OS
1950063 D
14 19792 31 019600258004
When hydrogen is mixed with oxygen at ordinary temperatures, what
happens
A. an explosion occurs
B. a hydride is formed
C. water is formed
9 D. there is NO apparent reaction
2 OS
1950064 D
14 19795 31 082606688004
When a student introduced some barium chloride into the flame of
his Bunsen burner, the flame became green in color. This result
is best explained by the fact that
A. chlorine is a green_colored gas
B. chlorine is an oxidizing agent
C. an atom of barium has more electrons than an atom of
chlorine
D. when electrons return to a lower energy level, radiant
9
energy may be emitted
2 OS
1950065 D
14 45028 31 010801968004
If an electric spark were passed through a tube filled only with
hydrogen
A. the hydrogen would explode
B. the hydrogen would condense
C. water vapor would form
D. no chemical reaction would occur
2 OS
9
E. the hydrogen will decompose into simpler substances
1950066 B
14 19804 31 009400328004
When sulfur and copper are heated together
A. copper sulfate is formed
B. copper sulfide is formed
C. copper sulfite is formed
9 D. no reaction occurs
2 OS
1950067 A
14 19807 31 002700168004
A solution of zinc chloride should not be stored in a tank made
of
A. aluminum
B. silver
C. copper
9 D. lead
2 OS
1950068 D
14 19809 32 025808328004
Which one of the following is an example of diffusion
A. the flow of water in a river
B. movement of traffic on a busy highway
C. raindrops falling from clouds
9 D. apparent disappearance of smoke from a candle
2 OS
1950069 B
15 44858 32 029305298004
Molecules of dye can move at the rate of 200 miles per hour but
they may actually require weeks to diffuse an inch up a tube of
water. This phenomenon can be accounted for
A. because the dye molecules move upward slowly due to the pull
of gravity
B. because other molecules impede upward movement of the dye
molecules by colliding with them and changing the direction of
their motion
C. because the walls of the tube retard diffusion of the dye
D. because of adhesion between dye molecules
9 E. because of the hydrophobic nature of dye molecules
2 OS
1950070 D
14 19819 32 019202588004
Of the following substances, the one least likely to enter a
typical cell in significant amounts by the process of diffusion
is
A. oxygen
B. glycerol
C. nitrate ion
9 D. a protein
2 OS
1950071 D
14 19822 31 048801128004
Osmosis occurs whenever
A. there is a solution involving two substances of different
molecular weights
B. one substance is dissolved in another, with a membrane
between two parts of the solution
C. a membrane separates two regions of a fluid
D. a membrane permeable to solvent but not to solute separates
9
two differently concentrated regions of the solvent
2 OS
1950072 C
15 19828 32 012502488004
Silver tarnishes when it reacts with
A. ammonia
C. hydrogen sulfide E. water
9 B. carbon dioxide D. nitrogen
2 OS
1950073 A
14 19830 32 036401598004
According to einstein, the release in energy in a chemical
reaction is accompanied by a decrease in mass. This loss in mass
in the usual laboratory demonstration
A. is much too small to be measured
B. is readily measurable
C. was satisfactorily explained prior to einstein's
contribution
9 D. was found only after einstein's contribution
2 OS
1950074 B
15 19835 31 064704630154
Which one of the following is not an example of a chemical
3
___
change?
A. souring of milk
B. dissolving of salt in water
C. rusting of iron
D. burning of oil
9 E. digestion of a candy bar
0028
1950075 A
15 19839 31 06470157
Which one of the following is not an example of a physical
3
___
change?
A. burning of coal
B. removing coal from underneath the ground
C. cutting of wood
D. tearing a piece of paper
9 E. spilling a quart of milk
0028
1950076 C
0019
15 19843
31
01540302
Which one of the following describes a chemical change?
A. boiling of water
B. adding sugar to water
C. burning of wood
D. melting of lead
9 E. evaporation of sea water
1950077 C
15 19846 31 1044
An explosive is a substance which
A. reacts with oxygen
B. always contains chlorine
C. decomposes almost instantaneously upon shock
D. contains ammonia
9 E. no correct response is given.
0040
1952001 D
15 19849 51 01540164800112
Which one of the following is the best example of a chemical
change?
A. the disappearance of dry ice
B. adding alcohol to water
C. evaporating salt water
D. chlorination of drinking water
9 E. distilling water
ETS2 OS
1952002 E
15 19853 51 00060013800111
Chlorine
A. unites with hydrogen to form the hydrogen halide of
greatest stability
B. can be made by electrolysis of its compounds with the
nonmetallic elements
C. unites with hydrogen by a chain reaction
D. loses electrons more easily than bromine
E. is often produced commercially by the electrolysis of
9
molten potassium chloride
ETS2 OS
1952003 B
15 19858 51 00570043800111
Sulfur dioxide
A. is a stable compound whose density is almost equal to that
of oxygen
B. is obtained by the combustion of iron pyrites
C. yields a monoprotic acid when it dissolves in water
D. is only liquefied with great difficulty
9 E. contains sulfur with an oxidation state of +2
ETS2 OS
1952004 C
15 19863 51 01820183800111
Charcoal is made by a process known as
ETS2 OS
9
A. carbonation
B. organic synthesis
C. destructive distillation
D. hydration
E. oxidation
1952005 B
15 19865 51 01840185800111
The Cottrell process is
A. a method of preparing colloids
B. a method of imparting a charge to particles, suspended in
the air, SO that they are driven to a plate of opposite
charge
C. a method of dialysis
D. a method of increasing the humidity of the air
E. an interesting theoretical method of precipitating colloids,
9
but one that has NO practical application
1952006 D
15 45022 51
Two different molecular forms of the same element are called
A. isotopes C. different oxidation states E. compounds
9 B. isomers
D. allotropes
1952007 B
15 19871 31 01090497800111
Moving air seems cooler to a person than still air, because
A. moving the air gives it a lower temperature
B. moisture from the body is evaporated more rapidly
C. impact of air on the face give the impression of coolness
D. moving air has the greater specific heat
9 E. still air has the greater specific heat
1952008 AEED
45 19876 51 1 045201099005119095
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions refer to Figure 5. In the Linde
2process for making liquid air, the gas, thoroughly
2freed from water vapor, is first compressed to a high pressure
5
2
(some 2000 lbs./in. ) by a pump (p in Figure 5). It is then
2cooled in an ice_water bath w. The cool air then passes
2into an expansion chamber e, being driven through the inner of
2two tubes and escapes at the bottom through a small adjustable
2hole h. It is drawn back through the outer tube by the suction
2side of the double_acting pump. The expansion cools the air.
2Thus the incoming stream of air is cooled by the outgoing one,
2and this cooling process is progressive, so that, if heat is
2prevented from getting into the expansion chamber from outside,
2the expanding air eventually cools itself to a temperature
2below its boiling point, when drops of liquid form by condensation
ETS2 OS
ETS2 OS
ETS2 OS
2and fall into the vacuum vessel at the bottom, where it is kept
2until needed. Using this information, answer the
0 following questions.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
Which of the following occurs when the incoming air is compressed?
A. The temperature of the air increases.
B. Power is produced to run generators.
C. The air is immediately liquefied.
D. The temperature of the air decreases.
1 E. Oxygen is separated from nitrogen.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
The cooling effect of the expansion of the air is a phenomenon which
A. occurs only because the temperature is already at a
low point.
B. is a peculiarity of air.
C. occurs because the gas was originally under a low pressure.
D. is caused by a liquefaction of part of the air.
2 E. occurs when any gas expands.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
The principal reason for removing water vapor from the
incoming air is to
A. produce pure liquid air
B. prevent formation of rust in the apparatus
C. prevent formation of steam which would cause deterioration
of the piston in p
D. prevent formation of ice which would cause the water
in w to change to ice
3 E. prevent formation of ice which would clog the air tubes
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
The main purpose for the liquefaction of air is to
A. produce nitrogen for commercial use
B. produce oxygen for commercial use
C. produce liquid air for commercial refrigeration
D. attain extremely low temperatures
9 E. demonstrate that air can be liquefied
1952009 A
14 19906 31 081501898004
Lamps used for roadway illumination contain vapor of the element
A. sodium
B. potassium
C. lithium
9 D. magnesium
2 OS
1952010 A
14 45025 31 019600238004
Electric light bulbs may be frosted by exposing the inside
surface to
2 OS
9
A. hydrogen fluoride C. cryolite
E. ice
B. freon
D. hydrogen iodide
1952011 B
15 19910 31 000800238004
Drinking water is subjected to fluoridation in order to
A. destroy bacteria
B. prevent tooth decay
C. prevent goiter
D. destroy portions of the enlarged thyroid
9 E. improve the taste
2 OS
1952012 B
14 19913 32 043801138004
The cooling effect of an electric refrigerator is due to the
following change of state
A. gas to liquid
B. liquid to gas
C. liquid to solid
9 D. solid to gas
2 OS
1952013 A
14 19916 31 128400150351
When they combine chemically with metal atoms, nonmetal atoms
A. gain electrons to become negative ions
B. lose electrons to become positive ions
C. remain electrically neutral
D. form van der Waals bonds
9 E. are reduced
0041
1952014 C
14 19920 51 015903510159
Chemical energy is stored within atoms, molecules, and ions as
A. activation energy B. electron kinetic energy
9 C. electron potential energy D. thermal energy
0041
1952015 A
14 19923 31 009401091331
The combustion of sulfur produces predominately
A. SO B. SO C. H SO D. S O
E. H S
94
2
3
2 3
23
2
0043
1952016 B
15 19925 31
01540600
C H O + heat _____> 12 C + 11 H O
4 12 22 11
2
What type of ordinary chemical reaction is depicted by the above
equation?
A. combination B. decomposition C. replacement
9 D. halogenation E. neutralization
1952017 D
14 19929
31
015401570135
0028
0026
Which of the following is a chemical change?
A. the purification of alcohol by distillation
B. freezing of water
C. dissolving of sodium chloride in water
9 D. tarnishing of silver dinnerware.
1952018 B
15 19932 32 016501540834
Which of the following involves a chemical change?
A. melting ice
B. burning paper
C. magnetizing an iron bar
D. sawing a piece of wood
9 E. extracting cream from milk
1952019 E
15 19935 32 01571213
An example of a physical change is
A. souring of milk
B. burning of paper
C. digestion of food
D. rusting of iron
9 E. none of these
0020
0020
1952020 C
15 19938 31 015401350834
Which of the following is not a chemical change?
3
______
A. burning of magnesium
B. exploding of some nitroglycerine
C. pulverizing of some sulfur
D. rusting of iron
9 E. neutralization of an acid
0040
1952021 D
15 19942 31 015702930407
When a substance undergoes a physical change it is always true
that
A. it melts.
B. a new substance is produced.
C. heat is evolved.
D. the molecules of the substance remain unchanged.
9 E. gas is given off.
0040
1952022 D
15 19945 31 015701540653
Which of the following represents a physical change in matter?
A. Ice melts.
B. A solid is crushed.
C. A substance burns.
D. Both A and B
0040
9
E. both A and C
1952023 D
15 45203 51
All of the following reactions are described as decomposition
reactions EXCEPT:
A. 2KClO (s) ___> 2KCl(s) + 3O (g)
4
3
2
B. HCOOH(l) ___> H O(l) + CO(g)
4
2
C. 2HgO(s) ___> 2Hg(l) + O (g)
4
2
D. POCl (l) + 3H O(l) ___> H PO (aq) + 3HCl(aq)
4
3
2
3 4
E. Ni(CO) (l) ___> Ni(s) + 4CO(g)
94
4
1952024 A
15 45209 71
All of the following reactions are called combination reactions
EXCEPT:
A. Cl (g) + H O(l) ___> HOCl(aq) + HCl(aq)
4
2
2
B. MgO(s) + CO (g) ___> MgCO (s)
4
2
3
C. C H (g) + Br (l) ___> C H Br (l)
4
24
2
24 2
D. CuSO (s) + 5H O(l) ___> CuSO . 5H O(s)
4
4
2
4
2
E. 3H (g) + N (g) ___> 2NH (g)
94
2
2
3
1954001 A
14 19948 31 031703510527
The chief cause of the repulsive force that keeps atoms from
meshing together despite any attractive forces that may be
present is
A. electrostatic repulsion between the electrons
B. the uncertainty principle
C. the exclusion principle
9 D. conservation of energy
0041
1954002 E
15 19952 31 018903511305
The smallest part of an element that can enter into combination
with other elements is
A. a molecule
B. a gram
C. a mole
D. the electron
0020
9
E. an atom
1954003 E
15 19955 32 019213060413
A substance that cannot be decomposed by chemical means is
A. sugar
B. air
C. water
D. salt
9 E. mercury
0020
1954004 A
15 19957 31 049501890351
The smallest particle of an element that can enter into
combination with other elements is
A. an atom
B. a crystal
C. a solid
D. a molecule
9 E. none of these
0020
1954005 E
15 19960 31 058305130293
Dalton's Atomic Theory, as modified by subsequent discoveries, says
A. atoms unite to form molecules
B. all matter is made up from atoms
C. all atoms of the same element have a limited number of mass
values
D. an element is made up of similar atoms
9 E. all of above
0020
1954006 C
14 19964 31 018903510185
An element is:
A. a collection of atoms with identical numbers of neutrons
B. a collection of atoms with identical nuclear masses
C. a collection of atoms with identical nuclear charges
9 D. one of the following: air, earth, fire, water
0009
1954007 C
14 19968 31 052714360462
What kind of force holds an electron in the vicinity of the nucleus
of an atom?
A. gravitational B. magnetic
9 C. electrical
D. the chemical bond
0009
1954008 D
15 19971 31
03510342
The fundamental nature of the atom, that is, the factor or
factors which seem(s) to distinguish it from all other kinds of
atoms is
A. the charge of the electrons in the electron cloud.
0035
9
B. the atomic weight of the atom.
C. the charge of the neutrons within the atom.
D. the positive charge on the nucleus of the atom.
E. more than one of the above.
1954009 B
15 19976 32 035103420263
An atom has 3 protons and 4 neutrons in its nucleus. The number
of electrons in its orbitals is
9 A. 4 B. 3 C. 7 D. 12 E. unpredictable.
0035
1954010 C
15 19978 31 035113010263
The chemical nature of the atom is determined by the
A. atomic weight.
B. number of neutrons.
C. number of electrons.
D. weight of the protons.
9 E. size of the neutrons.
0035
1954011 C
15 19981 31 141405130351
Which one of the following statements about atomic theory is
incorrect?
A. There are particles in the nucleus which add mass to the
atom but do not affect the electrical charge.
B. The volume of an atom is not determined by the space
occupied by the nucleus.
C. Each atom is composed of a negatively charged nucleus.
D. Almost the entire mass of the atom is concentrated in the
nucleus.
E. The atomic number of an atom is the same numerically as the
9
number of protons in the nucleus.
0035
1954012 A
15 19988 31 033701890263
Given only the atomic number of an element, which of the
following quantities could you find?
A. The number of electrons.
B. The atomic weight.
C. The number of neutrons in the nucleus.
D. The number of isotopes.
9 E. All of the above.
0035
1960001 C
15 19992 31 03510463800111
The chemical nature of the atom is determined by the
A. atomic weight
B. number of neutrons
C. number of electrons
D. weight of the protons
ETS2 OS
9
E. size of the neutrons
1960002 A
15 19995 32 02920445800111
Avogadro's Law is of importance in the
A. determination of the relative weights of molecules
B. prediction of solar eclipses
C. determination of the pressure of a gas when the temperature
is known
D. prediction of intensity of discharge of electrons
across a spark gap
E. determination of the rate of disintegration of radioactive
9
substances
ETS2 OS
1960003 D
15 20001 31 03510097800113
If an atom containing 3 protons and 4 neutrons combines with a
second atom with 9 protons and 10 neutrons, the ion of the second
atom in the compound will have
A. 12 protons
B. 4 protons
C. 10 protons
D. 9 protons
9 E. none of these
ETS2 OS
1960004 DACCBAE 75 20005 51 0513051180011290
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions involve certain theoretical principles.
2Select from the key the most closely related principle.
2 A. Atomic theory
2 B. Kinetic Theory
2 C. First law of thermodynamics
2 D. Adiabatic change
0 E. Isothermal change
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
An increase in volume of a gas without adding heat from An external
1 source.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 Atoms combine in simple ratios by weight.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
The heat from burning food could be transformed into mechanical
3 energy.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
The ratio of the work in joules to the heat in calories is a
4 constant.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
Molecules are perfectly elastic and rebound without energy loss
5 after collision.
ETS2 OS
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
6 The smallest particle of an element taking part in a reaction.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
A decrease in pressure of a gas with the addition of heat from an
9 external source so that PV = k.
1960005 E
15 20015 52 02920195800111
Avogadro's Law
A. led to the discovery of the law of combining volumes
B. states that at S.T.P. equal volumes of all gases contain equal
numbers of atoms
C. states that the product of the molecular weight and the
specific heat of all gases at S.T.P. is approximately 6
D. states that the avogadro number is 22.4
E. explains why the volumes of reacting gases are in the ratio
9
of small whole numbers
ETS2 OS
1960007 D
15 20021 52 00310407800112
In chemical equations where two gases combine to form a gaseous
product, the relationship of the volumes of the reacting substances
to that of the product formed is shown by the
A. molecular weight
B. subscripts
C. equality between the sum of the volumes of reactants and
the volume of the product
D. ratios of the coefficients
9 E. valence of the substances
ETS2 OS
1960008 C
15 20027 52
071101
Given two pure substances (I and II) containing elements A and B.
Substance I has a mass of 2.25 g and contains 0.900 g of B.
Substance II is analyzed as 40.0% B and 60.0% A by weight. These
data
A. illustrate the law of multiple proportions
B. prove that either I or II is an element
C. illustrate the Law of Definite Composition
D. prove that either I or II is a mixture
E. show that the formulas of I and II are AB and AB
94
3
1960009 E
15 20034 32 01960404800112
Since one volume of hydrogen reacts with one volume of chlorine to
produce two volumes of hydrogen chloride
A. one molecule of each of the reacting elements combine to form
one molecule of hydrogen chloride
B. each molecule of hydrogen chloride contains two atoms of
0064
ETS2 OS
9
hydrogen
C. the volume of a gas produced in any reaction is equal to the
sum of the volumes of the gaseous reactants
D. the relation is an example of the law of combining weights
E. one molecule of hydrogen reacts with one molecule of chlorine
to form two molecules of hydrogen chloride
1960010 A
14 20042 32 082908068004
In double replacement, the reaction will go to completion if
A. one of the products is a gas
B. one of the products is soluble
C. one of the products ionized
9 D. the products formed are highly ionized
2 OS
1960011 C
15 20045 31 051302650351
Atoms are generally believed in because of
A. many direct observations of them
B. one chemical law which indirectly verifies their existence
C. several chemical laws which indirectly verify their
existence
D. the periodic table relationships
9 E. chemical reactions occur.
0040
1960012 D
15 20049 31 051313200345
Which of the following pieces of evidence support our belief in
atoms?
A. Law of multiple proportions
B. Law of constant composition
C. Law of conservation of matter
D. both A and B
9 E. both B and C
0040
1960013 B
14 20052 52 1682
0961
Of the following natural laws, that with the least application to
chemistry is the law of
A. conservation of energy B. conservation of momentum
9 C. conservation of mass D. definite proportions
1962001 C
15 20055 32 02640265800111
At the present time, the law of conservation of mass is actually
A. a theory
B. a hypothesis
C. a law in itself
D. a special case of a more general law
9 E. none of these
0041
ETS2 OS
1962002 B
15 20058 32 00420031026411
The equation Mg + O ___> MgO is incorrect because
4
2
it is not in accord with
A. Avogadro's law
B. the law of conservation of mass
C. the law of definite proportions
D. the law of multiple proportions
9 E. Boyle's law
ETS2 OS
1962003 E
15 20062 31 015904230284
The energy an object possesses due to its relative position is:
A. radiant energy B. electrical energy C. chemical energy
9 D. kinetic energy E. potential energy
0028
1962004 A
14 20065 31 001500451323
When a piece of metal is oxidized, the resulting oxide is
A. heavier than the original metal
B. the same weight as the original metal
C. lighter than the original metal
D. sometimes heavier and at other times lighter, depending upon
9
the metal
0041
1964001 D
15 20069 52 01760066800111
CuSO . 5H O is considered a chemical compound because
4
4
2
A. it gives off water when heated
B. when it is powdered it loses its characteristic blue color
C. the water in the compound evaporates rapidly
D. it always contains 5 molecules of water per molecule of CuSO
4
4
9 E. it becomes opaque when heated
ETS2 OS
1964002 E
15 20075 51 01960025800112
An electric spark is passed through a mixture containing 16
grams of oxygen gas and 4 grams of hydrogen gas. After the
explosion, there is in the container
A. 16 grams of water and 4 grams of hydrogen
B. 8 grams of water and 12 grams of oxygen
C. 6 grams of water and 14 grams of oxygen
D. 20 grams of water
9 E. 18 grams of water and 2 grams of hydrogen
ETS2 OS
1964003 D
15 20080 51 01970198800112
In the formation of CaO, the relative combining weights are 5 gm.
of Ca to 2 gm. of O. If 10 gm. of Ca and 6 gm. of O are taken
ETS2 OS
for the experiment,
A. no reaction should occur
B. the per cent of oxygen in the CaO would be greater
C. CaO should be formed
4
2
D. some oxygen is left after CaO is formed
9 E. the extra oxygen acts as a catalyst
1964004 C
14 20085 31 026505688004
The Law of Definite Proportions applies to the definite
compositon by weight of
A. atoms
B. elements
C. compounds
9 D. mixtures
2 OS
1964005 E
15 20087 52 070401980288
Two compounds are formed from the elements A and B. One of the
compounds is 25% A and 75% B by weight. The other compound is
50% A and 50% B by weight. For a fixed weight of A in the two
compounds, the ratio of the weights of B in the two compounds is
9 A. 4:3 B. 1:1 C. 2:3 D. 1:2 E. 1:3
0026
1964006 B
15 20091 32 026113180345
Carbon dioxide is always found to contain 27.3 percent of carbon.
This statement obeys the law of
A. multiple proportions
B. constant composition
C. Einstein
D. conservation of mass_energy
9 E. all of these
0020
1964007 C
15 20094 31 006601891320
The existence of two different compounds composed of the same
two different elements is explained by
A. the law of definite composition
B. the law of constant composition
C. the law of multiple proportions
D. Avogadro's law
9 E. all of the above
0020
1964008 C
14 20098 31 026501891320
The law that relates the different weights of one element that
combine with a fixed weight of another element is the law of
A. conservation of matter B. constant composition
9 C. multiple proportions D. equivalent proportions
0009
1964009 C
15 20102 52 003200061284
Copper and chlorine combine in different ratios to yield more
than one compound. In one, 1.792 g of copper combine with 1.000
g of chlorine. Which of the following might represent the mass of
copper combining with 1.000 g of chlorine in another compound:
9 A. 2.792 g B. 1.000 g C. 0.896 g D. 0.792 g E. none of these
0019
1964010 B
15 20107 31 051313200307
The law of multiple proportions is an example of evidence
supporting the atomic theory. This law provides what type of
evidence?
A. Direct evidence
B. Indirect evidence
C. Direct observation of atoms
D. both A and C
9 E. both B and C
0040
1964011 C
15 20111 31 040803450513
Sodium chloride, NaCl, is 39% Na and 61% Cl everywhere pure NaCl
is found. This means that NaCl obeys the law of
A. multiple proportions
B. conservation of matter
C. constant composition
9 E. conservation of momentum
0040
1964012 C
15 20115 31 034505130568
Which law states that a particular substance always has the same
elements present in the same proportions by weight?
A. Law of multiple proportions
B. Law of conservation of matter
C. Law of constant composition
D. Law of conservation of energy
9 E. Law of gravity.
0040
1964013 B
15 20119 32 034505131097
Which of the following would be most useful to you if you wanted
to verify the law of constant composition?
A. Analysis information about two compounds that contains the
same elements in different proportions
B. A number of samples of a pure compound collected from many
locations in the world
C. The total weights of the reactants and products of a
reaction
D. The percentage of each isotope contained in one sample of an
element
0040
9
E. The total moles of the reactants and products of a reaction.
1964014 B
14 20127 32 016804070806
A mixture of iron and sulfur was heated until the reaction
ceased. When the product was tested with a magnet it was found
to be magnetic. A sample of pure iron sulfide was tested with
the magnet and found to be non_magnetic. Using this information,
state which of the following assumptions would explain the
magnetic nature of the product.
A. An excess of sulfur is present in the product.
B. There was not enough sulfur in the reactants.
C. There was not enough iron in the reactants.
9 D. The relative amounts of iron and sulfur are not important.
0035
1964015 C
14 20135 52 019604450189
If it is known that
(1) 1.008 g hydrogen reacts with 8.000 g oxygen,
(2) 12.15 g of element X reacts with 35.46 g chlorine, and
(3) 1.008 g hydrogen reacts with 35.46 g chlorine, it is reasonable
reasonable to assume that the weight of element X which will react
with 8.000 g oxygen will be
9 A. 24.30 g. B. 1.008 g. C. 12.15 g. D. 35.46 g.
0038
1964016 B
14 20140 31 026501890066
The law that states that the elements making up a chemical
compound are always combined in the same weight ratios is called
A. The law of conservation of mass
B. The law of definite proportions
C. Avogadro's law
D. the atomic theory
9 E. the Pauli Principle
0041
1964017 A
15 20144 52
071101
Which of the following pairs could be used to illustrate the Law
of Multiple Proportions?
A. Au O and Au O
B. O and O
C. Au O and Fe O
4
2
23
2
3
23
23
D. H O and OH
E. Au O and AuCl
94
2
2
23
3
0064
1964018 A
15 20148 52
071101
Three different samples containing only elements A and B are
analyzed:
Sample #1 weighs 24.00 g and contains 3.00 g of B.
Sample #2 is 12.5% B by weight.
Sample #3 is composed of 11.375 pounds of A and 1.625 pounds
0064
of B.
It is likely that:
A. all three samples are identical compounds.
B. only samples #1 and #2 are identical and #3 is a different
compound.
C. only samples #2 and #3 are identical and #1 is a different
compound.
D. each of the three samples is a different compound.
9 E. at least one of the samples is a mixture.
1980001 D
15 20156 32 03150316800112
Krauskopf states that, "electricity and magnetism, just in the
fact of their existence, do violence to our intuitive ideas of
matter, space, and the nature of force." In making this statement
he probably had in mind the fact that
A. we cannot formulate laws which can be used to make valid
predictions
B. they really exist only in our minds as scientific abstractions
C. they have not been fruitful in extending research
D. they act without contact across intervening space
9 E. they do not alter the space around them
1980002 C
15 20164 51 07148003
The equation governing the deflection of a positive ion under the
influence of a magnetic field of strength H in a mass
spectrometer is
5
2
m/e = ((Hr) )/2V
where m is the mass of the positive ion, e its charge, r the
radius of the circular path described by the ion, and V the
accelerating electrical voltage.
If all the following positive molybdenum ions have been accelerated
by the same electrical voltage, V, which one of the ions would
be deflected the most from its original line_of_flight under
the influence of the magnetic field in a mass spectrometer?
A. mass 94, charge +1
B. mass 99, charge +1
C. mass 99, charge +2
D. mass 100, charge +1
9 E. mass 100, charge +2
1980003 B
14 20174 31 001904638004
Ions are
A. chemically stable and electrically neutral
B. chemically stable and electrically charged
C. chemically unstable and electrically charged
ETS2 OS
2WVW
2 OS
9
D. chemically unstable and neutral
1980004 B
14 20177 32 001901858004
The ability of an ion to polarize or deform another ion with
which it comes in contact will be greatest if it has
A. high ionic charge and large radius
B. high ionic charge and small radius
C. low ionic charge and large radius
9 D. low ionic charge and small radius
2 OS
1980005 A
14 20181 31 035101858004
An atom or group of atoms with an unbalanced electrostatic charge
is
A. an ion
B. a radical
C. covalent
9 D. neutral
2 OS
1980006 B
14 20183 31 015902630731
The energy that must be expended in order to remove an electron
from an atom is called
A. electron affinity B. ionization energy
9 C. valence D. heat of vaporization
0041
1980007 B
14 20186 31 016004621367
Moderate electrical conductivity is exhibited by:
A. SiO B. graphite C. diamond D. CO
94
2
2
0043
1980008 D
14 20188 31
09380041
If two objects repel each other
A. they are probably unlike charged
B. their potential energy increases as they are moved closer
together
C. their potential energy increases as they are moved further
apart
9 D. they must necessarily be like charged.
1980009 D
15 20192 31 017801040192
Good conductors may be defined as substances that have
A. high melting and boiling points
B. high densities
C. the ability to resist the flow of an electric current
D. the ability to allow the flow of an electric current
9 E. all of the above
0026
0034
1980010 A
14 20196 52 1946
An ohm is the resistance of a column of mercury 106.3 cm long and
5
2
1 mm cross section at 0 degree C. The resistance of a column of
5
2
mercury 10.63 cm long and 1 cm cross section at 0 degree C is:
5
_3
9 A. 10 ohm B. 0.1 ohm C. 1 ohm D. 10 ohms
0057
2000001 E
15 20200 52 05730351800111
A uranium atom can be seen with
A. an ordinary microscope
B. a high power microscope
C. a 200_in. Telescope
D. an electron microscope
9 E. none of these instruments
ETS2 OS
2000002 DCCDDACAC94 20203 31 0658066180011490
ETS2WVW
MACROITEM STEM
2To answer the following questions, use the key below
2 A. The statement is true but the reason is false.
3
____
_____
2 B. The statement is false but the reason is true.
3
_____
____
2 C. The statement is true and the reason is true.
3
____
____
2 D. The statement is false and the reason is false.
03
_____
_____
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
Low voltage x_rays are more dangerous than high voltage x_rays
1 because they carry more energy.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
High voltage x_rays have great penetrating power because they
2 are high energy rays.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
Scientists knew that if barium was produced by neutron bombardment
of uranium that fission had been attained, because a lighter element
3 had been made from a heavier one.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
Scientists knew that in a fission reaction if one neutron caused the
release of more than one neutron, a chain reaction would result,
because the released neutrons certainly would bring about fission
4 in other atoms.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
It is known that under certain conditions of energy, neutrons will
bring about fission in any element because the binding energy value
5 of all nuclei is the same.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
Gamma rays are more dangerous to the personnel of a nuclear reaction
plant than are the beta rays because they are made up of
6 positively charged particles.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
The isotopes of an element cannot be separated from each other by
chemical methods, because the atomic number of an element is
somewhat responsible for an element's chemical behavior and all the
7 isotopes of an element have the same atomic number.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 8
When a neutron is projected into the nucleus of a U_238 atom, it
causes the atom to change immediately into a plutonium atom because
in a nuclear reactor plutonium is obtained from neutrons bombarding
8 U_238.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 9
Graphite is used as a moderator in a nuclear reactor because
9 graphite is an excellent absorber of neutrons.
2000003 C
15 20228 31
05131649
An important forward step in the development of atomic theory
occurred with proof that the atom is mostly empty space. The
experimental procedure involved
A. the radioactive disintegration of certain substances.
B. The Wilson cloud chamber.
C. The use of alpha particles to bombard gold foil.
D. Aston's mass spectrograph.
9 E. The use of a zinc sulfide fluorescent screen.
2000004 ADCBE
55 20234 52
MACROITEM STEM
Match the idea to the person who first put forth the idea
A. The mass of the products of a chemical reaction equals
the mass of the reactants.
B. The composition of natural copper carbonate is the same
as that of copper carbonate synthesized in the laboratory.
C. Elements are composed of indivisible particles called atoms.
D. Electricity, like matter, consists of particles.
0 E. The atom consists of a dense, positively charged nucleus.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 Lomonosov
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 Stoney
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 Dalton
0035
OS83
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
4 Proust
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
9 Rutherford
2100001 A
15 20241 32 00190066800112
The stability of an ionic compound such as potassium chloride is
due to
A. the electrostatic force of attraction between the ions
B. the difficulty in ionizing further an already ionized atom
C. its high energy
D. the fact that the formation of the compound is accomplished
by the absorption of a considerable quantity of radiation
or heat
E. the fact that the energy lost in the formation of the negative
9
ion far exceeds that gained in forming the positive ion
2100002 CAB
35 20248 31 0351026380011290
MACROITEM STEM
2A certain neutral atom is composed of 21 electrons, 21 protons, and
224 neutrons. Based on this information, answer the following
0 questions.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
What is the approximate relative weight?
A. 21
B. 24
C. 45
D. 42
1 E. 66
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
What is the atomic number?
A. 21
B. 24
C. 45
D. 42
2 E. 66
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
Of what element is it an isotope?
A. calcium
B. scandium
C. chromium
D. neon
9 E. zinc
2100003 BCBDDABEB95 20254
ETS2WVW
MACROITEM STEM
31
0341026380011190
ETS2 OS
ETS2 OS
2To answer the following questions, select from the key the correct
2particle.
2 A. neutron
2 B. electron
2 C. proton
2 D. atom
0 E. molecule
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 A particle which travels in elliptical orbits
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 Another name for the hydrogen ion
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 A nearly weightless particle found in all elements
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
4 The molecule of bromine contains only one of what other particle?
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
5 A particle particularly important in the kinetic theory
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
6 A particle not found in a certain one of the known elements
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
3
___
___
7 A particle discussed in the elementary theories of magnetism
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 8
A particle for active gaseous elements, containing exactly
8 two other particles
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 9
9 A particle important in the operation of a thermocouple
2100004 C
15 20264 31 03420097800111
The nucleus of an atom consists of
A. electrons and protons
B. electrons, protons, and neutrons
C. protons and neutrons
D. electrons and neutrons
9 E. protons only
ETS2WVW
2100005 D
14 20267 31 03518001800311
The factor which seems to distinguish an atom of one
element from an atom of any other element is
A. the charge of the electrons in the electron cloud
B. the atomic weight of the atom
C. the charge of the neutrons within the atom
9 D. the positive charge on the nucleus of the atom
ETS2WVW
2100006 A
15 20271 31 03510579800111
The most common, or so_called "classical method," by which
ETS2WVW
the inner structure of atoms has been studied, has been by
A. bombardment of these atoms with small particles or
with high_frequency electromagnetic radiation
B. the use of these atoms as projectiles hurled into the
nucleus of heavy molecules
C. whirling these atoms again and again through an electric
field in a cyclotron
D. the bombardment of alpha particles from radium
with a stream of these atoms
E. speeding up these atoms by placing them between
two electrodes in an evacuated tube, and giving the
electrodes strong charges of opposite sides or
9
polarities
2100007 C
15 20281 31 034103518004
The number of neutrons in an atom whose atomic number is 4 and
whose atomic mass is 9 is
9 A. 13
B. 9
C. 5
D. 4
2 OS
2100008 A
15 20283 31 05640342800111
A deuteron is
A. the nucleus of heavy hydrogen
B. a neutron
C. an electron with a positive charge
D. an atom of a recently discovered element
9 E. a type of large molecule
ETS2WVW
2100009 A
15 20286
An alpha particle is
A. a helium nucleus
B. an electron
C. a radioactive element
D. a negative particle
9 E. a hydrogen atom
31
03580340800111
ETS2WVW
2100010 A
15 20288
Radiant energy consists of
A. photons
B. protons
C. neutrons
D. positrons
9 E. electrons
31
04640159800111
ETS2 OS
2100011 BDAAB
54 20290 31 80018003
1190
MACROITEM STEM
2After each item number on the answer sheet, blacken space
ETS2WVW
2
2
2
0
A. if the item is true of cathode rays only
B. if the item is true of positive rays only
C. if the item is true of both cathode and positive rays
D. if the item is true of neither
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
Consist of the residue of molecules which have lost one or more
1 electrons
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
Move toward the electrode which has the same charge as they
2 themselves bear
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 Consist of a stream of electrons
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
Are identical, irrespective of metal in the anode or cathode
4 or gas in the tube
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
9 Vary with gas or material in the tube
2100012 CCBDA
55 20298 31 80018003
1190
MACROITEM STEM
After each item number on the answer sheet, blacken space
2 A. if the item is true of cathode rays only
2 B. if the item is true of positive rays only
2 C. if the item is true of both cathode and positive rays
0 D. if the item is true of neither
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 Are deflected by magnetic or electrical fields
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
Magnitude of their charge is either equal to or a multiple
2 of the fundamental charge on the electron
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
May have a mass equal to that of the proton if the gas in the
3 tube is hydrogen
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
4 Are uncharged particles
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
9 Mass is 1/1850 of that of the hydrogen atom
2100013 B
15 20306 31 03510097800112
An atom has 3 protons and 4 neutrons in its nucleus. The number of
electrons in the neutral atom is
A. 4
B. 3
C. 7
D. 12
9 E. unpredictable
ETS2WVW
ETS2WVW
2100014 CBADBB 65 20309 31 0351026380011190
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions refer to particles of matter
2for each item select from the key the most
2appropriate response.
2 A. atom
2 B. electron
2 C. ion
2 D. neutron
0 E. proton
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 A dissociated particle in a solution
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
Particles which are paired to form valence bonds in carbon
2 compounds
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 The inert gas molecules contain only one of these particles
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
An uncharged particle which is undisturbed in ordinary
4 chemical reactions
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
5 A particle causing an ammeter to give a reading
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
9 The particle with the smallest weight
ETS2WVW
2100015 DBCCB
55 20316 51 0185057480011190
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions begin with a phrase specifying something
2to be measured, determined, or produced. After the exercise
2number on the answer sheet, blacken the one lettered space which
3
___
0 designates how this goal is to be accomplished.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The amount of electric charge on a single electron
A. Use an electroscope
B. Use a cathode tube
C. Use a fog_track apparatus
D. Use Millikan's oil drop apparatus
1 E. Use the mass spectrograph of aston
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
Whether the nucleus of an atom is small as compared
with the total volume of the atom
A. Use Millikan's oil drop appraratus.
B. Shoot alpha particles through gold foil or use the
fog_track apparatus.
ETS2WVW
2
3
4
9
C. Use a zinc_sulfide fluorescent screen.
D. Use the mass spectrograph of aston.
E. Use the geiger counter.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
Whether or not a given element has isotopes
A. Seek chemical reactions which will separate different forms.
B. Use the fog_track appratus.
C. Use the mass spectrograph of aston.
D. Use a centrifuge SO that the heavier atoms will be
separated from the lighter ones.
E. Use a zinc_sulfide fluorescent screen.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
Whether or not a given particle, known to be an electron
or a positron, is the latter rather than the former
A. Observe its path in a zinc_sulfide fluorescent screen.
B. Use the mass spectrograph of aston.
C. Observe its path in a fog_track apparatus in the
presence of a magnetic field.
D. Pass the particle through beryllium foil and observe
the result.
E. Observe the direction in which it circles around the nucleus
of the atom.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
Whether or not neutrons are present
A. Use the Geiger counter.
B. Look for evidence of collisions in which there is
no fog_track up to the collision.
C. Use the oil drop apparatus of Millikan.
D. Use deuterons in the atom smashing experiment.
E. Compare the observable path of the neutron with that
of the electron and proton.
2100016 DBBAADAC 85 20342 31 80018003
1190
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions refer to the particles which are important
2in our theories of matter. For each item select from the key the
2most appropriate response.
2 A. atom
2 B. electron
2 C. molecule
2 D. neutron
0 E. proton
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The particle most important in the continuance of chain
1 reactions in the fission of uranium.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
ETS2WVW
The particle most responsible for the reading of a light meter
2 when exposed to suitable radiation.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
The particle of which there is a deficiency when a glass rod
3 is charged positively.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
A particle most frequently discussed in theories of
4 "states" of matter.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
5 A particle most helpful in explaining how a gas exerts pressure.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
A particle which accounts for chlorine and many other
6 elements being assigned an "average" atomic weight.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
7 A particle which exists in an ionized state in table salt.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 8
The smallest particle which can exist and still retain all of
9 the properties of the compound.
2100017 B
15 20354 31 03980263800111
Which one of these has the smallest mass?
A. neutron
B. electron
C. ion
D. proton
9 E. atom
ETS2WVW
2100018 C
15 20356 31 04950351800111
The number of different fundamental particles which seem
to have some part in the make_up of atoms is
A. 4
B. 2
C. 3
D. 8
9 E. more than 10
ETS2WVW
2100019 A
15 20359 31 03510357800111
Rutherford developed his nuclear theory of atomic structure because
A. most alpha particles passed through gold foil without
serious deflection but a very few were violently deflected
B. the atomic numbers of the elements were in the same order as
their atomic weights
C. of the enormous amounts of energy liberated by
nuclear disintegration
D. because radium condenses drops from supercooled water
vapor
ETS2WVW
9
E. because the frequency of x_rays was proportional to the
square root of the atomic number
2100020 BCBDD
55 20367 31 0341026380011190
MACROITEM STEM
2To answer the following questions, select from the key
2the correct particle.
2 A. neutron
2 B. electron
2 C. proton
2 D. atom
0 E. molecule
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 A particle which travels in elliptical orbits
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 Another name for hydrogen ion
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 A nearly weightless particle found in all elements
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
4 The molecule of bromine contains only one of what other particle?
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
9 A particle particularly important in the kinetic theory
ETS2WVW
2100021 ABEDBA 65 20373 31 0341026380011190
MACROITEM STEM
To answer the following questions, select from the key
2the correct particle.
2 A. neutron
2 B. electron
2 C. proton
2 D. atom
0 E. molecule
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
A particle not found in a certain one of the known elements.
13
___
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 A particle discussed in the elementary theories of magnetism.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
A particle, for active gaseous elements, containing
3 exactly two other particles.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
4 A particle which may be ionized in chemical reactions.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
5 A particle important in the operation of a thermocouple.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
9 A particle which helped explain discrepancies in atomic weights.
ETS2WVW
2100023 C
14 20381 32 026303518004
The number of electrons in an atom whose atomic number is 3 and
whose mass number is 7 is
A. 10
B. 7
C. 3
D. 4
9 E. 2
2100024 CEBD
45 20383 31 034100978004
MACROITEM STEM
2For each of the numbered items which follow, choose the option
2which best matches.
2 A. electron
2 B. proton
2 C. neutron
2 D. group
0 E. nucleus
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 A neutral particle found in the nucleus of an atom
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 the postively_charged, dense central part of an atom
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 A positively_charged particle found in the nucleus of an atom
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
9 A vertical volume of elements in the periodic table
2 OS
2 OS
2100025 D
14 44855 31 035180048002
The atom can be seen by means of
A. a transmission electron microscope
B. a Geiger counter
C. a spectroscope
D. a tunnelling electron microscope
9 E. magnetic resonance imaging
2 OS
2100026 C
14 20390 31 034203518004
The nucleus of an atom is composed of
A. neutrons and electrons
B. protons and ions
C. protons and neutrons
9 D. neutrons and ions
2100027 C
14 20392 32 035104048004
An atom of chlorine, atomic number 17, and atomic weight 35,
contains in its nucleus
A. 35 protons
C. 17 protons E. 17 electrons
2 OS
2 OS
9
B. 17 neutrons
D. 18 protons
2100028 B
14 20395 32 034203530341
5
27
The nucleus of the aluminum isotope Al contains
4
13
A. 13 neutrons B. 14 neutrons
9 C. 27 neutrons D. 40 neutrons
0041
2100029 C
14 20398 31 0358
0097
An alpha particle consists of
A. two protons B. two protons and two electrons
9 C. two protons and two neutrons D. four protons
0041
2100030 A
14 20400 51 12850263
A beta particle is
9 A. an electron B. a photon C. a proton D. a neutron
0041
2100031 D
15 20402 51 04950358
Of the following, the one that is not an elementary particle is the
A. electron
B. proton
C. neutron
9 D. alpha particle
E. beta particle
0041
2100032 B
14 20405 31 034200970341
A tritium nucleus consists of:
A. one proton and two electrons
B. one proton and two neutrons
C. one neutron and two protons
9 D. one proton and three neutrons.
0043
2100033 C
15 20408 52 035102630398
A neutral atom which has 53 electrons and an atomic mass of
111 has
A. no other isotopes. B. an atomic number of 58
C. a nucleus containing 58 neutrons.
D. a nucleus containing 53 neutrons.
9 E. a nucleus containing 58 protons.
0044
2100034 A
15 20412 52 026303980351
A neutral atom which has 58 electrons and an atomic mass of 121
has:
A. a nucleus containing 63 neutrons.
B. a nucleus containing 63 protons.
C. no other isotopes.
D. a nucleus containing 58 neutrons.
9 E. an atomic number of 63.
0044
2100035 A
14 20416 31 03510263009751
All neutral atoms contain equal numbers of
A. electrons and protons B. protons and neutrons
9 C. positrons and electrons D. neutrons and electrons.
9000
2100036 B
15 20419 31 058703420351
The ____________ of an atom is the total number of neutrons plus
protons in the nucleus.
A. atomic number B. mass number
9 C. nuclear charge D. none of these
0018
2100037 E
15 20422 32 01850342
5
3+
The charge on the nucleus of Al is
9 A. +16
B. +10
C. +27
D. +3
E. +13
0018
2100038 E
15 20424 31 035703581127
In the Rutherford gold foil experiment the fact that most of the
alpha particles were not deflected by the gold foil indicates
that
A. the nucleus is positively charged.
B. the nucleus is negatively charged.
C. atoms are solid spheres touching each other in the solid
state.
D. gold is very dense.
9 E. None of these
0018
2100039 B
15 20429 31 026300990337
The number of electrons in a neutral atom is equal to the
A. atomic weight
B. atomic number
C. number of neutrons present
D. atomic weight minus the number of protons
9 E. number of neutrons present plus the number of protons
0018
2100040 E
15 20433 31 035702720342
Rutherford's experiment demonstrated that
A. atoms are mostly empty space
B. nuclei are very small
C. nuclei have positive charges
D. the mass of the atom is mostly in the nucleus
9 E. all of these
0020
2100041 B
15 20436
The mass number is
0020
31
058700970341
9
A. the atomic mass
B. sum of protons + neutrons in an atom
C. sum of protons, electrons, and neutrons in an atom
D. the molecular mass
E. none of these
2100042 C
14 20439 51 149714980342
By about how many orders of magnitude (powers of ten) is the
diameter of an atom larger than that of a nucleus?
9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 10,000
0009
2100044 A
15 44832 32 035305780398
The e/m value for a certain isotope was found from mass
5
6
spectrometric measurements to be 2.5 x 10 coulombs/gram. If the
5
_19
charge on the isotopic ion were known to be 1.6 x 10
coulombs,
the mass of the ion would be equal to
0019
5
_19
1.6 x 10
A. ___________ g
5
6
2.5 x 10
5
6
2.5 x 10
B. ___________ g
5
_19
1.6 x 10
5
6
_19
C. 2.5 x 10 x 1.6 x 10
g
5
D. 2.5 x 1.6 x 10
5
9
_24
g
_24
2.5 x 10
E. ___________ g
1.6
2100045 D
15 20450 31 035703420513
Rutherford's gold_foil experiment was instrumental in
establishing the concept of
A. an atom B. a molecule C. subatomic particles
0040
9
D. a nucleus in an atom
E. electrons in a atom.
2100046 E
15 20453 31 026300970398
Which of the following sequences gives a correct listing of the
fundamental subatomic particles in order of increasing weight?
A. proton, electron, neutron
B. electron, neutron, proton
C. neutron, electron, proton
D. proton, neutron, electron
9 E. electron, proton, neutron.
0040
2100047 C
15 20457 31 034203510097
The nucleus of the atom consists of
A. electrons and protons.
B. electrons, protons, and neutrons.
C. protons and neutrons.
D. electrons and neutrons.
9 E. protons only.
0035
2100048 C
15 20460 32 079711780097
Another name for the positive ion of the hydrogen atom is
9 A. neutron. B. electron. C. proton. D. atom. E. molecule.
0035
2100049 A
15 20462 31 049503420358
Which particle is identical to a helium nucleus?
A. alpha particle B. beta particle C. gamma ray D. proton
9 E. neutron
0034
2100050 C
15 20464 31 059115711202
Which of the following is undeflected by a magnetic field?
A. alpha particle B. beta particle C. gamma ray D. proton
9 E. more than one of the above
0034
2100051 B
14 20467 31 026803570069
The basic idea of the Rutherford atomic model is that the
positive charge in an atom is
A. spread uniformly throughout its volume
B. concentrated at its center
C. readily deflected by an incoming alpha particle
9 D. the same for all atoms
0041
2100052 B
14 20471 72 19540342
A species containing two neutrons and one proton is:
5
2
3
3
7
A. H B. H C. He D. Li
0061
94
1
1
2
3
2110001 CACA
45 20474 31 0659026380011290
MACROITEM STEM
2In the early days of cathode_ray study, during the process of
2experimentation, the results listed below were noted. These results
2gave rise to certain inferences. From the key of inferences given
2below, select the one that would be most likely to arise as a result
3
____ ______
2of the evidence or experimental result described in each item.
2 A. Cathode rays possess considerable kinetic energy.
2 B. Cathode rays possess considerable potential energy.
2 C. Cathode radiation travels approximately in straight lines.
2 D. Cathode radiation carries a strong negative charge.
0 E. Cathode radiation carries a strong positive charge.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
Experiments showed that obstacle in the path of cathode rays
1 produced sharp shadows.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
Experiments showed that a piece of platinum placed at the point
2 where the rays converged, quickly become red_hot.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
Experiments showed that the rays can be focused on a point by
using a cathode with a concave surface, somewhat as light is
3 focused, by a concave mirror
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
Experiments showed that if a tiny paddle wheel is placed on a
runway in the tube, with the vanes in the path of the rays__it will
9 move rapidly away from the cathode.
ETS2WVW
2110002 A
15 20490 31 05760574800111
Perrin placed a pair of coaxial cylinders in the path of
a stream of cathode rays in a tube, so that the rays passed
through holes into the inner cylinder. He found that
A. the inner cylinder received a negative charge
B. the outer cylinder received a negative charge
C. both cylinders received a negative charge
D. one cylinder or the other (but not both) received a
negative charge
9 E. one cylinder or the other or both received a negative charge
ETS2WVW
2110003 D
15 20497 32 02630317800111
All of these present experimental evidence for the electron
theory of matter except
A. when a rubber rod is rubbed with fur, the rod becomes
charged.
ETS2 OS
9
B. hot filaments in radio tubes emit a stream of charged
particles.
C. radium disintegrates into other forms, the end product
being lead.
D. every body in the universe attracts every other body with
a measurable force.
E. certain substances dissociate in solution and become ions.
2110004 A
15 20504 31 05740113800111
Which of the following is not true of cathode rays?
A. They change in character as the gas in the tube is changed.
B. They travel in straight lines unless deflected by a magnetic
or an electric field.
C. They can be brought to a focus.
D. They cause some materials to fluoresce.
9 E. They cast shadows of obstacles placed in their path.
ETS2WVW
2110005 D
15 20509 31 06160015800111
X_rays emerge from a metal target when it is struck by
A. radiation of long wave length
B. high_velocity alpha particles
C. high_velocity neutrons
D. high_velocity electrons
9 E. cosmic rays
ETS2WVW
2110006 D
14 20512 31 05740263800111
By the term "cathode rays" we refer to
A. stream of positive ions
B. electromagnetic waves of very short wave length
C. a beam of x_rays
9 D. a stream of electrons
ETS2WVW
2110007 D
15 20515 31 03980263800111
The mass of an electron is
A. the same as the mass of the hydrogen atom
B. dependent upon the atomic weight of the atom from
which it was separated
C. the same as the mass of a proton
D. about one two_thousandth the mass of a hydrogen atom
9 E. about four times the mass of a hydrogen atom
ETS2WVW
2110008 C
15 20520 31 05740595800111
Cathode rays are
A. the most effective projectiles in the disintegration of atoms
B. particles which go from cathode to anode in the
electrolysis of aqueous solutions
ETS2WVW
9
C. very light negatively charged particles which travel from
cathode to anode in a crookes tube
D. similar to the alpha particles of radium except for their
speed
E. differ from x_rays only in their wave_length
2110009 D
15 20526 31
Cathode rays are
A. electromagnetic waves
B. photons
C. neutrons
D. electrons
9 E. protons
05740626800111
ETS2WVW
2110010 D
15 20528 31 06160574800111
The basic difference between an x_ray tube and a cathode_ray
tube is that
A. the cathode ray tube contains a vacuum.
B. the x_ray tube has both a cathode and an anode.
C. the cathode_ray tube contains electrodes.
D. the x_ray tube stops the flow of electrons.
E. the x_ray tube produces a stream of electrons from the
9
cathode.
ETS2WVW
2110011 A
15 20533 31 06160263800111
X_rays result from the bombardment of a suitable target by
high speed
A. electrons
B. ions
C. protons
D. neutrons
9 E. atoms
ETS2WVW
2110012 D
15 20535 31 06260330800111
Which of the following does not appear on the electromagnetic
spectrum?
A. cosmic rays
B. hertzian waves
C. x_rays
D. seismic waves
9 E. ultra_violet rays
ETS2 OS
2110013 B
15 20538 31 03980263800111
Which one of these has the smallest mass?
A. neutron
B. electron
ETS2WVW
9
C. ion
D. proton
E. atom
2110014 D
15 20540 31 05740593800113
When a narrow beam of cathode rays is deflected in a magnetic field,
it spreads out, according to Thomson, into a broad fan_shaped
luminosity in the gas; thus the rays are not all equally deflected.
The most probable explanation of this effect is that
A. the magnetic field is not accurately homogeneous, but is
stronger in some places than in others
B. the magnetic field is not uniform in direction
C. the mass and charge are not the same for all the particles
in the beam, only the ratio m/e being constant
3
___
D. the particles do not all have the same velocity
E. minute variations in the density of the gas in the tube
9
produce a dispersion of the rays in the magnetic field
ETS2WVW
2110015 B
15 20550 31 03510357800111
In 1911 Rutherford bombarded gold foil with alpha particles.
This experiment helped to establish the electron theory by showing
A. the mass of the atom
B. that the atom is mostly empty space and the plus charge
is concentrated
C. the number of protons present in the mucleus
D. the charge of an electron
9 E. the presence of charged particles derived from atoms
ETS2WVW
2110016 C
15 20556 31 01850263800111
When the ratio of the charge to the mass (e/m) of the
electron was calculated, which one of the following
assumptions was made about the electron?
A. The charge on the electron was positive.
B. The electron was a material particle.
C. The electron had no weight.
D. The electron always moves with the velocity of light.
9 E. The charge on the electron was negative.
ETS2WVW
2110017 A
15 20561 31 00020019800111
In relative weight, a sodium ion compared to a sodium atom
A. is about the same
B. is heavier
C. is considerably lighter
D. cannot be compared because an ion has NO weight
9 E. cannot be compared because an ion is an electrical charge
ETS2WVW
2110018 D
14 20565 31 015901968004
The particle which occupies the first energy level in the
hydrogen atom is known as the
A. neutron
B. nucleus
C. electron
9 D. K electron
2 OS
2110019 A
15 20568 32
A positron has a mass number of
9 A. 0 B. 1 C. 3 D. 16 E. 1837
2110020 B
15 20570 31 109402630185
The particles making up canal rays are
A. negatively charged and heavier than electrons
B. positively charged and heavier than electrons
C. negatively charged and lighter than electrons
D. positively charged and lighter than electrons
9 E. NO correct response is given.
0040
2110021 B
15 20574 31 049501890263
A nearly weightless particle found in all elements is the
9 A. neutron. B. electron. C. proton. D. atom. E. molecule.
0035
2110022 D
15 20576 32 018502631390
When the charge on the electron was determined, which technique
or apparatus was used?
A. Electroscope. B. Cathode tube.
C. Fog_track apparatus. D. Millikan's oil drop apparatus.
9 E. Mass spectrograph of Aston.
0035
2111001 A
15 20579 31 03260282800111
The principle underlying the operation of a photoelectric cell
A. Radiation may cause some substances to emit electrons.
B. Electrons may be emitted from certain substances at
high temperatures.
C. A changing magnetic or electro_magnetic field may
produce a flow of electrons.
D. Radiation may be re_radiated at different wave lengths.
E. Electrons may cause radiations to be emitted from
9
some substances.
2111002 ABBBC
55 20585 31 0054034480011490
MACROITEM STEM
2To answer the following questions select from the key the most
ETS2WVW
ETS2WVW
2appropriate statement.
2 A. Statement true; reason true and bears directly on the statement
3
_________ ____ ______ ____
2 B. Statement true; reason false.
3
______________ ______ _____
2 C. Statement true; reason true, but does not have any
3
_________ ____ ______ ____
2
bearing on the statement.
2 D. Statement false; reason true but with no bearing on
3
_________ _____ ______ ____
2
the statement.
2 E. Statement false; reason false
03
_________ _____ ______ _____
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
A current results when light falls on a photoelectric cell
because certain substances emit electrons when light
3_______
1 strikes them.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 Potassium is used in a photoelectric cell because it is a metal.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3
_______
Photoelectric cells may be used as exposure meters in
photographic work because the current in the cell is
3
_______
proportional to the amount of incident light and not to
3 the frequency of the vibration.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
A simple photoelectric cell has an uncoated plate
charged negatively because such a plate is necessary to
3
_______
4 attract the protons released by the incident light.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
Light striking a photoelectric cell sets up an electric
current because light is a longitudinal vibration.
93
_______
2111003 E
15 20603 51 05750572800111
Planck introduced the quantum postulate into the theory
of radiation in order to account for
A. discontinuous spectra
B. interference
C. the constitution of radiation out of finite, corpuscle_like
"chunks" of energy, each of which is propagated
with great speed in a straight line
D. the ejection of electrons from matter by light, a
ETS2WVW
9
phenomenon which indicates in rather direct fashion
that the spatial distribution of energy in a light
"wave" is discontinuous
E. the distribution of energy in the spectrum of a black
body, a phenomenon which does not involve any
obvious discontinuity, but which can be accounted for
quantitatively by the postulate
2111004 C
15 20613 31 05110630800111
The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons from an
illuminated surface increases
A. when the light intensity increases
B. when the light intensity decreases
C. when the light frequency increases
D. when the light frequency decreases
9 E. independently of light intensity and frequency
ETS2WVW
2111005 E
15 20617 31 03260263800111
In the photo_electric effect, the maximum speed of an
electron ejected by a photon is determined
A. entirely by the frequency of the light falling on the
metal surface
B. entirely by the number of photons falling on the
metal surface
C. entirely by the nature of the metal surface
D. by the frequency of the light and the number of
photons falling on the metal surface
E. by the nature of the metal surface and the frequency
9
of light falling on the surface
ETS2WVW
2111006 A
15 20624 31 03260590800111
The principle underlying the operation of a photoelectric
cell is
A. radiation may cause some substances to emit electrons.
B. electrons may be emitted from certain substances at
high temperatures.
C. a changing magnetic or electro_magnetic field may produce
a flow of electrons.
D. radiation may be re_radiated at different wave lengths.
E. electrons may cause radiations to be emitted from some
9
substances.
ETS2WVW
2111007 A
14 20630 31 03260263800111
The photoelectric effect involves the
A. emission of electrons from an illuminated metallic surface
B. emission of light when radioactive material strikes a zinc
ETS2WVW
9
sulfide screen
C. process of developing photographs using the electric current
D. emission of visible light by high voltage electricity
2111008 BABDCBAB 84 20635 31 80018003
1190
MACROITEM STEM
2After each item number on the answer sheet, blacken space
2 A. if the item is true of the photoelectric effect
2 B. if the item is true of the Edison effect
2 C. if the item is true of both effects
0 D. if the item is true of neither effect
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 Electrons are emitted from a heated filament.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
Electrons are emitted from a metal or compound when
2 exposed to light.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
The conductor which is to receive the electrons must
be connected to the positive terminal of the battery or
3 direct current source.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
The metal which emits the electrons must be connected
4 to the positive terminal of the direct current source.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
5 The flow of electrons is unidirectional.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
6 Forms the basis of the radio tube.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
The effect is often used to operate a relay which in
7 turn may operate the electric switch on various devices.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 8
9 A grid may be employed to regulate the flow of electrons.
2111009 D
15 45404 71
Which of the following processes represents the ionization energy
of iodine?
5
+
_
A. I (s) ___> I (g) + e
4
2
2
5
+
_
B. I (g) ___> I (g) + e
4
2
2
5
+
_
C. I(s) ___> I (g) + e
5
+
_
D. I(g) ___> I (g) + e
ETS2WVW
5
+
_
9 E. I(l) ___> I (l) + e
2111010 B
15 20647 31 00150326800113
If a certain metal gives a photoelectric effect under visible light
of a certain color C, one should expect the effect to occur, for
that metal,
A. under light of any color on the red side of C in the spectrum
B. under light of any color on the violet side of C in the
spectrum
C. under light of any color whose wave length is an integral
multiple of that of C
D. under light of any color whose frequency is an integral
multiple of that of C
E. under any kind of light whose energy quanta are integral
9
multiples of h
2111011 ABEBAEA 75 20655 71 0571057280011190
MACROITEM STEM
2To answer the following questions, mark
2 A. if it states an observable or experimentally determinable
2
characteristic of the photoelectric effect, and is in
2
accordance with both the classical and the quantum theory
2
of light.
2 B. if it states an observable or experimentally determinable
2
characteristic of the photoelectric effect, and is in
2
accordance with the quantum theory of light but not with the
2
classical theory
2 C. if, while it is not experimentally testable in any fairly
2
direct way, it is a true statement about the photoelectric
2
effect according to both the classical and quantum theories
2 D. if, while it is not experimentally testable in any fairly
2
direct way, it is a true statement about the photoelectric
2
effect according to the quantum theory, though not
2
according to the classical theory of light.
2 E. if it is, according either to experimental results or to the
2
quantum theory, not a true statement about the photoelectric
0
effect.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The average kinetic energy of the liberated electrons increases if
1 one increases the intensity of the light.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
When light falls upon a metal, it exerts an influence upon the
electrons within the metal, and may succeed in ejecting them from
2 it.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
ETS2WVW
ETS2WVW
In light of very low intensity, the average amount of energy
flowing across a square centimeter in a second may be so small that,
considering a region of the size of an atom and assuming uniform
distribution of the energy, years would be required for enough
energy to flow through such a region to give an electron comparable
with that measured in the photoelectric effect. Yet such light
3 falling upon a metal may instantly eject electrons from it.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
When light falls upon a metal, interactions with electrons occur
only in the form of encounters between a single electron and a
4 definite, localized, and indivisible portion of the light.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
The speeds with which electrons leave a body in the photoelectric
5 effect may be increased by using light of shorter wave length.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
Electrons can be ejected from a metal only by light whose frequency
6 corresponds to a line in the bright line spectrum of that metal.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
Positive charges are never ejected from a body by the photoelectric
9 effect.
2111012 E
15 20688 72 05718003
If the kinetic energy of a photoelectric electron ejected from
sodium by ultraviolet light of wavelength 300 nm is
5
_19
3.3 x 10
J, what is the critical wavelength for the
photoelectric effect in sodium?
5
8
_1
_34
(c = 3.0 x 10 m sec , h = 6.6 x 10
J sec)
5
_6
_6
9 A. 6.0x10 nm B. 3.0x10 nm C. 300 nm D. 500 nm E. 600 nm
2111013 D
15 44377 52 02638001800313
Find the maximum velocity of a photoelectron which can be stopped by
5
17
3 volts negative potential. (Assume e = 5 x 10 e.s.u./gm for the
3
_
m
electron and 1 volt = 1 e.s.u. Of potential).
3
___
300
5
9
8
7
A. 3 x 10 cm/sec C. 3 x 10 cm/sec E. 3 x 10 cm/sec
5
9
8
9 B. 1 x 10 cm/sec D. 1 x 10 cm/sec
2WVW
ETS2WVW
2111014 D
15 20701 52 05718003
If the kinetic energy of a photoelectric electron ejected from
2WVW
5
_13
cesium metal by 5000 A light is 9.9 x 10
erg, what is the
minimum energy required to eject an electron from the surface of
3_______ ______
cesium metal and leave the electron at rest?
(note KE=h(f1 _ f2), where f1 is the incident light frequency,
f2 is the minimum frequency for the photoelectric effect in cesium,
and H is Planck's constant)
5
10
_1
(c = 3.0 x 10 cm. sec
;
5
_27
h = 6.6 x 10
5
erg sec.)
_27
A. 6.6 x 10
5
erg
_13
B. 3.0 x 10
5
erg
_13
C. 9.9 x 10
5
erg
_12
D. 3.0 x 10
erg
5
_12
9 E. 9.9 x 10
erg
2111015 D
14 20712 51 15400263038051
Emission spectra (line spectra) are produced when an electron
A. reverses its spin
B. escapes from the atom
C. spirals into the nucleus
9 D. changes its atomic energy level
2111016 D
15 20715 52
The magnitude of the charge on an electron is
A. 1 coulomb
5
19
B. 1.60 x 10 coulombs
5
_28
9000
OS83
C. 9.11 x 10
coulomb
5
_19
D. 1.60 x 10
coulomb
_23:5
9 E. 6.02 x 10
coulomb
2111017 A
14 20719 31 051302630654
Experimental evidence to indicate that cathode rays have charge
is
A. that their path is curved in a magnetic field
B. that they have no effect on an electroscope
C. that they have been assigned a negative charge
9 D. that gravity affects their path.
0026
2111018 B
14 20723 31 051302630654
Regardless of the metals used as cathodes, the cathode rays had
the same charge to mass ratio. This indicates that
A. there is no difference between one metal and another
B. electrons are a part of all matter
C. the nucleus of an atom contains protons
9 D. electrons are negatively charged.
0026
2111019 C
14 20727 31 001901850513
A submicroscopic particle of +1 charge could be a(n)
9 A. electron B. neutron C. ion D. atom E. alpha particle.
0026
2111020 B
15 20729 31 12850263
Beta particles are
A. particles with a _2 charge
B. the same as electrons
C. particles with NO mass or charge
D. particles with a _1 charge and a mass of 1
9 E. larger than alpha particles
2111022 D
15 20732
An electron has a mass of
A. 0.00054874 amu
5
_28
B. 9.11 x 10
g
C. almost zero
D. all of these
9 E. none of these
31
026303981316
2111023 D
15 20735 51 142002630185
Millikan's oil drop experiment is used to determine precisely
A. the exact size of the oil drop
0020
0020
0019
9
B. the charge to mass ratio of the oil drop
C. the magnitude of the gravitational force
D. the minimum value of the charge of an electron
E. none of the above
2111024 D
14 20739 51 027209970590
Which of the following experiments gives the conclusive proof
of the quantum nature of radiation?
A. Rutherford's scattering experiment
B. Thomson's cathode ray experiment
C. Einstein's experiment on the photo electric effect
9 D. none of the above
0019
2130001 C
14 20743 51 04950097
The particle that most closely resembles the proton is the
A. positron B. neutron C. antiproton
9 D. positive sigma hyperon
0041
2130002 B
15 20745 31 01850342
5
_
The charge on the nucleus of O is
4
2
9 A. 6+ B. 8+ C. 2_ D. 2+ E. none of these
0018
2130003 D
15 20748 31 033701850342
The positive charge on the nucleus is called
A. moseley's number
B. the atomic weight
C. the neutron concentration
D. the atomic number
9 E. none of these
0020
2130004 C
15 20751 31 018900970342
Tin is element 50. This means that
A. its mass is 50 amu
B. its mass number is 50
C. it has 50 protons in its nucleus
D. it has 50 neutrons in its nucleus
9 E. none of these
0020
2150001 D
15 20754 31 03410351800131
The loss of a neutron from an atom
A. changes the chemical nature of the atom
B. changes the charge on the atom
C. changes the physical properties of the atom
D. reduces the mass number of the atom
ETS2WVW
9
E. causes the subsequent loss of an electron
2150002 C
15 20758 31 03410351800111
The loss of a neutron from an atom
A. changes the chemical nature of the atom
B. changes the charge of the atom
C. changes the mass number of the atom
D. reduces the atomic number of the atom
9 E. causes the subsequent loss of an electron
ETS2WVW
2150003 A
15 20762 31 00650097034111
Which one of these is correct concerning the neutron?
A. The atomic weight of an atom equals the sum of the
weights of the protons and the neutrons.
B. Every element contains one or more neutrons.
C. The neutron prevents the attractive forces of the protons
and electrons from causing them to come together.
D. The neutron like the electron is of negligible weight relative
to the total weight of the atom.
E. The atomic number equals the number of neutroms present
9
in the atom.
ETS2WVW
2150004 D
14 20769 32 03410342058751
The number of neutrons contained in the nucleus of a particular
atom is equal to its
A. atomic weight B. mass number C. atomic number
9 D. mass number minus the atomic number
9000
2150005 E
15 20772 31 039803410495
A subatomic particle that has an atomic mass of 1 and a charge
of 0 is
A. a beta particle B. an alpha particle C. an electron
9 D. a proton E. a neutron
2150006 C
15 20775 31
06570341
A neutral particle having a mass of approximately one atomic mass
unit is
A. an electron B. a proton C. a neutron
9 D. a meson E. none of these
2150007 A
15 20778 31 040713380341
The reaction which chadwick studied when he discovered neutrons
was
A. Be + alpha particles
B. Be + protons
C. boron + electrons
0018
0028
0020
9
D. boron + alpha particles
E. beryllium + electrons
2150008 B
15 20781 31 034105910592
Which of the following fundamental particles is not affected by
electric or magnetic fields?
A. protons
D. both A and B
B. neutrons E. both A and C
9 C. electrons
0040
2150009 A
15 20784 31 049501890341
A particle not found in a certain one of the known elements is
the
9 A. neutron. B. electron. C. proton. D. atom. E. molecule.
0035
2150010 D
14 20786 52 1944
Which particle has the largest rest mass?
A. electron
B. positron
C. proton
9 D. neutron
0055
2200001 E
15 20788 52 03570358800112
According to Rutherford, "atoms of matter are not solid spheres,
but empty structures consisting of extremely minute particles
separated by relatively great distances." however, from cloud
chamber observations, it was noted that fast_moving alpha particles
passing through a gas may be slowed down and even stopped without
ever hitting one of these minute particles in the center of the
atoms of the gas! this can be explained by assuming that
A. Rutherford was not exactly correct, and that there is really a
thin sort of matter within the atom as well as the
minute particles
B. the alpha particles passing through the gas lost their
initial kinetic energy, and therefore their slowing down
was not due to any action of the gas
C. while the atoms of the gas may consist of empty structures
containing only minute particles separated by relatively
great distances, nevertheless there is probably a tenuous
membrane stretched between the outer surfaces of the atoms
which acts to slow down and stop the alpha particles
D. the alpha particles contain great quantities of static
electricity charge which react with the minute particles
within the atoms of the gas to slow down and stop these
particles
E. powerful electric fields exist within the atoms of the gas
ETS2 OS
9
itself, and that it is these fields which may slow down
or stop the particles
2200002 E
15 20807 31 03660351800112
Cannizzaro apparently considers that the most valid criterion for
the correctness of an atomic theory is
A. its degree of conformity to Avogadro's theory
B. its degree of internal consistency
C. that it provide a mechanical model understandable at the gross
level, for phenomena occurring at a level too minute to be
directly observed
D. its consistency with all known chemical and physical phenomena
9 E. its degree of simplicity
ETS2 OS
2200003 C
15 20814 31 03660065800112
How may the statement, "the atomic weight of nitrogen is 14," be
interpreted in cannizzaro's sense?
A. An atom of nitrogen weighs 14 units.
B. In a compound of nitrogen and hydrogen, the nitrogen has
14 times the weight of the hydrogen.
C. A liter of nitrogen has 14 times the weight of a liter of
hydrogen.
D. No smaller weight of nitrogen than 14 grams is ever found in a
molecular weight (in grams) of any compound of nitrogen.
E. A gram of nitrogen contains 14 times as many atoms as a gram
9
of hydrogen.
ETS2 OS
2200004 D
15 20822 51 02760351800111
Which one of these is explained on the basis of atomic theory
rather than on kinetic theory?
A. The explanation of heat of fusion
B. That the energy of particles may be expressed in terms of
5
2
(1/2) mv
C. Changes in the state of matter
D. Conservation of mass
9 E. The meaning of temperature
ETS2WVW
2200005 C
15 20827 51 05130189800111
The atomic theory assumes all of these except
A. the average mass of atoms of the same kind is
definite, but different from that of any other kind
of atom.
B. the number of different kinds of elements is limited.
C. atoms lose their identity in chemical reactions.
D. atoms possess kinetic energy.
ETS2WVW
9
E. all elements are composed of small discrete particles.
2200006 E
15 20833 51 05830513800113
Dalton's atomic theory offers a reasonably satisfactory
explanation for one of the following statements. You are to
3
___
determine which one this is.
A. When hydrogen combines with oxygen, a large amount of energy is
liberated.
B. Forces holding the atoms together in a molecule of
nitroglycerine are so small that the compound is explosive.
C. The weight of carbon dioxide produced by burning a given
amount of carbon can be accurately predicted.
D. Hydrogen atoms combine with oxygen atoms more readily than
with chlorine atoms.
E. Four atoms of hydrogen combine with one atom of carbon,
9
but two atoms of hydrogen combine with one atom of oxygen.
2200007 CCBD
45 20843 31 1 80019012
119095
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions refer to Figure 12. After each exercise
2number on the answer sheet, blacken the one lettered space which
0 designates the correct answer.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
This is an historically famous experiment performed by
A. Moseley
B. Thomson
C. Rutherford
D. Millikan
1 E. Urey
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
Gold was used because it
A. can be obtained as a nugget
B. is a lightweight atom
C. is malleable and can be prepared easily into a very
thin sheet
D. is yellow
2 E. was believed to be different from other atoms
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
Particles used as projectiles in this experiment were
A. electrons
B. alpha particles
C. beta particles
D. gamma rays
3 E. neutrons
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
ETS2WVW
ETS2WVW
The experiment gives excellent evidence that nuclei are
A. very close together and positively charged
B. very close together and neutral in character
C. very far apart and neutral in character
D. very far apart and charged positively
9 E. very far apart and charged negatively
2200008 E
15 20856 51 80018003
12
According to Rutherford's calculations, the deflection d of an
alpha particle of mass m, initial speed v, and charge 2e moving
initially so as to pass at a distance of p an atomic nucleus of
charge ne, is given by the equation
5
2
2
cot (d/2)= v /(2ne )
The derivation of this equation is based upon the assumption
A. that the probability of a given deflection is proportional to
the target area presented by the region capable of
producing such a deflection.
B. that the probability of a given deflection is the same as the
fraction of particles which experience that deflection.
C. that multiple scattering does not occur.
D. that the force on an alpha particle varies inversely as the
square of its distance from an atomic center.
E. that multiple scattering does not occur, and that the force
on an alpha particle is inversely proportional to the
9
square of its distance from an atomic center.
ETS2WVW
2200009 C
15 20869 51 80018003
12
Rutherford's formula for the probability p of a deflection between
angles X and Y for an alpha particle traversing a metal foil of
thickness t is
5
2
4
2
4
p = (4 x (3.14) x t x (n ) x(e )/(m ) x (u )) x
4
2
2
5
2
2
((cot x/2) _ (cot y/2) )
the quantities t, N (number of atoms per cubic centimeter), e, m,
and u can be determined independently.
The quantity N can best be determined
A. from the atomic weight of the metal
B. by observing the fraction of particles deflected through
angles between X and Y (for some given values of X and Y)
C. by measuring the deflection of some one alpha particle
D. from the value of the charge of an electron
E. by dividing some interval (X and Y) into equal parts and
calculating the probability of a deflection for each part
ETS2WVW
9
of the interval, comparing these with the net probability
for the interval as a whole
2200010 A
15 20883 31 05930357800114
Thomson and Rutherford, in discussing the constitution of atoms,
assume that the elements out of which atoms are built are charged
particles. Which of the following does not constitute part of the
3
___
evidence for this view?
A. Coulomb's law for the electrostatic force between point charges
B. the fact that all conductors contain charges that are free
to move
C. the fact that the properties of dielectrics are accounted for
by the hypothesis of their "polarization" in electric
fields
D. the ejection of alpha and beta particles in radioactive decay
E. the identity of the properties of cathode rays derived from
9
various sources
ETS2WVW
2200011 D
15 20893 31 05830513800116
Dalton's atomic theory is
A. a good example of absolute truth
B. a good example of the static view of science
C. correct, and led to more scientific discoveries
D. partially in error, but led to more scientific discoveries
9 E. neither correct nor in error. Nothing more was done about it.
ETS2WVW
2200012 E
15 20897 31 06070287800116
A physicist, using the accumulated data concerning the nature of
the atomic nucleus, constructed a model of the nucleus of a certain
atom. In doing this, he used the physical laws known to describe the
behavior of large_scale phenomena. He discovered, however, that the
theoretical behavior of his model did not agree with the actual
behavior of the atomic nucleus. After checking carefully his
original data, checking carefully his mathematics, and trying models
of the nuclei of the atoms of several different elements, the
results still did not agree. If all of the statements in the above
paragraph are accepted as true, the most acceptable conclusion would
be that
A. the physical laws describing the behavior of large_scale
phenomena were incorrect.
B. the atomic nucleus behaved independently of natural laws.
C. he must have made a mistake in the way that he constructed
his model.
D. the accepted system of mathematics was incorrect.
E. the physical laws operating in the case of the large_scale
ETS2WVW
9
phenomena and the small_scale phenomena may not be entirely
consistent with one another.
2200013 CAEDA
55 20912 31 0097034180011290
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions refer to various processes related to
2atomic or molecular structure. For each item select from the key the
2changes involved in the process.
2 A. Only electron changes between atoms
2 B. Alteration in the number of protons and neutrons
2 C. Alteration only in the number of neutrons
2 D. Changes in arrangement of all particles in the atom
2 E. No change in relation to the number of electrons, protons,
0
or neutrons in the atom
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 Differences between two isotopes of the same element
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 Electrolytic conduction
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 Fractional distillation
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
4 Fission
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
9 Rubbing a Rubber rod with a piece of wool
2200014 ADCABBE 75 20921 51 0357035100151490
MACROITEM STEM
2For each of the items, mark
2 A. if it should be regarded as supported by the agreement
2
of Rutherford's calculations with experimental data.
2 B. if it is a presupposition of Rutherford's calculations
2
which is in no need of support, since its validity is
3
_____________________
2
guaranteed by purely mathematical considerations.
2 C. if it is presupposed either in Rutherford's calculations
2
or in his general considerations concerning the structure
2
of atoms and is in no need of support from Rutherford
3
_____________________________________
2
because it is implied by physical considerations other
2
than Rutherford's
2 D. if it is implied by other considerations than Rutherford's
2
and must be regarded as true, but is hard to reconcile
3
_________________
2
with Rutherford's results, and so points the way to further
3
_________________________
2
investigation.
ETS2WVW
ETS2WVW
2 E. if it is a presupposition of Rutherford's calculations which
2
cannot be regarded as supported by any arguments set forth
2
by Rutherford or by other considerations understood at
2
the time, but is rather a pure assumption which remains
0
for further testing.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The scattering of particles by thin foils of metal is produced in
such a way that the observed deflection of any particle through a
large angle must have been produced at a single encounter with an
1 atom.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
An atom must contain negative charges in the form of "electrons"
5
_8
or light particles, arranged within the atomic radius of 10 cm.
2 In such a way as to form a stable configuration.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
Atoms are composed of electrically charged particles, the negative
charges occuring in corpuscles of very small mass and the atom as a
3 whole normally being electrically neutral.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
The mass and a large part of the positive or negative charge in an
4 atom is concentrated in a very minute volume at its center.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
The atoms in a metal foil can be regarded as practically fixed in
5 position during an interaction with an alpha particle.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
A body whose acceleration varies inversely as the square of its
distance from a point and is always directed away from that point,
6 moves in a hyperbola with that point as a focus.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
The force between two point charges at distances of the order of
5
_12
magnitude of 10
cm. or more, is correctly predicted by
9 Coulomb's law.
2200015 B
15 20954 31 05830513800111
Four of the following five statements are assumptions which make up
Dalton's atomic theory. You are to select the one which was not
3
___
formulated as one of Dalton's assumptions, but which is the result
of other research.
A. Every element consists of tiny particles.
B. The tiny particles in some elements consist of two or more
atoms.
C. The atoms of any one element are all exactly alike.
D. In general, atoms combine in simple ratios.
ETS2WVW
9
E. Atoms of one element may combine with atoms of another element
to form a new substance or compound.
2200016 B
15 20963 31 03510185800111
In a neutral atom, the total positive charge on the nucleus is
equal to the total
A. positive charge of all electrons
B. negative charge of all electrons
C. charge, both positive and negative
D. charge of all neutrons and protons
9 E. charge of all protons and electrons
ETS2WVW
2200017 C
15 20967 31 05130351800111
Which one of the following statements about atomic structure is
incorrect?
3_________
A. There are particles in the nucleus which add mass to the atom
but do not affect the electrical charge.
B. The volume of an atom is not determined by the space occupied
by the nucleus.
C. Each atom is composed of a negatively charged nucleus.
D. Almost the entire mass of the atom is concentrated in the
nucleus.
E. The atomic number of an atom is the same numerically as the
9
number of protons in the nucleus.
ETS2WVW
2200018 C
15 20975 31 03510263800111
According to our ideas of atomic structure, we say that it takes
more electrical energy to remove an electron from a helium atom than
from a hydrogen atom because
A. helium initially has two electrons
B. the helium nucleus has a greater mass
C. the helium nucleus has a greater charge
D. when hydrogen converts to helium (as in the stars) energy is
released
9 E. helium has neutrons in its nucleus
ETS2WVW
2200019 A
15 20981 31 03370351800111
In order to determine the atomic number of any atom, it is
3
___
sufficient to know the number of
A. protons in the nucleus
B. neutrons in the nucleus
C. protons minus the number of electrons
D. protons minus the number of neutrons
9 E. neutrons plus the number of protons
ETS2WVW
2200020 E
15 20986 51 04950592800112
The quantity u, the initial speed of the alpha particles, can best
be measured by
A. sending the same beam of alpha particles through metal foils of
different thickness, and comparing the average deflection
with the thickness in each case.
B. sending the same beam of alpha particles through metal foils of
different thickness, and comparing the various results for
the fraction of particles deflected through a given angle.
C. determining the minimum thickness of a given substance
required to stop all of the alpha particles.
D. determining the force exerted by the beam of alpha particles
upon a static electric charge of known magnitude at a
given distance from the beam, and the rise in temperature
produced in a block of metal when the beam falls upon the
block and is completely stopped.
E. subjecting the beam of alpha particles to electric and
magnetic fields at right angles to the beam, adjusting
the intensities e and H until no deflection is produced,
and applying the law that the electric force on a charge q
9
moving with speed u is eq, the magnetic force Hqu.
ETS2WVW
2200022 A
15 21002 31 05930041800112
Thomson's concept of the arrangement of electric charges in the
atom is derived chiefly from considerations concerning
A. the spectra of elements
B. the theory of multiple scattering of alpha and beta particles
C. the periodic table
D. the possible stable arrangements of charges
9 E. the photoelectric effect
ETS2WVW
2200023 A
15 21007 31 03570272800112
Which of the following is a piece of evidence, not available to
Rutherford at the time of his experiments on alpha particle
scattering, which today provides overwhelming confirmation of the
view that atoms are built of charged particles?
A. The existence of an uncharged particle, the neutron, which can
be scattered by atomic nuclei, but which follows a
scattering law quite different from that of the alpha and
beta particles.
B. The identity of alpha particles with charged atoms of helium.
C. The identity of beta particles with the particles composing
cathode rays.
D. The success of Bohr's theory of the atom in accounting for
the periodic table of the elements.
ETS2WVW
9
E. The formula for the wave lengths in the line spectrum of
hydrogen.
2200024 C
15 21018 51 05830065800112
In order to determine the atomic weight of an element by Dalton's
method, it is sufficient to know
A. the composition by weight of a compound of the element
B. whether compounds of the element are binary, ternary, etc.
C. both the composition by weight of a compound of the element,
and the class (i.e., binary, ternary, etc.) to which the
compound belongs
D. the composition by weight of a large number of compounds of
the element
E. the density of the element relative to that of the standard
9
element
ETS2WVW
2200025 C
15 21026 51 05940292800112
Avogadro postulates that molecules are composed of more than one
"elementary molecule" since
A. the different gaseous elements have different specific
densities.
B. some gases apparently contract when combining.
C. his postulate about number of molecules in a volume of gas
would otherwise be inconsistent with the ratios between
combining volumes of gases.
D. his postulate about the number of molecules in a volume of
gas would otherwise be inconsistent with the ratios between
total volumes of component gases and the volumes of the
compound gases.
9 E. this is the simplest hypothesis possible.
ETS2WVW
2200026 A
15 21035 51 02920594800112
Avogadro postulates an equal number of molecules in equal volumes of
gas under the same conditions primarily on the grounds that
A. the laws of combining volumes of gases can be deduced directly
from this postulate
B. the laws involving temperature, pressure and volume of gases
can be deduced directly from this postulate
C. Dalton's observed atomic weights are inconsistent with Dalton's
hypotheses about chemical combination
D. this furnishes an adequate explanation of the simple combining
ratios by volume observed in gas reactions
E. correct molecular weights are obtainable by application of
9
the postulate
ETS2WVW
2200027 BEAE
45 21044
31
0351039880011190
ETS2WVW
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions are concerned with the men or experiments
2which helped to establish the electron theory of matter. For each
2question select from the key the most closely related idea.
2 A. The mass of the atom.
2 B. That the atom is mostly empty space and the plus
2
charges concentrated.
2 C. Measure of the number of protons present in the nucleus.
2 D. Revealed the presence of charged particles derived
2
from atoms.
0 E. None of these.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 Rutherford bombarded gold foil with alpha particles in 1911
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 Moseley's experiments of 1914
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 Aston's spectrograph
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
9 Millikan's oil drop experiment
2200028 DBEDAC 65 21052 31 0398058005741190
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions refer to various features of atomic
2structure. For each item select from the key the experimental method
2that was most important in establishing it.
2 A. Measurements with the mass spectrograph.
2 B. Millikan's oil drop experiment.
2 C. Deflection of cathode rays in a magnetic field.
2 D. Measurements of the wave lengths of characteristic
2
lines in the x_ray spectra.
0 E. Deflection of alpha particles by foils of metals.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The atomic number is equal to the number of extra_nuclear
1 electrons.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
5
_10
2 The charge on the electron is 4.802 x 10
esu.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
The positive charge of the atom is concentrated in a small,
3 compact nucleus.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
The electrons of an atom are arranged in energy levels about
4 the nucleus.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
5 Atoms of the same element may have different atomic weights.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
ETS2WVW
5
_28
9 The mass of the electron is 9 x 10
gm.
2200029 CB
24 21064 31 0263006580011190
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions refer to comparisons which are frequently
2made in science. For each item select from the key the most
2appropriate response.
2 A. The first is greater than the second.
2 B. The first is equal to the second.
2 C. The first is less than the second.
0 D. More data is required to compare them.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The number of electrons in a sodium ion compared to
1 the number of protons in its nucleus.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
9 The atomic weight of helium compared to its molecular weight.
2200030 D
15 21071 31 03510342800111
Basically the atom is generally conceived as
A. a solid spherical mass which is neutral in charge
B. a nucleus and electrons all traveling in the same plane but at
various energy levels
C. paired groups of electrons and protons, widely but uniformly
distributed
D. a nucleus of protons and generally neutrons with as many
electrons as protons traveling in orbits around the nucleus
E. having an atomic weight equal to the weight of the neutrons
9
and the electrons
2200031 AADADAEC 85 21078 51 0171020080011190
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions refer to various processes related to
2atomic or molecular structure. For each item select from the key the
2changes involved in the operation of the process.
2 A. Electron changes between atoms
2 B. Alteration in the number of protons and neutrons
2 C. Alteration in the number of neutrons only
2 D. No change in the number of electrons, protons, or neutrons
2
in the atom
0 E. Changes in all particles
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 Photosynthesis
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 Rubbing a glass rod with a piece of silk
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
ETS2WVW
ETS2WVW
3 Distillation
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
4 Ordinary chemical reaction
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
5 Isomerism in carbon compounds
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
6 Ionization
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
7 Fission
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 8
9 Changes in atomic weight without Change in atomic number
2200032 BADBCA 64 21087 51 0337058780011190
MACROITEM STEM
2After the number on the answer sheet which corresponds to that of
2each of the following items, blacken space
2 A. if the item is true of atomic number
2 B. if the item is true of mass number
2 C. if the item is true of atomic weight as given in the
2
periodic table
0 D. if the item is true of atomic size or volume
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The different isotopes of a given element differ in this respect,
1 for example U_235 and U_238.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
Determines the position of every element listed in the periodic
2 table.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
Is most closely related to the ease with which an element in any
given group in the periodic table gains or loses electrons from
3 the highest energy level.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
Can be determined for each isotope of an element by deflection of
gaseous ions of the element in electrostatic and electromagnetic
4 fields.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
None of the individual atoms of an element may have the value of
this. It is a kind of average of the values pertaining to the
5 isotopes of the element.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
Equals the number of planetary electrons in the neutral atom of an
9 element.
2200033 BCE
35 21101 31 0293026380011190
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions refer to the "building blocks" of matter.
2For each item select from the key the correct response.
ETS2WVW
ETS2WVW
2
2
2
2
0
A. Molecule
B. Neutron
C. Atom
D. Electron
E. Proton
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
A particle which accounts for some elements having several atomic
1 weights
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
The smallest particle of a pure substance that can exist and retain
2 all its properties
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
9 The charged particle found only in the nucleus
2200034 B
15 21107 31 03510342800111
It is generally supposed that the atom is
A. a solid but elastic sphere
B. a positively charged mucleus and one or more planetary
electrons
C. a negatively charged nucleus and one or more planetary
protons
D. an equal number of positrons and electrons
distributed in pairs
E. a negatively charged nucleus and an equal amount
9
of positive charge distributed around it
ETS2WVW
2200035 D
15 21113 31 04950189800111
The smallest particle of any chemical element that can
exist by itself and retain the qualities that distinguish it
as an element is the
A. electron
B. proton
C. neutron
D. atom
9 E. molecule
ETS2WVW
2200036 B
15 21116 31 03510065800111
Numbers expressing how much heavier one kind of
atom is than another kind of atom, are known as
A. atomic numbers
B. atomic weight
C. symbols of the elements
D. molecular weights
9 E. chemical formulae
ETS2WVW
2200037 E
ETS2WVW
15 21119
31
03510196800111
5
1
All atoms, with the exception of H, are composed of
4
1
4
1
A. ions, plutons and cathode rays
B. molecules, geigers and electrons
C. neutrons, electrons and alpha particles
D. radioactivity, lead and protons
9 E. protons, electrons and neutrons
2200038 D
15 21124 52 051305720272
During the twentieth century classical atomic theory has been
substantially revised by certain key experiments and by
quantum theory. Which of the following statements is
representative of classical atomic theory?
A. All atoms have their mass concentrated in a very small
fraction of their volume, called the nucleus.
B. The atom is composed of protons, neutrons and electrons.
C. Electrons in matter are more conveniently described as
waves than as particles.
D. All atoms of the same element have the same mass.
9 E. The atomic number is the number of protons in the nucleus.
0044
2200039 A
15 21132 31 05130342
The nucleus of an atom is:
A. positively charged and has a high density.
B. negatively charged and has a high density.
C. positively charged and has a low density.
D. negatively charged and has a low density.
9 E. none of these.
0028
2200040 C
15 21136 31
03510513
Atoms are best described as having
A. protons and electrons in the nucleus, and electrons outside
the nucleus with the number of electrons equal to the
number of protons.
B. protons, neutrons, and electrons in the nucleus, and also
electrons outside the nucleus.
C. protons and neutrons in the nucleus, and electrons outside
the nucleus with the number of protons equal to the
number of electrons.
D. protons and neutrons in the nucleus, and electrons outside
the nucleus with the number of protons equal to the
number of neutrons.
E. protons and neutrons in the nucleus and electrons outside
the nucleus with the number of neutrons equal to the
9
number of electrons.
0028
2200041 D
14 21146 31
05130710
How would Dalton's atomic theory explain the law of conservation
of matter?
A. It is obvious by weighing the reactants and then the
products that no matter is lost nor gained.
B. The ratio of the weights of the atoms composing a molecule
of a compound is the macroscopic ratio of weights of the
elements in the compound.
C. Molecules are composed of a definite ratio of whole atoms.
D. In a chemical reaction, the atoms forming the molecules of
the reactants are simply regrouped to form the molecules
9
of the products.
0026
2200042 B
14 21154 31
05130710
Each of the following is a part of Dalton's atomic theory except
one. Which is it?
A. All atoms of a given element are alike especially in weight
B. Atoms contain a nucleus composed of protons and neutrons
C. Atoms are indivisible
D. Atoms unite in whole number ratios to form molecules of
9
compounds.
0026
2200043 B
14 21159 31 035305130710
Dalton's concept of the atom was considered insufficient because
of all of the following discoveries but one.
A. Cathode rays B. Isotopes
C. Natural radioactivity
9 D. Law of constant composition.
2200045 C
14 21162 31
06170583
What part of Dalton's theory was shown to be wrong by the
discovery of radioactivity?
A. The ultimate particle of a compound in a molecule
B. Atoms are permanent, unchanging bodies
C. Atoms of a given element all weigh the same
D. Two or more kinds of atoms may combine in different ways to
9
form more than one kind of molecule.
2200046 E
15 21167 31 0263
5
+
H __> H + ___
A. alpha particle B. neon atom C. neutron D. proton
9 E. electron
2200047 D
14 21169
31
035104950244
0026
0026
0020
0009
Experimental support for the existence of atoms and subatomic
particles includes all of the following except:
A. radioactive decay
B. electrical discharge through gases
C. metal foil scattering of alpha particles
9 D. continuous mechanical subdivision of a single crystal
2200048 A
14 21173 52 057814140495
In a mass spectrometer, which of the following statements is
true for positive ions in which one electron has been removed
from the atom?
A. The lightest particles are deflected the most
B. The particles gain electrons
C. The heaviest particles are deflected the most
9 D. All particles are deflected to the same extent
0019
2200049 B
15 21178 31 051303510342
Each of the following is a part of the postulates of atomic
theory except one. Which is it?
A. All atoms of a given element are similar to one another.
B. Atoms contain a nucleus composed of protons and neutrons.
C. Atoms are considered to be indestructible.
D. Only whole atoms can participate in or result from a
chemical reaction.
9 E. All atoms of a given element have similar chemical properties
0040
2200050 B
15 21184 32 035714650358
In the Rutherford gold_foil experiment, the fact that most of
the alpha particles were not deflected by the gold foil indicates
that
A. the nucleus is positively charged
B. the atom is mostly empty space
C. atoms are solid spheres touching each other
D. gold is very dense
9 E. gold is composed of many atoms.
0040
2200051 A
15 21189 31 058305130345
Dalton based his atomic theory partially on
A. the law of definite composition
B. the electrical conductivity of substances
C. the law of combining volumes
D. aristotle[s concepts of matter
9 E. the valences of the various elements
0034
2200052 D
15 21193 31 035706161373
Which of the following was not proposed by Ernest Rutherford?
0034
3
___
A. the nature of alpha rays
B. the nature of beta rays
C. the nature of gamma rays
D. the nature of x_rays
9 E. all of the above were proposed by Rutherford
2200053 A
15 21197 31 035703511571
Rutherford based his solar system model of the atom partly on the
fact that
A. deflections of alpha particles were extremely rare on
passing through metal foils
B. deflections of alpha particles were quite frequent but
usually the deflections were by small angles
C. occasionally alpha particles were captured by the atomic
nucleus
D. all of them passed through the metal foils undeflected
9 E. none of them passed througn the metal foils undeflected
0034
2200054 D
14 21204 52 018903531291
An element has an isotope containing the same number of protons
and neutrons in its nucleus. Its mass number is 40. How many
electrons will it have in its outermost shell?
3
_________
9 A. eight B. six C. four D. two E. five
0038
2200055 C
14 21208 32 035403370065
Argon has a smaller atomic number, but a higher atomic weight
than potassium. This inconsistency is due to:
A. more protons in the argon nucleus
B. more electrons in the outer shell of argon
C. more neutrons in the argon nucleus
9 D. a larger number of electron shells in the K atom
0038
2200056 C
15 21212 32 034203410065
If the nucleus is composed only of protons and neutrons, how many
neutrons are present in the nucleus of the element of atomic
weight 119 and atomic number 50?
9 A. 119 B. 79 C. 69 D. none of these E. 65
0038
2210001 A
15 21215 32 03610351800112
According to the Bohr theory of the atom, the inert gases are most
accurately characterized as elements whose atoms have
A. the greatest possible number of electrons in the state with
the highest principal quantum number occuring in the most
stable configuration of the atom
B. both very high ionization energy and very little ability to
ETS2 OS
9
attract additional electrons
C. no ability to lose electrons
D. no ability to gain electrons
E. no ability to gain or to lose electrons
2210002 D
15 21222 32 00150019800112
It was realized during the nineteenth century that the
characteristic physical and chemical properties of the metallic
elements can be explained as due to a tendency of their atoms to
become positively charged. This tendency is accounted for in
Bohr's theory of the atom as a direct result of metallic atoms
having
A. few electrons
B. many electrons
C. relatively low ionization energy in their most stable states
D. electrons in the outermost electron shell
9 E. quantum numbers greater than those of non_metallic atoms
ETS2 OS
2210005 C
15 21229 51 03610159800114
The principal reason for the existence of the problem attacked by
Bohr was that
A. while radiation is emitted by atoms in a discrete fashion as
far as frequency is concerned (line spectra), the emission
nevertheless appears to be continuous in time.
B. the observed scattering of alpha particles, according to
Rutherford, is compatible only with a nuclear model of the
atom.
C. radiation phenomena indicate that, since atoms emit light, they
must lose energy, and thus cannot exist in "stationary"
states of constant energy; on the other hand, stationary
states are required to account for the stability of the
atom.
D. the Rutherford atom could not be stable if its electrons were
at rest, nor, according to Maxwell's electrodynamics, if
they were in motion; on the otherhand, the Planck_Einstein
theory of radiation involved concepts different from and
contradictory to those of Maxwell's theory.
E. the fact that elements have characteristic spectra, exhibited
by them both in the uncombined state and in compounds,
indicates that these spectra are due to processes within
9
individual atoms.
ETS2 OS
2210006 C
15 21245 51 03420351800111
1. The nucleus of an atom contains only protons and
electrons as separate particles.
2. The number of electrons in an atom in the normal
ETS2WVW
state equals the number of protons.
3. The nucleus of an atom contains protons and neutrons.
4. The number of neutrons in an atom always gives the
atomic number.
5. An atom may lose one or more electrons in ordinary
chemical reactions.
Which of the following choices lists all and only those
statements above which are correct according to the
theory of the Bohr atom?
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 2, 3 and 5
D. 2, 3, and 4
9 E. 1, 2, and 3
2210007 B
15 21253 51 0224035102631290
2The first set of relationships established by Bohr in his
2discussion of systems consisting of a single electron revolving
2about a nucleus is given by the formulae
ETS2WVW
5
1/2
3/2
1/2
w = (2 ) x (u )/(p x e x e x m )/u
4
1
1
2
2
4
2 x r =(e x e )/u
1
2
2where w is the orbital frequency of an electron of charge e and
4
1
2a mass m moving about a nucleus of charge e in an orbit of radius r
4
2
and ionization energy u.
The importance of these relationships in Bohr's theory lies in the
fact that
A. they give the radius of the orbit and the frequency of
revolution as functions of the charge of the electron.
B. they give the radius of the orbit and the frequency of
revolution as functions of the charge of the nucleus.
C. they give the radius of the orbit and the frequency of
revolution as functions of the ionization energy.
D. they express Bohr's hypothesis concerning the necessary and
sufficient conditions for the existence of stationary
states.
9 E. they determine the size of the atom.
2210008 AC
25 21298
52
0357035100391390
ETS2WVW
MACROITEM STEM
0 Answer the following questions.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
In Rutherford's calculations, he assumes that the atom with which
an alpha particle interacts is at rest during the interaction.
The mass of a gold atom is approximately 50 times the mass of an
5
9
alpha particle. If a single alpha particle, moving at 2 x 10
cm./sec., meets a gold atom and is deflected through 180 degrees,
emerging at the same speed with which it entered, and if the total
momentum of the particle and the atom is the same before and after
the encounter, the atom must have acquired a speed of
A. zero
5
_2
B. 2 x 10 cm./sec.
C. 1 cm./sec.
5
7
D. 8 x 10 cm./sec.
5
8
1 E. 5 x 10 cm./sec.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
In the light of the considerations given in the preceding item,
which of the following remarks is justified concerning the status
of Rutherford's assumption that the atoms are stationary?
A. In the experiments cited by Rutherford, the speeds of the alpha
5
9
particles were only 1.7 and 1.8 x 10 cm./sec., so that the
result of the calculation in the preceding item is not
directly relevant.
B. Rutherford is entitled to assume that the forces between the
atoms, which give the metal its solidity, prevent any one
atom from acquiring a high speed; the momentum imparted by
the encounter is therefore not carried by a single atom,
but shared among many.
C. The considerations given in the preceding item bear out
Rutherford's assumption that the velocity imparted to the
atom is either zero or insignificant.
D. The considerations given in the preceding item are not easily
reconciled with Rutherford's assumption; hence, since that
assumption is required to derive his results (which accord
with experiment), some modification of classical mechanics__
possibly giving up the law of the conservation of momentum__
is indicated.
E. Rutherford's assumption is not affected by the considerations
given, since that assumption has the status of a working
hypothesis which is justified as long as it leads to results
9
borne out by experiment.
2210009 B
14 21328 32 1110
05
Almost all the mass of an atom is due to
A. its protons and electrons
C. its protons
B. its neutrons and protons
D. its neutrons
9
E. its neutrons and electons
2210010 B
15 21331 31 01480357800114
The failure of classical physics, applied to the Rutherford atom
model, to account for the stability of the atom leads Bohr to
attempt to answer the question
A. Do there exist other processes which classical physics is
unable to explain?
B. How can we explain the existence of stable atoms, in which
electrons circulate around the nucleus but do not produce
radiation?
C. How can we determine which of the imaginable orbits of the
electron in the atom are in fact stable (classical physics
not withstanding)?
D. If electrons circulating about nuclei do not emit radiation,
then what becomes of the energy which, according to
classical physics, should be emitted in this fashion?
E. If the light emitted by atoms does not constitute
9
electromagnetic radiation, then what sort of process is it?
ETS2WVW
2210011 E
15 21343 31 03420263800116
The attraction of the nucleus for electrons diminishes as the
invervening space increases. Which of the following is the best
experimental evidence for this statement?
A. Alkali metals have many properties in common.
B. Gas spectra consist of a series of sharp lines.
C. Beta_ray emission does not change the atomic weight of the
radioactive element.
D. Iodine is chemically less active than is chlorine.
9 E. None of the above is good evidence.
ETS2WVW
2210012 D
15 21350 31 03610351800111
The Bohr picture of the atom
A. was devised to explain combining weights
B. fails to explain why rapidly moving alpha particles ionize
gases
C. explains a negative electrovalence of one by setting up the
3
___
electron configuration 2,8,9
D. explains the line spectrum of hydrogen
ETS2WVW
9 E. explains the complete ionization of electrovalent compounds
2210013 E
15 21356 31 03610590800111
According to the Bohr theory, visible radiations of light
from atoms or molecules are directly due to
A. small particles ejected from the nuclei of the atoms
B. photons absorbed by the atoms
C. revolution of the electrons in their orbits
D. electrons jumping from an inner to an outer orbit
9 E. electrons falling from an outer to an inner orbit
ETS2WVW
2210014 D
14 21361 31
03510263
In the Bohr model of the atom, the electrons revolve around the
nucleus of an atom so as to
A. emit spectral lines B. produce x_rays
C. form energy levels that depend upon their speeds only
9 D. keep from falling into the nucleus
0041
2210015 D
14 21365 31
03510263
According to the Bohr model of the atom, an electron in a stable
orbit
A. radiates electromagnetic energy continuously
B. emits only spectral lines
C. remains there forever
9 D. can jump to another orbit if given enough energy
0041
2210016 C
14 21369 31 026305860342
An electron can revolve in an orbit around an atomic nucleus
without radiating energy provided that the orbit
A. is far enough away from the nucleus
B. is less than a de broglie wavelength in circumference
C. is an integral number of de broglie wavelengths in
circumference
9 D. is a perfect circle
0041
2210017 C
15 45649 32 059403610347
Which of the following is not a main postulate of the Bohr theory?
3
___
A. The electron moves around a heavy positively charged nucleus in
a circular orbit.
B. Only certain orbits (energy levels) are allowed.
C. An atomic orbital is a region in space where there is a 90%
probability of finding an electron.
D. Any loss or gain in the energy of the electron must come from
transitions from one energy level to another.
9 E. All of the above ARE main postulates of the Bohr theory.
0018
2210018 A
15 21381 51 134502630586
According to the Bohr postulates of the atom
A. electrons can have only certain allowed energies
B. electrons must remain in fixed orbits
C. orbits closest to the nucleus have the highest energy
D. all electrons are the same distance from the nucleus
9 E. none of these
0020
2210019 E
15 21385 31 006902900330
Bohr's atomic model was built around an explanation of
A. the ionization potentials of the elements
B. the transition elements
C. wave mechanics
D. chemical bonding
9 E. the spectrum of hydrogen
0034
2300001 D
15 21388 31 00140306006511
Why is the weight of carbon_12 a good standard upon which
to base the relative atomic weights of other elements?
A. It is heavy.
B. It is of relatively low density.
C. It unites with many other elements.
D. It is readily available.
9 E. It unites with no other elements.
ETS2WVW
2300002 A
15 21392 31 03660065800111
In order to apply Cannizzaro's method for determining the
atomic weight of an element, one must know, in addition
to composition by weight of several of its compounds,
A. the specific gravities of several compounds in the vapor state
B. the specific heat of the element
C. either the data in A or that in B
D. the specific heats of several compounds of the element
9 E. all of the data in A, B, and D.
ETS2WVW
2300003 C
15 21398 31 03980351800111
The mass of an atom is concentrated in a very small
part of the total volume of the atom, that is, the nucleus.
This statement is substantiated most by the observation that
A. gases can be compressed into very small volumes.
B. gases diffuse through one another.
C. alpha particles penetrate thin sheets of gold.
D. atoms neither gain nor lose mass during chemical reactions.
9 E. light passes through many substances.
ETS2WVW
2300004 D
ETS2WVW
15 21404
31
04450351800111
The relative weights of atoms may be determined most
appropriately by the
A. zinc_sulphate fluorescent screen
B. Wilson cloud chamber
C. Geiger counter
D. mass spectrograph
9 E. electron microscope
2300005 D
15 21407 31 00650351800111
The atomic mass of most atoms depends almost entirely
upon the mass of the
A. electrons of the atom
B. protons of the atom
C. electrons and protons of the atom
D. protons and neutrons of the atom
9 E. electrons and neutrons of the atom
ETS2WVW
2300006 D
15 21411 31 00650351800111
The atomic weight of most atoms depends almost entirely upon
3
______
the weight of the
A. electrons of the atom
B. protons of the atom
C. electrons and protons of the atom
D. protons and neutrons of the atom
9 E. electrons and neutrons of the atom
ETS2WVW
2300007 BDCCA
55 21415 52 0158006680011390
MACROITEM STEM
2Gaseous element X has a specific gravity (relative to oxygen) of
20.94; gaseous element Y has a specific gravity of 3.75. they form
2three gaseous compounds with each other, the combining weights
2and specific gravities being tabulated below.
2
Specific
2
Combining weights
gravities
2compound I
1g X+2g Y
2.8
2compound II
1g X+4g Y
1.2
2compound III
1g X+8g Y
4.2
2(the atomic weight of oxygen is 16.0; its molecule contains
2two atoms.)
0 Using this information, answer the following questions.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
Which of the compounds would be considered as binary according
to Dalton's method for determining atomic weight?
A. Compound I
B. Compound II
ETS2WVW
1
2
3
4
9
C. Compound III
D. All of these are equally likely to be binary.
E. None of these could be binary, since no ratio is 1:1.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
Using Dalton's method, the atomic weight of element Y is
calculated to be
A. two
B. twice that of element X
C. three
D. four times that of element X
E. eight
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
How would the application of Cannizzaro's method for determining
the atomic weight of element Y constitute an improvement over
Dalton's method?
A. By identifying the spatially separate particles of element Y
as molecules instead of atoms
B. By postulating that the molecules of element Y consist of
two atoms
C. By utilizing molecular weights calculated from the specific
gravities listed
D. By defining atomic weights in terms of oxygen as a standard
instead of hydrogen
E. By yielding absolute atomic weights rather than merely
relative atomic weights
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
What are the relative volumes of the gases involved in the formation
of compound I?
A. 1 of X and 1 of Y yield 2 of compound I.
B. 1 Of X and 2 of Y yield 2 of compound I.
C. 2 Of X and 1 of Y yield 2 of compound I.
D. 1 Of X and 2 of Y yield 3 of compound I.
E. The data give NO information on this matter.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
Division of the molecule of element Y must have occured in the
formation of
A. compound I only
B. compound II only
C. compounds I and II, but not III
D. compound III only
E. none of these compounds
2300008 C
15 21444 31 03980351800111
The mass of an atom is most closely related to the sum of the masses
of its
A. protons alone
ETS2WVW
9
B. protons and electrons
C. protons and neutrons
D. neutrons alone
E. electrons alone
2300009 D
15 21447 31 03510097800112
If an atom has 9 protons and 10 neutrons in its nucleus, and 9
planetary electrons, its atomic weight is probably
A. 9
B. 10
C. 18
D. 19
9 E. 28
ETS2WVW
2300010 A
15 21450 31 00650189800111
In general, the atomic weight of an element is equal to
A. the sum of the weights of the protons and neutrons in
the nucleus
B. twice the atomic number
C. the molecular weight in grams
D. the sum of the protons and the planetary electrons
9 E. the sum of the neutrons and the valence electrons
ETS2WVW
2300011 C
15 21455 31 00650014800111
The present_day table of atomic weights is based upon
an arbitrary weight assigned to
A. hydrogen
B. salt
C. carbon
D. water
9 E. oxygen
ETS2WVW
2300012 B
15 21458 52
071101
If the atomic weight of carbon had been assigned exactly 100 amu,
instead of 12 amu, the atomic weight of oxygen would have been
9 A. 104
B. 133
C. 16
D. 128
E. none of these
2300013 B
14 21461 31 111001890337
The atomic mass of an element in amu is
A. always equal to or less than its atomic number
B. always equal to or greater than its atomic number
C. equal to its atomic number except in the case of isotopes
D. sometimes greater and somtimes smaller than its atomic
9
number
2300014 B
15 21465
32
03510065
0064
0041
0047
5
21
In 0.37 g of X there are 3.01 x 10 atoms of X. The atomic
weight of X is
5
_1
_1
_1
A. 37.0 g mole
B. 74.0 g mole
C. 142.0 g mole
5
_1
_1
9 D. 35.5 g mole
E. 16.0 g mole
2300015 C
15 21469 52 141500650189
The principle of Dulong and Petit states that the product of the
atomic weight of a solid element and its specific heat, measured
at room temperature, is approximately 6.2 cal per g_atom per
degree. A prospector has asked you to identify the most abundant
element in a mineral sample he has found. You chemically
separate the most abundant element and determine that its
5
_1
specific heat is 1.11 x 10 cal per gram per degree.
What is the element?
9 A. Be B. Mg C. Fe D. Ni E. Cu.
0044
2300016 B
15 21476 32 111003530341
The atomic mass of an isotope of chlorine,Cl,having eighteen
neutrons is
9 A. 18 B. 35 C. 36 D. 35.45 E. none of these
0018
2300017 E
15 21478 31 03510445
The weight of an atom depends on
A. the number of electrons
B. the number of protons and electrons
C. the number of neutrons and electrons
D. the number of protons
9 E. none of these
2300018 C
14 21481 31 006514130351
The atomic weight of chlorine is 35.5. This means that
A. the actual weight of a Cl atom is not known more accurately
than to three digits
B. a variable number of electrons gives a fractional value
C. on the average, an atom of Cl weighs almost three times as
much as an atom of carbon
9 D. chlorine occurs with a variable number of protons
2300019 D
14 21486 32 006503981315
Suppose the atomic weight scale had been set up with calcium, Ca,
chosen for a mass of exactly 10 units, rather than about 40 on
the present scale. On such a scale, the atomic weight of oxygen
would be about
0018
0009
0009
9
A. 64 B. 32 C. 16 D. 4
2300020 B
14 21490 31 006507140634
The most direct method for determining atomic weights is:
A. gas density measurements B. mass spectroscopy
9 C. combining weights D. alpha_particle scattering
0009
2300021 D
15 21493 32 006503530189
Element A exists in three isotopic forms with weights of 21.0,
25.0, and 26.0 respectively. Element B also exists in three
isotopic forms with weights of 22.0, 24.0, and 26.0 respectively.
It is true that
A. element A will have a higher atomic weight than B.
B. element B will have a higher atomic weight than A.
C. they will have identical atomic weights since the sum of
their isotopic weights are equal.
D. you cannot predict which atomic weight is greater from the
data given.
9 E. no correct response is given.
0040
2300022 A
15 21501 32 033703530006
Chlorine consists of two naturally occurring isotopes with
weights of 35.0 and 37.0 amu. The atomic weight of natural
chlorine is 35.453 amu. It is true that
A. chlorine_35 is present on the largest amount.
B. chlorine_37 is present in the largest amount.
C. chlorine_35 and chlorine_37 are present in exactly equal
quantities.
D. the two are present in about equal quantities.
3
_____
9 E. it is impossible to determine from given information.
0040
2300023 C
15 21508 31 006501890353
The atomic weight of an element is:
A. the weight of any single atom of that element
B. the weight of a particular isotope of that element
C. the average weight of atoms of that element compared to a
standard
D. the average weight of a particular isotope of that element
compared to a standard
9 E. a multiple of the weight of carbon.
0040
2300024 D
15 21513 32 035103420065
If an atom has 9 protons and 10 neutrons in its nucleus, and 9
planetary electrons, its atomic weight is probably
9 A. 9 B. 10 C. 18 D. 19 E. 28
0035
2300025 C
14 21516 32 02070065
The specific heat of calcium is:
A. 0.273 cal/g_deg B. 0.232 cal/g_deg C. 0.157 cal/g_deg
9 E. 0.102 cal/g_deg
0003
2300026 B
14 21518 32 02070065
If the specific heat of nickel is 0.105, the approximate atomic
weight of this element is:
9 A. 34 B. 60 C. 120 D. 6.7
0003
2300027 B
14 21520 52 19451313
The present atomic weight scale is based on
A. natural carbon
5
12
B. C
C. natural oxygen
5
16
9 D. O
0056
2300028 A
15 21522 52
071101
Given the substances: nitrogen, manganese, nickel, silver, silicon,
and magnesium. Arranged left to right in order of increasing
atomic weight, the chemical symbols are:
A. N, Mg, Si, Mn, Ni, Ag
B. N, Mg, S, Mn, Ni, Si
C. Ni, Mn, Si, Mg, N, Ag
D. N, Mn, Sc, Mg, Ni, Si
9 E. N, Mg, Sc, Mn, Ni, Ag
0064
2300029 E
15 21527 52
071101
A compound of formula AB contains 40% A by weight. The atomic
4
3
weight of A must be
A. one_half that of B.
B. equal to that of B.
C. three times that of B.
D. one_third that of B.
9 E. twice that of B.
0064
2300030 D
15 21531 52
071101
Consider the compound X Y that is 60.0% X and 40.0% Y by weight.
4
25
From these data, it can be concluded that the ratio of the atomic
weight of X to the atomic weight of Y is
9 A. 1.50
B. 0.667
C. 1.33
D. 3.75
E. 2.67
0064
2300031 C
15 21535 52
071101
Atom Z is found to be 12.0 times as heavy as a carbon atom. You
wish to prepare a compound that contains 2 atoms of carbon for
0064
every 1 atom of Z. If 1.00 g of carbon is used, how many grams
of Z are required?
9 A. 12.0
B. 48.0
C. 6.00
D. 3.00
E. 24.0
2300032 A
15 21539 52
071101
A 2.0000_gram sample of element X reacted with oxygen to form
2.5392 grams of the compound XO . Taking 16.00 amu for the atomic
4
2
weight of oxygen, determine the identity of element X.
9 A. Sn
B. Si
C. Co
D. Ti
E. C
0064
2310001 E
15 21543 51 03530351800111
An isotope is
A. a new but unstable element
B. a new compound
C. a form of an element which has different chemical properties
but the same weight as another form of that element
D. an old previously_known compound with the same chemical
characteristics but a new molecular weight
E. an atom of an element which has the same chemical
characteristics as another atom of the element but
9
different atomic weight
ETS2WVW
2310002 B
15 21549 31 03530573800111
Separation of the isotopes of uranium requires a physical method
rather than a chemical method because
A. it is too dangerous to mix other chemicals with uranium.
B. they are chemically the same element.
C. they differ in number of neutrons.
D. it is the heaviest element in nature.
9 E. natural uranium contains only 0.7% U_235.
ETS2WVW
2310003 A
15 21554 31 05820591800111
In positive_ray analysis
A. a combination of magnetic and electrical fields sorts out
atoms according to their atomic number.
B. cathode rays are separated into groups according to their
ratio of mass to charge.
C. positively charged atoms are split into groups according
to their group number in the periodic table.
D. atoms of the same mass and charge hit a photographic plate
at the same point.
E. isotopes of the same element converge to the same point
9
on a photographic plate.
ETS2WVW
2310004 D
ETS2WVW
15 21562
31
03530351800111
In which of the following ways did the discovery of isotopes change
our ideas of the nature of atoms?
A. it demonstrated that atoms can be broken down into smaller
particles.
B. it demonstrated that there is NO such thing as a pure atom.
C. it has made the distinction between an atom and a molecule
less clear.
D. it indicated that the mass of the atom does not determine its
chemical properties.
E. it indicated that an element probably does not consist of
9
atoms.
2310005 C
15 21569 31 03390351800112
The atomic number of lithium is 3. Some atoms of lithium have 3
neutrons but most have 4 neutrons so that the atomic weight is 6.9.
This shows that lithium
A. has two valences
B. is not a pure substance
C. exists as two isotopes
D. has a negative valence
9 E. has several distributions of its electrons
ETS2WVW
2310006 A
15 21574 31 05640342800111
A deuteron is
A. the nucleus of a heavy hydrogen atom
B. a neutron with two positive charges
C. an electron with a positive charge
D. a type of large molecule
9 E. an atom of a recently discovered element
ETS2WVW
2310007 E
15 21577 31 05640342800111
Isotopes are elements
A. with two or more forms, like graphite and the diamond
B. with the same atomic weight but different molecular weights
C. which have both positive and negative valences
D. which can exist in two or more states at the same temperature
E. with the same atomic number but a different number of
9
neutrons
ETS2WVW
2310008 B
15 21582 31 01890353800111
A chemical element is found to consist of serveral substances
of different atomic weights but identical chemical properties.
These substances are called
A. allotropic forms
B. isotypes
C. electrons
ETS2WVW
9
D. deuterons
E. isobars
2310009 A
15 21586 31 03510189800111
The atoms of a given element may differ in atomic weight,
have different physical characteristics and yet not
vary chemically. This is because of a variation in the
number of their
A. neutrons
B. electrons
C. protons
D. two of the above
9 E. all of the first three
ETS2WVW
2310010 E
15 21590 31 03530189800111
An isotope is
A. a new but unstable element
B. a new compound
C. a form of an element which has different chemical
properties but the same weight as another form of
that element
D. an old previously known compound with the same chemical
characteristics but a new molecular weight
E. an atom of an element which has the same chemical
characteristics as another atom of the element but
9
different atomic weight
ETS2WVW
2310011 E
15 21597 31 04950189800111
A particle which accounts for some elements having
several atomic weights is the
A. molecule
B. electron
C. proton
D. ion
9 E. neutron
ETS2WVW
2310012 D
14 21600 31
Tritium has an atomic weight of
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
9 D. 3
084700658004
2310013 E
15 21601 31 03530189800111
Isotopes of a given element differ only in
A. position in the periodic table
2WVW
ETS2WVW
9
B. number of electrons outside the nucleus
C. atomic numbers
D. positive charge of the nucleus
E. number of neutrons in the nucleus
2310014 D
14 21604
An isotope of hydrogen is
A. neptunium
B. plutonium
C. thorium
9 D. tritium
31
035301968004
2310015 D
15 21606 31 03530351800111
Isotopes are
A. atoms having the same nuclear charge and the same mass
B. atoms having different nuclear charges and the same mass
C. atoms having different nuclear charges and different masses
D. atoms having the same nuclear charge and different masses
9 E. atoms having negative nuclear charges
2WVW
ETS2WVW
2310016 B
14 21611 32 0353
05
Two isotopes of the same element contain different numbers
of
A. electrons C. protons
9 B. neutrons D. protons and electrons
2310017 A
14 21613 31 035301898004
Isotopes of a particular element differ in all of the following
except
A. chemical properties
B. nuclear structures
C. atomic masses
9 D. density
2 OS
2310018 C
14 21616 31 019603538004
The hydrogen atom isotope which consists of one proton, one neutron
and one electron is known as
A. hydronium
B. plutonium
C. deuterium
D. tritium
9 E. the alpha particle
2 OS
2310019 B
14 21619 31 035301898004
Isotopes of a particular element have a different number of
A. electrons
2 OS
9
B. neutrons
C. protons
D. energy levels
2310020 B
14 21621 31 035301898004
Isotopes of a particular element have a different number of
A. electrons
B. neutrons
C. protons
9 D. energy levels
2 OS
2310021 A
14 21623 31 033703538004
The atomic number of the isotopes of hydrogen is
A. always 1
B. sometimes 2
C. 3, since there are three isotopes
9 D. 1.0078
2 OS
2310022 B
14 21625 31 035103420097
Atoms whose nuclei contain the same numbers of protons but
different numbers of neutrons are called
9 A. alpha particles B. isotopes C. radioactive D. positrons
0041
2310023 E
15 21628 32 035301890351
If two isotopes of a certain element are known, it follows that
some of the atoms of that element:
A. have different numbers of protons in their nuclei
B. have different number of positrons in their nuclei
C. have different chemical properties
D. are naturally radioactive
9 E. have different numbers of neutrons in their nuclei.
0042
2310024 C
14 21633 32 02930445
The following two molecules have practically the same weight:
A. H O and D O B. H O and HOT
4
2
2
2
C. D O and HOT D. DOT and HOD.
94
2
2310025 E
15 21636 52 018903530204
A hypothetical element has the following isotopic composition:
isotope
mass
percent abundance
76
75.9217
27.6
78
77.9212
72.4
What is the atomic weight of the element?
(75.9217 + 77.9212)
0043
0044
A. (27.6)(75.9217)+(72.4)(77.9212) B. ___________________
2
9
(76 + 78)
C. _________ D. 75.9217 + 77.9212 E. none of the above.
2
2310026 C
15 21643 52 018900650353
A hypothetical element has atomic weight 33.51 grams/gram_atom.
It is composed of two isotopes of mass 33.92 and 32.93. What is
the percentage of the heavier isotope?
9 A. 0.415 B. 1.41 C. 58.5 D. 41.5 E. 71.1.
0044
2310027 D
14 21646 31 10550669034051
5
3
4
5
The species He, He, and He represent three
4
2
2
2
9 A. allotropes B. isomers C. homologs D. isotopes E. conformers
9000
2310028 B
15 21649 51 039803530454
The mass of an isotope is ____________ the sum of the masses of
the individual constitutents.
A. greater than
B. less than
C. about the same as
D. may be greater than or less than
9 E. cannot predict
0018
2310029 B
15 21652 32 006505130353
542
Ca has
420
A. 22 protons in the nucleus.
B. 22 neutrons in the nucleus.
C. 22 electrons outside the nucleus.
D. 20 neutrons in the nucleus.
9 E. 20 electrons in the nucleus.
0028
2310030 B
15 21656 52
5
20
Element X was found to come in two forms: 90.0%
4
10
What is the atomic mass of element X?
9 A. 20.1 B. 20.2 C. 20.8 D. 21.2 E. 21.8
2310031 B
15 21660
32
006503530341
22
X and 10.0%
10
X.
0028
An isotope having an atomic number of 22 and a mass number of 49
would have
A. 27 protons in the nucleus
B. 27 neutrons in the nucleus
C. 27 electrons outside the nucleus
D. 22 neutrons in the nucleus
9 E. none of these
2310032 B
14 21664 31 051303530065
Two isotopes of the same element must necessarily differ in their
A. atomic numbers B. atomic weights
9 C. number of electrons D. charge.
0026
2310033 B
14 21666 31 006503410353
An atom of an element has an atomic weight of 75 and an atomic
number of 35. How many neutrons per atom?
9 A. 35 B. 40 C. 75 D. 110.
0026
2310034 D
15 21668
Heavy water contains
A. deuterium oxide
B. deutrium
C. heavy hydrogen
D. all of these
9 E. none of these
0020
31
116507880196
2310035 D
15 21670 31 035301960847
The hydrogen isotope with an atomic mass of 3.00 is
A. deuterium B. deuterium oxide C. heavy water D. tritium
5
2
E. D
94
1
2310036 E
15 21672 31 122412251226
A major use for radioactive isotopes occurs in
A. tracer experiments
B. medicine
C. agriculture research
D. industry
9 E. all of these
2310037 D
15 21675 31 03530337
Isotopes
A. must have the same mass
B. have different nuclear charges
C. contain the same number of neutrons
D. must have the same atomic number
0020
0020
0020
9
E. none of these
2310038 E
15 21678 31 035303370342
5
84
The isotope Kr
4
36
A. has a mass number of 84
B. contains 48 neutrons
C. has a nucleus with a +36 charge
D. has an atomic number of 36
9 E. all of these
0020
2310039 E
15 21681 31 035313390189
An isotope is defined as
A. elements with the same atomic mass
B. elements with the same number of neutrons
C. different compounds containing the same elements
D. an element with atoms containing the same number of protons
but slightly different numbers of electrons
E. an element with atoms containing the same number of protons
9
but slightly different numbers of neutrons
0020
2310040 E
15 21687 31 081203420353
The symbol for the nucleus of an isotope of gallium, element
number 31, atomic mass 69.72, is
5
31
101
31
69.72
70
A. Ga B.
Ga C. Ga D.
Ga E. Ga
4
70
31
69
31
31
9
0020
2310041 D
15 21691 52 018903530065
An element in its naturally occurring form is made up of 85% of
an isotope of mass 24.0 amu and 15% of an isotope of mass
26.0 amu. The atomic mass of this element is
9 A. 24.85 B. 26.15 C. 24.7 D. 24.3 E. 25.0
0019
2310042 A
14 44638 31 035301890337
An isotope of an element
A. has the same atomic number, but different mass number
B. disintegrates to yield the radiation of energy and a new
element
C. has the same atomic mass but a different atomic number
D. has an inequality in the number of protons and electrons
9 E. has a different arrangement of atoms
0019
2310043 A
0019
14 21698
31
084703420097
The tritium nucleus consists of ______.
A. one proton and two neutrons
B. one proton and one neutron
C. one proton and two electrons
9 D. one proton and three neutrons
2310044 B
15 21701 31 035308120189
Which of the following pairs of symbols represent isotopes of one
element?
5
2
5
10
11
10
10
A. X and X B. X and X C. X and X
4
1
2
4
4
5
4
5
5
5
D. X and X
4
1
2
9 E. both C and d
0040
2310045 C
15 21705 31 035308120341
5
65
The symbol Zn indicates that this isotope contains
4
30
0040
9
A. 35 protons and 35 neutrons
B. 35 protons and 30 neutrons
C. 30 protons and 35 neutrons
E. 30 protons and 65 neutrons
2310046 B
15 21708 31 034200970353
Isotopes of the same element differ from each other in what way?
A. They have different numbers of protons in the nucleus.
B. They have different numbers of neutrons in the nucleus.
C. They have different numbers of electrons outside the
nucleus.
D. Both A and C
9 E. both B and C.
2310047 B
15 21713 31 03530573
Which pair represents isotopes?
5
54
54
235
238
A. Cr and Fe B.
U and
U
4
24
26
92
92
5
116
116
239
239
C.
Cd and
Sn D.
Np and
Pu
4
48
50
93
94
5
4
3
E. He and Li
0040
0040
94
2
3
2310048 C
15 21718 31 018903530578
To determine whether or not a given element has isotopes,
scientists
A. seek chemical reactions which will separate different forms.
B. use the fog_track apparatus.
C. use the mass spectrograph of Aston.
D. use a centrifuge so that the heavier atoms will be separated
from the lighter ones.
9 E. use a zinc sulfide flourescent screen.
0035
2310049 C
15 21723 31 033703510065
The atomic number of lithium is 3. Some atoms of lithium have 3
neutrons but most have 4 neutrons so that the atomic weight is
6.9. This shows that lithium
A. has two valences
B. is not a pure substance.
C. exists as two isotopes.
D. has a negative valence.
9 E. has several distributions of its electrons.
0035
2310050 C
14 21728 31 035313760578
Which of the following is the best indication of the existence of
isotopes?
A. the fact that some elements are more reactive than others
B. the deflection of alpha particles on passing through thin
sheets of metals
C. the appearance of more than one line in the mass spectrum of
an element in the mass spectrometer
D. the appearance of more than one line in the emission
9
spectrum of an incandescent element
0038
2310051 A
15 21734 32 035103420540
Two different atoms, X and y, have the same number of protons in
the nucleus, but the atom of Y has two more neutrons in its
nucleus than the atom of X. What may we infer from this
information?
A. both atoms have the same valence
B. if the valence of X is 2, the valence of Y is 4
C. both atoms have the same atomic weight
D. the atom of Y has two more electrons than an atom of Y
E. the percentage of X in the oxide of X is the same as the
9
percentage of Y in the oxide of Y
0038
2310052 A
14 21741
52
1944
0055
Isotopes of the same element have
A. different neutron numbers
B. different atomic numbers
C. the same atomic masses
9 D. the same mass numbers
2310053 B
14 21744 52 1944
Suppose that in nature three isotopes of element X occur as fol_
lows:
Isotope
Atomic mass
%
1
110.0
60.0
2
105.0
30.0
3
100.0
10.0
The atomic mass (weight) of the naturally occurring mixture of X
is
A. 315.0
B. 107.5
C. 105.0
9 D. 102.5
0055
2310054 C
14 21750 52 1945
Suppose that in nature a certain element consists of two isotopes
with masses of 24 U and 28 U occurring in percentages of 25% and
75%, respectively. Calculate the average mass of an atom of this
element in nature.
A. 25 U
B. 26 U
C. 27 U
9 D. 52 U
0056
2310055 A
14 21754 52 194708470097
5
3
The number of protons in a tritium atom ( H) is:
9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 0
2330001 B
15 21756 52 80018003
13
The relative abundance of the two rubidium isotopes of atomic
weights 85 and 87 are 75% and 25%, respectively. The average atomic
weight of rubidium is
A. 85
B. 85.5
C. 86
D. 86.5
9 E. 87
2330002 C
15 21759
32
018903530065
0058
ETS2WVW
0047
5
69
The element gallium consists of 60% Ga isotope, (mass=68.93amu)
5
71
and 40% Ga isotope (mass 70.93 amu). Calculate the atomic
weight of normally occurring gallium.
9 A. 68.93 B. 69.10 C. 69.73 D. 70.93 E. 70.50
2330003 C
15 21763 31 011301950569
Which of the following gases is not one of the four that account
for 99.997% by volume of clean dry air?
A. nitrogen
B. oxygen
C. krypton
D. carbon dioxide
9 E. none of these(i.e.,all are)
0018
2330004 D
15 21766 31 041501890025
The most abundant element on the earth's crust is
A. carbon
B. nitrogen
C. iron
D. oxygen
9 E. water
0020
2330005 B
15 21768 31 041501890196
The most abundant element in the universe is
A. oxygen
B. hydrogen
C. nitrogen
D. carbon
9 E. iron
0020
2330006 E
15 21770 31 130804150196
In the whole solar system the most abundant elements are
A. oxygen an iron
B. iron and oxygen
C. carbon and oxygen
D. silicon and oxygen
9 E. hydrogen and helium
0020
2330007 D
15 21773 32 018911590353
An element in its naturally occurring form is made up of 15
percent of an isotope of mass 26.0 amu and 85 percent of an
isotope of mass 24.0 amu. The atomic mass of this element is
9 A. 25.0 B. 26.15 C. 24.7 D. 24.3 E. 24.85
0020
2330008 E
15 21777 31 041501891376
105 different elements are known to exist. Which of the
following statements relating to these elements is correct?
3
_______
A. All of these elements are found in nature.
B. The last of these elements was discovered prior to 1940.
C. Although they do not occur in exactly equal abundance in
nature, their abundances are very close to being equal.
D. The first letter of the symbol of each element begins with
the same letter as does the element[s name.
9 E. Some of the elements were man made.
0040
2330009 C
15 21785 31 041500250350
The two most abundant elements in nature are
A. oxygen and hydrogen
B. carbon and silicon
C. silicon and oxygen
D. nitrogen and oxygen
9 E. chlorine and fluorine
0040
2330010 B
15 21788 52 041503530065
The relative abundance of the two rubidium isotopes of atomic
weights 85 and 87 are 75% and 25%, respectively. The average
atomic weight of rubidium is
9 A. 85. B. 85.5 C. 86. D. 86.5 E. 87.
0035
2330011 B
15 21791 31
The most abundant element (by mass) in the human body is
9 A. hydrogen B. oxygen C. carbon D. nitrogen E. water
2500001 A
15 21793 31 03380353800112
The electron structure of a certain neutral isotope is specified
as follows: 2 electrons in K level, 8 electrons in L level, and
7 electrons in M level. Of what element is the above an isotope?
A. chlorine
B. oxygen
C. fluorine
D. beryllium
9 E. nitrogen
2500002 A
15 21797 31 03510263
12
The diagram below symbolizes the structure of a particular atom.
The symbols contained within multiple parenthesis represent the
structure of the inner core, and the number in front of the right
parenthesis represents the outer electrons. Which of the following
choices best describes this diagram?
OS86
ETS2 OS
ETS2 OS
(18p)
(22n) 8)
(10e)
9
A. an argon atom
B. an argon ion
C. a chlorine ion
D. a potassium ion
E. a potassium atom
2500003 E
15 21804 52 63038003301111
Which of the following is the best evidence that electrons
are arranged in definite energy levels?
A. Electrons in the beta_ray have a very high energy.
B. All elements do not have identical properties.
C. Electrons rotate about the nucleus.
D. The penetrating power of cathode ray electrons depends
on the voltage used to produce them.
E. Atomic spectra consist of sharp lines, not continuous bands
9
of color.
ETS2WVW
2500004 E
15 21810 31 00020351800111
A sodium atom (atomic number 11) which has lent an electron
in a chemical reaction, that is, has become a
sodium ion, contains (select the most complete answer)
A. only completely filled electronic energy levels
B. an incompletely filled electronic energy level
C. a number of electrons greater than the number of
protons
D. a number of protons greater than the number of electrons
9 E. two of the above
ETS2WVW
2500005 A
15 21816 31 03460351800111
The third shell (or principle energy level) of an atom of neon
(atomic number 10) contains
A. 0 electrons
B. 2 electrons
C. 8 electrons
D. 10 electrons
9 E. 18 electrons
ETS2WVW
2500006 A
15 21819 31 00650002800113
The atomic weight of sodium is 23. when we start with hydrogen
and arrange the elements in the order of their increasing atomic
numbers, sodium is 11th on the list. From this we may determine the
number of neutrons in the nucleus of the sodium atom to be
A. 12
ETS2WVW
9
B. 11
C. 34
D. equal to the total number of electrons in the orbits about
the nucleus
E. equal to the electrons in the outermost orbit or energy level
2500007 D
15 21825 31 01960028800111
Hydrogen combines easily with non_metals because
A. it is the lightest of the elements
B. it consists of two electrons
C. it is a gas
D. it has an unfilled electronic energy level
9 E. it has a completely filled electronic energy level
ETS2WVW
2500008 A
15 21829 31 03370189800111
Given only the atomic number of an element, which of the following
quantities could you find?
A. the number of electrons
B. the atomic weight
C. the number of neutrons in the nucleus
D. the number of isotopes
9 E. all of the above
ETS2WVW
2500009 C
15 21833 31 03510263800111
The chemical nature of the atom is determined by the
A. atomic weight
B. number of neutrons
C. electrons
D. weight of the protons
9 E. kind of charge in the nucleus
ETS2WVW
2500010 A
15 21836 31 03370189800111
The atomic number of an element
A. is the number of electrons outside the nucleus
B. is the number of neutrons in the nucleus
C. is the number of atoms in 22.4 liters of the gas at S.T.P.
D. follows, for all the elements, the same order as the
atomic weights
E. is the quotient obtained by dividing the atomic weight by the
9
valence
ETS2WVW
2500011 E
15 21841 31 03510342800112
A certain atom is symbolized as shown below. The numbers in front of
the right parenthesis represent the outer electrons. The symbol
(12p, 13n) represents the nuclear structure. What is the element
whose isotope is represented?
ETS2 OS
9
(12p,13n) 2) 8) 2)
A. manganese
B. calcium
C. carbon
D. aluminum
E. magnesium
2500012 C
15 21846 31 00660293800112
Two atoms are symbolized below. The symbols contained within
multiple parenthesis represent the structure of the inner core,
and the numbers in front of the right parenthesis represent the
outer electrons. What compound is represented by the following two
structures joined together?
( 11p)
( 17p)
( 12n) 2) 8)
and
( 18n ) 2) 8) 8)
A. nitrogen bromide (NBr)
B. lithium chloride (LiCl)
C. sodium chloride (NaCl)
D. sodium bromide (NaBr)
9 E. potassium chloride (KCl)
ETS2 OS
2500013 B
14 21854 31 035102638004
Since an atom is electrically neutral, the number of electrons
equals the number of
A. neutrons
B. protons
C. neutrons minus protons
9 D. protons minus neutrons
2 OS
2500014 A
14 21857 31 033701890342
The atomic number of an element is the number of
A. protons in its nucleus B. neutrons in its nucleus
C. electrons in its nucleus
9 D. protons and neutrons in its nucleus
0041
2500015 E
15 21860 31 033703420513
From the following statements, select the one which is not a
3
___
correct statement about atomic numbers.
A. The atomic number gives the number of electrons outside the
nucleus of an atom.
B. The atomic number gives the positive charge on the nucleus.
C. The atomic number subtracted from the mass number gives the
number of neutrons.
D. The atomic number is equal to the number of protons in the
nucleus.
0028
9
E. The atomic number equals the number of neutrons in the
nucleus.
2500016 D
15 21868 31 033701890097
The atomic number of an element is identical to
A. the atomic mass
B. the number of electrons in the ion
C. the number of neutrons in the nucleus
D. the number of protons in the nucleus
9 E. more than one of the above
2500017 C
14 21872 52 1944
Which statement is incorrect? For any atom, the atomic number
equals the number of
A. protons in the nucleus
B. electrons in the neutral atom
C. neutrons in the nucleus
9 D. nucleons minus the number of neutrons
2500018 ADBC
45 21875 32 0338002003411290
MACROITEM STEM
2The diagram below symbolizes the electronic configuration of the
2atom of a particular element. The symbol (n) represents the
2nucleus, and the number in front of each right parenthesis
2represents the number of electrons contained in that shell.
2
(n) 2) 8) 8) 1)
0 Based on the diagram above, answer the following questions.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The valence of this element is
1 A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 7 E. 9
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
The atomic number of this element is
2 A. 2 B. 8 C. 16 D. 19 E. 21
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
If the nucleus contains 21 neutrons, the atomic weight of this
element is
3 A. 2 B. 40 C. 16 D. 19 E. 21
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
This element can be characterized as
A. an inert gas
B. an oxidizing agent
C. a reducing agent
D. a non_metal
9 E. none of these
2510001 B
15 21885
31
03510339800113
0034
0055
ETS2 OS
ETS2WVW
If an atom of lithium containing 3 protons and 4 neutrons unites
with an atom of fluorine containing 9 protons and 10 neutrons, the
ion of lithium in the compound LiF will have
A. 2 protons
B. 3 protons
C. 4 protons
D. 12 protons
9 E. none of these
2510002 D
15 21889 31 06050263800114
The Pauli "exclusion principle", which asserts that no two electrons
in an atom can agree in the values of all four of their quantum
numbers, provides the theoretical basis for understanding
A. the relation of spectral_line series to atomic structure in
atoms more complex than that of hydrogen
B. the forces which hold the components of molecules together
C. the relation of the properties of an atom connected with
radiation to its chemical behavior
D. the periodic structure of electron shells
9 E. the possibility of Bohr's "stationary states"
ETS2WVW
2510003 E
15 21897 31 00020351800111
A sodium atom (atomic number 11) which has lent an electron in a
chemical reaction, that is, has become a sodium ion, contains
A. only completely filled electronic energy levels
B. an incompletely filled electronic energy level
C. a number of electrons greater than the number of protons
D. a number of protons greater than the number of electrons
9 E. two of the above
ETS2WVW
2510004 D
15 21903 31 03378001026311
The atomic number of a certain element is 53. An atom of this
element must contain
A. 53 neutrons
B. 26 neutrons and 27 protons
C. 1 neutron, 26 protons and 26 electrons
D. 56 electrons
9 E. 53 particles of all kinds
ETS2WVW
2510005 E
15 21907 31 03518001035011
Atoms of the element silicon contain 14 protons. How many electrons
are there in the outer valence electron shell of the silicon atom?
A. This cannot be determined from the number of protons.
B. 14
C. 12
D. 6
ETS2WVW
9
E. 4
2510006 C
15 21911 31 80010351009712
If the nucleus of a neutral atom is assumed to consist of 22
neutrons and 18 protons, the atomic number of the atom would be
A. 40
B. 22
C. 18
D. 4
9 E. none of these
ETS2WVW
2510007 B
15 21914 31 01920337800112
In chemical combination, a substance with an atomic number of 12
should
A. acquire a valence of _1
B. acquire a valence of +2
C. acquire a valence of _2
D. acquire a valence of +4
9 E. be inert
ETS2WVW
2510008 BCEBA
55 21917 31 0015018980011290
MACROITEM STEM
2Answer the following questions by referring to the key below.
2
Atomic atomic
electronic
number weight
structure
2 A.
6
12
24
2 B.
11
23
281
C.
18
40
288
2 D.
12
24
282
2 E.
17
35
287
2(Electronic structure refers to the number of electrons in the
0 respective orbits.)
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 The most active metal listed
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 An inert element
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 The element having exactly 18 neutrons in the nucleus
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
4 The best reducing agent in the list
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
9 An element forming compounds by sharing electrons
ETS2WVW
2510009 C
14 21925 31 026301898004
The electronic configuration of the element xenon is
A. 2_8_8
2WVW
9
B. 2_18_18_1
C. 2_8_18_18_8
D. 2_8_18_28_8_2
2510010 B
14 21927 31 034400198004
The potassium ion has the same arrangement of electrons as the
element with atomic number
A. 11
B. 18
C. 36
9 D. 37
2WVW
2510011 B
14 21929 31 026303468004
The maximum number of p electrons in any shell is
A. 2
B. 6
C. 14
9 D. 8
2WVW
2510012 B
14 21931 31 026303468004
The maximum number of electrons found in the K shell of an atom
is
A. 8
B. 2
C. 18
9 D. 32
2WVW
2510013 A
14 21933 31 084600198004
The hydride ion has the same electron configuration as an atom of
A. helium
B. lithium
C. beryllium
9 D. hydrogen
2WVW
2510014 D
14 21935 31 026301898004
The most probable electron configuration for element number 28
would be which one of the following?
A. 2,8,18
B. 2,8,10,8
C. 2,8,8,8,2
9 D. 2,8,16,2
2WVW
2510015 ADBC
45 21938 32 8001002003411290
MACROITEM STEM
2The diagram below symbolizes the electronic configuration of the
2atom of a particular element. The symbol (n) represents the
ETS2 OS
2nucleus, and the number in front of each right parenthesis
2represents the number of electrons contained in that shell.
2
(N) 2) 8) 8) 1)
0 Based on the diagram above, answer the following questions.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The valence of this element is
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
1 E. 9
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
The atomic number of this element is
A. 2
B. 8
C. 16
D. 19
2 E. 21
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
If the nucleus contains 21 neutrons, the atomic weight of this
element is
A. 2
B. 40
C. 16
D. 19
3 E. 21
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
This element can be characterized as
A. an inert gas
B. an oxidizing agent
C. a reducing agent
D. a non_metal
9 E. none of these
2510016 C
15 21949 52 8003
How many electrons can be accomodated in the orbitals that comprise
the fourth quantum shell?
A. 8
B. 18
C. 32
D. 40
9 E. 72
2510017 A
14 21951 31 002380040263
Fluorine has an atomic number of 9 and a mass of 19. The number
of electrons in the l shell of the atom is
2WVW
2 OS
9
A. 7
B. 2
C. 9
D. 10
2510018 A
14 21953 31 018902688004
An element having an octet of electrons has the atomic number
A. 10
B. 3
C. 6
9 D. 4
2510019 D
15 21955 31 07238003
How many electrons can be accommodated in all the atomic orbitals
that correspond to the principal quantum number 4?
9 A. 2 B. 8 C. 18 D. 32 E. 40
2 OS
2WVW
2510020 D
14 21958 31 058703421683
The mass number of a nucleus is equal to the number of its
9 A. electrons B. protons C. neutrons D. nucleons
0041
2510021 C
15 21960 31 026303470346
How many electrons can be accomodated in the orbitals that
comprise the fourth quantum shell?
9 A. 8 B. 18 C. 32 D. 40 E. 72
0042
2510022 E
15 21962 52 091302631296
A "d" sub_shell can contain no more than:
A. three pairs of electrons B. three orbitals
C. seven pairs of electrons D. five electrons
9 E. five un_paired electrons.
0042
2510023 E
15 21965 52 03380189
The ground state electron configuration of gas phase titanium is
5
1 3
9 A. 3d 4s
2 2
B. 4s 4p
3 1
C. 3d 4s
4
D. 3d
0042
2 2
E. 3d 4s
2510024 A
15 21969 52 090901590263
Considering negative quantum numbers to be those of lowest
energy, what are the four quantum numbers of the "last" electron
to be added when the argon atom is formed?
n
l
m
s
A. 3
1
1
+1/2
B. 3
0
1
_1/2
C. 3
1 _1
+1/2
0042
9
D. 3
E. 3
1
0
_1
0
_1/2
+1/2
2510025 A
15 21974 32 09091211
Which of the following pairs of quantum numbers represent
impossible situations?
A. n = 3 l = 3 B. n = 4 l = 2 C. n = 5 l = 0
D. l = 1 m = 1 E. l = 1 m = 0
94
l
l
2510026 D
15 21977 52 0338
Which of the following electron configurations is incorrect?
5
2
A. alkaline earth metals: ns n>1
5
1
B. Rb: (Kr)5s
5
+
2 6
C. Na : (He)2s 2p
5
1 5
D. Cr : (Ar)4s 3d
9 E. all the above configurations are correct.
2510027 C
15 21982 52 09130263
How many unpaired electrons are there in p?
9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. none, p is diamagnetic.
0047
0044
0044
2510028 D
15 21984 31 026303420097
Which statement is always true?
A. The nucleus of an atom contains neutrons and electrons.
B. The atomic number of an element is the number of neutrons
in one atom.
C. The atomic mass of an atom is the number of protons in the
nucleus plus the number of electrons outside.
D. The number of electrons outside the nucleus is the same as
number of protons in the nucleus in a neutral atom.
9 E. None of these
0018
2510029 E
15 21990 52 033800640019
Which of the following ions does not have the electronic
configuration of the inert gas krypton,Kr?
5
+
2+
_
2_
A. Rb B. Sr
C. Br D. Se
E. none of these(i.e.,all of them have the electronic
9
configuration of Kr)
0018
2510030 A
0028
15 21994
31
072303380376
The correct representation of the electronic structure in
5
34
sublevels for S is:
4
16
5
2
2 6
2 4
2
2 6
2 6
2
A. 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p
D. 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p , 4s 4p
4
5
2
2 6
6
B. 1s , 2s 2p , 3p
6
2
2 6
2 6
2
E. 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p , 4s 4p
5
2
2 6
2 5
9 C. 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p
2510031 C
15 22000 31 072303380376
5
31 3_
Write the electronic configuration in sublevels for P .
4
15
5
2
2 6
2 3
A. 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p
5
2
2 6
2 5
B. 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p
5
2
2 6
2 6
C. 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p
5
2
2 6
2
D. 1s , 2s 2p , 3s
9 E. none of these
0028
2510032 D
15 22006 51 123102630380
The total number of electrons that can theoretically be
accommodated in the seventh energy level?
9 A. 72 B. 56 C. 32 D. 98 E. 196
0020
2510033 E
15 22008 51 13561357
5
3
The notation 4f designates
A. 4 electrons in the f sublevel where l=3
B. 4 electrons in the n = 3 energy level, l = 3
C. 3 electrons in the n = 3 energy level, l = 3
D. 3 electrons in the l = 2, n = 3 level
9 E. none of these
2510034 D
15 22012 51 033808441358
The ground state electronic configuration of a nickel atom can be
represented as
5
2 2 6 2 6 2 6 2
0020
0020
A. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 4p 5s
5
2 2 6 2 6 2 2 6
B. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s 4p
5
2 2 6 2 6 10
C. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d
5
2 2 6 2 6 8 2
D. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s
9 E. none of these
2510035 E
15 22017 51
The f level can hold a total of
A. 6 electrons
B. 10 electrons
C. 32 electrons
D. 8 electrons
9 E. 14 electrons
136112310263
0020
2510036 B
15 22019 51 136313640263
The rule of Hund says
A. electrons in the outer energy level cannot pair
B. no pairing of electrons is permitted until every orbital in
the outer energy level has at least one electron
C. p orbitals can contain no more than 4 unpaired electrons
D. d orbitals can contain no more than 5 electrons
9 E. none of these
0020
2510037 A
15 22024 51 060411780809
The electronic structure for the chloride ion is
5
2 2 6 2 6
A. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p
5
2 2 2 6
B. 1s 2s 3s 3p
5
2 2 2 5
C. 1s 2s 3s 3p
5
2 2 6 2 5
D. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p
9 E. none of these
0020
2510038 D
15 22028 32 02630380
How many electrons can be located in the sixth energy level?
9 A. 8 B. 50 C. 32 D. 72 E. 103
2510039 C
15 22030 31 026303801301
The total number of electrons which can theoretically be
accommodated in the seventh energy level is
9 A. 56 B. 72 C. 98 D. 196 E. none is correct
0019
0019
2510040 E
15 22033 52 009903510942
Which of the following neutral atoms is diamagnetic?
A. Cl B. K C. Ti D. CO E. Cd
94
17
19
22
27
48
0019
2510041 B
15 22035 52 009903511423
Which of the following neutral atoms has the most unpaired
electrons?
A. V B. Mn C. Co D. Ni E. Zn
94
23
25
27
28
30
0019
2510042 C
15 22038 52 033801891362
What common feature characterizes the electronic configuration
of elements 21, 27, 40, and 43?
A. They all have only one electron in a subshell
B. They all have a filled 5s subshell
C. They all have a partially filled d subshell
D. They all have a partially filled p subshell
9 E. None of these is correct
0019
2510043 D
15 22043 31 091503730073
Which of the following elements have electronic configurations
that involve a total of exactly eight s electrons?
A. Ca B. Sr C. Ga D. both A and C
20
38
31
9 E. both A and B
0040
2510044 B
15 22046 31 136203470338
Consider the following electron configuration:
5 2 2 6 2 6
1s 2s 2p 3s 3p . Which of the following pieces of
information is consistent with it?
A. There are 6 electrons in the 3p orbital
B. There are 6 electrons in the 3p subshell
C. There are 6 electrons in the number 3 shell
D. both B and C
9 E. All choices are correct.
0040
2510045 B
15 22051 31 033804030189
The correct electron configuration for element 53 (iodine) is
5
2 2 6 2 6 10 2 6 10 7
A. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s 4p 4d 4f
5
2 2 6 2 6 2 10 6 2 10 5
B. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 3d 4p 5s 4d 5p
5
2 2 6 2 6 2 10 6 14 3
0040
C. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 3d 4p 4f
5
2 2 6 2 6 2 6 2 5
D. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 4p 5s 5p
5
2 2 6 2 6 3 6 2 10 5
9 E. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 4p 5s 4d 5p
5p
2510046 E
15 22058 52
5
2 2 6 2 3
Which element has the electron configuration 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p ?
9 A. Na B. Mg C. Al D. Si E. P
OS
2510047 C
15 22061 31 033807940025
5
4
The distinguishing electron configuration of np is charateristic
of which group in the periodic table?
9 A. IIa B. IVa C. VIa D. rare gases E. IIIa
0040
2510048 A
15 22064 32 117803380005
When a strontium atom (Sr, # 38) reacts to form an ionic
5
2+
compound, it becomes a strontium ion (Sr ). The electronic
configuration of the ion is the same as
5
2+
2_
9 A. Kr B. Rb C. Xe D. Ca
E. Zr
0040
2510049 B
15 22068 31 033800421178
Which one of the following has an electronic configuration
different from the others?
5
2+
+
2_
2+
9 A. Ar B. Mg
C. K D. S
E. Ca
0040
2510050 A
15 22071 31 004211780562
5
2+
The electronic configuration of the Mg is the same as
9 A. Ne B. Si C. Ar D. Na E. Ca
0040
2510051 D
14 22073 32 105503380351
Which one of the following species has the same electron
configuration as the argon atom?
5
+
_
_
9 A. Ne B. Na C. S D. Cl
0009
2510052 C
14 22076 32 033811781358
5
2_
The electronic configuration of the oxide ion, O , may be
represented as:
0009
5
2 2 4
2 2 2 2 2
2 2 6
2 2 2
9 A. 1s 2s 2p B. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p C. 1s 2s 2p D. 1s 2s 2p
2510053 E
15 22080 52 035101890263
Atoms of the element silicon contain 14 protons. How many
electrons are there in the outer valence electron shell of the
3
_____ _______
silicon atom?
A. This cannot be determined from the number of protons.
9 B. 14 C. 12 D. 6 E. 4
0035
2510054 A
15 22084 32 087903510263
The structure of a particular atom is: 18 protons, 22 neutrons,
10 inner electrons, and 8 outer electrons. Which of the
following has this structure?
A. an argon atom. B. An argon ion. C. A chlorine ion.
9 D. Potassium ion. E. Potassium atom.
0035
2510055 B
14 22088 32 018903370346
An element has an atomic number of 26. Its various "n" shells
must contain electrons in which of the following sequences?
9 A. 8,8,8,2 B. 2,8,14,2 C. 2,8,8,8 D. 2,8,16
0038
2510056 B
15 22091 52 0338
Which of the following electron configurations is incorrect?
3
_________
A. halide ions ns(2)np(6) n = 2,3
ns(2)(n_1)d(10)np(6) n = 4,5
B. Se (Ar)5s(2)4d(10)5p(4)
C. Be(2+) 1s(2) D. Co(3+) (Ar)3d(6)
9 E. all the above configurations are correct.
2510057 B
15 22096 32 034715050577
The orbital configuration for the atom Cesium is:
5
2 2 6 1
1
1
A. 1s 2s 2p 3s
B. (Xe core) 6s
C. (Rn core) 6s
5
2
9 D. (Xe core) 6s E. (Xe core)
2510058 D
15 44492 31
The ground state electronic configuration of a sodium cation is
5
1
2
2 6
9 A. [Ne]3s
B. [Ne]3s
C. [Ar] D. [Ne] E. [He]2s 2d
2510059 A
15 45402 71
The total number of electrons in p orbitals in a zirconium atom
0044
Zr is:
440
9 A. 18
B. 21
C. 31
D. 41
E. 51
2530001 D
15 22099 31 03308001036112
It is sometimes alleged that the occurrence of discrete bright_line
spectra provides clear evidence that atoms have discrete energy
levels. The existence of such line spectra was known, however, for
the better part of a century before discrete energy levels were
postulated for the atom. This situation is explained by the
circumstance that
A. it was not known that there is a connection between radiation
and energy
B. it was not clear that the bright_line spectra are produced
by processes occuring within atoms
C. the conclusion does not follow unless it is assumed that atoms
are divisible, and composed of electrified particles
D. only Bohr's theory of atomic constitution made clear the role
of discrete energy levels
E. only on the basis of Planck's theory of radiation could a
connection be expected between frequencies of radiation
9
and energy states of atoms emitting the radiation
ETS2 OS
2530002 B
15 22112 32 03510330800111
In general, when molecules rather than atoms are excited, the
type of spectrum produced is
A. continuous
B. band
C. bright line
D. Fraunhofer
9 E. absorption
ETS2WVW
2530003 C
15 22115 32 05908001800313
5
_12
Two energy levels within an atom differ by 3 x 10
erg. Assuming
5
_27
Planck's constant to be 6.6 x 10
erg_sec., the radiation
emitted when an electron jumps from one of the levels to the
other is
A. in the infra_red
B. a gamma ray
C. visible
D. an x_ray
9 E. in the ultra_violet
ETS2WVW
2530004 C
ETS2WVW
15 22121
31
03510159800111
When atoms are emitting or absorbing energy
A. protons change place with electrons
B. neutrons are escaping or being captured
C. electrons change their energy levels
D. the evidence is always visible to the eye
9 E. the atomic number of the atom is raised or lowered
2530005 E
15 22125 31 00320020800112
Cupric copper has a positive valence of two which means that
A. there are six valence electrons in the outer shell of the
copper atom
B. there are two more protons than electrons in the free atom
C. two electrons are needed to complete the outermost shell of
the copper atom
D. two electrons are always shared in chemical combination
9 E. two electrons have been lent in chemical combination
ETS2WVW
2530006 C
14 22131 31 015902638004
The lowest energy level which an electron can have is called the
A. O shell
B. L shell
C. K shell
9 D. F shell
2 OS
2530007 B
14 22133 31 026380048002
The maximum number of electrons that may be found in the "L"
shell of an atom is
A. 6
B. 8
C. 32
9 D. 18
2 OS
2530008 A
14 22135 31 026301598004
When an electron moves from the K level to the L level, there is
an accompanying
A. absorption of energy
B. emission of a beta particle
C. emission of x_rays
9 D. emission of gamma rays
2 OS
2530009 B
14 22138 32 026301598004
Evidence that electrons are located in energy levels around the
nucleus is indicated by the
A. atomic number of the elements
B. atomic mass of the elements
C. lines in the spectra of the elements
2 OS
9
D. density of the elements
2530010 B
14 22142 31 062503510189
The wavelengths of light emitted by the excited atoms of a
particular element that make up its bright_line spectrum
A. are different from the wavelengths in its dark_line
spectrum
B. are characteristic of the element involved
C. come from the nuclei of the atoms
D. are evenly distributed throughout the entire visible
9
spectrum
0041
2530011 A
14 22147 31 035106240347
An atom emits a photon when one of its orbital electrons
A. jumps from a higher to a lower energy level
B. jumps from a lower to a higher energy level
C. is removed by the photoelectric effect
9 D. is struck by an x_ray
0041
2530012 D
14 22151 31 059008791202
Which of the following types of radiation are not emitted by the
electronic structures of atoms?
A. ultraviolet light B. visible light
9 C. infrared light D. gamma rays
0041
2530013 C
14 22154 31 05621694
A neon sign does not produce
A. a line spectrum B. an emission spectrum
9 C. an absorption spectrum D. photons
0041
2530014 C
14 22156 31 090901590380
As the quantum number n increases, the energy difference between
adjacent energy levels
A. increases B. remains the same C. decreases
9 D. sometimes increases and sometimes decreases
0041
2530015 C
14 22159 31 019609290263
A hydrogen atom is said to be in its ground state when the
electron
A. is at rest B. is inside the nucleus
C. is in its lowest energy level
9 D. has escaped from the atom
0041
2530016 E
15 22162 52 033702630346
The phosphorus atom (atomic number 15) contains how many
electrons in its third shell (n=3)
0042
9
A. 8 B. 11 C. 3 D. 13 E. 5.
2530017 D
15 22164 32 034609090351
An electron shell of an atom has a principle quantum number of 4
and thus can have the following maximum number of sub_shells:
9 A. one B. two C. three D. four E. five.
0042
2530018 E
15 22167 52 180609130263
A "d" sub_shell can contain no more than:
A. three pairs of electrons B. three orbitals
C. seven pairs of electrons D. five electrons
9 E. five un_paired electrons.
0042
2530019 D
15 22170 52 026303461352
An electron shell of an atom has a principal quantum number of 4
and thus can have the following maximum number of sub_shells:
9 A. one B. two C. three D. four E. five.
0042
2530020 C
15 22173 52 035600310159
The Rydberg equation for the hydrogen atom in frequency units is
0044
._
_.
|
|
|
|
5
15 | 1
1 |
_1
v = 3.29 x 10 | ___ _ ___ | sec
5
| 2
2|
|n
n |
4
| 1
2 |
|_
_|
What is the energy in ergs of a quantum of electromagnetic
radiation that corresponds to a transition from the fourth
excited state (n = 5) to the fifth excited state (n = 6)?
4
1
2
5
_9
13
_13
A. 1.78 x 10
B. 4.02 x 10
C. 2.67 x 10
5
_12
_25
9 D. 1.98 x 10
E. 2.40 x 10 .
2530021 B
15 22184 52 0731
Which of the following has the highest ionization potential
(energy)?
A. Cs B. Li C. K D. Rb
E. all are in group ia so they have the same ionization
9
potential(energy)
0018
2530022 C
15 22187
32
072305130065
0028
5
30
Given the isotope E. The number of electrons in the principal
4
14
energy levels, 1(K), 2(L), 3(M), are:
A. 2, 8, 8, respectively, plus 8 in 4(N) and 4 in 5(O)
B. 2, 8, 6, respectively
C. 2, 8, 4, respectively
D. 2, 8, 3, respectively
9 E. none of these
2530023 D
15 22192 32 038003760723
Calculate the maximum number of electrons that can exist in the M
principle energy level:
9 A. 8 B. 32 C. 6 D. 18 E. 9
0028
2530024 A
15 22194 32 035307230376
5
36
Given the isotope E. The number of electrons in the principle
4
16
energy levels, that is 1(K), 2(L), 3(M), etc. is
A. 2, 8, 6, respectively
B. 2, 8, 8, respectively
C. 2, 8, 8, 9, respectively plus 9 in 3(N)
D. 2, 8, 8, respectively, plus 6 in 3(N)
9 E. none of these
0028
2530025 C
15 22199 32 058607230338
The correct representation of the electronic structure using
5
34
sublevels for S is:
4
16
5
2
2 6
2 6
A. 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p
5
2
2 6
2 5
B. 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p
5
2
2 6
2 4
C. 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p
5
2
2 6
2 6
2 4
D. 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p , 4s 4p
9 E. none of these
0028
2530026 D
15 22204 51
A better term for Bohr orbits is
A. the ground states
0020
133605860380
9
B. quantum numbers
C. Van der Waals forces
D. energy levels
E. none of these
2530027 B
15 22207 51 038001590909
The energy level that has the highest energy is
A. the ground state
B. the one with the highest quantum number
C. the one with the lowest quantum number
D. closest to the nucleus
9 E. none of these
0020
2530028 B
15 22210 51 026303510907
When the electron of a hydrogen atom is in the energy level n = 3
we say that
A. it gives off light
B. it is in an excited state
C. it is in the ground state
D. the energy is higher than when n=4
9 E. none of these
0020
2530029 A
15 22214 51 135901591360
Which of the following is a correct order for increasing energy
of atomic orbitals in atoms?
A. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3d
B. 1s 2s 2p 3s
C. 1s 2s 3s 2p 3d
D. 1s 2s 2p 3d 4s
9 E. none of these
0020
2530030 C
15 22217 51 001409290263
Carbon atoms in the ground state have
A. 4 electrons in the 2p level
B. 4 unpaired electrons of similar spin
C. 2 unpaired electrons
D. 4 electrons in the n=2 level that are unpaired
9 E. none of these
0020
2530031 E
15 22220 31 015900700731
The energy involved in the ionization of a metal is known as the
A. activation energy
B. electronegativity
C. electron affinity
D. kinetic energy
9 E. ionization energy
0019
2530032 D
14 22223 31 159703801540
Experimental support for the arrangement of electrons in distinct
energy levels is based primarily upon
A. the law of definite (constant) proportions
B. the law of conservation of energy
C. x_ray spectra of atoms
9 D. spectra from gas discharge
0009
2530033 D
14 22227 31 026304220380
What is the total electron capacity of the energy level for which
n = 4?
9 A. 8 B. 16 C. 18 D. 32
0009
2530034 C
15 22229 31 035103280263
When, during a chemical reaction, atoms are emitting
or absorbing energy
A. protons change place with electrons.
B. neutrons are escaping or being captured.
C. electrons change their energy levels.
D. the evidence is always visible to the eye.
9 E. the atomic number of the atom is raised or lowered.
0035
2530035 E
15 22234 31 011306060247
The passage of electrical discharge through gases resulted in the
discovery of
A. isotopes B. the electron C. radioactivity
9 D. alpha_particles E. none of the above
0034
2530036 B
15 22237 31 005403511540
The visible light released by excited atoms in a flame is
A. an absorption spectrum
B. an emission spectrum
C. a continuous spectrum
D. an ultraviolet spectrum
9 E. an x_ray analysis
0034
2530037 D
14 22240 52 1944
The theoretical maximum number of electrons in principal quantum
level n = 4 is
9 A. 4 B. 8 C. 16 D. 32
2530038 A
14 22242 52 19470731
From which species in the gaseous state can an electron be re_
moved with the least energy?
5
+
2+
3+
0055
0058
9
A. Na
B. Na
C. Na
D. Na
2530039 D
15 22245 51 19661352
The maximum number of electrons which can be in an energy level
having principal quantum number "n" is:
5
2
2
9 A. 2 B. 8 C. 18 D. 2n
E. (2n)
BRHM
2530040 D
15 22248 52
A green color is obtained in the flame test for a barium salt. The
energy producing this color is emitted when
A. oxidation takes place.
B. electrons are raised to higher energy levels by the heat
of the flame.
C. electrons in the highest energy levels are expelled.
D. electrons drop back to lower energy levels.
9 E. the barium salt becomes ionized.
2530041 B
15 22253 52
5
_19
Two energy levels in an atom differ by 8.19 x 10
Joules.
When an electron falls from the higher to the lower level, it
emits a photon with a wavelength characteristic of which part of
5
_34
the electromagnetic spectrum (h = 6.6 x 10
J sec,
5
8
_1
c = 2.99 x 10 m sec )?
9 A. microwaves B. ultraviolet C. visible D. infrared E. x_rays
OS
2531001 A
15 22260 31 00540628800111
When a student reported the wave length of light as a certain
fraction of a centimeter, he could have been referring
to any of these colors EXCEPT
A. white
B. yellow
C. blue
D. green
9 E. red
ETS2 OS
2531002 C
15 22263 31 03290622800111
The frequencies of the spectral lines in the Balmer series of
5
2
2
hydrogen can be written f = r {(1/2 )_(1/n )}
lowest frequency occurs when n is
A. 1
B. 2
ETS2WVW
9
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
2531003 C
15 22267 31 03310330800111
The sun's spectrum is an example of
A. a mass spectrum
B. a continuous spectrum
C. a bright line spectrum
D. an absorption spectrum
9 E. a band spectrum
ETS2WVW
2531004 D
15 22270 31 06678001032811
According to Kirchhoff's explanation of the Fraunhofer
lines, the chief use of studying those lines would be to
gain information concerning
A. the structure of atoms
B. the structure of molecules
C. the nature of radiation
D. the processes of emission and absorption of radiation
9 E. the chemical composition of celestial bodies
ETS2WVW
2531005 D
15 22275 31 00020666800111
If sunlight is passed through a flame containing sodium,
and if the fraunhofer d_line is thereby made darker,
one concludes that
A. the bright regions in the spectrum of the sunlight
are less intense than the light emitted by the sodium
flame
B. the light of the frequency of the sodium line is less
intense in the beam of sunlight than in the light
emitted by the sodium flame
C. the dark d_line in the solar spectrum is really
brighter than the bright d_line in the spectrum of
the flame
D. the intensity of light of the frequency of the sodium
line in the beam of sunlight is zero
E. the intensity of light of the frequency of the sodium
line in the sunlight that has passed through the
9
sodium flame is zero
ETS2 OS
2531006 A
15 22286 31 06670668800112
According to Kirchoff and Bunsen, the lines in a bright
line spectrum are clearer, the higher the temperature
and the weaker the natural illuminating power of the
flame. These two conditions together
ETS2WVW
9
A. intensify the light constituting the lines, and diminish
the intensity of the rest of the spectrum, thus giving
a sharper contrast
B. intensify the light constituting the lines, and produce
destructive interference in the rest of the spectrum,
thus giving a sharper contrast
C. minimize the effects of diffraction which might tend
to reduce the clarity of the lines, and at the same
time make the lines themselves brighter
D. intensify the brightness of the lines and that of the
rest of the spectrum as well, but the former more
than the latter
E. leave unchanged the intensity of the bright lines,
but make the rest of the spectrum darker
2531007 EB
25 22299 31 0667066880011290
MACROITEM STEM
0 Answer the following questions.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The general proposition set forth as a new discovery
by Kirchhoff and Bunsen, in their report of their investigation
of spectra, is that
A. certain substances placed in a flame, or otherwise
made to emit light, give a spectrum containing
bright lines
B. the capacity of a substance to absorb light of a
given frequency is inversely proportional to its
capacity to emit such light
C. the capacity of a substance to absorb light of a
given frequency is directly proportional to its
capacity to emit such light
D. the bright lines occuring in the spectra of certain
metals are within wide limits determined by the
metal, independently of chemical combination and
of the process producing the luminosity
E. no two substances can emit light of the same frequency;
thus a study of the light emitted permits an
1
identification of the source
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
One can conclude from this discovery that
A. bright line spectra are due to intra_atomic processes
B. atoms are capable of only certain discrete energy
states
C. radiation is emitted discontinuously
D. absorption and emission are processes exactly inverse
to one another
ETS2WVW
9
E. none of the above
2531008 A
15 22316 31 06588001800312
The observation that, while cathode rays are repelled by a
negative charge and deflected at right angles to the lines of a
magnetic field, x_rays show NO change in direction in either kind
of field, is ready proof that
A. x_rays, themselves, carry NO charge
B. the relatively high speed of the x_rays nullify the effects
of any charge or field
C. x_rays carry a charge of both positively and negatively
charged ions
D. x_rays are really a stream of electrons
9 E. x_rays are really a stream of negatively_charged particles
ETS2WVW
2531009 D
14 22324 31 80038004
A compound that colors a bunsen flame violet probably contains
A. calcium
B. copper
C. lithium
9 D. potassium
2WVW
2531010 E
15 22326 52 01590351800113
5
_12
Two energy levels within an atom differ by 3 x 10
erg.
5
_27
Assuming Planck's constant to be 6 x 10
erg_sec, the
wavelength of the radiation emitted when an electron jumps from
one of these levels to the other is
5
_12
A. 3 x 10
cm.
5
_4
B. 1.67 X 10 cm.
5
14
C. 5 X 10 cm.
D. 16,700 A.
9 E. 6000 A.
ETS2WVW
2531011 E
15 22332 31 03290330800113
Suppose that f and f represent the frequencies of two lines in the
4
1
2
spectrum of hydrogen. Light of frequency f + f
4
1
2
A. must also be present in the spectrum of hydrogen.
B. must be present in the spectrum of hydrogen, provided
that the higher energy level involved in the emission of
ETS2WVW
one of the lines is identical with the lower level involved
in the emission of the other.
C. must be present in the spectrum of hydrogen, provided that
the higher energy levels involved in the emission of f and
4
1
f are identical but not otherwise.
4
2
D. must be present in the spectrum of hydrogen, provided that
either the higher or the lower energy levels involved in
the emission of f and f are identical.
4
1
2
E. need not be present in the spectrum of hydrogen under any of
9
the above circumstances.
2531012 C
15 22346 51 03560328800112
According to Rydberg's formula, the lines in the emission spectrum
of hydrogen are given by the equation
1
x 1_ 1
_ = R __
__
5
2
2
w
m _ n
where m and N are integers. The quantity w refers to a measurable
characteristic of the line, since it represents
A. the width (thickness) of the line
B. the length (height) of the line
C. twice the minimum difference in path that can yield destructive
interference between two parts of a single beam of light
corresponding to the line
D. twice the difference between the distance from the light
source of the line as projected on the screen, measured once
directly along a straight path, and again along the
refracted path through the prism
9 E. the distance of the line from one end of the spectrum
ETS2 OS
2700001 E
15 22358 31 03640365800112
Einstein's principle contribution to the quantum theory of light,
in 1905, consisted in
A. the hypothesis that Planck's quantum postulate, with its
basic equation E=hf, applied not only to black body
radiation but to all emission and absorption phenomena
B. the hypothesis that not only the emission and absorption,
but the radiation itself is quantized into elements of
magnitude E=hf, each of which is propagated intact
C. the application of the idea of quantization to matter as
well as to energy
D. the extension of the notion of corpuscles of energy to all
ETS2 OS
9
forms of radiation, especially to x_rays
E. the application of the quantum hypothesis to the theory of the
previously unexplained photoelectric effect
2700002 B
15 22369 51 05750159800111
The basic discontinuity of "quantization", postulated by Planck
in his theory of black body radiation, was a discontinuity in
A. the possible frequencies of vibration of an oscillating
charged particle
B. the possible energies of an oscillating charged particle
C. the possible energies of an oscillating charged
particle of given frequency
D. the spatial distribution of the energy radiated by an
oscillating charged particle
E. the spatial distribution of the energy radiated by an
oscillating charged particle of given frequency and
9
energy
ETS2WVW
2700003 E
15 22377 31 06110613800111
The changing of the amplitude of the carrier wave of a
broadcast station to transmit a program is called
A. detection
B. oscillation
C. rectification
D. amplification
9 E. modulation
ETS2WVW
2700004 A
14 22380 31 05720351
The quantum_mechanical theory of the atom is
A. based upon a mechanical model of the atom
B. a theory that restricts itself to physical quantities that
can be measured directly
C. less accurate that the Bohr theory of the atom
9 D. impossible to reconcile with Newton's laws of motion
0041
2700005 A
14 22384 51 1695
0591
The Zeeman effect refers to
A. the splitting of spectral lines in a magnetic field
B. electron spin
C. the existence of the azimuthal quantum number
9 D. the origin of the periodic table
0041
2700006 D
15 22387 52 036505900329
A quantum of electromagnetic radiation has frequency equal to
5
10
_1
0044
1.68 x 10 sec . What is the wavelength of this radiation in
5
10
_27
Angstroms? (c = 3.00 x 10 cm/sec, h = 6.63 x 10
erg_sec.)
5
_16
_17
20
A. 1.11 x 10
B. 6.23 x 10
C. 5.04 x 10
5
8
9 D. 1.79 x 10 E. 0.560
2700007 C
15 22393 52 036505900625
A quantum of electromagnetic radiation has wavelength equal to
5
_1
0.0376 cm. What is the frequency of this radiation in sec ?
5
_12
_25
11
A. 1.25 x 10
B. 1.76 x 10
C. 7.98 x 10
5
14
_15
9 D. 1.89 x 10
E. 5.29 x 10
0044
2700008 D
15 22399 52 036505900329
A quantum of electromagnetic radiation has frequency equal to
5
17
_1
5.69 x 10 sec . What is the energy of this radiation in
5
8
_34
wavenumbers? (c = 3.00 x 10
m/sec., h = 6.63 x 10
J_sec)
5
_18
_9
_19
A. 1.76 x 10
B. 3.77 x 10
C. 1.26 x 10
5
7
_8
9 D. 1.90 x 10 E. 5.27 x 10 .
0044
2700009 C
15 22405 52 036505900329
A quantum of electromagnetic radiation has frequency equal to
5
18
_1
1.05 x 10 sec . What is the energy of this radiation in Joules?
5
8
_34
(c = 3.00 x 10
m/sec., h = 6.63 x 10
J_sec.).
5
21
_15
_16
A. 3.14 x 10
B. 2.86 x 10
C. 6.94 x 10
5
_41
_8
9 D. 1.90 x 10
E. 2.42 x 10
0044
2700010 A
15 22411 31 026801590365
The idea that energy consists of bundles or quanta was first
3
______
proposed by
A. Max Planck B. Ernest Rutherford C. Niels Bohr
9 D. Linus Pauling E. Erwin Schrodinger
0034
2700011 C
15 22414 52 036505900329
A quantum of electromagnetic radiation has frequency equal to
0044
5
14
_1
2.11 x 10 sec . What is the wavelength of this radiation in
5
10
_27
centimeters? (c = 3.00 x 10 cm/sec, h = 6.63 x 10
erg sec.)
5
_9
_12
_4
A. 9.82 x 10
B. 1.40 x 10
C. 1.42 x 10
5
11
3
9 D. 7.15 x 10
E. 7.03 x 10
2700012 D
15 44725 71 19661967
Which of the following investigators presented the idea that no two
electrons in the same atom can assume the same quantum state?
A. Robert S. Mulliken
B. Johannes van der Waals
C. Erwin Schroedinger
D. Wolfgang Pauli
9 E. Enrico Fermi
OS
2710001 D
15 22423 51 02760628800111
Which of the following facts supports a modern corpuscular,
or particle, theory of light rather than the wave
theory?
A. Light travels three_fourths as fast in water as in air.
B. Light is diffracted on passing through a small
opening.
C. The velocity of travel of electromagnetic waves is
the same as the velocity of light.
D. Light immediately causes ejection of electrons in a
photoelectric tube.
9 E. Light exhibits interference and reinforcement effects.
ETS2 OS
2710002 E
15 22430 31 02760665800111
Which, if any, of the following phenomena puts a serious
theoretical difficulty in the way of attempting to
characterize the behavior of light in terms of Newtonian
"rays"?
A. Separation of the components of composite light
by a prism, which would force one to assert that
there are at a given point in a beam of light an
infinite number of rays
B. The spreading out of a beam of light in passing
through a small hole, which destroys the possibility
of subdividing such a beam indefinitely into ever_narrower
ETS2WVW
9
parts
C. The speed at which light travels, which is so enormously
great as to be an insuperable obstacle to any
attempt to separate a "chunk" of light disconnected
from its source
D. The fact that the light always travels with the same
speed in a vacuum, which means that no physical
agency can alter the speed of a ray unless it passes
into a refracting medium
E. none of the above, for all the phenomena listed can
be characterized in terms of the behavior of rays
2710003 A
15 22445 52 02638001800313
Electrons in an electron microscope are traveling with a velocity
5
9
of 2 x 10 cm./sec. Assuming the mass of an electron to be
5
_28
_27
9 x 10
gm. and Planck's constant to be 6 x 10
erg sec,
the wavelength of the electron is
A. 0.33 A.
5
_8
B. 1.33 x 10 cm.
C. 3 A.
ETS2WVW
5
8
D. 3 x 10 cm.
5
_38
9 E. 108 x 10
A.
2710004 A
15 22451 31 06160615800111
When a beam of x_rays, all of the same wave length, is
directed against a very fine wire the shadow formed or
photographed in back of it is not just that of a single
wire but rather as if several wires were used. The best
explanation of this involves
A. diffraction
B. reflection
C. the doppler effect
D. an optical illusion
9 E. refraction
2710005 E
15 22456 52 075707588003
The velocity of a beam of neutrons in a nuclear reactor is
5
5
_1
2.0 x 10 cm. sec. . What is the De Broglie wavelength of
these neutrons?
note mass of neutron, m = 1.00899 amu;
ETS2WVW
2WVW
5
5
5
5
5
5
9
_27
h = 6.6 x 10
erg. sec. (Planck's constant);
lambda = h/mv, where v is velocity
_57
A. 5.4 x 10
cm.
_12
B. 2.0 x 10
cm.
_10
C. 1.7 x 10
cm.
_8
D. 6.6 x 10 cm.
_8
E. 2.0 x 10 cm.
2710006 D
15 22463 52 026306120159
A typical electron diffraction experiment is conducted with
electrons accelerated through 24600 volts, or with 24600 ev of
energy. What is the wavelength of the electrons in Angstroms?
5
_12
(1 electron volt = 1.60 x 10
erg;
5
_28
electron mass = 9.11 x 10
g)
5
_10
A. 12.8 Angstroms B. 7.83 x 10
Angstroms
5
_10
C. 9.39 x 10
Angstroms D. 0.0783 Angstroms
9 E. 0.626 Angstroms.
0044
2710007 A
15 22470 51 060403511349
The wave_theory approach to the electronic structure of atoms is
based on
A. the fact that electrons can be considered as waves
B. the spin of electrons
5
2
C. the fact that electrons have energies equal to mc
D. all the above
9 E. none of the above
0020
2750001 A
14 22475 31
03470906
The boundary surface diagram of an orbital outlines
A. the region in which there is a certain probability (less
than 100) percent of finding the electron it described
B. the region in which there is a 100 percent probability of
finding the electron it describes
C. the shape of the electron it describes
9 D. the orbit followed by the electron it describes
0041
2750002 D
14 22481 31 029303550347
The H O molecule is "bent" so that the two O_H bonds are nearly
4
2
perpendicular to each other because
A. the H atoms repel each other
B. the H atoms attract each other
C. the S orbitals in O which participate in the bonds are
perpendicular
D. the p orbitals in O which participate in the bonds are
9
perpendicular
0041
2750003 D
15 22486 52 034703510350
The total number of orbitals used in an unexcited atom of silicon
(Z = 14) is:
9 A. five or less B. six C. seven D. eight E. nine or more
0042
2750004 D
15 22488 52 026303470351
Electrons in atoms are visualized as occupying atomic orbitals.
Which of the following general statements concerning orbitals is
not true?
3___
A. In atoms other than hydrogen electrons are assigned to
orbitals which have the same symmetry as the hydrogen
orbitals.
5
2 2 2
B. The electron configuration of carbon is 1s 2s 2p . The
two p electrons will occupy separate p orbitals.
C. Orbitals are filled in the order of increasing energy even
if it means occasionally jumping to a higher n and
returning to the lower n later in the sequence.
D. The principal quantum number n describes the shape of the
orbital, beginning with a sphere for n = 1, 2 lobes for
n = 2, and increasing in complexity with increasing n.
9 E. The 1s orbital of hydrogen has spherical symmetry.
0044
2750005 C
14 22501 51 07800263
A set of d orbitals can hold a total of
A. two electrons
B. six electrons
C. ten electrons
9 D. five electrons
2750006 A
15 22503 31 026303470906
According to the orbital model,electrons are located in
A. atomic orbitals that describe an area in which there is a
0018
0018
9
90% probability or better of finding an electron
B. the nucleus
C. the empty space around the nucleus
D. orbitals that circle the nucleus
E. none of these
2750007 E
15 22507 51 0916
p orbitals are those for which
A. l = 3 B. n = 2 C. m = 1 D. azimuthal quantum number = 2
4
1
9 E. none of these
0020
2750008 D
15 22509 51 130103471350
For the sublevel f, the number of orbitals possible is
9 A. one B. three C. five D. seven E. nine
0020
2750009 B
15 22511 51 135109091197
When the principal quantum number is 2, the permitted values for
the azimuthal quantum number are
A. 0,1,and 2
B. 0 and 1
C. 1 and 2
D. _1,0,+1
9 E. +1/2, _1/2
0020
2750010 B
15 22514 51 135502630380
The maximum number of electrons permitted in any energy level is
0020
5
2
9 A. 2n B. 2n
C. 3(n+1) D. 3n E. none of these
2750011 D
15 22516 51
p orbitals are
A. three in number
B. perpendicular to each other
C. dumbbell_like in shape
D. all of these
9 E. none of these
091613650914
0020
2750012 A
15 22518 51 001403510929
The carbon atom in the ground state has
A. four unpaired electrons
B. two electrons in the 3s orbital
C. two unpaired electrons
D. no electrons in the 2s orbital
9 E. none of these
0020
2750013 D
15 22521 51 136013391378
An atomic orbital is defined as
A. an electronic cloud
B. a region in space occupied by an electron or pair of
electrons
C. the geometric shape that a pair of electrons can occupy
D. all of the above
9 E. none of the above
0020
2750014 B
15 22525 31 034702630300
The space around a nucleus in which electrons move can be
classified into several subspaces. Which of the following is the
simplest of these classifications?
A. shell B. orbital C. subshell D. period
9 E. both a and C.
0040
2750015 C
15 22529 31 091702630347
The maximum number of electrons which may occupy a 4d orbital is
A. 10 B. 4 C. 2 D. 8
9 E. no correct response is given.
0040
2750016 C
15 22531 31 091509171362
After the 5s subshell of an atom is filled the next electron will
enter the
A. 5p subshell B. 5d subshell C. 4d subshell D. 5f subshell
9 E. 4f subshell.
0040
2750017 C
14 22534 32 018903510347
The element whose neutral, isolated atoms have three half_filled
2p orbitals is:
9 A. B B. C C. N D. O
0009
2750018 D
15 22536 51 034711570628
In the wave mechanical model, an electronic orbital must
A. possess an integral number of wavelengths
B. possess an electronic "standing wave"
C. have only certain diameters
D. all of the above
9 E. none of the above
0034
2750019 A
15 44880 31
The maximum number of electrons possible in a d orbital is
9 A. 2 B. 6 C. 10 D. 14 E. 18
2750020 A
15 45391
71
The number of orbitals having a given value of l is equal to
A. 2l + 1 B. 2n + 1 C. 2m + 1 D. n + m
E. l + m
94
l
l
l
2770001 D
14 44456 31 090905860263
The quantum number that does not describe the orbital of an atomic
electron is the
A. principal quantum number
B. orbital quantum number, l
C. magnetic quantum number, m
4
l
D. spin magnetic quantum number m
4
s
9 E. The J_value
2770002 D
14 22544 31 16960263
The angular momentum of an electron in an atom
A. is not quantized
B. is quantized in magnitude only
C. is quantized in direction only
9 D. is quantized in both magnitude and direction
0041
0041
2770003 D
15 22547 32 034709091197
In a "d" orbital having a principle quantum number of 4, what are
the possible numerical values of the magnetic quantum number m ?
4
l
A. 1/2, _1/2, 0 B. _1, 0, 1 C. _3, _2, _1, 0, 1, 2, 3
9 D. _2, _1, 0, 1, 2 E. _4, _3, _2, _1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4
0042
2770004 C
15 22552 52 090917920351
Which of the following combinations of quantum numbers do not
3
___
represent permissible solutions of the Schroedinger wave
equation for the hydrogen atom:
n
l
m
s
1.
7
_3
0
_1/2
2.
_2
3
_1
1/2
3.
4
3
_2
_1/2
0044
9
A. 2 B. 3 C. 1 and 2 D. 1 and 3
E. none of them is permissible.
2770005 A
15 22559 51 062215400909
The Balmer series of emission spectral lines arises from
transitions in the hydrogen atom in which the excited electron
falls into the first excited state (n=2). Calculate the
0044
quantum number, n, of the initial state for the Balmer line
5
4
at 2.31 x 10 wavenumbers. The Rydberg constant in wavenumbers
5
_1
is 110000 cm .)
9 A. 5 B. 8 C. 4 D. 7 E. 6.
2770006 A
15 22565
J is the abbreviation for
A. a quantum number
B. an energy unit
C. an energy level
D. a quantum state
9 E. none of these
51
13460909
0020
2770007 A
15 22567 51 135309090969
For an azimuthal quantum number of 2, the magnetic quantum
can have the values
A. 2,1,0,_1,_2
B. 1,2,3
C. only 0,1,and 2
D. 1,0 _1,_2,_3
9 E. none of these
0020
2770008 D
15 22570 52 090917920351
Which of the following combinations of quantum numbers do NOT
represent permissible solutions of the Schroedinger wave equation
for the hydrogen atom?
0044
n
l
9
2
1
0
1
3
4
1.
2.
3.
9
m
l
0
0
3
A. 1 B. 3 C. 1 & 2
m
s
_5/2
_1/2
1/2
D. 1 & 3
E. none of them is permissible.
2780001 C
15 22576 31 1 07759027
95
Which one of the drawings in Figure 27 would most likely represent
the electron density distribution for a solution of the Schrodinger
wave equation for the H atom, for which n = 3 and l = 1?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
9 E. E
2WVW
2780002 C
15 45385 71
The product of the normalized wave function of an electron in an
atom and its complex conjugate
A. describes the energy of the electron.
B. specifies the momentum of the electron.
C. gives the probability density of finding the electron in a
region of space.
D. is proportional to the velocity of the electron.
E. is inversely proportional to the distance between the electron
9
and the nucleus.
2790001 B
14 22580 31 112802630909
According to the Pauli principle,
A. four different quantum numbers are needed to describe each
electron in an atom
B. no more than one electron in an atom can have the same set
of quantum numbers
C. eight electrons occupy each energy level
9 D. electrons move in elliptical as well as circular orbits
0041
2790002 B
15 45068 51 135902630347
In order for two electrons to "occupy" a given orbital,
A. their spin directions must be the same
B. their spin directions must be opposite
C. their spin directions must be perpendicular
D. they must both be electrically neutral
E. This statement is incorrect. Two electrons cannot occupy the
9
same orbital.
0041
2790003 A
14 22589 51 026303471128
According to the ____________ an atomic orbital may hold no more
than two electrons.
A. Pauli exclusion principle
B. Hund rule
C. Bohr theory
9 D. none of these
0018
2790004 D
15 22592 51 112802630909
The Pauli exclusion principle states
A. the size of the orbital is determined by the principle
quantum number
B. only two electrons can have identical quantum numbers
C. all electrons around a nucleus may be in different orbitals
D. no two electrons in a given atom can have the same set of
quantum numbers
0020
9
E. none of the above
2900001 D
15 22597 31 04630642800111
The difference between chemical reactions and nuclear
reactions is that chemical reactions involve
A. chemicals and nuclear reactions do not
B. the formation of new substances and nuclear reactions
do not
C. the formation of new elements and nuclear reactions deal
with the formation of radioactive elements
D. outer electron changes usually and nuclear reactions
involve changes within the nuclei of the atoms
E. elements or compounds only while nuclear reactions are
9
those taking place between nuclei of atoms
ETS2WVW
2900002 D
15 22605 31 06210379800111
The curvature of the path (i.e., amount of deflection) of
beta rays emitted by radioactive substances in an electric
field, compared with the curvature of the path of
cathode rays in the same field, is
A. less
B. the same
C. greater
D. either greater, less or the same, depending on the
relative speeds of cathode rays and beta rays
E. no comparison can be made, because beta rays are not
9
affected by an electric field
ETS2WVW
2900003 BCDAEA 65 22611 31 80018003
1190
MACROITEM STEM
2To answer the following questions, mark space
5 A. if the item is true of 235
2
U
4
92
5 B. if the item is true of 238
2
U
4
92
5 C. if the item is true of 239
2
U
4
92
5 D. if the item is true of 239
2
Pu
4
94
0 E. if the item is ture of none of the above
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The isotope of uranium of greatest abundance in ordinary
ETS2WVW
1 uranium
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
Is produced when one neutron enters the nucleus
2 Atom of U_238
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
Is produced from U_239 through the loss of first one electron
3 and then another
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
Is the original source of the neutrons in the uranium pile
4 used in the production of plutonium
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
5 Is the chief source of the energy of the sun
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
9 along with plutonium, it may be used to produce an atom bomb
2900004 BCBAB
55 22623 52 1 80019013
119095
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions refer to Figure 13. The diagram represents
2one kind of a cathode_ray tube. After each exercise number
2on the answer sheet, blacken the one lettered space which
3
___
0 designates the correct answer.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
Cathode rays are composed of
A. positive ions
B. negative ions
C. electrons
D. both positive and negative ions
1 E. none of the items mentioned in A, B, C or D
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
In a cathode tube the mass of the electron
A. depends on the kind of anode metal
B. depends on the kinds of cathode metal
C. is independent of the anode or cathode metal
D. depends on the gas in the tube
2 E. is independent of the factors mentioned in a, b, c, or d
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
When cathode rays strike a metal target the radiation emitted from
the target is most similar to
A. a stream of electrons
B. gamma rays from radium
C. a beam of alpha particles
D. fluorescent light
3 E. a stream of protons
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
The tube pictured is most useful in showing that cathode rays
ETS2 OS
3
________
A. travel in a straight line
B. possess kinetic energy
C. cause x_rays to be emitted from glass
D. travel with the speed approaching that of light
4 E. are positively charged
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
The cathode in a different kind of cathode tube is in
the center of the tube and consists of a metal disc
containing several holes. Cathode rays travel toward
the positive electrode at one end of the tube, while
other rays or particles pass through the holes in the
cathode in the opposite direction. These rays or particles are
A. x_rays
B. positive rays or protons
C. beta particles
D. neutrons
9 E. positrons
2900005 ADD
35 22645 32 1 9014
119095
MACROITEM STEM
0 The following questions refer to Figure 14.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
In a tube similar to the one shown, cathode rays were discovered by
A. Crookes
B. Moseley
C. Thomson
D. Rutherford
1 E. Curie
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
Roentgen found that if a target were placed in the path of cathode
rays, energy was released that came to be known as
A. beta rays
B. cosmic rays
C. neutrons
D. x_rays
2 E. alpha rays
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
Very lightweight objects that are free to rotate are set into
motion by cathode rays, thus proving the rays possess
A. negative charge
B. positive charge
C. neutral charge
D. both mass and motion or kinetic energy
9 E. potential energy
ETS2 OS
2900006 BDDAC
54 22654 31 80018003
1190
MACROITEM STEM
2To answer the following questions, select from the key
2the most appropriate apparatus.
2 A. Zinc_sulphide fluorescent screen
2 B. Wilson cloud_chamber
2 C. Geiger counter
0 D. mass spectrograph
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
Used to photograph such phenomena as the track of an alpha
1 particle
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 Used to determine the "weight" of an atom
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
Used to determine the rate of disintegration of radio_active
substances and the velocity and energy of the emitted
3 particles
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
Used to determine the rate of disintegration of atoms but
4 not the velocity and energy of the emitted particles
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
9 Commonly used to detect cosmic rays audibly
ETS2WVW
2900007 BDEAC
55 22662 31 80018003
1190
MACROITEM STEM
2After each item number on the answer sheet, blacken the
2one lettered space which designates the term below to which
3___
2the item correctly refers.
2 A. fog_track apparatus
2 B. electroscope
2 C. geiger counter
2 D. mass spectrograph
0 E. none of the above
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 Used by Madame Curie to detect the presence of radio_active material
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
Artificial transmutation of elements was first detected by the
2 use of this instrument
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
Can distinguish positive electric charges from negative ones,
3 Is commonly used for this purpose
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
4 Makes the paths of ionizing particles visible
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
9 Used in prospecting for uranium
ETS2WVW
2900008 BBCAEDCB 85 22670 31 80018003
1190
MACROITEM STEM
2For each of the following nuclear changes, blacken space
2 A. if the item is true of the loss of a neutron
2 B. if the item is true of the loss of an alpha particle
2 C. if the item is true of the loss of a beta particle
2 D. if the item is true of the capture of a neutron
0 E. if the item is true for none of the above
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The atomic weight decreases by four and The atomic number
1 decreases by two.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
An element of group III moves two places to the left in the
2 periodic chart.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
An element of group II moves one place to the right of the
3 periodic chart.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
The atomic weight decreases by one but the atomic number
4 remains the same.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
There is no change in either the atomic weight or the
5 atomic number.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
The atomic weight increases by one but the element remains in
6 the same place in the periodic chart.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
The atomic weight remains the same but the atomic number
7 increases by one.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 8
The ejected particle will eventually pick up two planetary
9 electrons and become a neutral helium atom.
2900009 C
15 22683 51 06618003
Which one of the proposed induced nuclear reactions given
below would definitely not give the product suggested? The
terminology used is "e = symbol_mass" for each isotope.
5
2
(Note D = H ; a = alpha particle; n = neutron; p = proton.)
4
1
5
19
16
A. F (n,a) N
4
9
7
5
191
194
ETS2WVW
2WVW
B.
Ir
(a,n) Au
4
77
79
5
55
57
C. Mn (p,n) Fe
4
25
26
5
237
238
D. Np (a,3n) Am
4
93
95
5
6
7
E. Li (D,p) Li
4
3
3
9
2900010 C
15 22691 51 121212130495
The cyclotron is an example of
A. an atom smasher
B. a machine for making subatomic particles
C. a particle accelerator
D. a nuclear reactor
9 E. all of these
0020
2900011 C
15 22694 31 1212
A cyclotron is used to
A. accelerate neutrons
B. separate the isotopes of an element
C. accelerate charged particles
D. increase the rate of disintegration of a radioactive
substance
9 E. both A and B
0040
2900012 C
15 22697 51 0661
"Breeder" reaction is one in which
A. neutrons are produced
B. a fusion reaction occurs
C. a nonfissionable isotope is converted into a fissionable one
D. electrical energy is produced
9 E. both A and B
0040
2900013 D
15 22700 31 1221
In nuclear power plants
A. the fusion process is used to generate heat to turn water to
steam
B. radioactive atoms are used to generate electricity directly
C. steam is produced by passing water over a radioactive
substance
D. the principles of operation are very different to those of a
0040
9
coal_fired plant
E. both A and C
2900014 A
15 22705 31 1216
The smallest amount of fissionable material that will support a
self_sustaining chain reaction is called the
A. critical mass B. atomic weight
C. mass number D. isotopic weight
9 E. no correct response is given.
2900015 B
15 22708 31 148306421484
A great problem that must be overcome before nuclear fusion can
be used as a useful source of energy in applications other than
bombs is
A. obtaining sufficient amounts of fusionable materials
B. development of suitable reaction containers
C. development of suitable methods of disposing of the
radioactive waste
D. more than one response is correct
9 E. development of a good theoretical model
2900016 C
15 22714 31 0632
The use of fission reactions to generate electricity is
attractive because
A. no wastes are produced
B. all technical problems have been resolved
C. other energy sources are in short supply
D. the generators are inexpensive to build
9 E. all of the above
2900017 A
15 22718 31 06601223
The most recent of the man_made elements to be produced is
element 105. The longest lived isotope of this element has a
half_life of
A. less than 1 hour B. between 1 hour and 1 day
C. between 1 day and 1 month D. between 1 and 10 months
9 E. no correct response is given.
2900018 C
15 22722 31 1212
Some unidentified particles are accelerated in a cyclotron and
allowed to strike a target. The exact identity of the particles
must be determined. Which of the following could not possibly
3
_________
be the unknown particles?
A. electrons B. protons C. neutrons D. positrons
9 E. either A or D
0040
0040
0040
0040
0040
2900019 C
14 22727 51 043604951563
Which one of the following instruments would be least suitable
for detecting particles given off in radioactive decay?
A. Geiger counter B. scintillation counter
9 C. electron microscope D. cloud chamber
0009
2910001 B
15 22730 31 06170069800111
The term radioactivity refers to
A. the activity of electronic devices
B. the spontaneous disintegration of certain atomic nuclei
C. the gain or loss of electrons from the outer orbits of
the atoms
D. certain elements, like cobalt, which are necessary in
television and radio manufacture
E. the chemical combinations between elements catalyzed
9
by radio frequency waves
ETS2WVW
2910002 E
15 22736 31 06200617800111
The half_life of a radioactive substance is
A. half the life_span of the substance
B. usually 50 years
C. the time for radium to change to lead
5
2
D. found from Einstein's equation, E = mv
9 E. the time for half the material to disintegrate
ETS2WVW
2910003 B
15 22740 31 03790621800111
In considering the various "rays" from radioactive material
we think of beta rays as
A. high_frequency x_rays
B. high_speed electrons
C. infra_red radiation
D. hydrogen nuclei
9 E. helium nuclei
ETS2WVW
2910004 A
15 22743 31 06190376800111
An alpha particle from radioactive material is
A. a helium atom from which two electrons have been removed
B. an aggregate of two or more electrons
C. a hydrogen atom
D. the ultimate unit of positive electricity
9 E. sometimes negatively charged
ETS2WVW
2910005 B
15 22747
Beta radiation is/are
ETS2WVW
31
06230379800111
9
A. high_frequency x_rays
B. high_speed electrons
C. high_energy electromagnetic radiation
D. a stream of photons
E. fast helium nuclei
2910006 A
15 22750 31 06160626800111
X_rays are
A. electromagnetic waves of short wave_length
B. negatively charged ions
C. reflected cathode rays
D. nuclei of hydrogen atoms
9 E. positrons
ETS2WVW
2910007 D
15 22753 31 06160574800111
All except one of the following are properties of x_rays.
You are to select this one item which does not apply
A. The ability to make certain materials fluoresce
B. The ability to pass through opaque matter
C. The tendency to ionize the air through which they pass
D. The ability to cause a tiny paddle wheel to move away
from the cathode
9 E. The ability to darken a photographic plate
ETS2 OS
2910008 D
15 22759 32 06260628800111
If the following electromagnetic radiations are supposed to be
arranged in order of increasing wave length, the one
which is out of place is
A. gamma rays
B. ultra_violet
C. infra_red
D. x_rays
9 E. radio waves
ETS2 OS
2910009 D
15 22763 31 03790588800111
Radioactive disintegration may be characterized by all of these
except
A. the emission of alpha, beta, and gamma rays
B. definite half_life periods
C. the formation of helium as a by_product
D. the ejection of large quantities of matter
9 E. transmutations of elements
ETS2WVW
2910010 B
15 22767 31 03790189800111
A radioactive element X emits beta particles (electrons). This
results in the production of
ETS2WVW
9
A. an element which is very reactive chemically
B. an element of higher atomic number
C. an element with an atomic weight one unit less
D. a radioactive element which emits protons
E. stable positive ions of the element X
2910011 E
15 22772 31 01590495800111
Energy resulting from motion of particles deep within
the structure of the atom was unknown until the discovery of
A. ionization
B. the atomic bomb
C. the photoelectric effect
D. electromagnetic radiation
9 E. radioactivity
ETS2WVW
2910012 C
15 22776 31 05730189800111
In the uranium disintegration series
A. the disintegrating element merely throws off planetary
electrons
B. when an element loses a beta particle, the production
of another element takes place, that second element
having an atomic weight one unit larger and
an atomic number one unit smaller than the original atom
C. when an element loses an alpha particle an element is
produced that has an atomic weight four units less and
an atomic number two units less than those constants for
the disintegrating atom
D. in all atomic disintegrations the nucleus is unaffected
E. the series of disintegrations continues until an element
having eight electrons in its outermost orbital level
9
is obtained
ETS2WVW
2910013 C
14 22787 31 01898001034211
If thallium, element number 81, ejects a beta particle from
the nucleus
A. no new element is formed
B. mercury, element number 80, is formed
C. lead, element number 82, is formed
9 D. thallium becomes radioactive
ETS2WVW
2910014 B
15 22790 31 06180619800111
If radium, element number 88 in the periodic table,
ejects an alpha particle from the nucleus
A. no change takes place, as radium is constantly ejecting
alpha particles
B. radon, element number 86, would be formed
ETS2WVW
9
C. actinium, element number 89, would be formed
D. thorium, element number 90, would be formed
E. stable negative ions of radium would result
2910015 DAB
35 22795 31 80018003
1190
MACROITEM STEM
2To answer the following questions, select the appropriate
2answer from the key
2 A. alpha particles
2 B. beta particles
2 C. cathode rays
2 D. gamma rays
0 E. positive rays
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
Are not affected by the most intense magnetic fields.
1 Are very penetrating and of very short wave length.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
Are slightly bent by intense magnetic fields. One of the
products of the disintegration of radium. Each particle
2 carries two positive charges.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
Are greatly deflected even by weak magnetic fields. Consist
of electrons and are one of the products of the disintegration
9 of radium.
ETS2WVW
2910016 A
15 22803 51 07728003
Which of the following nuclides do not occur in the radioactive
decay series indicated? The terminology used is "z_symbol_mass"
for the isotopes. (Hint: all four of the series involve only alpha
and beta decay.)
5
224
(1) Ra ; thorium_232
4
88
5
210
(2) Po ; uranium_238
4
84
5
228
(3) Ac ; uranium_235
4
84
5
221
(4) Fr ; neptunium_237
4
87
5
233
(5) U ; uranium_235
4
92
2WVW
9
A. 3 and 5
B. 2 and 4
C. 1
D. 5
E. 3
2910017 B
14 22810 52 06200847
The half_life of tritium is 12 1/2 years. If we start out with 1
g of tritium, after 25 years there will be
A. no tritium left B. 1/4 g of tritium left
9 C. 1/2 g of tritium left D. a total of 4 g of tritium
0041
2910018 B
14 22813 52 039203790192
After 2 hr have elapsed, one_sixteenth of the original quantity
of a certain radioactive substance remains undecayed. The half_
life of this substance is
9 A. 15 min B. 30 min C. 45 min D. 60 min
0041
2910019 A
14 22816 51 066006061337
Radioactive decay was discovered by
9 A. Becquerel B. Marie Curie C. Pierre Curie D. Rutherford
2910020 B
14 22818 51 037914990097
Radioactive materials do not emit
9 A. electrons B. protons C. alpha particles D. gamma rays
0041
0041
2910021 D
14 22820 31 057312060353
Uranium eventually decays into a stable isotope of
9 A. radium B. polonium C. radon D. lead E. plutonium
0041
2910022 C
14 22822 51 006603790618
If radium and chlorine combine to form radium chloride, the
compound is
A. no longer radioactive
B. half as radioactive as the radium content
C. as radioactive as the radium content
9 D. twice as radioactive as the radium content
0041
2910023 D
15 22826 52 062003530379
The half_life of a radioactive isotope is 2.28 years. How long
will it take the activity of a given sample to be reduced to
97.0% of the original activity?
0044
5
0.693
(100 )
A. + _____ x 2.28 x log ______ yrs.
4
2.303
(97.0)
5
2.303
(97.0)
B. + _____ x 2.28 x log ______ yrs.
4
0.693
(100 )
5
2.303
(97.0)
C. + _____ x 2.28 x log ______ yrs.
4
0.693
(100 )
5
2.303
(100 )
D. + _____ x 2.28 x log ______ yrs.
4
0.693
(97.0)
5
(97.0)
E. 2 x 2.28 x ______ yrs.
94
(100 )
2910024 C
15 22835 72 035306201206
If 29.0 percent of a radioactive isotope decays in 265 days, what
is its half_life?
0044
2.303
265
A. _____ x __________ days
.693 log (71.0)
2.303 29.0
B. .5 x _____ x ____ days
.693 265
.693
265
C. _____ x _________ days
2.303
(100)
log______
(71.0)
2.303
265
D. _ _____ x _________ days
0.693
(29.0)
log______
(100 )
9
E. none of the above.
2910025 D
15 22842 52 035306200379
The mass of a sample of a radioactive isotope is found to be
7.10 grams. Given a half_life of 13.4 days, what amount of the
isotope will be left after 32 days?
9 A. 0.807 g
B. 0.288 g
C. 0.0 g
D. 1.36 g
E. 0.895 g
0044
2910026 C
15 22846 52 120906200375
What is the approximate age of an artifact found by an
archaeologist which has a specific activity due to carbon_14 of
10.2 counts per minute per gram of carbon? Assume that living
matter on the earth has an activity of 15.3 counts per minute
per gram of carbon. The half_life of carbon_14 is 5570 years.
A. 8340 Years B. 1420 years C. 3260 years D. 1820 years
9 E. 7510 years.
0044
2910027 E
15 22852 52 179602820620
The technique of radiocarbon dating relies on the following
principles: (select the one wrong statement.)
3
_____
A. The specific C_14 activity, counts per minute per gram of
carbon, is not affected by chemical decomposition and
volatilization of the object.
B. When C_14 decays it emits a beta particle which can be
detected in an instrument such as a geiger counter.
C. Living organisms have always contained the same fraction of
C_14 as the atmosphere.
D. Recent military nuclear explosions have not effected the
C_14 content of old objects.
E. C_14 decays with a half life of 5770 years in living
9
organisms, but is stable in inorganic compounds.
0044
2910028 C
15 22862 52 062006600288
The half_life of a radioactive isotope, Z, is 2.00 years. How
many years would it take 10.0 g of Z to decay and have only
1.25 g remain?
A. 2.00 years B. 4.00 years C. 6.00 years
9 D. 8.00 years E. 16.0 years
0028
2910029 B
14 22865 31 061706600379
A substance that spontaneously emits rays and particles without
any apparent inducement is said to be
A. charged B. radioactive
9 C. magnetically imbalanced D. irritable.
0026
2910030 D
15 22868 51 109700100379
A sample of radioactive ore gives off
A. only alpha particles
B. only beta particles
C. only gamma particles
D. all of these
9 E. only two of these
0020
2910031 D
15 22871 31 120212030384
Which of the following has the greatest penetrating power?
A. alpha particles
B. beta particles
C. electrons
D. gamma particles
9 E. helium ions
0020
2910032 A
15 22874 31 120403590282
Both the geiger_muller counter and the cloud chamber utilize the
following principle
A. ionization of gases by subatomic particles
B. formation of fog when air is suddenly cooled
C. conduction of an electric current
D. alpha particles are stopped by thin metal
9 E. electrons move faster than alpha particles
0020
2910033 B
15 22879 51 120505900418
The intensity of radiation can be measured in
A. lumens
B. curies
C. half_lives
D. becquerels
9 E. none of these
0020
2910034 E
15 22881 51 121908350353
One of the biggest dangers from nuclear explosions is
A. gamma radiation
B. shock_waves
C. radioactivity
D. long_lived isotopes
9 E. all of these
0020
2910035 E
15 22884 51 035306320620
An isotope that fissions spontaneously and has a fission
half_life of 85.5 years is
A. kurchatovium_254
B. lawrencium_252
C. uranium_233
D. berkelium_252
9 E. californium_252
0020
2910036 E
15 22887 31 061706061337
Radioactivity was discovered by
A. Rutherford
0020
9
B. Bohr
C. Roentgen
D. Moseley
E. Becquerel
2910037 B
14 22889 31 035806600340
The alpha particle is
9 A. a positron B. a helium nucleus C. an electron D. a proton
0019
2910038 A
15 22891 31 062006600353
A 0.1 g sample of an isotope has a half life of 10 hours. The
half life of a 0.2 g sample of the same isotope is ______hours.
9 A. 10 B. 5 C. 20 D. 2 E. 50
0019
2910039 A
13 22894 31 035803420660
The loss of an alpha particle by a nucleus produces_______in the
neutron to proton ratio.
9 A. an increase B. a decrease C. no change
0019
2910040 B
15 22896 31 06601285
5
234
The isotope
Th decays by the emission of a beta particle.
4
90
The daughter produced is
5
230
234
234
233
A.
Ra B.
Pa C.
Ac D.
Th
4
88
91
89
90
9 E. the beta particle
0040
2910041 C
15 22900 52 028806600620
A sample of a radioisotope with a nonradioactive daughter is
found to lose 87.5% of its radioactivity in 30 minutes. The
half_life of this isotope is
A. 20 min B. 15 min C. 10 min D. 5 min
9 E. no correct response is given.
0040
2910042 D
15 22904 32 028806600620
After four half_lives have elapsed, the amount of a radioactive
sample which has not decayed is
A. 40% of original amount
B. 1/4 of original amount
C. 1/8 of original amount
D. 1/16 of original amount
9 E. no correct response is given.
0040
2910043 D
15 22908
32
06600288
0040
If 1/8 of an isotope sample is present after 22 days, what is the
half_life of the isotope?
A. 10 days B. 5 days C. 2 3/4 days D. 7 1/3 days
9 E. 5 1/3 days
2910044 C
15 22911 31 06600620
Naturally occurring radioactive isotopes
3_________
A. must have very long half_lives
B. must have very short half_lives
C. can have either very long or very short half_lives
D. do not exist
9 E. are only found on the earth[s crust
0040
2910045 E
15 22915 52 8003
The decay constant, k, of a certain radioactive nuclide is
5
_1
0.6 day
. If a sample of this nuclide initially has an activity
5
_1
of 3000 disintegrations min. , how many days will have elapsed
5
_1
before it has an activity of 5.9 disintegrations min.
?
(Note 2.303 log (N /N) = kt.)
4
o
A. 3 days
B. 5 days
C. 7 days
D. 9 days
9 E. 10 days
2WVW
2910046 A
0040
15 22922
31
1209
5
14
Which of the following is least likely to be dated using C?
4
6
A. ore deposits B. human skeletons
C. spear shaft D. both A and B
9 E. both B and C
2910047 E
15 22926 31 0660
The rate of disintegration of a sample of a radioactive element
A. can be increased by heating the sample
B. is usually increased by a cyclotron
C. is decreased by surrounding the sample with liquid air
D. is decreased by converting the element into a compound by
chemical reaction with another substance
0040
9
E. no correct response is given.
2910048 B
14 22931 51 038214990325
In determining the age of organic material, one measures
A. the time required for half of the C_14 in the sample to
decay
B. the ratio of C_14 to C_12 in the sample
C. the percentage of carbon in the sample
9 D. the time required for half the sample to decay
0009
2910049 C
14 22935 52 062005730353
The half life of uranium_238, which decomposes to lead_206, is
5
9
about 4.5 x 10 years. A rock which contains equal numbers of
grams of these two isotopes would be ______ years old.
5
9
9
A. Less than 4.5 x 10 B. 4.5 x 10
5
9
9 C. more than 4.5 x 10 D. cannot say
0009
2910050 B
15 22940 31 061606061337
X_ray were discovered by
A. W. Roentgen B. H. Becquerel C. M. Curie and P. Curie
9 D. J. J. Thompson E. E. RuTherford
0034
2910051 B
15 22942 31 06170606
Natural radioactivity was discovered by
A. W. Roentgen B. H. Becquerel C. M. Curie and P. Curie
9 D. J. J. Thompson E. E. Rutherford
2910052 C
15 22944 31 018903790606
The two radioactive elements radium and polonium were discovered
by
A. W. Roentgen B. H. Becquerel C. M. Curie and P. Curie
9 D. J. J. Thompson E. E. Rutherford
2910053 D
14 22947 31 0358
An alpha particle is essentially
A. an electron B. a proton
9 C. a positron D. a helium nucleus
2910054 B
14 22949 31 06200660
A very unstable isotope has a
A. very high kinetic energy
B. very short half_life
C. strong tendency to undergo fusion
0034
0034
0003
0003
9
D. strong tendency to emit positrons
2910055 C
14 22952 31
Gamma rays are
A. high_energy electrons
B. low_energy electrons
C. high_energy photons
9 D. high_energy positrons
1202
0003
2910056 B
14 22954 31 00971465
It is believed that one particle which is usually found in the
nucleus is the
9 A. electron B. proton C. beta particle D. gamma ray
0003
2910057 A
14 22956 31 06171251
Which of the following is not radioactive?
5
13
13
3
5
A. C B. N C. H D. He
94
6
7
1
2
0003
2910058 A
14 22958 31 06610379
An isotope which has too high a neutron_proton ratio can gain
stability by
A. beta emission B. gamma emission
9 C. proton emission D. K capture
0003
2910059 A
14 22961 31 0620
If 1.0 g of an isotope has a half_life of 15 hr, the half_life
of a 0.50_g sample is:
9 A. 15 hr B. 30 hr C. 7.5 hr D. 60 hr
2910060 C
14 22963 72 195412020185
Which carries no charge?
9 A. alpha rays B. beta rays C. gamma rays D. positrons
2910061 A
15 22965 31 06608001800313
An atom with mass number 238 and atomic number 92 emits in
succession an alpha particle, a beta particle, a beta particle and
an alpha particle. The resultant atom must have
A. mass number 230, atomic number 90
B. mass number 232, atomic number 92
C. mass number 228, atomic number 90
D. mass number 230, atomic number 88
9 E. mass number 230, atomic number 92
2910062 DAEDBDEC 85 22972
31
1390
0003
0061
ETS2WVW
ETS2WVW
MACROITEM STEM
2After each exercise number on the answer sheet, blacken the one
3
___
2lettered space which designates the correct answer.
2U(238/92) _ U x 1 + alpha
0 U x 1 = U x 2 + beta
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The uranium atom is radioactive, emitting an alpha_particle
to become a new atom Ux1. the the atomic number of Ux1 is
A. 94
B. 92
C. 91
D. 90
1 E. 88
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
The basis for the above prediction is
A. the alpha_particle has a charge of two positive units
B. the alpha_particle has no charge
C. the alpha_particle has a charge of one positive unit
D. the alpha_particle has a mass of four units
2 E. the alpha_particle has a charge of two negative units
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
The atomic weight of Ux1 is
A. 240
B. 238
C. 237
D. 236
3 E. 234
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
The basis for the above prediction is that the alpha_particle has
A. a charge of two negative units
B. no charge
C. a mass of two units
D. a mass of four units
4 E. a mass negligible to that of the uranium atom
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
The atom Ux1 emits a beta_particle, forming a new atom, Ux2. the
atomic number of Ux2 is
A. 92
B. 91
C. 901
D. 89
5 E. 88
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
The basis for the above prediction is that The beta_particle has
A. no charge
B. a charge negligible compared with that of the nucleus of the
Ux1 atom
C. a mass negligible compared with that of the Ux1 atom
D. a charge of one negative unit
6 E. a charge of two negative units
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
The atomic weight of Ux2 is
A. 240
B. 238
C. 237
D. 236
7 E. 234
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 8
The basis for the above prediction is that The beta_particle has
A. no charge
B. a charge negligible compared with that of the nucleus of the
Ux1 atom
C. a mass negligible compared with that of the Ux1 atom
D. a charge of one negative unit
9 E. a charge of two negative units
2930001 A
15 22996 31 03790351800111
Substances are radioactive when
A. the atomic nucleus is unstable
B. the orbital electrons are easily lost
C. the atom gains electrons readily
D. they readily form ions
9 E. they are chemically reactive
ETS2WVW
2930002 C
15 22999 31 03420097800111
A general rule for nuclear stability is
A. instability increases as the charge on the nucleus decreases
B. a heavier nucleus is usually more stable than a lighter one
C. when a nucleus contains more protons than neutrons it is
unstable
D. emission of alpha, beta, or gamma particles contributes to
increased instability of the nucleus
9 E. none of the above offers a general rule
ETS2WVW
2930003 A
14 23005 31 034200970341
Stable atomic nuclei weigh
A. less than the total weight of their constituent protons and
neutrons
B. the same as the total weight of their constituent protons
and neutrons
C. more than the total weight of their constituent protons and
0041
9
neutrons
D. sometimes more and sometimes less than the total weight of
their constituent protons and neutrons
2930004 D
14 23011 51 027603171683
According to Yukawa's theory, nuclear forces arise through the
exchange between nucleons of
9 A. electrons B. protons C. neutrinos D. mesons
0041
2930005 A
15 23013 52 179516851683
An important parameter for judging the stability of a nuclide is
the binding energy for nucleon. Calculate the binding energy per
3
___
nucleon in MEV for C_13, which has a mass of 13.00335 amu.
Mass of proton = 1.007277
mass of neutron = 1.008665
mass of electron = 0.0005486
0044
5
2
conversion factor for E = mc is 931 MEV/amu.
9 A. 7.47 B. 97.1 C. 7.23 D. 94.0 E. 7.00
2930006 A
15 23020 51 035310960417
Isotopes below the belt of stability (low neutron_to_proton
ratio) are likely to be
A. positron emitters
B. electron emitters
C. stable
D. alpha emitters
9 E. gamma ray emitters
0018
2930007 A
14 23023 51 034100970337
The ratio of neutrons to protons in stable isotopes
A. increases with increasing atomic number
B. decreases with increasing atomic number
C. follows NO general pattern with increasing atomic number
9 D. does not change appreciably with atomic number
0018
2930008 B
15 23027 31
Radioactivity is caused by
A. electrons in the nucleus
B. unstable nuclei in atoms
C. gamma radiation
D. short half_lives
9 E. too many isotopes
0020
061702910342
2930009 D
15 23030 51 035312140341
Which of the following isotopes are fissionable when struck by
slow neutrons?
A. U_234
B. U_238
C. Np_239
D. Pu_239
9 E. Cf_250
0020
2930010 C
15 23032 31 015906610398
The energy obtained from nuclear reactions comes from
A. endothermic reactions
B. explosions
C. conversion of mass to energy
D. helium being converted to hydrogen
9 E. radioactive decay of uranium
0020
2930011 B
15 23035 31 0660
Isotopes whose neutron_to_proton ratios lie above the "region
of stability" are most likely to emit
A. alpha particles
B. beta mimus particles
C. gamma rays
D. beta plus particles (positrons)
9 E. both B and D
2930012 D
15 23039
52
06600628
0040
0040
5
9
The half_life of uranium_238 is 4.5 x 10 years. This means that
5
9
after 4.5 x 10 years, for a given sample of uranium_238,
A. the sample disappears B. the sample is half as radioactive
C. the sample has a weight 1/2 its original weight
D. the sample contains 1/2 as many uranium_238 atoms as
originally
9 E. both B and D are correct
2930013 C
14 23045 52 03530632
Which one of the following isotopes would be most likely to
undergo fission?
5
14
59
239
2
A. C B. Co C.
Pu D. H
94
6
27
94
1
2930014 D
14 23048
72
195417950620
0009
0061
Two nuclides of Pa, each with mass number 234 and half_lives of 1.18
minutes and 6.66 hours respectively, are best described as:
9 A. isotopes B. isobars C. isotones D. nuclear isomers
2930015 D
15 23051 52 8003
Nuclides having different numbers of neutrons and protons but
equal mass numbers are referred to as isobars. Nuclides having
3
_______
equal numbers of neutrons but differing in atomic number and mass
number are called isotones. Which one of the classifications given
3
________
for the following pairs of nuclides is incorrect?
3
_________
5
14
14
A. C and N
isobars
4
6
7
5
14
15
B. C and N
isotones
4
6
7
5
58
60
C.
Co and
Co
isotopes
4
27
27
5
102
102
D.
Ru
and
Rh
no relationship
4
44
45
5
39
40
E.
K and
Ca
isotones
94
19
20
2WVW
2930016 E
15 23063 51
Pick the nucleus most likely to emit a beta particle.
5
16
15
16
14
16
A. O B. O C. O D. O E. O
94
8
8
8
8
8
OS82
2930017 D
15 23066 51
Pick the nucleus most likely to emit a positron:
5
12
13
16
14
16
A. C B. C C. O D. O E. N
94
6
6
8
8
7
OS82
2930018 B
15 23069 51
Nuclei with high neutron_to_proton ratios decay by
A. positron emission C. neutron emission E. alpha capture
9 B. beta emission
D. neutron capture
OS82
2950001 D
15 23072 31 06560657800112
5
27
4
30
In the nuclear reaction 13Al + 2He = 14Si + ( ),
the missing particle is
A. an alpha particle
B. a beta+
C. a beta_
9 E. a neutron
2950002 A
15 23075 31 03510159800111
Atomic energy changes are spontaneous in all of these except
3
______
A. platinum
B. uranium
C. radium
D. thorium
9 E. plutonium
ETS2WVW
2950003 C
15 23078 31 06148001006911
The element plutonium has gained special significance in
connection with the development of
A. qualitative analysis of the composition of the planets
B. heat resistant steels for power jets
C. the release of atomic energy
D. the complete periodic table
9 E. research in some area other than one of the above
ETS2WVW
2950004 A
15 23083 31 01590642800111
The energy produced in a nuclear fission bomb is the result
of the
A. transformation of an equivalent amount of mass
B. energy produced by a chemical reaction
C. energy of combustion of the subdivided atoms
D. energy of the neutrons which are sent in all directions
9 E. energy of the gamma rays
ETS2WVW
2950005 E
15 23088 31 05730632800111
When uranium undergoes fission as a result of neutron
bombardment, the energy released in the fission process is due to
A. oxidation of uranium
B. the kinetic energy of the bombarding neutrons
C. the radioactivity of the uranium nucleus
D. the radioactivity of the fission products
9 E. the conversion of matter into energy
ETS2WVW
2950006 DEDCCA 65 23093
MACROITEM STEM
31
1290
ETS2WVW
ETS2WVW
2After each exercise number on the answer sheet, blacken the
one lettered space which designates the correct answer.
3___
"The first clue as to the nature of the unusual radioactive
changes that were observed with uranium lay in the statement
of Hahn and Strassman in January, 1939, that barium was found
in the disintegration products." (The uranium referred to is
0 one of the uranium isotopes and the atomic number of barium is 56.)
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
the above statement refers to
A. a chemical reaction of uranium and barium
B. combustion of uranium and oxygen, barium is in the ashes
C. U_238 when, in presence of neutrons, it fissions or
disintegrates
D. U_235 when, in presence of neutrons, it undergoes fission
1 E. U_238 when, in presence of protons, it reacts to produce barium
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
A radioactive isotope is an element which
A. has a high temperature
B. is chemically reactive__orbital electrons are in an
unstable state
C. has a nucleus which undergoes a change with absorption of
energy
D. is chemically inert
E. has a nucleus which spontaneously undergoes change liberating
2
energy and often some kind of charged particle
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
An explosion does not result from a small piece of U_235 because
A. U_235 does not fission.
B. The neutrons released move too fast to start a chain reaction.
C. U_238 is needed.
D. So many neutrons escape a small piece of the metal that a chain
reaction cannot start.
3 E. A little U_236 is needed as a trigger.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
5
14
Radioactive carbon C has a half life of 4700 years.
4
6
5
14
It changes slowly to ordinary nitrogen N according to
4
7
514
14
C _____> N + X
46
7
The particle X must be
A. a proton
B. a deuteron
C. an electron
D. an alpha particle
4 E. a gamma ray
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
The atomic pile consists of bars of uranium interspersed with
graphite rods. The purpose of the latter is to
A. furnish neutrons for the fission process
B. react with U_235 and release energy
C. act as a neutron moderator slowing down fast neutrons
D. release energy by combustion and this energy in turn
triggers the atomic fire
5 E. furnish deuterons to fission atoms of u238
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
The energy produced in a nuclear fission bomb is the result of the
A. disappearance of an equivalent amount of mass
B. energy produced by a chemical reaction
C. energy of combustion of the subdivided atoms
D. energy of the neutrons which are sent in all directions
9 E. energy of the gamma rays
2950007 ABD
35 23127 31 0656063205181290
MACROITEM STEM
2Consider the following five nuclear reactions
5
238
90
146
2
2 A. U
+ n(1/0) = Kr + Cs
+ H + n(1/0)
4
92
36
55
1
239
96
141
2 B. Pu
+ n(1/0) = Sr + Ba
+ n(1/0)
4
94
38
56
5
238
234
4
2 C. U
= Th
+ He
4
92
90
2
5
3
2
4
2 D. H + H = He + n(1/0)
4
1
1
2
5
107
108
108
2 E. Ag
+ n(1/0) = Ag
= Cd
+ e_
4
47
47
48
2Indicate, by marking the appropriate space on the answer sheet,
0 which one represents the following.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 A fission reaction which can be activated by slow neutrons.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
A fission reaction which cannot be activated by slow neutrons.
23
______
ETS2WVW
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
9 A fusion reaction which would yield large amounts of energy.
2950008 E
15 23140 31 80018003
12
5
24
2
4
In the nuclear reaction Mg + H = ( ) + He the missing
4
12
1
2
particle is
5
23
A. Na
4
11
5
22
B. Ne
4
11
5
22
C. Na
4
10
5
21
D. Ne
4
10
5
22
E. Na
94
11
ETS2WVW
2950009 EA
25 23145 31 0632
1290
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions refer to the equation for fission type
5
235
140
80
2
n(1/0) + U
___> La
+ D + (x)n(1/0)
4
92
57
A
0
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The atomic number of element D is
A. 92
B. 56
C. 46
D. 36
1 E. 35
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
The number, (x), of neutrons produced in the reaction is
A. 16
B. 15
C. 10
D. 1
9 E. 0
ETS2WVW
2950010 CDB
35 23151 31 0656
1290
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions refer to the transmutation reaction
5
54
2
4
52
2
Fe + H ___> He + E
04
26
1
2
A
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
5
2
The bombarding particle ( H ) is a(an)
4
1
A. positron
B. proton
C. deuteron
D. alpha particle
1 E. electron
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
5
4
The particle produced, ( He ), is a(an)
4
2
A. positron
B. proton
C. deuteron
D. alpha particle
2 E. electron
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
Element E is
A. iron
B. manganese
C. cobalt
D. chromium
9 E. nickel
2950011 CEEB
45 23160 31 0656800180031290
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions represent changes involving the nuclei of
2atoms. After each item number on the answer sheet, blacken the
2one lettered space which designates the correct answer, choosing
3___
2your answer from the group of answers below.
2 A. If X is X(239/94)
2 B. if X is X(234/90)
2 C. if X is X(239/93)
2 D. if X is X(242/94)
0 E. if X is X(239/92)
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 U(239/92) ___> X + e_
ETS2WVW
ETS2WVW
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 Np(239/93) ___> X + e_
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 U(238/92) + neutron ___> X
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
5
4
U(238/92) ___> He + X
94
2
2950012 BDDEAA 65 23167 31 0656800180031290
MACROITEM STEM
2For the following questions, select your answer from the list of
2nuclear reactions below.
2 A. If X is Cm(242/96)
2 B. if X is Pu(241/94)
2 C. if X is Cm(240/96)
2 D. if X is Pu(239/94)
02 E. if X is Np(238/93)
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 U(238/92) + He(4/2) ___> n(1/0) + X
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 X + He(4/2) ___> n(1/0) + Cm(242/96)
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
e_
e_
3 U(238/92) + n(1/0) ___> U(239/92) ___> Np(239/93)___> X
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
4 U(238/92) + h(2/1) ___> 2 n(1/0) + X
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
5 Pu(239/94) + He(4/2) ___> X + n(1/0)
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
9 Am(242/95) ___> e_ + n
2950013 DAEC
45 23174 31 0656800180031290
MACROITEM STEM
2Radioactive sodium can be obtained from ordinary sodium by the
2following nuclear reaction
02
Na(23/11) + H(2/1) ___> Na(24/11) + H(1/1)
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The particle used in causing the change shown above is
A. a neutron
B. an alpha particle
C. a proton
D. a deuteron
1 E. a beta particle
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
This particle is usually obtained through use of a
ETS2WVW
ETS2WVW
A. cyclotron
B. cloud chamber
C. mass spectrograph
D. uranium pile
2 E. radioactive element fround in nature
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
The particle formed in addition to the radioactive sodium is
A. an alpha particle
B. an electron
C. a neutron
D. a deuteron
3 E. a proton
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
The atomic weight of the radioactive element is
A. 11
B. 23
C. 24
D. 12
9 E. none of these
2950014 ECAEDBBC 85 23184 31 0656
1290
MACROITEM STEM
2After the number on the answer sheet corresponding to that of
2each of the numbered nuclear reactions at the right, blacken the
2one lettered space which indicates the correct substitute for "X".
3___
5
13
2 A. If X is N
4
7
5
17
2 B. If X is F
4
9
5
15
2 C. If X is O
4
8
5
14
2 D. If X is C
4
6
5
16
2 E. If X is N
04
7
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
5 15
2
1
N + H ___> X + H
147
1
1
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
ETS2WVW
5 16
1
1
O + n ____> X + n
248
0
0
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
5 12
2
1
C + H _____> X + n
346
1
0
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
5 19
1
4
F + n _____> X + He
449
0
2
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
5 14
1
1
N + H _____> X + H
547
0
1
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
5 16
1
O + H _____> X
648
1
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
5 14
4
1
N + He _____> X + n
747
2
0
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 8
5 16
1
O _____> X + n
948
0
2950015 E
15 23198 31 03510159023511
Atomic energy changes are spontaneous in
A. uranium B. radium C. thorium D. plutonium
9 E. all of these
2950016 C
14 23200 31 03420632
5
235
The splitting of an atomic nucleus, such as that of U , into
two or more large pieces is called
9 A. sublimation B. fusion C. fission D. a chain reaction
2950017 D
14 23203 31 015903421221
Which of the following does not make use of the energy evolved
when two light nuclei fuse together to make a heavier one?
A. The generation of energy within stars
B. Proposed thermonuclear power plants
9 C. Hydrogen bombs D. Nuclear reactors
ETSZWVW
0041
0041
2950018 B
14 23207 31 121506320341
The term chain reaction is used to refer to
A. the linking together of protons and neutrons to form nuclei
B. the successive fissions of nuclei induced by neutrons from
the fissions of other nuclei
C. the setting off of a hydrogen bomb by an atomic bomb
D. the combustion of uranium in a special type of furnace
9
called a nuclear reactor
0041
2950019 C
14 23212 52 009703421167
5
11
A fast proton strikes a B nucleus and reacts with it to produce a
4
5
511
C nucleus. There is emitted in the process
46
9 A. a proton
C. a neutron
E. an alpha particle
0041
2950020 B
14 23216 32 066103510342
5
14
The first nuclear reaction ever observed occurred when N atoms
4
7
5
4
were bombarded with He nuclei (which are alpha particles) and
4
2
protons were ejected. This reaction produces
5
17
17
17
17
A. N
B. O
C. F
D. Ne
94
7
8
9
10
0041
2950021 A
14 23222 51 049512060097
The only one of the following particles that does not decay in
free space into another particle is the
9 A. proton B. neutron C. pion D. muon
0041
2950022 D
15 23224 52 116704071159
5
4
9
One gram of He reacts with an excess of Be in the reaction
4
2
4
5
9
4
12
1
Be + He _____> C + N
4
4
2
6
0
5
12
How many grams of C will be formed?
4
6
9 A. 0.33 g B. 12. 0 g C. 9.0 g D. 3.0 g E. 18.0 g
0047
2950023 B
15 23230 52 122104070189
In a present day nuclear reactor a typical reaction is:
U_235 + neutron _____> Kr_93 + Ba_140 + 3 neutrons
select the one correct statement.
3
_______
A. This reaction is called fusion.
B. A variety of reactions creating pairs of elements similar to
these can occur when neutrons strike U_235.
C. The sum of the masses of the products exceeds that of the
reactants.
D. In the above reaction the number of nucleons is conserved
but two positive charges are created.
E. The above reaction could not become explosive under any
9
conditions.
0044
2950024 B
14 23238 52 06611076064251
Which nuclear reaction is properly balanced?
5
4
9
12
1
A. He + Be _____> C + H
4
2
4
6
1
5
4
14
17
1
B. He + N _____> O + H
4
2
7
8
1
5
12
1
14
1
C. C + H _____> N + n
4
6
1
7
0
5
14
0
14
D. N + e _____> O
4
7
_1
8
5
16
0
16
E. O + e _____> F
94
8
_1
9
9000
2950025 B
15 23245 51 101210150642
The liquid_metal_cooled fast breeder reactor (LMFBR) is
A. a kind of nuclear reactor that produces NO radioactive
wastes
B. a kind of nuclear power plant in which plutonium serves as
a fuel
C. a reactor involving fusion
D. a reactor involving uranium_235 as the main fuel
9 E. none of these
0018
2950026 D
15 23250 51 037901891094
All of the following are released by radioactive elements except
0018
9
A. gamma rays
B. beta rays
C. alpha particles
D. canal rays (positive ions)
E. positrons
2950027 A
15 23253 52 035306201097
If 1 g of an isotope has a half_life of 15 hr, the half_life of a
0.50 g sample is
9 A. 15 hr B. 30 hr C. 7.5 hr D. 60 hr E. 45 hr
0018
2950028 D
14 23255 51 049103791106
The rate of decay of radioactive substances
A. depends on whether the substance is a gas, liquid, or solid
B. depends on the temperature and is faster at higher
temperature
C. depends on the temperature and is slower at higher
temperature
D. is independent of temperature, state, or chemical form of
9
the substances
0018
2950029 E
15 23260 32 035806600656
Astatine_218 (At) decays by alpha emission. The other atom
formed is:
0028
5
216
218
217
218
214
A.
Bi B.
Bi C.
Po D.
Rn E.
Bi
94
83
83
84
86
83
2950030 C
15 23264 32
06600656
Neptunium_234 (Np) decays by positron emission. The other element
formed is:
5
233
230
234
234
234
A.
U B.
Pa C.
U D.
Pu E.
Np
94
92
91
92
94
92
2950031 B
15 23267 32 062106600656
Californium_253 (Cf) decays by beta emission. The other element
formed is:
5
252
253
253
249
A.
Es B.
Es C.
Bk D.
Cm E. none of these
94
99
99
97
96
2950032 A
5
14 23270
31
03580656800113
14
1
0028
0028
ETS2WVW
4
In the nuclear reaction
N + H = C + He
4
7
1
2
A. the carbon atom produced will have a mass of 11 and an atomic
number of 6
B. the carbon atom produced will have a mass of 12 and an atomic
number of 5
C. the carbon atom produced will have a mass of 12 and an atomic
number of 6
9 D. none of the above statements is true
2950033 A
15 23277 51 057312060358
Uranium_238 decays to give an alpha particle plus
A. element 90
B. element 89
C. element 91
D. neutrons
9 E. positrons
0020
2950034 E
15 23279 51 120705731208
The end product of the uranium_238 decay series is
A. carbon_14
B. thorium
C. protactinium
D. radon
9 E. nonradioactive
0020
2950035 C
15 23281 51 128503790341
Beta particles coming from radioactive elements are
A. always of low energy
B. very difficult to detect
C. the result of neutrons changing to protons
D. the result of protons changing to neutrons
9 E. none of these
0020
2950036 D
15 23285 51
Carbon_14 has a half_life of
A. 36 years
5
8
B. 5 x 10 years
C. 42 minutes
9 D. 5570 years
12090620
2950037 B
15 23287 31 120903211210
Carbon_14 is formed in the atmosphere from
A. cosmic ray bombardment of oxygen
B. cosmic ray bombardment of nitrogen
0020
0020
9
C. neutrons and protons
D. radioactive disintegration of nitrogen_15
E. none of these
2950038 B
15 23290 52 003103580341
5
10
13
Complete the equation:
B + alpha particles ___> N + _____
4
5
7
A. electrons B. neutrons C. cosmic radiation D. positrons
9 E. more alpha particles
0020
2950039 C
15 23294 51 062005730398
5
9
The half_life of uranium_238 is 4.5 x 10 years. This means that
5
9
after 4.5 x 10 years
A. the sample disappears
B. half the original mass remains
C. half the 238 isotope remains
D. the sample is half as radioactive
9 E. none of these
0020
2950040 D
15 23299 51 04071211
5
30
30
0
The reaction:
P ___> Si + e
4
15
14
1
A. illustrates artificial transmutation
B. is impossible
C. is typical of all samples of phosphorus
D. produces particles similar to those discovered by anderson
9 E. illustrates artificial radioactivity
0020
2950041 E
15 23304 51 078706320342
In the process of nuclear fission
A. the nucleus of an atom actually splits
B. many neutrons are produced
C. large amounts of energy are liberated
D. gamma radiation is produced
9 E. all of these
0020
2950042 C
15 23307 31 039812151216
The mass of U_235 just large enough to sustain a chain reaction
is called
A. the mass number
B. the nuclear mass
C. the critical mass
0020
9
D. the moderator mass
E. none of these
2950043 D
15 23310 51
Thermonuclear reactions
A. are fission reactions
B. are atomic bomb reactions
C. involve lithium deuteride
D. are fusion reactions
9 E. are due to radioactivity
121704070518
0020
2950044 A
15 23313 51 121806320407
The hydrogen bomb
A. utilizes a nuclear fission reaction
B. must be fused by a fusion reaction
C. contains a large amount of plutonium
D. all of these
9 E. none of these
0020
2950045 D
15 23316 51 122012210852
A moderator for use in nuclear reactors is
A. cadmium
B. neptunium
C. boron
D. graphite
9 E. U_238
0020
2950046 B
15 23318 51 004912210353
Using thorium_232 as a fuel in a nuclear reactor, it is possible
to produce the fissionable isotope
A. protactinium_233
B. uranium_233
C. uranium_235
D. plutonium_239
9 E. thorium_234
0020
2950047 A
14 23321 51 035306321096
An unstable isotope
A. undergoes fission
B. readily emits positrons
C. has a short half life
9 D. lies within the belt of stability
0019
2950048 E
15 23323 51 035303580417
Isotopes whose neutron to proton ratio lie below the belt of
stability are
0019
9
A. nonradioactive B. alpha emitters C. beta emitters
D. positron emitters E. both B and D.
2950049 E
15 23326 51 035317410097
Isotopes whose neutron to proton ratio lie below the belt of
stability
A. emit protons B. emit neutrons C. emit electrons
D. undergo K electron capture
9 E. both A and D.
0019
2950050 B
14 23329 31 035306321096
Isotopes which undergo fission in nature are found_______ the
belt of stability
9 A. below B. above C. beyond D. in
0019
2950051 A
15 23331 31 063203530379
The products of a fission process are_____ mass than that of the
radioactive isotope.
9 A. Of lower B. of higher C. of the same
0019
2950052 D
15 23333 31 0661
Nuclear reactions differ from ordinary chemical reactions in that
A. different isotopes of an element have different nuclear
properties
B. the nuclear reactivity is independent of the state of
combination
C. elements may be changed into other elements during nulcear
reactions
D. all of the above are correct
9 E. both B and C are correct
0040
2950053 A
15 23338 31 0661
Which of the following is not true of nuclear reactions?
A. all isotopes of an element undergo similar reactions
B. the reactivity of an element depends upon the compound form
it is in
C. nuclear reactions involve large amounts of energy
D. B and C are correct
9 E. no correct response is given.
2950055 A
15 23348 31 06610660
5
23
2
The bombardment of Na with H gives two products, one of which
4
11
1
is a proton. The other product is
5
24
25
25
22
A. Na B. Mg C. Na D. Mg
0040
0040
4
11
12
11
12
9 E. no correct response is given.
2950056 B
15 23353 31 06610660
5
250
11
Bombardment of
Cf by B yields 4 neutrons and an isotope of
4
98
5
an element of atomic number
A. 104 B. 103 C. 102 D. 99
9 E. either A or B
0040
2950057 C
15 23356 31 06610660
Which particle is needed to balance the following nuclear
reaction?
5
7
4
Li + _____ _____> 2( He)
4
3
2
A. an alpha B. a beta minus C. a proton D. a neutron
9 E. either C or D
0040
2950058 C
15 23360 31 06600661
5
234
A uranium isotope,
U, decays by alpha emission. The resulting
4
92
isotope is
5
238
230
230
234
A.
Cm B.
Ra C.
Th D.
Np
4
96
88
90
93
9 E. no correct response is given.
0040
2950059 D
15 23364 31 06600661
5
56
56
The isotope Mn spontaneously decays to give Fe. The process
4
25
26
also involves
A. the capture of an electron by the Mn_56 nucleus
B. the emission of a positron
9 E. either A or B
2950060 E
15 23368 31 05181538
Fusion is the process of
A. bombarding a large nucleus with small particles
B. splitting a nucleus into many small fragments
C. splitting a nucleus into two fragments of about equal mass
D. making a nonradioactive substance radioactive
9 E. both A and D
0040
0040
2950061 D
15 23372 31 06610632
Nuclear fission is the process
A. of putting light nuclei together to form heavier nuclei
B. which occurs in the hydrogen bomb explosion
C. which occurs on the sun
D. of splitting heavier nuclei to form lighter nuclei
9 E. the splitting of molecules into their constituent atoms
2950062 C
15 23376 31 1223
Transuranium elements
A. are made by nuclear fusion
B. result from natural radioactive decay
C. have atomic numbers greater than 92
D. have greater half_lives than uranium
9 E. are made from uranium
0040
0040
2950063 D
14 23379 51 037907870358
5
235
A certain radioactive series starts with
U and ends with
4
92
5207
Pb. In the overall process, _____ alpha_particles and _____
4 82
beta_particles are emitted.
9 A. 8, 6 B. 14, 10 C. 7,10 D. 7, 4
0009
2950064 D
15 23383 52 009703530587
5
75
2
Bombardment of As by a deuteron, H, forms a proton and an
4
33
1
isotope which has a mass number of _____ and an atomic number of
9 A. 73,32 B. 75,33 C. 75,32 D. 76,33 E. 76,34
0009
2950065 C
14 23387 52 018900650353
The element silicon has an atomic weight of about 28. The
5
30
isotope Si would most likely decay by emitting a(n)
4
14
9 A. positron B. proton C. electron D. alpha particle
0009
2950066 B
15 23390 52 0031
Which of the following equations is incorrect?
5
28
1
28
1
A. Si + n _____> Al + H
4
14
0
13
1
5
28
1
28
1
0034
B.
Si + H _____> Al + n
4
14
1
13
0
5
25
4
1
28
C. Mg + He _____> H + Al
4
12
2
1
13
5
27
2
28
1
D. Al + H _____> Al + H
4
13
1
13
1
5
40
40
0
E. K ______> Ca + e
94
19
20
_1
2950067 A
14 23397 72 19540341
5 7
2
8
In Li + H ___> Be + (?), the missing species is:
4 3
1
4
5
1
4
0
1
A. n B. He C. e D. H
94
0
2
_1
1
0061
2950068 D
15 23400 52 19541285
5234
234
Th is converted into
Pa by:
4 90
91
A. proton emission B. positron emission
9 D. beta emission
E. alpha capture
0061
C. K electron capture
2950069 DDECADCAD95 23403 31 80018003
1290
MACROITEM STEM
2For the following items, the notation used is as follows M(A/Z),
2where M is the symbol for the element or particle, A is the atomic
2mass and Z is the atomic number or charge. Thus uranium 238 becomes
2U(238/92). Now, consider the following nuclear reactions
2
U(238/92) + n(1/0) ___> U(239/92)
2
U(239/92) ___> Np(239/93) + energy + e(0/_1)
2
Np(239/92) ___> Pu(239/94) + e(0/_1)
2If the neutron concentration becomes too high as shown by neutron
2counters placed within the pile the condition is corrected by
2insertion of Cd bars. An outside continuous source of neutrons
2is not required because neutrons are supplied by fission of
2some of the U_235 atoms and by fission of some of the newly formed
2Pu_239 (the product of the pile). Using this information, answer
0 the following questions.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
To be accepted into the nucleus by uranium_238, neutrons must be
A. fast
ETS2WVW
1
2
3
4
5
6
B. energetic
C. hot
D. slow
E. fresh from an outside source
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
Np(239/94) which is formed first, must be converted to Pu(239/94) by
A. bombardment with more neutrons
B. bombardment with deuterons
C. bombardment with alpha particles
D. allowing it to undergo natural radioactive decay
E. chemical treatment
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
Of the particles and nuclei listed in symbols above, the one which
is an isotope of U_238 is
A. Pu(239/99)
B. electron
C. Np(238/93)
D. U(238/92)
E. U(239/92
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
After the reaction has started, it is kept going by neutrons
supplied in part by
A. an outside source
B. Np(239/93)
C. Pu(239/94)
D. U(234/92)
E. U(239/92)
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
Pu_239 is produced at an increasingly rapid rate because
A. as in the fission of U(235/92) the fission of Pu(239/94)
releases 3 neutrons
B. in addition to the main reaction there are certain side
reactions that produce Pu(239/94)
C. no Pu(239/94) atoms are lost once they are formed
D. presence of Cd stabilizes and prevents decay of the Pu(239/94)
E. presence of carbon stabilizes and prevents decay of the
Pu(239/94)
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
Hydrogen nuclei tend to trap neutrons because of the tendency to
form
A. alpha particles
B. positrons
C. gamma rays
D. deuterons
E. beta rays
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
The use of cadmium in the pile is to
A. make the neutrons go faster
B. absorb heat
C. remove neutrons
D. interfere with the action of the graphite
7 E. convert the neutrons to alpha particles
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 8
The first atomic pile was set into operation by
A. Fermi
B. Rutherford
C. Seaborg
D. Nier
8 E. Joliot
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 9
when U(239/92) changes to Np(239/94) the electron comes from
A. an orbital electron
B. a nuclear proton
C. a nuclear alpha particle
D. a nuclear neutron
9 E. a nuclear deuteron
2950070 E
15 23439 31 06568001800312
Carbon serves as a moderator in the atomic pile. It captures a few
neutrons according to the following equation
5
12
13
C + n(1/0) ___> C
4
6
6
The most important use of this product is for
A. producing very hot flames
B. making atom bombs
C. curing cancer
D. making artificial diamonds
9 E. a tracer element in chemistry
2950071 C
12 12167 32 03851486
5
226
Emission of an alpha particle from a
Ra nucleus yields
4
88
A. Th B. Ra C. Rn D. Po
94
90
88
86
84
2950072 B
15 44766 31
5
210
Emission of a beta particle from a
Pb nucleus yields
4
82
5
211
210
210
206
212
ETS2WVW
0003
A.
94
Pb
82
B.
Bi
83
C.
Tl
81
D.
Hg
80
E.
Pb
82
2970001 C
15 23445 31 05188001800312
The sun radiates a large amount of energy as a result of the union
of four hydrogen atoms to form the helium atom. The reason for this
release of energy is that
A. the hydrogen atoms are in a high state of thermal excitation
B. the coulomb forces of attraction between the nuclei of the
hydrogen atoms are large
C. the mass of the helium atom is less than the mass of the four
hydrogen atoms
D. large numbers of neutrons are released during the formation
of the helium atom
9 E. gamma rays released in this process have very high energy
ETS2WVW
2970002 D
14 23453 31 06090590800311
Cosmic rays are usually considered to be
A. by_products of some process of atomic creation
B. by_products of atomic annihilation
C. diffused radiation in space congealing into particles
of matter_electrons, atoms, and molecules
D. high_energy radiation coming from the far reaches
9
of interstellar space
ETS2WVW
2970003 D
15 23458 31 06090633800111
Cosmic rays may be audibly detected by
A. a fluorescent tube
B. the cyclotron
C. the oscilloscope
D. the geiger counter
9 E. the stroboscope
ETS2WVW
2970004 C
15 23461 32 05840196800111
In the underwater explosion of an atomic bomb at Bikini in 1946, a
fusion chain reaction of the hydrogen in the water did not occur
because
A. ocean water has enough salts in solution to absorb extra
neutrons
B. the possibility of a release of energy by fusion of hydrogen
was not known at that time
C. the temperature produced by the atomic bomb was too low to
initiate the reaction
D. the bomb was particularly designed to prevent a fusion
reaction
E. direct fusion of protons proceeds at a very slow rate even in
ETS2WVW
9
the interior of stars
2970005 C
15 23469 52
The mass spectrum in the parent molecular ion region of PBr , a
4
3
5
o
colorless liquid boiling at 173 C, shows four peaks at 268, 270,
272 and 274 amu. Assuming the existence of Br_79 and Br_81, what
are the isotopes of phosphorous and their relative abundance?
2
3
2
5
2
5
2
5
2
5
2
5
92
Isotopes
________
30
A. P
30
31
B. P and P
31
C. P
29
32
D. P and P
30
33
E. P and P
2WVW
Relative abundance
__________________
100% abundant
1:3
100% abundant
3:1
1:1
2970007 BD
25 44770 31 0656
1290
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions refer to the transmutation equation
5
13
2
X
1
C + H ___> N + n
04
6
1
7
0
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The bombarding particle is a(an)
A. positron
B. proton
C. deuteron
D. alpha particle
1 E. electron
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
The atomic weight, (X), of the nitrogen is
A. 21
B. 19
C. 14
D. 13
9 E. 12
ETS2WVW
2970008 BEA
ETS2WVW
35 23498
31
0656
1290
MACROITEM STEM
2The following question refer to the equation for a simple capture
2type of nuclear reaction
5
12
1
2
C + H ___> N
4
6
1
0 Using this information, answer the following questions.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The atomic number of the nitrogen produced would be
A. 5
B. 7
C. 8
D. 11
1 E. 13
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
The atomic weight of the nitrogen produced would be
A. 5
B. 7
C. 8
D. 11
2 E. 13
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
The carbon is being bombarded with a(an)
A. proton
B. deuteron
C. alpha particle
D. beta particle
9 E. neutron
2970009 B
15 23506 52 077307748003
One of the fusion reactions believed to take place during a
thermonuclear explosion is
5 6
2
4
Li + H = 2( He )
43
1
2
where the terminology used is "Z_symbol_mass" for each isotope.
Calculate the energy released for every two atoms of helium
formed by this reaction.
5
2
4
(Isotopic wt
H = 2.01410 amu, He = 4.00260 amu,
4
1
2
5 6
Li = 6.01513 amu; 1 amu = 931 mev)
43
A. 0.024 MEV
B. 22.4 MEV
2WVW
9
C. 27.3 MEV
D. 93 MEV
E. 400 MEV
2970010 B
15 23514 51 04070331
One of the reactions occurring on the sun is probably
5
238
1
237
A.
U ___> n +
U
4
92
0
92
5
1
2
3
B. H + D ___> He
4
1
1
2
5
4
4
8
C. He + He ___> Be
4
2
2
4
D. all of these
9 E. none of these
0020
2970011 E
15 23519 52 033903400847
56
1
4
Li + n ___> He + ______
43
0
2
A. deuterium B. beryllium C. H D. protons E. tritium
94
1
0020
2970012 D
15 23522 52 026305731222
5239
U ___> electron + #####
4 92
A. plutonium_240 B. uranium_238 C. thorium D. neptunium_239
9 E. plutonium_239
0020
2990001 D
15 23524 31 00690159800111
The term, "atomic energy," refers to energy obtained from
A. the electron clouds which surround atoms
B. reactions between two different atoms
C. endothermic chemical reactions
D. within the nucleus of the atom
9 E. electrons passing into different energy levels
ETS2WVW
2990002 C
15 23528 31 01590573800111
The energy released when uranium (238) atoms disintegrate
results from
A. the change of uranium into radium
B. the emission of high speed electrons
C. the conversion of matter to energy
ETS2WVW
9
D. the formation of the isotope u235
E. the emission of alpha particles
2990003 C
15 23532 32 00698001015911
Early in 1905, the possibility of an atomic bomb had been forecast
in the work of Dr. Albert Einstein. His suggestion was that
A. matter and energy were separate and distinct from one
another
B. while matter and energy were not entirely separate and
distinct, they could not be changed one into another
C. matter and energy were not separate and distinct and they
could be changed one into another
D. although energy could possibly be derived from matter,
the amount of energy that could possibly be SO derived
would be of little consequence
E. while matter and energy were both separate and distinct, it was
likely that energy could be converted into great quantities
9
of matter
ETS2WVW
2990004 E
15 23542 52 8003
In the fusion reaction
5
2
3
4
1
H + H ___> He + n
4
1
1
2
0
17.6 MEV of energy is released. Using the data given, calculate
2WVW
5
3
the mass of a tritium atom, H . (Note: the terminology used is
4
1
"Z_symbol_mass" for each species.)
5
1
2
(isotopic wt.
n = 1.00899 amu. H = 2.01410 amu,
4
0
1
5
4
He = 4.00260 amu; 1 amu = 931 MEV)
42
A. 2.60899 amu
B. 2.97947 amu
C. 2.99749 amu
D. 3.01286 amu
9 E. 3.01639 amu
2990005 D
15 23551 52 015906320642
Calculate the amount of energy in MEV liberated in the following
nuclear fission reaction, given the information below:
U_235 + neutron _____> Rb_91 + Cs_142 + 3 neutrons
0044
5
2
conversion factor for E = mc is 931 mev/amu
mass of neutron = 1.01 amu
mass of U_235 = 235.04
mass of Rb_91 = 90.91
mass of Cs_142 = 141.92
9 A. 39400 B. 0.00237 C. 763 D. 177 E. 1770
2990006 B
15 23557 52 051802860414
How many tons of carbon would have to be burned,
5
o
C + O (g) ____> CO (g)
/\H
= _393 kJ
4
2
2
__ reaction
0044
to generate as much heat as is generated when one pound of He_4 is
formed according to the following fusion reaction:
5
4
9
2
3
4
1
H + H _____> He + n + 17.6 meV
1
1
2
0
A. 5230 tons B. 6270 tons C. 11.5 tons
D. 49200 tons E. 434 tons.
2990007 A
15 23565 52 01590642
Calculate the amount of energy in mev liberated in the following
nuclear decay reaction, given the information below:
5
2
conversion factor for E = mc is 931 mev/amu
mass of proton = 1.00728 amu
mass of neutron = 1.00867
mass of electron = 0.00055
mass of Cl_36 = 35.96831
mass of Ar_36 = 35.96755
5
_
Cl_36 _____> Ar_36 + beta
9 A. 0.196 B. 0.000816 C. 3.16 D. 0.00118 E. 0.7080
2990008 C
15 23571
Einstein's equation says
A. E = mass x c
5
2
B. E = length x c
5
2
C. E = c x mass
5
2
31
036400310159
0044
0020
9
D. E = mass x c
E. none of these
2990009 A
15 23574 31 038503980031
When the units for c in m/s and for mass in kg are used when
solving Einstein equation problems, the energy units obtained are
A. joules
B. ergs
C. neutons
D. calories
9 E. dynes
0020
2990010 C
15 44651 51 16850587
The binding energy per nuclear particle is greatest for elements
of ______ mass number.
9 A. high B. low C. intermediate D. integral E. negative
0019
2990011 B
13 23579 31 16850587
The slope of the binding energy curve is steepest in the region
of ________mass number.
9 A. high B. low C. intermediate
0019
2990012 D
14 23581 52 015903640661
5
2
According to the Einstein relation (E = mc ), the energy
given off in a nuclear reaction in which the decrease in mass is
2.0 mg would be
5
21
20
A. 1.8 x 10 ergs B. 1.5 x 10 ergs
5
20
9 C. 9.0 x 10 ergs D. some other number
0009
2990013 B
14 23586 52 039803420159
5
4
6
10
The masses of He, Li and B are 4.0015, 6.0135 and 10.0102
4
2
3
5
amu, respectively. The splitting of a boron_10 nucleus to
helium_4 and lithium_6 would
A. evolve energy B. absorb energy
9 C. result in no energy change D. cannot say
0009
3100001 D
15 23590 31 00670068800112
"The properties of the elements are periodic functions of their
atomic weights" means that
A. in a given group certain properties recur at regular
intervals as the atomic weight increases
ETS2 OS
9
B. elements function periodically
C. the atomic weights of the elements, plotted against their
atomic numbers, give a wave_like curve
D. with progressive increase in atomic weight of the elements,
types of chemical behavior recur at regular intervals
E. in a collection of elements picked at random, one element
in eight will have a valence of one
3100002 D
15 23598 31 03370367800111
The modern form of the periodic law states that the properties of
the elements are a periodic function of their
A. atomic volume
B. ionization potential
C. atomic weight
D. atomic number
9 E. valence
ETS2 OS
3100003 E
15 23601 31 03698001800211
Elements that lose electrons from more than one electronic energy
level in ordinary chemical reactions are called the
A. alkali elements
B. alkaline earth elements
C. light elements
D. radioactive elements
9 E. transition elements
ETS2 OS
3100004 B
14 23605 31 037104638004
According to Mendeleev the chemical properties of elements are
periodic functions of their
A. atomic mass
B. atomic weight
C. atomic number
9 D. isotopic weight
2 OS
3100005 C
14 23608 31 018903628004
A vertical column of elements in the periodic table is known as a
(an)
A. octave
B. period
C. group
9 D. triad
2 OS
3110001 E
15 23610 31 03718001800211
Mendeleev
A. showed that there were fifteen rare earth elements
B. predicted the existence of the inert gases
ETS2 OS
9
C. proved that there were 92 elements
D. discovered the elements gallium, scandium and germanium
E. corrected the values of certain atomic weights
3110002 B
14 23614 31 018902658004
The grouping of elements according to the law of octaves is
credited to
A. Dobereiner
B. Newlands
C. Ramsay
9 D. Stras
2 OS
3110003 D
14 23616 31 037001890064
The periodic table of the elements does not
A. permit us to make accurate guesses of the properties of
undiscovered elements
B. reveal regularities in the occurrence of elements with
similar properties
C. include the inert gases
9 D. tell us the arrangement of the atoms in a molecule
0041
3110004 A
15 23621 31 01891366
Element 101 was named in honor of
A. Mendeleev
B. Mendel
C. Mendelevium
D. Mennin
9 E. none of these
0020
3110005 B
15 23623 52 14220065
Two members of a Dobereiner triad have atomic weights 40 and 137.
The third member of the triad should be of atomic weight_____.
9 A. 79 B. 87 C. 20 D. 115
0019
3110006 D
15 23626 31 136600670065
Mendeleev stated that the properties of the elements are periodic
functions of
A. their atomic number
B. the number of protons which they contain
C. their atomic radius
D. their atomic weight
9 E. the number of neutrons which they contain
0019
3110007 D
15 23630 31 036200670189
The modern form of the periodic table states that the properties
of the elements are a periodic function of their
0035
9
A. atomic volume B. atomic weight. C. ionization potential.
D. atomic number. E. valence.
3110008 A
15 23633 31 136600680189
Mendeleev based his periodic system of the elements on
A. the recurrence of similar chemical properties when the
elements were arranged in order of atomic weights
B. the ionization potential of the elements
C. the recurrence of similar chemical properties when the
elements were arranged in order of atomic number
D. theoretical arguments involving atomic structure
9 E. the nature of covalent and ionic bonds
0034
3120001 B
15 23639 32 072207238003
Which one of the following elements does not belong to
3
___
the family of elements indicated?
A. technetium (Tc)__transition metal
B. tellurium (Te)__rare earth metal
C. barium (Ba)__alkaline earth metal
D. francium (Fr)__alkali metal
9 E. fermium (Fm)__actinide
2WVW
3120002 A
14 23644 31
01890015
The most conspicuous distinction among the elements is their
division into
A. metals and nonmetals B. solids, liquids, and gases
9 C. atoms and molecules D. active and inactive elements
0041
3120003 B
14 23647 51
The number of nonmetals is
9 A. 2 B. 20 C. 60 D. 92
0041
13010028
3120004 B
14 23648 31 036714020337
According to the periodic law, the chemical properties of the
elements are periodic functions of their
9 A. density B. atomic number C. atomic mass D. mass number
3120005 D
14 23651 31
0370
The elements of the periodic chart are arranged in accordance
with their
A. atomic weight
C. electron number
9 B. electrical properties D. atomic number
3120006 C
15 23654 31 006701890989
The properties of the elements are a periodic function of
0041
0026
0020
their
A. isotopic composition
B. atomic mass
C. atomic number
D. total number of neutrons
9 E. none of these
3120007 A
15 23657 31 01890015
Most of the 104 elements are
9 A. metals B. gases C. liquids D. nonmetals E. none of these
0020
3120008 B
15 23659 31 037003370189
The modern periodic table is based on the
A. order of discovery of the elements
B. atomic numbers of the elements
C. atomic masses of the elements
D. size of the elements
9 E. electronegativity of the elements
0020
3120009 A
15 23662 31 079403620263
The vertical groups of the periodic chart consist of elements
that have the same number of
A. electrons in the outer shell.
B. electrons in the nucleus.
C. total electrons.
D. neutrons.
9 E. protons.
0035
3120010 B
14 23666 52 1945
The elements in the periodic table are in the order of increasing
A. atomic weight
B. atomic number
C. neutron number
9 D. mass number
3120011 CEBD
45 23668 31 019203510199 90
MACROITEM STEM
2For each of the numbered items which follow, choose the option
2which best matches.
2 A. Hydrate
2 B. Metaloid
2 C. Oxidizing agent
2 D. Triad
0 E. Kernel
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 A substance which takes up electrons during a chemical reaction
0056
2 OS
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 The portion of the atom excluding the valence elecctrons
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
An element having certain properties characteristic of a metal,
3 but which is generally classed as a nonmetal
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
A group of elements, the middle one of which has an atomic weight
which is approximately the same as the average of the atomic
9 weights of the other two elements
3121001 B
14 23676 31 03700820
Horizontal rows in the periodic table are usually called
9 A. groups B. periods C. shells D. subshells E. families
0041
3121002 D
14 23678 31 037001891445
Each horizontal row of the periodic table includes elements with
chemical characteristics that are, in general
A. identical B. similar C. different
9 D. sometimes similar and sometimes different
0041
3122001 B
14 23681 31 081200190344
The alkali metal which is naturally radioactive:
A. radium
B. francium
C. lithium
D. sodium
9 E. cesium
2 OS
3122002 A
12 23683 31 07940370
Vertical rows in the periodic table are usually called
9 A. groups B. periods C. shells D. subshells
0041
3122003 B
14 23685 31 037001891445
Each vertical row of the periodic table includes elements with
chemical characteristics that are, in general,
A. identical B. similar C. different
9 D. sometimes similar and sometimes different
0041
3122004 D
15 23688 31 037001890794
In the periodic table, elements that have a similar arrangement
of electrons are grouped together in vertical columns called
A. transition elements
B. periods
C. actinides
D. periodic groups
9 E. clusters
0020
3123001 C
14 23692 31 036908448003
An example of a transition element is
A. aluminum
B. astatine
C. nickel
9 D. rubidium
2WVW
3123002 D
14 23694 31 036201898004
In the periodic table, the percentage of elements generally
regarded as metals is closest to which one of the following?
A. 20
B. 35
C. 55
9 D. 75
2WVW
3123003 C
14 23697 31 80038004
An element in the same chemical family as potassium is
A. copper
B. helium
C. lithium
9 D. zinc
2WVW
3123004 B
14 23699 31 03620722
05
Elements which are the most metallic are found in what
general area of the periodic table?
A. lower right C. upper right
9 B. lower left D. upper left
3124001 A
14 23702 31 03620722
05
Elements which are the most nonmetallic are found in what
general area of the periodic table?
A. upper right C. upper left
9 B. lower right D. lower left
3210001 C
15 23705 51 03620351800112
In the periodic table of elements, there occurs immediately
after each inert gas one of the chemically very active alkali
metals. This sequence is due, according to the Bohr theory, to
A. a sudden increase in the nuclear charge, between the inert gas
and the metal
B. a sudden increase in atomic weight, owing to the high energy
of the nuclei of metallic elements
C. a sudden increase in the radius of the atom, leaving the
outermost electron relatively loosely bound in the metallic
atom
ETS2 OS
9
D. a sudden change in the quantum numbers of the atom
E. a sudden increase in the ionization energy, between the inert
gas and the metal
3210002 D
15 23714 32 03700374800111
A series of elements in the periodic chart has atomic numbers
10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17. A correct statement about this
series is that
A. the valence is constant for the series
B. they are all metals
C. the valence steadily decreases from left to right
D. each element belongs to a different group
9 E. the activity steadily increases from left to right
ETS2 OS
3210003 EBCDDA 65 23719 32 03801138
MACROITEM STEM
2The diagrams below symbolize the electron configurations of the
2atoms of four different elements. The symbol (n) represents the
2nucleus, and the number in front of each right parenthesis
2represents the number of electrons contained in each shell. To
2answer the following questions, mark the letter of the diagram
2which best represents the element described. If none applies,
2mark space E.
2A. (n) 2) 1)
2B. (n) 2) 4)
2C. (n) 2) 6)
2D. (n) 2) 8)
0 E. none of the above
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 Cannot be converted to a gas without decomposing
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 Will lose or gain electrons with almost equal ease
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 Oxidizes other substances readily
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
4 Has the highest atomic number
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
5 Least apt to form compounds
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
9 The best reducing agent
ETS2 OS
3210004 CDAB
45 23729 32 0045001280011290
MACROITEM STEM
2The diagrams below symbolize the electron configurations of the
2atoms of four different elements. The symbol (n) represents the
2nucleus, and number in front of each right parenthesis represents
ETS2 OS
2the number of electrons contained in each shell. To answer the
2following questions, mark the letter of the diagram which best
2represents the element described. If none applies, mark space E.
A. (n) 2) 1)
B. (n) 2) 4)
C. (n) 2) 6)
D. (n) 2) 8)
0 E. none of the above
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 Oxidizes other substances readily
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 Chemically inactive
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 A very good reducing agent
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
9 Shows a great tendency to form compounds by sharing electrons
3210005 BEDBD
55 23738 52 0337001980011290
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions refer to the diagram of the chemical
2reaction shown below.
2
1
2
3
4
2(4P, 5n) 2) 2) + (8p, 8n) 2) 6) ___> (_p, _n) 2) + (_p, _n) 2) 8)
02
Be
O
Beo
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
The atomic number of number 1 is
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
1 E. 9
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
Number 4 in the diagram is
A. an atom of the free element
B. a compound
C. a charged particle
D. a gas
2 E. a radical
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
Number 3 in the diagram
A. has the same chemical properties as number 1
B. is sharing electrons with number 4
C. is an oxidizing agent
D. is in an ionized state
3 E. has been reduced
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
ETS2 OS
The number of protons and neutrons in number 4 is respectively
A. 9p, 8n
B. 8p, 8n
C. 8p, 9n
D. 9p, 9n
4 E. 7p, 9n
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
Number 1 in the diagram
A. acquires a negative valency in chemical reaction
B. is an oxidizing agent
C. decreases the valence of number 2 in chemical reaction
D. is non_metallic in character
9 E. is bi_valent in its compounds
3210006 CACCBDDE 85 23752 31 0338800102371290
MACROITEM STEM
2After each item number on the answer sheet, blacken space
2 A. if the item is true of the element of electron structure 2_4
2 B. if the item is true of the element of electron structure 2_8
2 C. if the item is true of the element of electron structure 2_8_2
2 D. if the item is true of the element of electron structure 2_8_7
0 E. if the item is true of none of the above elements
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 The valence of this element is +2.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 this element is found in all carbohydrates.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 This element is one of the metals.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
4 This element forms an ionic compound with chlorine.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
5 This element forms no compounds.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
6 This element is the most active of the non_metals listed.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
7 The atoms of this element gain electrons easily.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 8
This element belongs in the same group in the periodic table as
9 sodium.
ETS2 OS
3210007 CDCDAEC 75 23762 32 0338001903421290
MACROITEM STEM
2After each item number on the answer sheet, blacken space
2 A. if the item is true of the element of electron structure 2_4
2 B. if the item is true of the element of electron structure 2_8
2 C. if the item is true of the element of electron structure 2_8_2
ETS2 OS
2 D. if the item is true of the element of electron structure 2_8_7
0 E. if the item is true of none of the above elements
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 The atom of this element has 12 electrons outside its nucleus.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 This element belongs in the seventh group in the periodic table.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 The atoms of this element form positive ions.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
4 This element forms an ionic compound with sodium.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
If we let X represent the symbol of this element, the formula of
Its chlorine compound is XCl .
54
4
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
If we let Y represent the symbol of this element, the formula of
its sodium compound is Na Y.
64
2
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
If we let Z represent the symbol of this element, the formula
9
of its oxygen compound is ZO.
3210008 CEDBDACE 85 23775 32 0347033803481290
MACROITEM STEM
2After each item number on the answer sheet, blacken space
2 A. if the item is true of an atom of orbital electron structure
2
2,2
2 B. if the item is true of an atom of orbital electron structure
2
2,4
2 C. if the item is true of an atom of orbital electron structure
2
2,8
2 D. if the item is true of an atom of orbital electron structure
2
2,8,7
2 E. if the item is true of an atom of orbital electron structure
0
2,8,8,1
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 Of the elements listed, it is the most non_reactive.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 Of the metals listed, it is the most reactive.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 Of the non_metals listed, it is the most reactive.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
4 It forms many compounds by electron_sharing.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
5 It will form a negative monatomic ion.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
ETS2 OS
6 It will form an ion of the type x++
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
7 it most resembles argon in its properties.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 8
9 It is in the same group in the periodic table as sodium.
3210009 CBCDCBE 75 23786 52
1290
MACROITEM STEM
2To answer the following questions, refer to the list below
5
24
2 A.
Mg
4
12
5
32
2 B.
S
4
16
5
23
2 C.
Na
4
11
5
35
2 D.
Cl
4
17
5
63
2 E.
Cu
04
29
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 This atom would lose one electron when it combined with a non_metal.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 This atom would gain two electrons when it united with a metal.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
The oxide of this element will form the strongest base when
3 dissolved in water.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
Through gain of one electron, an atom of this element forms the
4 negative ion of a strong acid when dissolved in water.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
5 This element would be highest in an activity list of metals.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
6 Oxygen acids of this element are used in ordinary storage batteries.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
9 This element would not replace hydrogen from acids.
3210010 C
15 23796 32 04070604800113
An element with the electronic structure 2, 8, 1 will react
with an element the electronic structure of which is 2,8,7 to
form a substance which, at room temperature is
A. a gas
ETS2 OS
ETS2 OS
9
B. a liquid
C. a crystalline solid
D. an acid
E. a covalent compound
3210011 D
15 23800 51 03510263800111
If an atom has one or two electrons in the outer electron orbital,
it will have the greatest tendency to
A. gain enough electrons to form eight
B. change some electrons from inner shells to the outer shell
C. take electrons from the nucleus and put them in the outer shell
D. lose electrons from the outer shell
9 E. gain electrons from the outer orbital into the nucleus
ETS2 OS
3210012 D
15 23806 51 01920337800112
In chemical combination, a substance with atomic number 12 should
acquire a valence of
A. _1
B. +1
C. _2
D. +2
9 E. none of these
ETS2 OS
3210013 C
15 23809 32 05670189800111
The rare earths
A. are a group of elements whose chemical behavior is
very similar because all have eight electrons in the
outside shell
B. are a series of elements which combine with no other elements
C. are a series of elements whose chemical similarity is due
to the fact that the two outermost electron shells are
identical
D. are a group of elements with the same atomic number
E. are a number of sparsely distributed miners, whose
9
constituent elements are not yet known
ETS2 OS
3210014 E
15 23816 31 8003
Which of the following elements does not belong to the family of
elements indicated?
A. samarium (Sm) = lanthanide
B. curium (Cm) = actinide
C. iridium (Ir) = transition metal
D. thallium (Tl) = representative element
9 E. iodine (i) = chalcogen
2WVW
3210015 D
ETS2 OS
15 23820
51
01920337800112
In chemical combination, a substance with atomic number 12 should
acquire a valence of
A. _1
B. +1
C. _2
D. +2
9 E. none of these
3210016 D
14 23823 31 80038004
A metal may have an atomic number of
A. 9
B. 18
C. 35
9 D. 37
3210017 D
14 23825 32 035103468004
The atom whose outermost shell structure most closely resembles
that of neon has the atomic number
A. 11
B. 2
C. 16
9 D. 18
2WVW
2 OS
3210018 A
14 23827 32 035100028004
An atom in the fourth series whose outermost structure most
closely resembles that of sodium has the atomic number
A. 19
B. 20
C. 21
9 D. 22
2 OS
3210019 C
14 23830 31 018903378004
The element having atomic number 9 most closely resembles, in
physical and chemical properties, the element having atomic
number
A. 10
B. 11
C. 17
9 D. 35
2 OS
3210020 A
15 23833 32 07308003
Which one of the following sets of ions or atoms are
isoelectronic?
(1) B, C, N, O, F, Ne
(2) H(+1), He(+2), Li(+3)
(3) Ne, Ar, Kr, Xe
(4) K(+1), Ca(+2), Sc(+3), Ti(+4)
2WVW
(5) Na(+1), Mg(+2), Al(+3), Sr(+2)
A. (2) and (4)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2), (4), and (5)
D. all of them
9 E. none of them
3210021 D
15 23838 31 1 072303389001
95
The following question refers to the periodic table, Figure 1.
Which one of the following elements does not have an exactly
half_filled electronic subshell in its ground state electronic
3
________
configuration?
A. lithium
B. nitrogen
C. chromium
D. iodine
9 E. antimony
3210022 E
15 23843 32 03628003
Which one of the following classifications, based on the ground
state electronic configurations of the elements is incorrect?
3
_________
5
1
note: (Ne)3s means neon core plus one electron in the 3s orbital
5
1
A. (Ne) 3s ; alkali metal
5
2 3
B. (Ne) 3s 3p ; nonmetal
5
2 10 5
C. (Ar) 4s 3d 4p ; halogen
5
2 1
D. (Kr) 5s 4d ; transition metal
5
2 10 1
9 E. (Kr) 5s 4d 6s ; noble gas
2WVW
2WVW
3210023 A
14 23851 31 140203510337
The chemical properties of an atom are determined by its
A. atomic number B. mass number
9 C. number of isotopes D. binding energy
0041
3210024 A
14 23853 31 002809430015
The nonmetal whose chemical behavior is most like that of
typical metals is
9 A. hydrogen B. helium C. chlorine D. carbon
0041
3210025 C
14 23855 51 026303400909
The two electrons in a helium atom
A. occupy different shells
B. occupy different subshells of the same shell
C. have different spin quantum numbers
9 D. have the same spin quantum number
3210026 B
14 23858 31 1433
0351
An important factor in determining the chemical behavior of
an atom is its
A. nuclear structure B. electron structure
9 C. atomic weight
D. solubility
3210027 B
14 23861 31 035103500014
In its ability to link atoms together, silicon resembles
9 A. oxygen B. carbon C. sulfur D. iron
0041
0041
0041
3210028 C
15 23863 52 018900710885
Element no. 19 is more active than element no. 11 because
element no. 19
A. is a metalloid B. is a metal
C. has its valence electron farther from the nucleus
D. has its valence electron nearer the nucleus
9 E. forms a larger ion.
0042
3210029 B
15 23867 52 033800991370
Which of the electron configurations for the following neutral
atoms would you expect to have the lowest ionization potential?
5
2
2
6
2
A. 1s , 2s , 2p , 3s ,
5
2
2
6
1
B. 1s , 2s , 2p , 3s ,
5
2
2
6
C. 1s , 2s , 2p ,
5
2
2
6
2
6
D. 1s , 2s , 2p , 3s , 3p ,
5
2
2
3
9 E. 1s , 2s , 2p .
0042
3210030 E
15 23872 31 09090362
The principle quantum number in period V of the periodic table
is:
9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 6 E. 5
3210031 D
14 23874 51 036903510263
A transition_element atom (gaseous) whose 4s subshell contains
but one electron is:
0042
0043
9
A. Sc (Z = 21) B. Mn (Z = 25)
C. Fe (Z = 26) D. Cu (Z = 29).
3210032 B
14 23877 51 00350369
The highest oxidation state exhibited by any of the transition
metals is:
9 A. +6 B. +8 C. +10 D. +12.
0043
3210033 B
14 23879 31 003514480002
Sodium is not ordinarily observed in the +2 oxidation state
because of its:
A. high first ionization potential
B. high second oxidation potential
9 C. high ionic radius D. high electronegativity.
0043
3210034 B
14 23882 52 11780730002351
The most stable ion of magnesium is isoelectronic with the
A. sodium atom B. most stable ion of fluorine C. argon atom
9 D. magnesium atom.
9000
3210035 A
15 23884 52 02930730002551
The molecule O is isoelectronic with
4
2
5
_
A. formaldehyde, CH O B. cyanide ion, CN
4
2
C. nitrogen, N D. hydrogen peroxide, H O E. methanol, CH OH
94
2
22
3
9000
3210036 A
14 23888 52 01890338082051
The element in period 4, group 5a, has the outer electron
configuration
5
2 3
2 4
2 5
2 5
9 A. 4s 4p B. 5s 5p C. 5s 5p D. 4s 4p
9000
3210037 C
14 23891 31 03510338090051
5
2
If an atom has a valence shell electron configuration of ns one
may conclude that the element is a
A. transition metal B. rare earth
9 C. alkaline earth D. alkali metal
9000
3210038 A
15 23895 31 035404510189
Which of the following elements does not exist in diatomic form?
9 A. argon B. oxygen C. fluorine D. nitrogen E. hydrogen
0018
3210039 D
15 23897 31 140202630338
The chemical properties of an element are very much related to
A. the number of neutrons in the atom
B. the number of neutrons and protons in the atom
C. the number and arrangement of protons in the atom
D. the number and arrangement of electrons in the atom
9 E. both C and D.
0040
3210040 C
15 23901 31 026303540338
Which group represents species that contain the same number of
electrons?
5
_
+
A. F, Ne, Na
C. Cl , Ar, K
E. both A and B
5
2_ 2_
2_
9 B. Mg, Al, Si
D. O , S , Se
0040
3210041 A
15 23905 31 088503380025
What are the valence electrons in an element with the following
5
2 2 4
electronic configuration: 1s 2s 2p ?
5
2 4
4
2
2 6
A. 2s 2p B. 2p C. 2p D. 2s 2p
9 E. all are valence electrons.
0040
3210042 C
15 23909 51 036200640003
In the periodic table there occurs immediately after each inert
gas one of the chemically very active alkali metals according to
the Bohr theory. This sequence is due to
A. a sudden increase in the nuclear charge, between the inert
gas and the metal.
B. a sudden increase in atomic weight, owing to the high energy
of the nuclei of metallic elements.
C. a sudden increase in the radius of the atom, leaving the
outermost electron relatively loosely bound.
D. a sudden charge in the quantum nos.
E. a sudden increase in the ionization energy, between the
9
inert gas and the metal.
0035
3210043 D
14 23918 32 018902630351
The imaginary element D has one electron in its outer shell. E
has 3; G has 5; L has 7. Which atom will show the least metallic
3
_____
character?
9 A. D B. E C. G D. L
0038
3210044 A
14 23922
52
19470339
0058
Which atom does not contain a principal quantum shell of 8 elec_
trons?
9 A. Li B. Na C. Cs D. Fr
3210045 D
14 23924 52 194903390211
The Li compound analogous to Mg N is:
4
32
A. Li N
B. Li N
C. LiN
D. Li N
94
32
23
3
3
3220001 BDAEC
55 23927 52 1 033703779001129095
MACROITEM STEM
2The numbers in the modern periodic table given (Figure 1) are
2the atomic numbers of the elements. After each exercise number
2on the answer sheet, blacken the one lettered space which designates
3
___
2the correct answer. (The numbers given in the listed answers are
2the atomic numbers of certain elements.)
2 A. 93, 94, 95, 96
2 B. elements of group Ia
2 C. elements of group VIIa
2 D. 2, 10, 18, 36, and 54
0 E. 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, and 17
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
in this sequence of elements, the larger the atomic number, the
1 greater the tendency to lose electrons.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 All of the elements in this sequence are inert.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
All of these elements have been synthesized and none occur in
3 nature.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
Electrons in the outermost energy level increase from one to as
4 many elements as are listed in the answer.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
In this sequence of elements, the smaller the atomic number, the
9 greater the tendency to gain electrons.
0060
3220002 BEADC
55 23939 52 1 80029001
129095
MACROITEM STEM
2The numbers in the modern periodic table given (Figure 1) are the
2atomic numbers of the elements. After each exercise number on
2the answer sheet, blacken the one lettered space which designates
3
___
2the correct answer. (The numbers given in the listed answers are
2the atomic numbers of certain elements.)
2 A. 26, 27, 28, 42, and 78
ETS2 OS
ETS2 OS
2
2
2
0
B. elements in groups ia and IIa
C. 6, 14, 12, and 20
D. 13, 31, 49, and 81
E. 6, 7, 16, and 17
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 in general, the hydroxides of these elements are strong bases.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
These elements form the negative ions, or part of the negative
2 ions, of certain acids widely used in industry.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
These elements are some of the ductile heavy metals of industrial
3 importance.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
In these elements the number of electron orbits are respectively,
4 3, 4, 5, and 6.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
one of these elements is a constituent of all plant and animal
9 tissue while the others are major constituents of various rocks.
3220003 A
15 23952 52 00670189800111
Which of the following is most important in predicting the chemical
properties of a given element?
A. the number of protons in the nucleus
B. the number of neutrons in the nucleus
C. the sum of the protons and neutrons in the nucleus
D. the charge on its ion
9 E. the number of electron energy levels in the atom
ETS2 OS
3220004 E
15 23957 52 03490337800112
Beryllium has an atomic number of 4. Its valence should be
A. 3
B. _2
C. 1
D. _1
9 E. none of these
ETS2 OS
3220005 B
15 23959 31 00200014800111
Both positive and negative valences can be acquired by
A. neon, atomic number 10
B. carbon, atomic number 6
C. oxygen, atomic number 8
D. sodium, atomic number 11
9 E. magnesium, atomic number 12
ETS2 OS
3220006 A
Silicon
15 23962
51
03500578
ETS2 OS
9
A. has four valence electrons in the atom
B. forms long chains by linking silicon atom to silicon atom,
as does carbon
C. forms a basic oxide
D. is found in the free condition in nature
E. when fused, forms a glass of high transparency
3220007 B
15 23966 31 072207238003
Which one of the following elements does not belong to the
3
___
family of elements indicated?
A. samarium (Sm)__lanthanide
B. curium (Cm)__alkaline earth metal
C. iridium (Ir)__transition metal
D. thallium (Tl)__representative element
9 E. iodine (i)__halogen
2WVW
3220008 A
15 23971 31 8003
Which one of the following elements would you expect to have the
greatest affinity for an electron?
A. bromine
B. gallium
C. arsenic
D. selenium
9 E. potassium
2WVW
3220009 E
15 23974 31 8003
Which one of the following elements would you expect to have the
least affinity for an electron?
3_____
A. bromine
B. gallium
C. arsenic
D. selenium
9 E. potassium
2WVW
3220010 DA
25 23977 51 8003
90
MACROITEM STEM
2To answer the following questions, use the key below.
2 A. S(_2)
2 B. Mn(+7)
C. Ti(+4)
D. P(_3)
02 E. Sc(+3)
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
Which one of the ions would you expect to have the largest atomic
2WVW
3
1 radius?
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
9 Which would have the second largest?
_______
3220011 B
14 23981 32 000404388004
The halogen which is a liquid at room temperature
A. iodine
B. bromine
C. fluorine
9 D. chorine
2 OS
3220012 B
14 23983 31 018903398004
Of all the common elements, the most active reducing agent is
A. sodium
B. lithium
C. fluorine
9 D. oxygen
2 OS
3220013 B
14 23985 32 006601898004
The least stable compounds are usually
A. combinations of the most active elements
B. combinations of the least active elements
C. the products of exothermic reactions
9 D. the ones most abundant in the earth"s crust
2 OS
3220014 B
15 23989 31 00020015
Which of the following would be classified as a metal?
9 A. nitrogen B. sodium C. phosphorus D. neon E. fluorine
0018
3220015 E
15 45410 51
All of the following are periodic functions of atomic number EXCEPT:
A. density
D. boiling point
B. electronegativity E. number of electrons in the neutral atom
9 C. atomic radius
3221001 C
15 23991 52 1 0062002890011195
The following question refers to the periodic table, Figure 1.
If a diagonal line is drawn from the upper left hand corner to the
lower right in the periodic table, elements will be found along
the line
A. of the same valence
B. which in oxide form produce only acids in solution
C. which have both metallic and non_metallic properties
D. which will include the most active metal
9 E. with similar properties
ETS2 OS
3221002 BAECCDC 75 23997 31 1 002800619001129095
MACROITEM STEM
2The following items refer to the horizontal series in the periodic
2table (Figure 1). Select from the key the most appropriate
2description for each item.
2
Key
2 A. This member is a typical non_metal.
2 B. This member is a typical base former and reducing agent.
2 C. Decrease in metallic character
2 D. Increase in metallic character
0 E. Not descriptive of any of the above
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 The element in series 2, group 1
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 The element in series 1, group 7
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 The element in series 2, group 4
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
4 Proceeding from Bi to C vertically
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
5 Proceeding from K to Ti
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
6 Proceeding from S to Al
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
9 Proceeding from P to Cl
ETS2 OS
3221003 ECABEDD 75 24006 31 1 0063001500071290
MACROITEM STEM
2The following items concern elements in the periodic table
2(Figure 1). Select from the key the most appropriate response for
2each item.
2
Key
2 A. Outer shell contains eight key electrons
2 B. A metal which will float on water
2 C. An oxidizing agent
2 D. A high specific gravity
0 E. Shares electrons and combines with itself
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 Silicon
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 Iodine
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 Neon
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
4 Lithium
ETS2 OS
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
5 Carbon
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
6 Platinum
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
9 Manganese
3221004 ECDC
45 24012 51 1 037503769001119095
MACROITEM STEM
2The following refer to the periodic table (Figure 1). For each
2question select the correct response.
2 A. Left to right
2 B. Right to left
2 C. Top to bottom
2 D. Bottom to top
0 E. Two of these
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 Chemical activity decreases but valence remains constant.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 Metallic character increases but valence remains constant
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 Oxidizing power increases but valence remains constant
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
9 The number of electronic shells increases
3221005 ABBBABDC 84 24018 31 0015002880011290
MACROITEM STEM
2After each item number on the answer sheet, blacken space
2 A. if the item is true of metals
2 B. if the item is true of non_metals
2 C. if the item is true of both metals and non_metals
0 D. if the item is true of neither metals nor non_metals
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 Are good conductors of heat and electricity
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 Combine readily with elements of group I of the periodic table
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 Many are gases or low_melting solids
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
4 The halogens are examples
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
5 Their oxides in water form basic solutions
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
6 Are frequently good electron acceptors or oxidizing agents
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
7 Are chemically inert and form no compounds
ETS2 OS
ETS2 OS
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 8
9 Combine chemically with oxygen to form oxides
3221006 CABDED 65 24027 52 1 019603819003129095
MACROITEM STEM
2Figure 3 represents, in skeleton form, the periodic table.
2Certain columns of the table are labeled A, B, C, and D. The
2letter E designates the location of elements of atomic numbers
288_96. After the number on the answer sheet corresponding to that
2of each statement, blacken the one lettered space indicating the
0 location in the table to which the statement correctly refers.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
Elements near the top of this column share electrons when forming
1 compounds.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
With one exception, the outer shells of the atoms of these elements
2 always contain eight electrons.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 All of the elements of this column are classified as metals.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
The great chemical activity of the element at the top of this
column when reacting with metals is attributed to its relatively
4 small atomic radius.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
Most of the naturally occuring radioactive elements are found in
5 this location.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
Near the top of this column are elements which gain electrons most
9 readily.
ETS2 OS
3221007 ACDBAA 65 24040 52 1 000403829002129095
MACROITEM STEM
2Figure 2 represents an outline of the periodic table. After the
2item number on the answer sheet, blacken the one lettered space
3
___
2which designates the position in the table to which the item
0 correctly refers.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
An element from this column is used in dirigibles because of its
1 lightness and non_inflammability.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
An element of this column is found in all organic compounds, while
another element in the same column is found in combination in
2 numerous rocks.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 The halogens are located in this column.
ETS2 OS
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
The elements near the bottom of this column lose electrons most
4 readily.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
One of the elements in this column was discovered to be present in
5 the atmosphere of the sun, before it was discovered on earth.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
An element whose single outer electron is at the greatest distance
from the nucleus of the atom is located at the bottom of this
9 column.
3221008 BBEDADC 75 24052 52 80018002
1290
MACROITEM STEM
2The following questions refer to part of the periodic table
2
series
2
0
I II III IV
V VI VII
VIII
3________________________________________________
21
H
22 He Li Be
B
C
N
O
F
23 Ne Na Mg Al Si
P
S Cl
24 Ar
K Ca Sc Ti
V Cr Mn Fe CO Ni
2for each question select from the key the group in which the
2element lies.
2 A. Group I
2 B. Group II
2 C. Group III
2 D. Group IV
0 E. Group V
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 The carbonate of this element is found in marine fossils.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 An element forming compounds by gaining 2 electrons.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 The most active non_metal listed.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
4 The fused oxide of this element transmits ultra_violet.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
5 An element forming compounds by losing 1 electron.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
An element usually combustible but not in its purest form.
63
___
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
9 An oxide of this element is a well known laboratory catalyst.
3221009 ABBCABDC 84 24064
MACROITEM STEM
32
0015002880011190
ETS2 OS
ETS2 OS
2The following questions are to be answered according to the key
2below.
2 A. The item is true for metals.
2 B. The item is true for non_metals.
2 C. The item is true for both metals and non_metals.
0 D. The item is true for neither metals nor non_metals.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 Good conductors of heat and electricity
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 Combine readily with elements of group I of the periodic table.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 Many are gases or low_melting solids.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
4 Many have variable valence.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
5 Their oxides in water form basic solutions.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
6 Frequently good electron acceptors or oxidizing agents.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 7
7 Chemically inert and form NO compounds.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 8
9 Combine chemically with oxygen to form oxides.
3221010 C
15 24073 31 00150028800111
Which of the following statements states correctly a characteristic
distinction between metals and nonmetals?
A. Metals are high in melting point and density whereas
nonmetals are not.
B. Nonmetals are either gases or solids whereas all metals are
liquids above their melting points
C. Nonmetals usually exert a stronger attraction for electrons
than do metals
D. Metals are fewer in number than nonmetals
9 E. Nonmetals form covalent bonds whereas metals form ionic bonds
ETS2 OS
3221011 C
15 24080 32 05590015800111
During chemical combinations metallic atoms always
A. become larger
B. gain electrons
C. lose electrons
D. lose kinetic energy
9 E. gain kinetic energy
ETS2 OS
3221012 D
14 24083 32 033900048004
Lithium readily reacts with all of the following except
A. oxygen
2 OS
9
B. water
C. the halogens
D. helium
3221013 C
14 24085 32 018900028004
The element which unites most vigorously with sodium is
A. bromine
B. chlorine
C. fluorine
9 D. iodine
2 OS
3221014 C
15 24087 31 033809171362
What common feature characterizes the electronic configuration of
elements 21, 27, 40, and 43?
A. They all have only one electron in a subshell.
B. They all have a filled 5s subshell.
C. They all have a partially filled d subshell.
D. They all have a partially filled p subshell.
9 E. Both B and C.
0040
3221015 E
15 24092 31 019201040852
Which of the following substances is a good electrical conductor?
A. sulfur B. diamond C. black phosphorus
9 D. ozone E. graphite
0034
3221016 D
14 24094 52 19470845
Which oxide is amphoteric?
A. CO
B. SO
C. CaO D. ZnO
94
2
2
3222001 A
15 24096 32 80018002
13
Judging by the implications of the periodic table, one can validly
infer that there might exist a compound with molecular composition
A. MgCl
4
2
B. HeO
4
2
C. Al Sn
4
3 2
D. CO
4
5
9 E. CaF
3222002 D
15 24100 51 80010253003211
Aluminum
A. in a finely powdered state is a powerful oxidizing agent
0058
ETS2 OS
ETS2 OS
9
B. dissolves in mineral acids but not in alkaline solution
C. was one of the first metals to be produced on a large scale
D. is a better electrical conductor than copper, weight for
weight
E. is used for the casing of incendiary bombs
3222003 ECBAD
55 24105 52 1 9001
129095
MACROITEM STEM
2The numbers in the modern periodic table given (Figure 1) are the
2atomic numbers of the elements. After each exercise number on the
2answer sheet, blacken the one lettered space which designates the
3
___
2correct answer. (The numbers given in the listed answers are the
2atomic numbers of certain elements.)
2 A. 6, 14, 12, and 20.
2 B. 6, 7, 16, and 17
2 C. 9, 17, 35, 53, and 85
2 D. elements in the b sub_groups
0 E. elements in groups Ia and IIa
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
When These elements form ions, through loss of one or more
electrons, the ions have structures similar to the atoms of the
1 inert gases.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 These elements are often referred to as the "halogens."
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
these elements form the negative ions, or part of the negative
3 ions, of certain common acids.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
One of these elements is a constituent of all plant and animal
tissue while the other elements are major constituents of various
4 rocks.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
Some of these metallic elements are used in producing important
9 steel alloys.
ETS2 OS
3222004 E
15 24118 31 00158001026311
During chemical combinations, metallic atoms always
A. undergo nuclear changes
B. gain electrons
C. lose kinetic energy
D. become larger
9 E. lose electrons
ETS2 OS
3222005 A
15 24121 31 00200189800111
An element with a positive valence of 2 is
ETS2 OS
3
9
________
A. calcium
B. silver
C. aluminum
D. suphur
E. oxygen
3222006 CEADB
55 24123 52 1 026303789001129095
MACROITEM STEM
2The numbers in the modern periodic table given (Figure 1) are the
2atomic numbers of the elements. After each exercise number on the
answer sheet, blacken the one lettered space which designates the
3
___
2correct answer. (The numbers given in the listed answers are the
2atomic numbers of certain elements.)
2 A. 93, 94, 95, and 96
2 B. elements in group VIIa
2 C. 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9
2 D. elements in group Ia
0 E. elements in group O
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 Electrons in the second energy level increase from one to seven.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
All of these elements with one exception contain 8 electrons in
2 their outermost energy levels.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
All of these elements have been synthesized rather than found in
3 natural sources.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
In this sequence of elements, the larger the atomic number the
3
______
4 greater the tendency to lose electrons.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
In this sequence of elements, the smaller the atomic number the
3
_______
9 greater the tendency to gain electrons.
ETS2 OS
3222007 DBEAC
55 24137 52 1 037900289001129095
MACROITEM STEM
2The numbers in the modern periodic table given (Figure 1) are the
2atomic numbers of the elements. After each exercise number on the
2answer sheet, blacken the one lettered space shich designates
3
___
2the correct answer. (The numbers given in the listed answers are
2the atomic numbers of certain elements.)
2 A. 88, 89, 90, 91, and 92
ETS2 OS
2
2
2
0
B. 3, 11, 12, 19, 20, and 56
C. elements in group IIa
D. 6, 7, 8, 14, 16, 18, and 53
E. 26, 27, 28, 42, and 78
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 These elements are some of the nonmetals.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
These elements, from different groups, are some of the light
2 metals.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 These elements are some of the ductile heavy metals.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
4 These are naturally radioactive elements.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
The numbers of energy levels of these elements are successively
3
_____________
9 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7
3222008 B
14 24148 31 80048003
Which physical property is common to most metals?
A. Low melting point
B. Luster
C. Reactions with acids
9 D. Yellow color
2WVW
3222009 D
14 24150 31 001501968004
A metal which liberates hydrogen from water so vigorously that
the hydrogen ignites is
A. calcium
B. magnesium
C. sodium
9 D. potassium
2 OS
3222010 A
14 24153 31 019600568004
Hydrogen may be produced from sulfuric acid by
A. replacement with a metal
B. replacement with a nonmetal
C. evaporation
9 D. catalysis
2 OS
3222011 B
14 24156 31 007304328004
The member of the calcium family with the highest melting and
boiling point is
A. calcium
B. beryllium
C. magnesium
2 OS
9
D. barium
3222012 B
14 24158 31 001503448004
A metal which is generally stored under kerosene is
A. calcium
B. potassium
C. barium
9 D. aluminum
2 OS
3222013 A
14 24160 31 000800198004
Hard water is due to the presence of any of the following ions
except
A. sodium
B. calcium
C. magnesium
9 D. iron
2 OS
3222014 D
14 24162 31 046304078004
In a chemical reaction, metals generally
A. act as oxidizing agents
B. share electrons
C. donate protons
9 D. acquire positive oxidation numbers
2 OS
3222015 B
14 24165 31 144500670015
An important characteristic property of metals is
A. their hardness
B. their ability to conduct electricity readily
C. their ability to form oxides
9 D. the stability of their compounds
0041
3222016 B
14 24168 31 006213171367
The metallic luster exhibited by sodium is explained by the
presence of:
5
+
A. Na ions B. conduction electrons
9 C. free protons D. a body_centered cubic lattice.
0043
3222017 D
14 24171 31 027003620723
The 19th element has chemical properties like which element?
9 A. 10th B. 18th C. 15th D. 11th.
3222020 E
15 24173 32 019213170315
Substances that typically have a particular luster, are good
conductors of electricity, and can be melted are called
A. elements
B. isotopes
0026
0020
9
C. diatomic molecules
D. nonmetals
E. metals
3222021 C
14 24176 31 00150263
A metal
A. usually has more protons than neutrons
B. combines readily with hydrogen
C. readily gives up electrons
9 D. readily accepts electrons
3222022 E
15 24179 32 0015
Which is the most strongly metallic?
A. C B. Si C. Ge D. Sn E. Pb
94
6
14
32
50
82
3222023 C
15 24181 32 01890015
Which of the following elements would most likely be a metal?
9 A. Si B. P C. Be D. O E. Cl
0019
0019
0035
3222024 A
15 24183 31 035101890263
The atoms of which of the following elements would you expect to
lose electrons most readily?
9 A. Al B. B C. C D. Si E. N
0035
3222025 C
15 24185 31 010413670172
In general, good conductors usually exhibit
A. high melting and boiling points and low densities
B. high densities and low melting and boiling points
C. high melting and boiling points and high densities
D. high densities but no correlation in melting and boiling
points
9 E. NO correlation in density, melting, or boiling points
0034
3223001 E
15 24190 51 01890263800111
Elements which take on electrons are also classified as
A. oxides
B. halogens
C. metals
D. hydrates
9 E. non_metals
3223002 CAEBA
55 24192 31 0401004980011190
MACROITEM STEM
2To answer the following questions, select from the key the most
2appropriate response.
ETS2 OS
ETS2 OS
2
2
2
2
0
A. Hydrogen
B. Oxygen
C. Nitrogen
D. Chlorine
E. None of these
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
An element present in proteins which distinguishes proteins from
1 carbohydrates
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 An element present in the most important fuels
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 An element which is always inert
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
4 An element which is a constituent of quartz
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
An element which, from its presence in other substances, is
9 generally a ready source of protons
3223003 A
14 24199 31 80048003
In the periodic table, most of the nonmetals are found in the
A. upper right_hand side
B. upper left_hand side
C. lower right_hand side
9 D. lower left_hand side
3223004 B
14 24202 31
A solid nonmetal is usually
A. malleable
B. brittle
C. a good electical conductor
9 D. ductile
002807938004
3223005 B
14 24204 32 001804048004
A colorless salt solution turns brown upon the addition of
chlorine water, this solution probably contains
A. calcium choride
B. sodium iodide
C. carbon tetrachloride
9 D. potassium fluoride
3223006 A
14 24207 31 002800198004
Nonmetals tend to form
A. negative ions
B. positive ions
C. bases
9 D. alloys
2WVW
2 OS
2 OS
2 OS
3223007 E
15 24209 32 035108241178
When an atom of an electronegative element becomes an ion in a
chemical reaction:
A. it loses electron(s) B. it is oxidized
C. the ionic radius becomes smaller than the atomic radius
9 D. it serves as a reducing agent E. none of these.
3223008 E
15 24213 32 01890263
Which of the following elements would tend most to take on
electrons?
9 A. Li B. Be C. C D. S E. O
0042
0035
3230001 EDABBA 65 24215 51 1 80029001
129095
MACROITEM STEM
2The following items refer to the periodic table (Figure 1). Select
2from the key the principle which applies to each item.
2 A. A group forming no compounds because their electron grouping
2
is very stable
2 B. A group having two outer electrons
2 C. A regular increase in the number of valence electrons to a
2
maximum in this group
2 D. All the elements in this group form compounds by losing one
2
electron per atom
0 E. None of the above apply to this group.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 Group 4
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
2 Group 1
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
3 Group 0
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
4 Group 8
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
5 Group 2
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
9 Group 7
ETS2 OS
3230002 EAEA
45 24223 31 0015006480011290
MACROITEM STEM
2The following items are based on a short periodic table which lists
2symbol of each element and its atomic number.
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9 10
2 Li Be
B
C
N
O
F Ne
3________________________________________
2 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
0
Na Mg Al Si
P
S Cl Ar
ETS2 OS
1
2
3
9
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
Which of the following elements would tend most to take on
electrons?
A. Li
B. Be
C. C
D. S
E. O
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
Which of the following elements would most likely be a metal?
A. Mg
B. O
C. P
D. Be
E. Cl
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
Which of the following is an inert gas?
A. Mg
B. Si
C. C
D. P
E. Ar
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
The atoms of which of the following elements would you expect to
lose electrons most readily?
A. Al
B. B
C. C
D. Si
E. N
3230003 D
15 24234 72 02240058800112
The most probable formula for a binary solid compound of Mg and N is
A. MgN B. Mg N C. MgN
D. Mg N
E. Mg N
94
2
2
22
23
OS90
3230004 CADEB
55 24248 52 1 002800199002129095
MACROITEM STEM
2Figure 2 represents an outline of the periodic table. After the
2item number on the answer sheet, blacken the one lettered space
3
___
2which designates the position in the table to which the item
0 correctly refers.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
1 The element in this position is most likely a non_metal.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
ETS2 OS
The positive ion of the element in this position has the electronic
3
___
2 structure or configuration 2_8_8.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
One would expect to find in this position the element which forms
3 most fuels.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
The element in this position, and others in the same group, have
high melting points, tensile strength, and density, and are
4 malleable and ductile.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
The element in this position floats in water and combines rapidly
9 with it forming a strong base.
3230005 DCADEB 65 24258 52 1 80019002
129095
MACROITEM STEM
2Figure 2 represents an outline of the periodic table. After the
2item number on the answer sheet, blacken the one lettered space
3
___
2which designates the position in the table to which the item
0 correctly refers.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
Just below the element in this position is the element which occurs
1 in most rocks.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
The hydrogen compounds of the element in this position, and of the
elements above and below it, when dissolved in water have strong
2 acidic properties.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
Elements in the group containing this element form positive ions
3 which combine with chlorine ions, ion for ion.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
The element in this position forms compounds which, as a rule, do
4 not conduct an electric current in aqueous solution.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
One of the elements in the group which includes this element
5 is the most widely used metal.
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 6
The positive ion of the element in this position has the electronic
9 structure or configuration 2_8.
3230006 B
15 24270 32 04040028800111
Chlorine is a more active non_metal than iodine. This is
probably because
A. chlorine loses electrons more readily than does iodine.
B. the incomplete shell of electrons in the chlorine atom
ETS2 OS
ETS2 OS
9
is closer to the nucleus than is the one in the iodine atom.
C. iodine adds electrons more readily than does chlorine.
D. the negative valence electron of the chlorine atom is
farther away from the nucleus than is the one in the
iodine atom.
E. chlorine is an oxidizing agent.
3230007 D
15 24277 32 060206038001
Al O and CCl are the correct formulae of the oxide of aluminum
4 23
4
and the chloride of carbon. The formula of the compound aluminum
carbide is therefore
A. Al C
4
42
B. Al C
4
34
C. AlC
D. Al C
4
43
9 E. none of these formulae
ETS2 OS
3230008 A
15 24281 31
Which one of these is inert?
A. argon
B. nitrogen
C. hydrogen
D. oxygen
9 E. two of the above
03770359800111
ETS2 OS
3230009 E
15 24283 31 01130064800111
Which one of the following is an inert gas?
A. ammonia
B. carbon monoxide
C. hydrogen
D. carbon dioxide
9 E. helium
ETS2 OS
3230010 D
15 24285 31 01130181800111
A gas commonly used in electric light bulbs to retard vaporization
of the filament is
A. neon
B. helium
C. oxygen
D. argon
9 E. krypton
ETS2 OS
3230011 D
15 24288 31 02930340800111
Which one of these cannot form molecules through combination
3
______
of atoms?
A. oxygen
B. nitrogen
C. hydrogen
D. helium
9 E. two of the above
ETS2 OS
3230012 A
15 24291 31 04030004800111
Iodine may be characterized as
A. a halogen
B. an element behaving chemically similarly to carbon
C. an inert gas
D. a radioactive element
9 E. an active metal
ETS2 OS
3230013 B
15 24294 32 02240037
What is the correct formula for a compound formed from the
elements potassium and phosphorus?
A. P K B. K P C. KP D. K P E. none of these
94
3
3
2
0018
3230014 B
15 24297 52 02240037
The correct formula for a covalent compound between fluorine and
oxygen is
A. OF B. OF C. O F D. OF E. none of these
94
2
2
3
0018
3230015 C
14 24300 31 060407220794
Elements in the same vertical group of the periodic table
generally
A. have the same atomic weight
B. have the same atomic numbers
C. react with the same chemicals to give products with
similarly proportioned formulas
9 D. have no relationships between each other.
0026
3230016 A
15 24304 31 140201890794
Elements in the same group
A. have similar chemical properties
B. are called isotopes
C. have consecutive atomic numbers
D. constitute a period of elements
9 E. have similar physical properties
0040
3230017 A
14 24307 52 1945
Most basic:
A. LiOH B. Be(OH)
C. B(OH)
94
2
3
0056
D. Co(OH)
2
3231001 C
15 24309 31 00150189800112
A chemically active metal is an element whose atoms
A. gain a relatively large amount of energy in losing electrons
B. gain a relatively small amount of energy in losing electrons
C. lose a relatively large amount of energy in losing electrons
D. lose a relatively small amount of energy in losing electrons
9 E. can lose electrons without undergoing an energy change
ETS2 OS
3231002 C
15 24314 52 03380003800112
The electron structure of the alkali metals indicates that
A. they should be very ready to take on a single electron for
each atom
B. in general, they should tend to form covalent compounds
C. they should not be found in the free condition in nature
D. lithium should be the most active of them
9 E. all of them should be excellent oxidizing agents
ETS2 OS
3231003 A
15 24319 52 00030058800112
The alkali metals of group Ia, lithium, sodium, potassium,
rubidium, and cesium are the most active metals. Cesium is the most
active in the list because as one proceeds from lithium to cesium
A. the atomic radius increases
B. the number of valence electrons increases
C. the metallic properties become less pronounced
D. the valence increases
9 E. the atomic weight decreases
ETS2 OS
3231004 D
15 24325 51 03270373800111
Which one of these is not true concerning the periodic table?
3
___
A. The series vary in the number of elements each contains.
B. Except for inert elements those elements at the left tend to
lend electrons.
C. Except for inert elements those elements at the left are
reducing agents.
D. Elements in group IIa are more active than those in ia.
E. With increase in atomic number, chemical activity of the
9
active metals increases.
ETS2 OS
3231005 D
ETS2 OS
15 24332
52
00580375800111
In the family of the most active metals in the periodic table,
activity increases
A. with increase in valence
B. as one reads from left to right
C. as the atomic number decreases
D. as one proceeds from top to bottom
9 E. as the number of electron rings decrease
3231006 E
15 24336 52 03720071800112
Three elements belonging to group Ia have atomic numbers 11, 19,
55. the one true statement about this group is
A. the elements are inert
B. the activity is unpredictable
C. number eleven is the most active
D. number nineteen is more active than number fifty_five
9 E. number fifty_five is the most active
ETS2 OS
3231007 A
14 24341 31 80018003
Sodium and potassium
A. are reducing agents
B. are oxidizing agents
C. have complete outer rings
9 D. form ions with a negative charge
2WVW
3231008 B
14 24343 31 80038004
Which metal is often stored under kerosene?
A. copper
B. potassium
C. silver
9 D. zinc
2WVW
3231009 B
14 24345 31
Oxides of the very active metals are
A. acid anhydrides
B. basic anhydrides
C. hydrates
9 D. inactive
2WVW
3231010 A
14 24347 31 000200088004
When sodium reacts with water, one sodium atom replaces
A. one hydrogen atom
B. two hydrogen atoms
C. one oxygen atom
9 D. two oxygen atoms
2 OS
3231011 C
2 OS
14 24350
31
001901898004
The ions of the elements of the sodium family have all the
following properties except
A. high stability
B. oxidation number of plus one
C. formation of compounds by covalence
D. electron configuration similar to that of the proceeding
9
inert gas
3231012 A
14 24354 31 000303510263
An alkali metal atom
A. has one electron in its outer shell
B. has two electrons in its outer shell
C. has a filled outer shell
9 D. lacks one electron of having a filled outer shell
0041
3231013 D
14 24357 31 000403510263
A halogen atom
A. has one electron in its outer shell
B. has two electrons in its outer shell
C. has a filled outer shell
9 D. lacks one electron of having a filled outer shell
0041
3231014 C
14 24360 31 006403510346
An inert gas atom
A. has one electron in its outer shell
B. has two electrons in its outer shell
C. has a filled outer shell
9 D. lacks one electron of having a filled outer shell
0041
3231015 A
14 24363 31 035102630015
An atom that loses its outer electron or electrons readily is
A. an active metal B. an active nonmetal
9 C. an inactive metal D. an inactive nonmetal
0041
3231016 B
14 24366 31 00030020
The alkali metals all have valences of
9 A. +2 B. +1 C. 0 D. _1
3231017 B
15 24367 51 018900150900
Which one of the following elements does not belong to the
family of elements indicated?
A. samarium (Sm)__lanthanide
B. curium (Cm)__alkaline earth metal
C. iridium (Ir)__transition metal
D. thallium (Tl)__representative element
9 E. iodine (I)__halogen
0041
0042
3231018 A
15 24371 52 036201891370
Where on the periodic table would you find an element Q with a
second ionization potential that was very high and with a first
that was very low? Q forms salts that give vivid flame tests,
5
_
and its ions have a complete set of e in "d" orbitals (but no
"f" electrons).
A. anywhere in the Ia family
B. somewhere in the IIa family
C. somewhere in period 4
D. somewhere in the transition elements
9 E. Q is either rubidium or cesium.
0042
3231019 D
14 24378 51 026316210087
Electrons behave like solute anions in a dilute solution of which
of the following in liquid ammonia?
A. Cl B. Pt C. NH Cl D. Na
94
2
4
0043
3231021 B
14 24381 31 01890035000251
Of the following elements, which exhibits just one oxidation
state other than zero?
9 A. sulfur B. sodium C. lead D. chlorine.
9000
3231022 E
15 24383 32 000304070008
Alkali metals react with water to give
A. an acid solution
B. a precipitate of NaOH
C. sodium oxide and hydrogen
D. sodium hydroxide and hydrogen
9 E. none of these
0020
3231023 D
15 24386 31 006700031369
Which of the following properties are characteristic of alkali
metals?
A. react with water
B. are ductile
C. have a silvery luster when cut
D. all of the above
9 E. none of the above
0020
3231025 A
15 24389 52 04850977
________ in the presence of a catalyst yields MNH + H
4
2
2
A. M + NH B. M + H + N C. M + H + N D. M + N + H
0020
4
3
2
9 E. none of the above
2
2
3231026 C
15 24393 31 117806041375
5
+
The rubidium ion, Rb , has an electronic structure similar to
9 A. sodium B. helium C. krypton D. neon E. argon
0020
3231027 D
15 24395 32 137113700344
Which of the following would be expected to have the lowest first
ionization potential?
9 A. Li B. Be C. Na D. K E. Ca
0019
3231028 A
15 24397 32 140300210339
Which of the following has the highest oxidation potential?
9 A. Li B. Na C. K D. Rb E. Ca
0019
3231029 D
15 24399 32 007113980008
Which of the following is not active enough to displace H from
4
2
water?
A. K B. Mg C. Al D. Ag E. more than one correct
9
0019
3231030 A
15 24402 32 142101590180
Which of the following has the largest energy of hydration?
5
+
+
+
+
+
9 A. Li B. Na C. K D. Rb E. Cs
0019
3231031 A
15 24404 52 000100030021
The best reducing agent of the alkali metals as indicated by
oxidation potentials is
9 A. Li B. Na C. K D. Rb E. Cs
0019
3231032 E
15 24406 52 000109000021
The best reducing agent of the alkaline earth metals as indicated
by oxidation potentials is
9 A. Be B. Ca C. Sr D. Ba E. Ra
0019
3231033 A
14 24408 52 117801800159
The ion with the highest hydration energy is
5
+
+2
+
+2
9 A. Li B. Be
C. Cs D. Ra
0019
3231034 A
15 24410 31 037203470781
Among the elements of group Ia, which orbital provides the
0040
electron most used in bonding?
A. s B. d C. p D. f
9 E. no correct response is given.
3231035 C
15 24413 31 037402900885
In the series of active metals (Na, K, etc.) cesium is the most
active. The best explanation of this is that
A. it has a greater attractive force on valence electrons than
the others.
B. its atomic number is greater.
C. its valence electron has an orbit with a greater radius than
the others.
D. its incomplete shell or energy level is closer to the
nucleus.
9 E. it has more valence electrons than the others.
0035
3231036 D
15 24419 32 006901890337
When the atomic volume of the elements is plotted as a function
of the atomic number of the elements, a series of maxima and
minima appear on the graph. If the atomic volume of sodium
represents one of the maxima, it could be predicted that one of
the other maxima would be represented by the atomic volume of the
element
A. magnesium. B. neon. C. chlorine. D. potassium.
9 E. plutonium.
0035
3231037 A
15 24425 31 031911780185
Which of the following is a correct comparison of sodium ion with
potassium ion?
A. Both ions have the same net charge
B. Both ions have the same charge on the nucleus
C. Both ions have the same mass
D. Both ions will react with water to release hydrogen and form
a strong base
9 E. Potassium ion is easier to reduce than sodium ion
0038
3232002 D
15 24430 32 02630404800111
Which one of the following atoms receives one electron in
chemical combination?
9 A. P B. Ne C. Li D. Cl E. O
ETS2 OS
3232003 D
15 24432 31
The most active non_metal is
A. oxygen
B. chlorine
C. manganese
ETS2 OS
00280560800111
9
D. fluorine
E. iodine
3232004 D
14 24434 31 80048003
Nitrogen combines directly with the more active metals to produce
A. nitrates
B. nitrites
C. hydrides
9 D. nitrides
2WVW
3232005 C
14 24436 31 079606628004
Starch paste added to iodine produces a color which is
A. violet
B. yellow
C. blue
9 D. red_orange
2 OS
3232006 A
14 24438 31 046300948004
In its chemical action with other elements, sulfur most closely
resembles
A. oxygen
B. phosphorus
C. hydrogen
9 D. carbon
2 OS
3232007 C
14 24440 31 002800040094
Of the following nonmetals, the one not a halogen is
9 A. chlorine B. bromine C. sulfur D. iodine
0041
3232009 B
15 24442 32 018911780407
Element Y forms ions as a result of its participation in certain
chemical reactions, but it forms covalent compounds in other
reactions. Y ions are always larger than Y atoms, therefore, the
element is
A. a metal B. a non_metal C. a semi_metal
9 D. a noble gas E. none of these
0042
3232010 A
15 24446 52 002300041506
Fluorine is the most active halogen element. One explanation is
that fluorine, compared with the other halogens:
A. has the smallest atomic radius
B. is the least dense
C. has seven valence electrons
D. is the strongest reducing agent
9 E. needs one electron to complete its outer shell.
0042
3232011 D
15 24450 32 000611670008
Chlorine reacts with water to give
A. an acid solution
B. hydrochloric acid
C. hypochlorous acid
D. all of these
9 E. none of these
3232012 D
15 24453 31 01890015
Which of the following elements is not a metal?
9 A. K B. Pb C. Au D. P E. Mg
0020
0020
3232013 D
15 24455 31 018900230067
The element most similar to fluorine in its properties is
9 A. O B. Ne C. S D. Cl E. none of these
0020
3232014 D
15 24457 51 000411670212
Halogens (X) react with
A. methane to give CH X + HX
4
3
B. B to give BX
4
3
C. water to give acids
D. all of the above
9 E. none of the above
0020
3232016 D
14 24460 52 080500211403
The halide ion with the highest oxidation potential is
5
_
_
_
_
9 A. F B. Cl C. Br D. I
0019
3232017 D
14 24462 52 00040007
The halogen that is the poorest oxidizing agent is
A. F B. Cl C. Br D. I
94
2
2
2
2
0019
3232018 B
14 24464 51 019604980105
The hydrogen halide with the lowest boiling point is
9 A. HF B. HCl C. HBr D. HI
0019
3232019 D
14 24466 52 14350001
Which would be expected to be the best reducing agent?
A. H O B. H S C. H Se D. H Te
94
2
2
2
2
0019
3232020 B
0019
14 24468
52
04981371
Which has the lowest boiling point?
A. H O B. H S C. H Se D. H Te
94
2
2
2
2
3232021 C
15 24470 31 140207940189
Which of the following elements would you expect to have chemical
properties similar to those of oxygen (Z = 8)?
A. N B. F C. S D. Cl E. Ar
94
7
9
16
17
18
0040
3232022 A
15 24473 31 002800940339
Which of the following elements is a nonmetal?
9 A. S B. Ag C. Pb D. Li E. Ca
0040
0040
3232023 B
15 24475 32 000804740067
Water, when compared to compounds of elements in the oxygen family
with hydrogen, is found to have anomalous properties. One of these
properties is
A. a lower boiling point than expected
B. the solid is less dense than the liquid
C. a lower freezing point than expected
D. the liquid density decreases with decreasing temperature
down to 4 degrees C
9 E. no correct response is given.
3233001 D
15 24481 52 1 0020006690011295
Select the statement or statements which can be correctly deduced
from the periodic table (Figure 1).
A. It would be expected that calcium would combine with chlorine
to form a compound, Cacl3
B. The valence number of copper is practically always +2
C. There probably exists a compound PH
4
3
The correct selection includes
A. only A
B. only B
C. only C
D. only B and C
9 E. A,B, and C
3233004 C
15 24487 52 018903371362
The elements with atomic numbers 21, 27, 40, and 43, have what
common feature?
A. They all have only one electron in a subshell
B. They all have a partially filled p subshell
C. They all have a partially filled d subshell
0040
ETS2 OS
0020
9
D. They all have a filled 5s subshell
E. None of these
3233005 A
15 24491 52 018011780092
5
+2
The hydration energy of the Sc ion which does not exist in
aqueous solution can be estimated best from data on the
hydration energy of
5
+3
+2
+
+3
9 A. Sc
B. Ca
C. K D. Cl E. Ti
0019
3233006 D
15 24495 51 036911780662
Which ion would you predict to be colored?
5
+
+
2+
3+
3+
9 A. Na B. Cs C. Cd
D. Mo
E. Y
0019
3233007 B
15 24497 52 036911780662
Which of the following ions are colored?
5
3+
2+
2+
3+
2+
9 A. Ti
B. Ni
C. Cd
D. Y
E. V
0019
3233008 C
15 24499 31 036903380015
5
2 2 6 2 2
The electronic structure 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p is charateristic of
which of the following?
A. a metal B. transition metal C. a nonmetal D. a rare gas
9 E. no correct response is given.
0040
3233009 D
15 24503 51 036902630346
The transition metals
A. do not fit into the periodic classification
B. differ only in the number of electrons in the outermost
shell
C. have identical chemical and physical properties
D. differ in the number of electrons in one of the inner shells
9 E. are not true metals
0034
3234001 E
15 24507 52 06840687800111
Silica
A. is notable for a high coefficient of thermal expansion
B. consists of chains of silicon atoms, giving it a fibrous
structure
C. is much harder than quartz
D. decomposes at red heat into its elements
9 E. is transparent to ultraviolet light
ETS2 OS
3234002 D
15 24511 52 03500022800111
Silicon carbide
A. contains oxygen
B. is used as a lubricant
C. is a conductor of electricity
D. is made by the action of coke on silica
9 E. is harder than the diamond
ETS2 OS
3234003 B
15 24514 52 04770685800111
In mineral silicates
A. silicon atoms are bound together directly, atom to
atom
B. SiO ions are bound together, through sharing
4
4
oxygen atoms
C. most silicates are soluble in water
D. if the binding of the silicate ions takes place in one
direction only, the mineral exists in plates
E. the most abundant of the mineral silicates is the
9
uncombined silicate ion
ETS2 OS
3234004 B
15 24520 52 00080336800111
Water glass
A. is ordinary glass which has been hydrated
B. is used as an adhesive
C. is made by dehydrating silicic acid
D. has a high melting point
9 E. is a type of glass with a very high (95%) silica content
ETS2 OS
3234005 B
15 24524 52 03360018800111
Glass
A. is a compound having a definite chemical formula
B. is a mixture of salts resulting from the process of
heating together acidic and basic oxides
C. has a fixed melting point
D. is made up of individual crystals
E. never is made of other ingredients than limestone,
9
soda and silica
ETS2 OS
3234006 D
15 24529 52 00140066800111
Carbon forms a large number of compounds because
A. of its small ionic radius
B. of its great chemical activity
C. it shows many valences
D. of the ability of carbon atoms to form covalent
linkages with each other
ETS2 OS
9
E. it forms electrovalent and covalent compounds with
equal ease
3234007 D
15 24534 32 05820020800111
Both positive and negative valence may be exhibited by
A. hydrogen
B. chlorine
C. neon
D. carbon
9 E. none of the above
3234008 C
15 24536 51 80018002
12
A number of new plastics and lubricants are being
produced which contain the element, silicon. Which of the following
facts probably most stimulated the research which led to this
development?
A. Silicon (or silicon dioxide) is a constituent of numerous
minerals.
B. Silicon compounds are very abundant.
C. Silicon's position in the periodic table shows that its
properties are in many respects similar to carbon.
D. Silicon compounds and petroleum occur together in nature.
9 E. Our petroleum resources are being depleted rapidly.
3234009 C
14 24544 51 0192
0845
A substance which is not amphoteric is:
A. V O B. Cr(OH) C. Cr(OH) D. Cr O
94
25
3
2
23
ETS2 OS
ETS2 OS
0043
3234010 A
15 24546 31 018915510350
Elements used in semiconductors (in transistors) are the semi
metals which conduct electricity better than non metals but not
so well as metals. A good choice for this purpose would be
9 A. silicon B. chlorine C. lithium D. argon E. barium.
0047
3234011 A
15 24550 52 140313700014
Which of the following has the highest first ionization
potential?
A. C B. Si C. Ge D. Sn E. Pb
94
6
14
32
50
82
0019
3234012 B
14 24553 52 1945
The amphoteric (capable of reacting as either an acid or a base)
element in the third period is
9 A. Mg B. Al C. Si D. P
0056
3235001 E
15 24555 31 1 072607599001
95
The following question refers to the periodic table, Figure 1.
The most stable oxidation state of gadolinium is
A. Gd(_3)
B. Gd(_)
C. Gd(+)
D. Gd(+2)
9 E. Gd(+3)
3235002 E
15 24558
Lanthanides are
A. elements 90 to 103
B. elements 122 up
C. the nonmetals
D. all gases
9 E. none of these
51
07590189
2WVW
0020
3235003 B
14 24560 31 075913621740
The lanthanide series corresponds to the filling of which
subshell?
9 A. 3f B. 4f C. 5f D. 5d
3236001 D
14 24562 31 079401898004
Of the following groups, the one composed only of artificially
produced elements is
A. polonium, francium, actinium
B. procectinium, neptunium, radon
C. berkelium, rhenium, hafnium
9 D. curium, californium, americium
0019
3236002 A
14 24566 31 018908258004
The element californium, is a member of the
A. actinide series
B. alkali metal family
C. alkaline earth family
9 D. lanthanide series
2 OS
2 OS
3236003 C
15 24568 51 01891223
Which of the following is not a transuranium element?
A. Lawrencium
B. Nobelium
C. Hafnium
D. Curium
9 E. Einsteinium
0020
3236004 E
15 24570 51 01890825
Which of the following elements is not an actinide?
0020
9 A. U B. Cm C. Os D. Bk E. Th
3236005 C
14 24572 31 082512231740
The group of elements in which the 5f subshell is being filled
is
A. transitional
B. lanthanides
C. actinides
9 D. representatives
0019
3238001 E
15 24574 31 03770340800211
Which one of these is an inert gas?
A. ammonia
B. carbon monoxide
C. sulphur dioxide
D. hydrogen
9 E. helium
ETS2 OS
3238002 C
15 24576 32 03400263800111
Helium contains 2 electrons in its outer ring. The other inert
gases are inert because they
A. need 2 electrons in the outer ring
B. have 2 electrons in the outer ring
C. have 8 electrons in the outer ring
D. have 6 electrons in the outer ring
9 E. have lower atomic weights than the other elements
ETS2 OS
3238003 A
15 24581 32 01968001800211
All of these gases are alike in a certain respect except
A. hydrogen
B. helium
C. neon
D. argon
9 E. krypton
ETS2 OS
3238004 E
15 24583 51 03770569800111
Concerning the inert gases,
A. argon is used in lifting balloons
B. helium atoms contain NO neutrons
C. xenon is given off in the disintegration of radium
D. neon is too rare to have any practical use
9 E. krypton has eight electrons in its outermost orbit
ETS2 OS
3238005 C
14 24587 31 011302938004
The gas which differs in molecular composition from that of all
of the others listed below is
2 OS
9
A. hydrogen
B. nitrogen
C. neon
D. chlorine
3238006 A
14 24590 51 091402930873
The shape of the XeF molecule is:
4
4
A. square_planar B. tetrahedral
9 C. square pyramidal D. trigonal bipyramidal.
0043
3238007 C
15 24592 51 142308850263
The number of lone electron pairs in xenon difluoride is
9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 0
0043
3238008 A
14 24595 51 003700370378
The first noble_gas compound ever synthesized is:
A. XePtF B. Xe(RuF ) C. XeOF D. XeOF
94
6
62
4
2
3238009 C
14 24597 51 006404150321
The noble gas which occurs most abundantly in the atmosphere is:
9 A. He B. Ne C. Ar D. Kr.
0043
3238010 A
14 24599 51 078307810347
In the valence_bond approach to the bonding in XeOF it is
4
4
assumed that the orbitals of xenon hybridize to form:
5
32
222
A. sp d hybrids B. s p d hybrids
5
23
3
9 C. sp d hybrids D. sp d hybrids.
3238011 A
14 44527 51 09140293
The geometry of the XeOF molecule is:
4
4
A. square pyramidal
B. tetrahedral C. distorted tetrahedral
9 D. trigonal bipyramidal E. octahedral
0043
0043
0043
3238012 C
14 24606 51 1117
F_Xe_F bond angle in XeF is:
4
4
5
o
o
o
o
9 A. 109 B. 103 C. 90 D. 60
0043
3238013 C
14 24608 51 1117
The f_Xe_f bond angle in Xeof is:
0043
4
5
0
9 A. 109
4
0
B. 103
0
C. 90
0
D. 60
3238014 B
14 24610 52 078209800781
The molecular orbital treatment of the bonding in XeF considers
4
2
that the three atoms are bonded together by a
A. pi bond B. three_center bond
9 C. nonbonding orbital D. nonlocalized orbital.
0043
3238015 B
15 24614 31 018900640113
Which of the following elements is not a noble gas?
9 A. He B. H C. Ar D. Xe E. Rn
0020
3238016 B
14 24616 32 026300640945
Of the outermost electrons of the noble "inert" gases, it is true
that
A. all are in filled p orbitals
B. all are paired
C. they complete a principal energy level
9 D. all are very difficult to remove from the atom
0009
3238017 B
14 24620 52 033700640606
The atomic number of the next_to_bediscovered noble gas, below
radom, Rn, would be
9 A. 109 B. 118 C. 173 D. 222
0009
3238018 A
15 24622 72 054000040293
Given the following information concerning some halogen
compounds of Xe, choose the best statement from the list
pertaining to the molecular structures.
XeF is nonpolar
4
4
XeF Cl is polar, as prepared by chemist X
4
2 2
XeF Cl is nonpolar, as prepared by chemist Y
4
2 2
A. All of the above are square planar, so that there could be
two forms (isomers) of XeF Cl , one symmetrical and the
4
2 2
other unsymmetrical.
B. The geometries are tetrahedral, in agreement with CF
4
4
(nonpolar) and CF Cl (polar), which are known
4
2 2
0019
C. Trigonal pyramidal, which agrees with XeF being nonpolar
4
4
D. Square pyramidal, which agrees with XeF being nonpolar
4
4
9 E. could be B, C, or D.
3238019 D
14 24636 51 006411670023
Of the following rare gases, which reacts most readily with
fluorine?
9 A. He B. Ne C. Kr D. Xe
0009
3238020 A
15 24638 31 006402930351
The inert gas molecules contain only one of these particles.
This particle is the
9 A. atom. B. electron. C. ion. D. neutron. E. proton.
0035
3238021 D
15 24640 32 137003370562
When ionization potential is plotted against atomic number for
each of the elements, a series of peaks occurs on the graph. If
one of these peaks is occupied by helium, another peak could be
predicted for
9 A. lithium. B. carbon. C. fluorine. D. neon. E. tungsten.
0035
3238022 C
14 24644 31 03770562800111
The inert gas most used in signs made of glass tubing is
A. helium
B. xenon
C. neon
9 D. krypton
ETS2WVW
3240001 D
15 24646 52 00690070800112
When ionization potential is plotted against atomic number for
each of the elements, a series of peaks occurs on the graph.
If one of these peaks is occupied by helium, another peak could
be predicted for
A. lithium
B. carbon
C. fluorine
D. neon
9 E. tungsten
ETS2 OS
3240002 D
15 24650 52 00698001800212
When the atomic volume of the elements is plotted as a function
of the atomic number of the elements, a series of maxima and
minima appear on the graph. If the atomic volume of sodium
represents one of the maxima, it could be predicted that one of
ETS2 OS
the other maxima would be represented by the atomic volume of
the element
A. magnesium
B. neon
C. chlorine
D. potassium
9 E. plutonium
3240003 C
15 24656 51 00030071800112
In the family of alkali metals (Na, K, etc.), Cesium is the
most active. The best explanation of this is that
A. it has a greater attractive force for valence electrons
than the others
B. its atomic number is greater
C. its valence electron has an orbital with a greater radius
than the others
D. its incomplete shell or energy level is closer to the
nucleus
9 E. it has more electrons in the outer orbital than the others
ETS2 OS
3240004 B
15 24663 51 00710006800112
Chlorine is a more active non_metal than is iodine. This is
probably because
A. chlorine loses electrons more readily than does iodine
B. the incomplete shell of electrons in the chlorine atom is
closer to the nucleus than is the one in the iodine atom
C. iodine adds electrons more readily than does chlorine
D. the negative valence electron of the chlorine atom is farther
away from the nucleus than is the one in the iodine atom
9 E. chlorine is an oxidizing agent
ETS2 OS
3240005 C
14 24670 31 018903378004
The element with atomic number 7 is likely to have properties
similar to the element whose atomic number is
A. 11
B. 2
C. 15
9 D. 17
2WVW
3240006 B
14 24672 31 026303468004
The number of electrons in the outer shell of the elements in
group IIa of the periodic table is
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
9 D. 4
2WVW
3240007 D
14 24674 71 8003
Which of the following disubstituted cyclopropanes is most
easily hydrogenated?
A. cis_1,2_dimethylcyclopropane
B. trans_1,2_dimethylcyclopropane
C. trans_1,2_diisopropylcyclopropane
9 D. cis_1,2_diisopropylcyclopropane
2WVW
3240008 C
15 24678 51 026300730347
The last two electrons in calcium (element 20) are in a
A. 2s orbital
B. 3s orbital
C. 4s orbital
D. 3p orbital
9 E. none of these
0020
3240009 A
15 24680 32 018903471356
Elements in group via have outer orbitals designated by the
5
2 5
notation ns np . Since sulfur is in the third period, its outer
electrons are
5
2 5
2 5
2 5
2 5
9 A. 3s 3p B. 3s np C. ns 3p D. ns n3 E. none of these
0020
3240010 A
15 24684 52 060601890067
When discovered, element 113 should have properties resembling
those of the element
9 A. Tl B. Pb C. Au D. Hg E. U
0020
3240011 B
15 24686 32 03380028
5
2 6
The outer electron configuration ns np is found in
A. all members of the noble gas family
B. some members of a family of nonmetals
C. all members of the alkaline_earth family
D. several members of the alkali metal family
9 E. only elements for which N equals three or greater
3240012 C
15 24691 31 033800030189
The electronic configuration of element X is
5 2 2 6 2 6 2 10 6 1
1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 3d 4p 5s . Judging from its
electronic configuration, element X is
A. in group Va
B. in period 2
0019
0040
9
C. a representative element
D. a transition metal
E. a non_metal.
3240013 A
15 24695 31 033807940076
The distinguishing electron of selenium, element number 34, is in
which of the following groups?
5
4
4
2
6
4
9 A. 4p B. 3p C. 3s D. 4d E. 5p
3240014 D
15 24698 32 03380369
Which electron configuration represents a transition element?
5
2 2 2
2 2 6 2 4
2 2 6 2
A. 1s 2s 2p
B. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p
C. 1s 2s 2p 3s
5
0040
0047
2 2 6 2 6 2 8
D. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 3d
5
2 2 6 2 6 10 2 6
9 E. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s 4p .
3250001 C
15 24703 51 1 0020006590011295
By means of the periodic table (Figure 1) identify the element
described as follows a certain element exercises only the valence
+2 in compounds. The atomic weight of the element is greater than
that of chromium but is less than that of silver. The element is
A. bromine
B. calcium
C. strontium
D. rubidium
9 E. potassium
ETS2 OS
3250002 D
15 24708 51 1 0020006590011295
By means of the periodic table (Figure 1) identify the element
described as follows a certain element may exercise either
positive or negative valence, its principal valences ranging from
+4 to _4. The atomic weight of the element is greater than that of
fluorine and is less than that of calcium. The element is
A. argon
B. chlorine
C. potassium
D. silicon
9 E. sulfur
ETS2 OS
3250003 B
14 24714 31 018903378004
The element with atomic number 8 is likely to have properties
2WVW
similar to the element with atomic number
A. 12
B. 16
C. 3
9 D. 18
3250004 B
15 24716 31 033705620587
An isotope with a mass number of 21 and an atomic number of 10
would correctly be represented by which of the following symbols?
5
10
21
10
21
11
A. Ne B. Ne C. Sc D. Sc E. Ne
94
21
10
21
10
10
0040
3250005 C
15 24720 32 081203410097
The chemical symbol for an atom which contains 40 electrons and
51 neutrons is
A. Pa B. Nb C. Zr D. Na
9 E. impossible to tell from information given
0040
3250006 B
15 24723 31 033701890369
The element with atomic number 42 is an example of what kind of
element?
A. representative B. transition C. rare gas
9 D. innertransition E. lanthanide.
0040
3250007 A
15 24726 32 033801850337
An ion of element 26 has the following electronic configuration:
5 2 2 6 2 6 0 5
1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 3d . What is the charge on this ion?
9 A. 3+ B. 3_ C. 2+ D. 2_ E. +1
0040
3250008 B
15 24729 31 088500160338
The number of valence electrons that Al has is
4
13
9 A. 1 B. 3 C. 13 D. 8 E. 5
0040
3250009 C
15 24731 31 007311780338
5
2+
A Ca ion contains how many electrons?
9 A. 20 B. 22 C. 18 D. 40 E. 29
0040
3300001 D
14 24733 31 034400738004
Compared with potassium, calcium
A. has larger atoms
B. has a lower density
C. is more easily oxidized
2WVW
9
D. is less active chemically
3300002 D
14 24735 31 018900678004
Elements with similar chemical properties
A. occur only within the same period
B. have identical atomic mass (weight)
C. have identical numbers of neutrons
9 D. have the same number of electrons in the outer shell
3300003 E
15 24738 31 8003
Within group VIa of the periodic table with increasing atomic
number, which one of the following properties does not change
in the manner indicated?
A. atomic radius _ increases
B. density _ increases
C. ionization energy _ decreases
D. electron affinity _ decreases
9 E. electronegativity _ increases
3300004 B
15 24743 32 07228003
Within group VIa of the periodic table, with increasing atomic
number, which one of the following properties does not change in
3
___
the manner indicated?
A. atomic radius _ increases
B. electronegativity _ increases
C. ionization energy _ decreases
D. electron affinity _ decreases
9 E. density _ increases
2WVW
2WVW
2WVW
3300005 B
14 24748 52 136707451403
Which of the following exhibits the highest bond energy?
A. F B. Cl C. Br D. I
94
2
2
2
2
0043
3300006 D
14 24750 52 136707451371
Which of the following exhibits the lowest bond energy?
9 A. HF B. HCl C. HBr D. HI
0043
3300007 E
15 24752 51 136713680068
Which of the following exhibit periodic relationships
A. boiling points
B. ionization potentials
C. chemical properties
D. melting points
9 E. all of the above
0020
3300008 C
14 24755 52 006703680207
Which one of the following properties of an element would you
expect not to be a periodic function of atomic number?
A. atomic volume B. specific heat
9 C. ionization potential D. boiling point
3300009 D
14 24758 52 1946
The highest average bond energy is:
9 A. C_H B. C_I C. C_Cl D. C_F
3300010 C
14 24760 52 19480110
5
2+
2+
From a mixture of Mg and Be , which one of the following re_
5
2+
2+
agents will precipitate Mg and leave Be in solution?
A. HCl B. NH OH C. NaOH D. H SO
94
4
2 4
3310001 C
15 24764 52 03750028800111
In order to determine the relative activity of several
non_metals it would be most useful to know the
A. valences of the non_metals
B. atomic weights of the non_metals
C. atomic numbers of the non_metals
D. family to which each non_metal belongs
9 E. group to which each non_metal belongs
3310002 A
14 24768 31 006703448004
Of the following, which one is the property of potassium and
chlorine that determines the relative acidity of koh and hCl
A. electronegativity
B. atomic radius
C. oxidation potential
9 D. melting point
0009
0057
0059
ETS2 OS
2WVW
3310003 C
14 24771 71 8003
Which of the following is most reactive to nucleophilic reagents?
A. CH F B. CH Br C. CH I D. CH Cl E. CH OH
94
3
3
3
3
3
2WVW
3310004 D
14 24774 71 8003
Which of the following is most reactive to anionic reagents?
A. CBr
4
4
B. HCBr
2WVW
4
C.
4
D.
94
3
H CBr
2 2
H CBr
3
3310005 A
14 24777 71 8003
Which of the following is most reactive to anionic reagents?
A. H CI
4
3
B. H C(I)
4
2
2
C. HC(I)
4
3
D. C(I)
94
4
3310006 A
14 24780 31 80038004
Which element would most readily replace the oxygen in an oxide?
A. fluorine
B. chlorine
C. nitrogen
9 D. sulfur
2WVW
2WVW
3310007 C
14 24782 32 018908248004
Of the following, the element possessing the highest
electro_negativity is
A. lithium
B. cesium
C. fluorine
9 D. astatine
2 OS
3310008 B
15 24784 31 003702370355
Which of the following compounds are very covalent in their
bonding?
A. Li S B. IBr C. FrCl D. Na O E. NaCl
94
2
0042
3310009 D
14 24787 32 036203370067
Within group VIa of the periodic table with increasing atomic
number, which one of the following properties does not change in
3
____ ___
the manner indicated?
A. atomic radius _ increases
B. density _ increases
C. ionization energy _ decreases
0042
9
D. electronegativity _ increases
3310010 A
14 24792 52 140308240023
Which of the following has the highest electronegativity?
9 A. F B. Cl C. Br D. I.
0043
3310011 B
15 24794 52 000503550887
Given the following table of Pauling electronegativity values:
atom
/ Be In Pb Bi B H Se C Br N O F
_____________________________________________________________
electro_ / 1.5 1.7 1.8 1.9 2.0 2.1 2.4 2.5 2.8 3.0 3.5 4.0
negativity /
0044
Which one of the following sequences would you predict to have
decreasing ionic character of the bond indicated?
A. Pb_Br>Pb_C>Pb_N>Pb_Se B. Pb_N>Pb_Br>Pb_C>Pb_Se
C. Pb_Se>Pb_N>Pb_Br>Pb_C D. Pb_Se>Pb_C>Pb_Br>Pb_N
9 E. Pb_Se>Pb_C>Pb_N>Pb_Br.
3310012 E
15 24801 51 0824
Electronegativity is
A. the charge on an atom
B. the charge on negative ions
C. a measure of an electrical potential
D. an arbitrary number assigned to each atom
9 E. none of these
3310013 A
15 24804 31 082401890023
The most electronegative element is
9 A. F B. Cs C. H D. O E. Al
0020
0020
3310014 A
15 24806 31 14030824
Which of the following has the highest electronegativity?
A. Cl B. Se C. Sb D. Rb E. Na
94
17
34
51
37
11
0019
3310015 E
15 24809 51 13711370
Which would be expected to have the lowest second ionization
3
______
potential?
9 A. Na B. K C. Mg D. Ca E. Sr
0019
3310016 A
15 24812 31 082400230557
The electronegativity scale has
A. fluorine as the most electronegative element
B. cesium as the most electronegative element
0040
9
C. hydrogen as the most electronegative element
D. element 105 as the most electronegative element
E. xenon as the most electronegative element.
3310017 C
15 24816 31 082407221359
The correct sequence for the ordering of the element O, Ge,
4
8 32
Se, and Pb in terms of increasing electronegativity is
434
82
A. Pb, Se, Ge, O B. Se, Pb, Ge, O
C. Pb, Ge, Se, O D. O, Se, Pb, Ge
9 E. O, Se, Ge, Pb
0040
3310018 B
15 24820 31 082400230722
Which of following elements has the highest electronegativity?
9 A. cesium B. fluorine C. francium D. uranium E. helium.
0040
3310019 A
15 24822 31 082407221359
Which of the following sets of elements is arranged in order of
decreasing electronegativity?
3__________
A. Cl, S, Se, Te
B. F, B, O, Li
C. Br, Cl, S, P
D. F, B, O, Li
9 E. Te, Se, S, Cl
0040
3310020 A
14 24825 52 1948
Of the following, the most electronegative is:
9 A. C B. Si C. Sn D. Pb
0059
3310021 C
15 44825 51
Which will be most easily hydrogenated?
A. cyclohexane C. propylene E. benzene
9 B. cyclopropane D. hexane
3320001 C
15 24827 32 00150577800111
In the family of active metals (Na, K, etc.) cesium is the
the most active. The best explanation of this is that
A. it has a greater attractive force on valence electrons than
the others.
B. its atomic number is greater.
C. it has an atomic radius greater than that of the others.
D. its incomplete shell or energy level is closer to the nucleus.
9 E. it has more valence electrons than the others.
ETS2 OS
3320002 B
15 24833 32 03440002800111
Potassium is more active than sodium because
A. it has a greater number of valence electrons.
B. its valence electron is farther from the nucleus
C. it accepts electrons more readily.
D. its atomic weight is less than that of sodium.
9 E. its incomplete shell is closer to the nucleus.
3320003 A
15 24837 32 00030015800111
The alkali metals of group Ia, lithium, sodium, potassium,
rubidium, and cesium are the most active metals. Cesium
is the most active in the list because as one proceeds
from lithium to cesium
A. the atomic radius of the valence electron increases
B. the number of valence electrons increases
C. the first ionization potential increases
D. the valence increases
9 E. the atomic weight decreases
ETS2 OS
ETS2 OS
3320004 A
14 24843 31 033701898004
As the atomic number of the elements in the second period of the
periodic table increases, the ionization potential
A. generally increases
B. generally decreases
C. first increases then decreases
9 D. first decreases then increases
2WVW
3320005 E
15 24847 32 073107228003
Which one of the following elements would you expect to have
the largest first ionization energy?
3
_______
A. cesium
B. thallium
C. bismuth
D. polonium
9 E. radon
2WVW
3320006 A
14 24850 31 07310064
The highest ionization energies are found in the
A. inert gases B. alkali metals
9 C. transition elements D. halogens
0041
3320007 B
14 24852 31 07310003
The lowest ionization energies are found in the
A. inert gases B. alkali metals
9 C. transition elements D. halogens
0041
3320008 E
15 24854 52 018907311421
Which one of the following elements would you expect to have the
largest first ionization energy?
3_______
9 A. cesium B. thallium C. bismuth D. polonium E. radon
0042
3320009 A
15 24857 52 018914031370
Which element has the highest ionization potential for the
removal of one electron?
9 A. Ne B. Li C. Na D. Ca E. Ba.
0042
3320010 A
14 24859 52 018913701403
Choose the element with the highest first ionization potential:
9 A. Boron B. Aluminum C. Gallium D. Indium
0043
3320011 D
14 24861 52 018914481371
Choose the element with the lowest oxidation potential:
9 A. B B. Al C. Ga D. Ln.
0043
3320012 A
14 24863 52 000413701403
The halogen with the highest ionization potential is:
9 A. F B. Cl C. I D. At.
0043
3320013 C
15 24865 52
1370
Which of the following trends in first ionization potential is
NOT correct?
A. Ba<Sr<Ca<Mg B. Ca<As<Cl<He C. N<P<Sb<Bi
9 D. K<Ca<Ge<As E. Li<B<N<F
0044
3320014 C
15 24868 52 1370
The first ionization potential of Se is 225 kcal/mole. Which of
the values below would you predict for the first ionization
potential of Br?
A. 549 kcal/mole B. 178 kcal/mole C. 273 kcal/mole
9 D. _225 kcal/mole E. 113 kcal/mole.
0044
3320015 A
14 24872 52 01891370033951
Which of the following elements would have the largest difference
between its first and second ionization potentials?
9 A. lithium B. sodium C. potassium D. fluorine E. cesium
3320016 B
15 24875 52 01890731
Which of the following statements is true concerning the element
potassium?
A. potassium is smaller than lithium.
B. Potassium has a lower ionization potential(energy)than
9000
0018
lithium.
5
2+
C. Potassium loses two electrons to form K
D. Potassium is in group IIa.
5
+
9 E. Potassium gains one electron to form K
3320017 A
15 24881 31
00620722
As one moves from left to right across the periodic table
A. the metallic properties decrease
B. the metallic properties increase.
C. the metallic properties do not change
D. the metallic properties increase with every other element
9 E. none of these
0028
3320018 D
15 24885 51 000313701371
Of the alkali metals, the one (of those listed) that has the
lowest ionization potential is
9 A. Li B. K C. Ca D. Cs E. Na
0020
3320019 A
14 24887 52 018907310362
The element with the largest value for the first ionization energy
is located in the _________ portion of the modern extended form
of the periodic table.
A. upper right B. lower right
9 C. middle D. lower left
0009
3320020 B
15 24890 31 13701403
Which of the following has the highest ionization potential?
A. P B. S C. As D. Se E. Te
94
15
16
33
34
52
3320021 C
15 24893 32 026814650342
According to our ideas of atomic structure, we say that it takes
more electrical energy to remove an electron from a helium atom
than from a hydrogen atom because
A. helium initially has two electrons.
B. the helium nucleus has a greater mass.
C. the helium nucleus has a greater charge.
D. when hydrogen converts to helium (as in the stars) energy is
released.
9 E. helium has neutrons in its nucleus.
3320022 E
15 24899 52 1370
0337
Ionization potentials do not lead to an understanding of
A. valences
0019
0035
0034
9
B. the nature of the bonds formed (ionic vs. covalent)
C. the extreme reactivity of the alkali metals; i.e., Li, Na,
K, etc.
D. the inertness of the noble gases
E. atomic numbers
3320023 D
14 24903 52
Lowest first ionization energy:
9 A. S B. Se C. Te D. Po
1945
3330001 A
15 24904 31 072407228003
Which one of the following elements would you expect to have the
greatest affinity for an electron?
3________
A. bromine
B. gallium
C. arsenic
D. selenium
9 E. potassium
3330002 A
14 24907 31 8003
Which of the following atoms has the highest assigned
electronegativity?
9 A. oxygen B. phosphorus C. nitrogen D. sulfur
0056
2WVW
2WVW
3330003 D
14 24909 32 033700048004
As the atomic number of the halogens increases, the halogens
A. lose their outermost electrons less easily
B. become less dense
C. become lighter in color
9 D. gain electrons less easily
2 OS
3330004 D
14 24912 31
Bromine atoms can oxidize
A. chlorine atoms
B. chloride ions
C. iodine atoms
9 D. iodide ions
2 OS
078603518004
3330005 A
15 24914 32 018907240786
Which one of the following elements would you expect to have the
greatest affinity for an electron?
9 A. bromine B. gallium C. arsenic D. selenium E. potassium
0042
3330006 E
15 24917 32 018907240344
Which one of the following elements would you expect to have the
0042
least affinity for an electron?
9 A. bromine B. qallium C. arsenic D. selenium E. potassium
3340001 D
15 45413 51
In which of the following lists do the ions NOT appear in the order
of increasing ionic radius?
5
+
+
+
2_
_
+
A. Li < Na < K
D. S < Cl < K
5
3+
2+
+
_
_
_
B. Al < Mg < Na
E. Cl < Br < I
5
+
_
2_
9 C. Na < F < O
3340002 B
14 24920 31 80048003
The halogen with the smallest atomic radius is
A. least active
B. most active
C. inert
9 D. found free in nature
2WVW
3340003 C
14 24922 32 001900158004
Of the following, which one is a correct statement:
A. The ionic radius of a metal is the same as its atomic
radius
B. The ionic radius of a metal is greater than its atomic
radius
C. The ionic radius of a metal is less than its atomic radius
D. The atomic radius of a non_metal is more than its ionic
9
radius
2 OS
3340004 D
15 24927 32 117807250026
Which one of the following ions would you expect to have the
largest ionic radius?
5
2_
+7
+4
3_
3+
9 A. S
B. Mn
C. Ti
D. P
E. Sc
0042
3340005 A
15 24930 52 117807250026
Which one of the following ions would you expect to have the
second largest ionic radius?
5
2_
+7
+4
3_
3+
9 A. S
B. Mn
C. Ti
D. P
E. Sc
0042
3340006 A
15 24933 32 08051178
The size of halide ions;
5
_
_
_
_
A. increases from F to I , B. increases from I to F
0042
9
C. is about the same for all halides
D. is smaller than the size of the corresponding atom.
E. depends mainly on which isotope forms the ion.
3340007 D
15 24937 52 073011780351
Of the following isoelectronic ions or atoms the smallest is:
5
_2
_
+
2+
9 A. S
B. Cl C. K D. Ca
E. Ar
3340008 B
15 24939 52
00260725
Which one of the following trends in atomic and ionic radii is
not correct?
5
3+ + 2_ 3_
2+ 2+ 2+ 2+
A. Al <Na <O <N
B. Sr <Ca <Mg <Be
9 C. C<Al<Ca<RB D. C<Si<Ge<Sn E. C<B<Be<Li.
0042
0044
3340009 C
14 24942 52 105508231435
Which of the following species would you expect to have the
largest radius?
5
+
_
A. Na B. Ne C. F D. O
94
11
10
9
8
0009
3340010 C
14 24945 52 018915060195
Which of the elements listed below would you expect to have the
smallest atomic volume?
9 A. P B. Cl C. F D. all the same
0009
3340011 B
15 24947 31 08231421
Which of the following has the largest radius?
A. S B. As C. Cl D. K E. Br
94
16
33
17
19
35
0019
3340012 D
15 24949 52 14210823
Which of the following has the largest radius?
5
+
_
_2
+
A. Na B. Ne C. F D. O
E. Li
94
11
10
9
8
3
0019
3340013 A
14 24952 52 1945
Largest radius:
9 A. Na B. Mg C. Al D. Si
3340014 A
14 24953 52 19480725
Of the following, the one with smallest radius is:
5
3+
3+
3+
3+
0056
0059
9 A. B
B. Al
C. Ga
D. In
3350001 C
14 24955 51 04300431800111
Tungsten is used as a filament in electric light bulbs because
of its
A. low density
B. high electrical resistance
C. high melting point
9 D. high coefficient of expansion
ETS2 OS
3350002 B
14 24958 31 04130433800111
Mercury is used in barometers because of its
A. good electrical conductivity D. high thermal conductivity
B. high density
E. low reactivity
9 C. attractive luster
ETS2 OS
3350003 A
15 24961 31 00020015800111
Sodium is different from common metals in being
A. lighter than water
B. opaque
C. malleable
D. of metallic lustre
9 E. a nonconductor of heat
ETS2 OS
3350004 A
14 24964 32 037701138004
The inert gas with the lowest boiling point is
A. helium
B. radon
C. xenon
9 D. argon
2 OS
3350005 A
14 24966 31 004400198004
The bromide ion in solution is
9 A. colorless B. red_orange C. violet D. yellow
2 OS
3350006 D
14 24968 31
The metal of lowest density is
A. beryllium
B. deuterium
C. boron
9 D. lithium
001501868004
3350007 D
14 24970 52 0808
Choose the least soluble of the following0
A. AgNO B. AgF C. AgCl D. AgBr.
94
3
E. blue
2 OS
0043
3350008 D
14 24972 52 016004620438
Which of the following exhibits the largest electrical
conductivity in the liquid state?
A. F B. Cl C. Br D. I
94
2
2
2
2
3350009 A
14 24975 52 13710498
Which of the following has the lowest boiling point?
A. F B. Cl C. Br D. I
94
2
2
2
2
3350010 B
14 24977 52 006604981371
Select the compound with the lowest boiling point:
A. NH B. PH C. AsH D. SbH
94
3
3
3
3
3350011 E
15 24979 31 01890062
Which of the following elements is the most metallic ?
9 A. Cr B. B C. Br D. As E. Rb
3350012 D
14 24981 52 018614131500
To estimate the density of hafnium, Hf, one would expect to
4
72
average the densities of
A. La and Ta B. Zr and Ce
9 C. Zr and U D. Ta and Lu
3350013 C
14 24984 52 0498
Which of the following would have a boiling point lower than
SiCl ?
4
4
A. GeCl B. SiBr C. CCl D. LiCl
94
4
4
4
3350014 B
15 24987 52 13710498
Which of the following has the lowest boiling point?
9 A. HF B. HCl C. HBr D. HI
3350015 A
15 24989 32 000800670722
Which of the following properties of water is anomalous according
to the periodic law?
A. boiling point
B. molecular weight
C. density at 40 degrees C
D. more than one correct response
9 E. no correct response is given.
0043
0043
0043
0020
0009
0009
0019
0040
3350016 D
15 24993 31 000800670722
Which of the following properties for water is not anomalous
3
______
(unexpected)?
A. boiling point B. freezing point C. heat of vaporization
D. molecular weight
9 E. no correct response is given.
0040
3350017 D
15 24997 32 000800670722
Which of the following properties of water would be considered
anomalous or different than expected?
A. boiling point
B. density behavior with temperature change
C. molecular weight
D. more than one correct response
9 E. no correct response is given.
0040
3350018 C
14 25001 52 1945
Which element is the most metallic?
9 A. Se B. Br C. Te D. I
3350019 D
14 25002 52 19480110
Of the following, the least water_soluble is:
A. Hg F
B. Hg Cl
C. Hg Br
D. Hg I
94
22
2 2
2 2
22
3350020 D
14 25004 52 1948
The least water soluble of the following is:
9 A. TlF B. TlCl C. TlBr D. TlI
0056
0059
0059
3360001 A
14 25006 52 117801910016
Choose the ion which tends to hydrolyze the most0
5
3+
3+
+
3+
9 A. Al
B. Ga
C. Tl D. Tl .
0043
3360002 B
14 25008 52 105514211531
Choose the species which shows the largest tendency to form
5
3+
complexes with Al :
5
_
_
2_
A. H O B. F C. Cl D. SO
94
2
4
0043
3370001 A
14 25011 31 80048003
In general, an atom will form a positive ion most easily if the
2WVW
9
A. size of the atom is large
B. size of the atom is small
C. charge on the ion is large
D. atoms appear below hydrogen in the activity series
3370002 B
15 25014 52 0035
Which one of the following oxidation states would NOT be
expected?
5
3+
4_
6+
+
A. Y
B. P
C. Te
D. Na
9 E. all of these oxidation states would be expected.
0044
3370003 B
15 45676 52 072613240189
Which one of the following sets of oxidation numbers would you
predict for these elements:
Pb
V
Nb
Sr
La
A.
5
6
7
4
5
B.
4
5
5
2
3
C.
5
5
7
4
3
D.
4
7
6
2
3
9 E.
5
5
7
4
3
0044
3370004 B
14 25022 51 003500370218
The oxidation states of nitrogen compounds include all numbers
A. between + 3 and _5
B. between _3 and +5
C. between +3 and _3
9 D. between +5 and _5
0019
3370005 C
15 25025 52 00351355
The maximum oxidation state of As
9 A. +2 B. +3 C. +5 D. +6 E. +7
3370006 D
14 25027 52 117805590189
If ions were formed in the combination of tin ( Sn) and another
4
50
element, what would be the likely charge on the tin atoms?
9 A. _2 B. +1 C. +3 D. +4
3370007 B
14 25030 52 1947
The most positive oxidation state of oxygen in any known compound
is:
9 A. 0 B. 2+ C. 3+ D. 4+
3380001 A
14 25032 31 024200668004
An ionic compound will form when
A. an element with 7 electrons in the outer shell unites with
0019
0009
0058
2WVW
9
an element with 1 electron in the outer shell
B. two elements with the same number of electrons in the outer
shell unite
C. electrons are shared by two atoms
D. an electric current is passed through a compound
E. when water is electrolyzed
3380002 D
14 25037 31 006601898004
A compound formed by uniting the element having atomic number 55
with the element having atomic number 16 will probably involve
bonds that are
A. polar covalent
B. nonpolar covalent
C. coordinate covalent
9 D. electrovalent
3380003 B
14 25041 31 80048003
Which compound is highly covalent?
A. cesium chloride
B. carbon bisulfide
C. potassium bromide
9 D. calcium fluoride
2WVW
2WVW
3380004 D
15 25043 32 132313670355
Which of the following oxides exhibits the highest covalent
character in its bonding?
A. BaO B. MgO C. BeO D. B O E. Al O .
94
23
23
0042
3380005 D
14 25046 52 023712130846
An example of a covalent hydride is:
A. NaH B. CaH C. SrH D. AsH
94
2
2
3
0043
3380006 C
15 25048 52 000511390237
Indicate whether the bonding in the following compounds is
primarily ionic (I), polar covalent (PC), or non_polar covalent
(NC).
H
CsF
SrF
PO
NH
4
2
2
23
3
A.
NC
PC
PC
PC
PC
B.
PC
I
I
I
NC
C.
NC
I
I
PC
PC
D.
NC
I
PC
I
PC
9 E.
I
PC
I
PC
I
0044
3380007 D
15 25056 51 02931376
The NaCl molecule
A. has electrovalent bonds
B. has covalent bonds
C. has coordinate covalent bonds
D. does not exist
9 E. has nonpolar bonds
0020
3380008 A
15 25059 51 035513760351
The bond that exists between two chlorine atoms in chlorine gas
is
A. pure covalent
B. partially ionic
C. polar
D. coordinate covalent
9 E. none of these
0020
3380009 E
15 25062 51 035501130351
The bond between two nitrogen atoms in nitrogen gas is
A. ionic
B. double
C. polar
D. single
9 E. triple
0020
3380010 B
15 25064 51 035500050411
The bond between Cs and F in CsF would be expected to be
A. pure covalent
B. pure ionic
C. nonpolar
D. coordinate covalent
9 E. none of these
0020
3380011 C
15 25067 32 11390355
Which of the following has the least polar bond?
A. NaCl B. BrF C. Cl D. KBr E. HCl
94
2
3380012 B
14 25069 52 019602371377
Which hydrogen halide has the greatest covalent character?
9 A. HCl B. HI C. HF D. HBr
3380013 C
15 25071 51 02931394
Which of the following molecules is nonpolar?
A. HOH B. HI C. CO D. HF E. CH OH
94
2
3
0020
0020
0020
3380014 A
15 25073 31 12961425
Which of the following contains the most purely ionic bonding?
A. CsCl B. CH C. SO D. AlCl D. Cl
94
4
2
3
2
0019
3380015 E
15 25076 31 09261296
Which of the following contains the most purely covalent bonding
A. CsCl B. CH C. SO D. AlCl E. Cl
94
4
2
3
2
0019
3380016 D
14 25079 32 11390293
The most polar molecule is
A. F B. BrI C. BrCl D. ICl
94
2
0019
3380017 A
14 25081 32 000502370355
Which one of the following contains both ionic and covalent
bonds?
A. NaOH B. HOH C. C H Cl D. SiO
94
65
2
0009
3390001 A
14 44989 31 01890337
An element with atomic number 19 will most likely combine
chemically with the element whose atomic number is
9 A. 17 B. 18 C. 21 D. 20 E. 16
2WVW
3390002 D
14 25085 51 018911671323
Which of the following elements does not react with oxygen to
form an oxide?
9 A. hydrogen B. carbon C. sulfur D. chlorine
3390003 B
14 25087 31 0189
0006
An element which is never found free in nature is
9 A. carbon B. chlorine C. oxygen D. sulfur
3390004 A
14 25089 52 018900771323
Choose the element which forms the most acidic oxide:
9 A. B
B. Al
C. Ga
D. Be
E. Ca
3390005 C
14 25091 52 1446
Choose the strongest acid:
A. H S B. H Se C. H Te D. H O
94
2
2
2
2
3390006 A
14 25093 52 080517781403
The halide ion with the highest hydration energy is:
0041
0041
0043
0043
0043
5
_
_
_
_
9 A. F B. Cl C. I D. At .
3390007 B
14 25095 52 08080008
Which of the following is least soluble in water?
A. NaF B. CaF C. AgF D. HF
94
2
0043
3390008 D
14 25097 52 08080008
Which of the following is most soluble in water?
A. AgCl B. AgBr C. SrF D. SrCl
94
2
2
0043
3390009 A
14 25099 52 0007
0023
Which of the following is the most powerful oxidizing agent?
A. F B. Cl C. Br D. I
94
2
2
2
2
0043
3390010 D
14 25101 51 00771455
Of the following acids, which is the strongest?
A. H TeO B. H SeO C. H SeO D. H SO
94
2 4
2 3
2 4
2 4
0009
3390011 D
15 25103 52 117814350180
Which ion below would be expected to have the largest hydration
energy?
5
_
_
_
_
9 A. Br B. Cl C. I D. F
0019
3390012 C
15 25105 31 087900030263
The electron structure of the alkali metals indicates that
A. they should be very ready to take on a single electron for
each atom.
B. in general, they should tend to form covalent compounds.
C. they should not be found in the free condition in nature.
D. lithium should be the most active of them.
9 E. all of them should be relatively inert.
0035
3390013 C
15 25110 52 019203370263
In chemical combination, a substance with an atomic number of 12
should readily
A. acquire one electron. B. lose one electron.
C. lose two electrons. D. acquire a valence of +4.
9 E. gain two electrons.
0035
3390014 D
0043
14 25113
31
037314480189
Of all the group II elements, the one with the highest oxidation
potential is:
9 A. Li B. Be C. Ba D. Ra.
3390015 D
14 25115 52 1945
Of the following, the element possessing the highest combining
power toward oxygen is
9 A. Si B. P C. S D. Cl
0056
3390016 D
14 25117 52 1947
Of the following metals, which one reacts most vigorously with
cold water?
9 A. Zn B. Ca C. Na D. K
0058
3390017 B
14 25119 52 194703440348
Of the following, which is most reactive with cold water?
9 A. Na B. K C. Mg D. Ca
3390018 A
14 25121 52 1949
With increasing atomic number within the halogen family
A. hydrides become more acidic
B. hydrides become more stable
C. the tendency to assume a positive oxidation state decreases
9 D. free halogens become stronger oxidizing agents
3390019 A
14 25125 72 19540238
Of the following, the weakest acid is
9 A. HF B. HCl C. HBr D. HI
0058
0060
0061
3390020 E
15 25127 72 196614680119
If equal volumes of 0.1 M thallium(I) dithionate and strontium
formate solutions are mixed together nothing happens, but if
equal volumes of zinc thiocyanate and thallium(I) formate are
mixed, a white precipitate forms. The identity of the
precipitate must be
A. thallium(I) formate
B. thallium(I) thiocyanate
C. strontium dithionate
D. zinc formate
9 E. The question does not contain sufficient information to decide
STOR
3390021 C
14 25133 31 07250180
40
In a group of ions, the most strongly solvated would be the ion with
A. the greatest charge and the largest radius.
B. the smallest charge and the largest radius.
C. the greatest charge and the smallest radius.
MSU
9
D. the greatest charge and the largest radius.
4100001 D
14 25137 31 044500318004
The weight proportions in a equation are most conveniently
expressed in terms of
A. the molar volumes
B. gram_atoms
C. mole
9 D. grams
2 OS
4100002 C
14 25140 31 003105538004
In a balanced equation, the numerical coefficients arrived at in
balancing the equation are identical with
A. the molar volumes
B. the number of gram _ atoms
C. the number of moles of each substance
9 D. the specific gravity of each gas
2 OS
4100003 C
14 25144 31 003103928004
That which is excluded in a word equation is
A. the substances which enter into the chemical reaction
B. the substances which are produced by a chemical reaction
C. the quantities of substances involved
9 D. an experimental fact or facts
2 OS
4100004 A
15 25148 32 081200180008
Which of the following symbols is used to designate NaCl
dissolved in water?
A. NaCl(aq)
B. NaCl(l)
C. NaCl(wat)
D. NaCl(w)
9 E. None of these
0020
4100005 A
14 25151 31 0224
05
Hydrochloric acid is represented by which formula?
A. HCl
B. H O
C. HeCl
D. HClO
94
2
4
4100006 D
14 25153 32 0224
05
The formula NaNO represents which compound.
4
3
9
A. Sodium nitrotrioxide
C. Sodium nitrite
B. Sodium nitride
D. Sodium nitrate
4100007 A
14 25156 32 0224
05
Magnesium bromide is represented by the formula
A. MgBr
B. Mg Br
C. MgBr
D. Mg Br
94
3 2
3
2 3
4100008 C
14 44461 32 0224
05
Potassium carbonate is represented by the formula
A. P C
B. P CO
C. K CO
D. K C
94
25
2 3
2 3
2
E. KCO
3
4100009 D
14 25160 32 0224
05
Potassium sulfide is represented by the formula
A. P S
B. K SO
C. P SO
D. K S
94
25
2 4
2 4
2
4120001 E
15 25162 31 03620812
Sb is the chemical symbol for the element?
A. Suberium B. Tin C. Bismuth
9 D. Strontium E. None of these
0028
4120002 D
14 25164 31
13360224
In the formula H SO , the 4 indicates
4
2 4
A. 4 parts by weight of oxygen
B. 4 parts by weight of sulfur and oxygen
C. 4 atoms of sulfur and oxygen per molecule
9 D. 4 atoms of oxygen per molecule
0026
4120003 C
15 25168 31 08120189
The symbol for the element sodium is
9 A. So B. Sd C. Na D. S E. Nt
0020
4120004 B
15 25170 31 081213091310
Which of the following symbols is not derived from a Latin name?
9 A. Fe B. Ca C. Pb D. Ag E. K
0020
4120005 E
15 25172 31 018907971311
Elements are named after
A. famous people B. planets c. Greek gods D. cities
9 E. all of these
0020
4120006 B
15 25174 31 08120189
The symbol for the element arsenic is
9 A. A B. As C. An D. Ar E. Ac
0020
4120007 E
0040
15 25176
31
018908120002
Consider the following set of five elemental symbols:
Be, Na, P, S, Cl. It is correct that these symbols
44
11
15 16 17
stand for, respectively, the elements
A. boron, nitrogen, phosphorus, selenium, chlorine
B. beryllium, sodium, plutonium, sulfur, californium
C. boron, sodium, phosphorus, sulfur, chlorine
D. beryllium, nitrogen, plutonium, sulfur, chlorine
9 E. beryllium, sodium, phosphorus, sulfur, chlorine.
4120008 D
15 25182 31 018908120002
The elements sodium, chlorine, and beryllium have, respectively,
the symbols
A. S, C, B
B. S, Cl, B
C. Na, C, Be
D. Na, Cl, Be
9 E. So, Cl, Be
0040
4120009 E
15 25185 31 033703510812
Which of the following pairs of symbols represent atoms which
have the same atomic number?
5
7
7
10
10
10
7
A. X and X B. X and X C. X and X
4
4
2
4
5
4
3
0040
5
7
6
10
9
D. X and X E. X and X
4
4
5
4
4
9
4120010 B
15 25190 31 009703530812
Which pair of the following symbols represents atoms that contain
the same number of protons?
5
7
5
10
11
A. X and X B. X and X
4
4
2
5
5
5
7
7
D. X and X
4
4
2
9
E. Both B anD D
10
7
C. X and X
3
4
0040
4120011 A
15 25195 31 034108120351
Which pair represents atoms that contain the same number of
neutrons?
5
7
5
10
10
A. X and X B. X and X
4
4
2
4
5
5
10
10
D. X and X
94
8
4
0040
10
7
C. X and X
8
4
10
11
E. X and X
5
5
4120012 A
15 25200 31 081205870341
5
14
The number 14 in the notation N refers to the
4
7
A. mass number
B. atomic weight
C. number of protons in the nucleus
D. number of neutrons in the nucleus
9 E. number of electrons in the nucleus.
0040
4120013 B
15 25204 31 009703410812
An atom contains 26 protons, 30 neutrons, and 26 electrons. For
this atom it is true that
A. Z = 30 and A = 26 B. Z = 26 and A = 56
C. Z = 26 and A = 30 D. Z = 56 and A = 30
9 E. Z = 56 and A = 26.
0040
4120014 B
15 25207 31 035305870812
An isotope has an atomic number of 30 and a mass number of 65.
this means that the nucleus of the atom contains
A. 65 protons and 35 neutrons
B. 30 protons and 35 neutrons
C. 30 neutrons and 35 protons
D. 65 neutrons and 35 protons
9 E. 65 neutrons and 30 protons.
0040
4120015 B
15 25211 32 131603370065
A certain atom has an atomic number of 20 and an atomic weight of
41.0 amu. The number of electrons contained in this atom is
9 A. 41 B. 20 C. 61 D. 21 E. 60
0040
4140001 C
15 25214 52
071101
The formula of calcium nitrite, Ca(NO ) , indicates that for
0064
4
32
every one dozen calcium atoms there will be ____ dozen oxygen
atoms.
9 A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
4140002 C
14 25217 31 022400668004
The simplest formula for a compound is called the
A. correct formula
B. molecular formula
C. empirical formula
9 D. atomic formula
2 OS
4140003 B
15 25219 31 07040224
The total number of atoms in the molecular formula, C H N O
4
20 24 2 2
(quinine) is
9 A. 20 B. 48 C. 44 D. 1 E. none of these
0028
4140004 A
15 25222 32 07040224
Write the molecular formula for sodium pentothal, having 11 atoms
carbon, 17 atoms hydrogen, 1 atom sodium, 2 atoms nitrogen,
2 atoms oxygen, and 1 atom sulfur in one molecule.
A. C H NaN O S B. C H SON O S C. C H NaN O Su
4
11 17 2 2
11 17 2 2
11 17 2 2
0028
D. C H N O
94
11 17 2 2
E. none of these
4140005 E
15 25227 32 002007040202
5
3+
Determine the formula of the compound composed of aluminum (Al )
5
2_
and sulfide ions (S )
A. AlS B. Al S C. AlS
94
32
2
D. Al S E. Al S
2
23
4140006 C
15 25231 32 002007040202
5
2+
Determine the formula of the compound composed of tin(II) (Sn )
4
1_
and nitrate ions (NO )
4
3
A. SnNO
B. Sn NO
0028
C. Sn(NO )
D. SnN O
E. None of these
0028
94
3
2 3
32
22
4140007 D
15 25236 32 002007040202
Determine the formula of the compound composed of Fe(III)
5
_
and Cl .
A. FeCl B. Fe Cl C. Fe Cl D. FeCl E. None of these
94
2
3
3
0028
4140008 C
15 25240 31 022400770100
The correct formula for nitric acid is
A. HNO B. HNO C. HNO D. HNO E. None of these
94
2
3
4
0028
4140009 B
15 25242 31 022400350797
The correct name for K CrO is
4
2 4
A. potassium chromite B. potassium chromate
C. potassium dichromite D. potassium dichromate
9 E. none of these
0028
4140010 D
15 25245 32 022400380077
The correct formula for tin(IV) chlorite is
A. Sn(ClO ) B. Sn(ClO ) C. Sn(ClO ) D. Sn(ClO )
4
32
22
34
24
9 E. none of these
0028
4140011 E
15 25248 32 022400770035
The correct formula for lithium hypobromite is
A. Li BrO B. Li BrO C. Li BrO D. Li BrO E. LiBrO
94
2 4
2 3
2 2
2
0028
4140012 B
15 25251 31 008207970006
The correct name for Cl O is
4
2
A. chlorine peroxide B. dichlorine oxide C. clorox
9 D. Dicarbon monoxide E. None of these
0028
4140013 D
15 25254 31 045508510224
The common name for sodium hydrogen carbonate is
9 A. slaked lime B. lye C. vinegar D. baking soda E. chalk
0028
4140014 B
15 25256 31 025102240018
The correct name for NaH PO is
4
2 4
A. sodium hydrogen phosphate
0028
9
B. sodium dihydrogen phosphate
C. sodium dihydrogen phosphite
D. sodium hydrogen phosphite
E. sodium metaphosphate
4140015 D
15 25259 32 022405520351
In the formula for sugar, C H O , the 12 indicates
4
12 22 11
9
0020
A. the mass of carbon
B. 12 parts by weight of C
C. the atomic mass of C
D. 12 atoms of C per molecule
E. none of these
4140016 E
15 25263 32 053502240351
Ethyl alcohol has the formula CH CH OH. How many atoms of
4
3 2
hydrogen are contained in each molecule?
9 A. 3 B. 5 C. 4 D. 2 E. 6
4140017 D
15 25266 32 1321
C H O is not
426
A. the molecular formula for ethyl alcohol
B. an empirical formula
C. the molecular formula for an ether
D. a structural formula
9 E. any of these
0020
0020
4140018 B
15 25269 32 022403511284
The formula Fe O represents which of the following
4
34
A. 3 grams of Fe combine with 4 grams O
B. 3 atoms of Fe combine with 4 atoms O
C. 3 atoms of Fe combine with 4 molecules of oxygen
D. 3 moles of Fe combine with 4 moles of oxygen
9 E. none of the above
0019
4140019 C
15 25273 31 125401890351
In which of the following pairs do the compounds have the same
number of elements as well as the same number of atoms?
A. COCl and CoCl
4
2
2
0040
B. Na SO and K PO
4
2 4
3 4
C. NH Cl and BaSO
4
4
4
D. H PO and HClO
4
3 4
4
5
+3
+3
E. Cr(H O)
and Cr(NH )
94
2 6
36
4140020 D
15 25279 31 125407040351
In the formula H SO , the four indicates
4
2 4
9
0040
A. four parts by weight of oxygen in the compound
B. four parts by weight of oxygen and sulfur in the compound
C. four atoms of sulfur and oxygen per molecule in the compound
D. four atoms of oxygen per molecule in the compound
E. oxygen is the haviest atom in the compound.
4140021 E
15 25284 31 125401890066
The formula (AB ) CD for a compound conveys which of the
4
32 4
0040
following pieces of information:
A. There are three different elements involved.
B. There are nine atoms involved per formula unit.
C. A and C are in a 1:1 ratio.
D. A and B are both bonded to C
E. AB is a structual unit
94
3
4140022 D
15 25289 32 019602241318
Which of the following compounds contains the same percentage of
hydrogen as does C H ?
4
22
4
9
A. CH
4
B. C H
26
C. C H
24
0040
D. C H
66
E. No correct response is given.
4140023 D
15 25293 32 019602241318
In which of the following samples will the percentage of H be the
0040
greatest?
A. 10 g C H
4
6 14
9
B. 20 g C H
6 14
C. 30 g C H
6 14
D. All samples have the same percentage of H
E. No correct response is given.
4140024 D
14 25297 32 1702
One mole of H S contains:
4
2
A. two atoms of hydrogen B. two molecules of H S
4
2
9 C. 2 moles of hydrogen gas D. 2 moles of hydrogen atoms
0003
4140025 C
14 25300 32 0727
One gram of NaCl:
A. is 58.448 moles of NaCl
5
_2
B. contains 1.71 x 10 g of Cl
C. contains 0.393 g of Na
9 D. contains 0.607 gram_atom of Cl
0003
4140026 CDBEC
55 25303 32 0020
1290
MACROITEM STEM
2To answer the following questions, select from the key the
2appropriate valence.
2A. valence 2
2B. valence 3
2C. valence 4
2D. valence 5
0 E. valence 6
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 1
Pb in the formula PbO
4
2
1
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 2
N in N O
4
25
2
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 3
Cr in Cr O
4
23
3
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 4
S in SO
4
3
ETS2 OS
4
MACRO SUB_ITEM # 5
SiO in Na SiO
94 4
4 4
4140027 E
15 25308 52
071101
The formula, (NH ) HPO indicates that for every dozen combined
4
42 4
oxygen atoms in this compound, there are ____dozen combined
hydrogen atoms.
9 A. 2
B. 1 and 1/4
C. 9
D. 8
E. 2 and 1/4
4141001 C
14 25312 31 056303518004
A radical is a group of atoms which
A. has variable valence
B. is never positive
C. acts like a single atom
9 D. acts like a molecule
0064
2 OS
4160001 C
15 25314 52 03838003
Nitrogen pentoxide, N O , was prepared first in 1849 by passing
4
25
2WVW
dry chlorine gas over heated silver nitrate. The "skeleton
equation" for the reaction that occurs is
(?)AgNO + (?)Cl ___> (?)AgCl + (?)N O + (?)O
4
3
2
25
2
Which set of stoichiometric coefficients correctly balances the
equation?
(?)AgNO + (?)Cl ___> (?)AgCl (?)N O
(?)O
4
3
2
25
2
3
________ ______
_______ _______ _____
9
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
2
2
4
3
16
1
4
2
2
8
2
2
4
3
16
1
4
2
2
8
1
1
1
2
4
4160002 B
14 25325 31 022400318004
How do you balance a formula equation?
A. Adjust the subscripts in the formula
B. Adjust the coefficients to the smallest possible whole number
ratio
C. Adjust the number of elements produced
9 D. Adjust an incorrect formula of a compound
2 OS
4160003 C
14 25329 52 094300311076
Which of the following chemical equations is balanced?
A. Fe O + CO _____> 2Fe + 2CO
4
23
2
4
0041
B. Na S + SO _____> Na S O + S
2
2
223
C. 3CuO + 2NH _____> 3Cu + 3H O + N
4
3
2
2
94
D. 4Al + 3Fe O _____> 4Al O + 9Fe
34
2
4160004 D
14 25334 32 094300311076
Which of the following chemical equations is unbalanced?
A. 2Hg + O _____> 2HgO
4
2
0041
B. 2H S + 3O _____> 2H O + 2 SO
4
2
2
2
2
4
4
9
C. Na O + H O _____> 2NaOH
2
2
D. SO + H O _____> H SO
2
2
2 4
4160005 C
15 25338 32 038308180031
If the equation Al (SO ) + BaCl _____> BaSO + AlCl is
4
2 43
2
4
3
correctly balanced, the coefficient of BaCl will be
4
2
9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
0018
4160006 E
15 25342 51 105109991070
Carbon monoxide, CO, an extremely toxic gas and one of the major
air pollutants, can be oxidized to carbon dioxide, CO , by iodine
4
2
pentoxide, I O . consequently its detection and determination
4
25
are possible even in small quantities and when mixed with other
gases. Balance the equation for this reaction in acid solution.
I O +CO _____> I +CO
0018
425
2 2
What is the correct coefficient for CO when the equation is
properly balanced(using smallest whole numbers)?
9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
4160007 B
15 44958 31 081807040383
If the equation, FeCl + AgNO _____> AgCl + Fe(NO )
4
3
3
33
is correctly balanced, the coefficients that must be added to the
equation would be
9 A. 1,1 B. 3,3 C. 2,2 D. 3,1 E. 1,2
0026
4160008 D
15 25353 32 130110760031
The numbers needed to balance the equation Al + Cl ____> AlCl
4
2
3
are
A. 1, 3, 2 B. 2, 1, 2 C. 4, 3, 2 D. 2, 3, 2
9 E. None of these
0020
4160009 B
15 25356 52
1076
3Fe(s) + H O(g) ___> Fe O (s) + 4H (g)
4
2
34
2
0020
A. This is a balanced equation
B. 4 H O's are needed to balance
4
2
C. This equation cannot be balanced
D. To balance, 3H O's are needed
4
2
9 E. None of these
4160010 A
14 25360 31 107614190325
A balanced chemical equation shows
A. The mole ratio in which substances react
B. The direction a chemical system will move in and the extent
of yield of the reaction
C. The speed with which the reaction proceeds
9 D. The individual molecular steps by which the reaction occurs
0009
4160011 C
14 25364 32 141904070224
To write a chemical equation for a given reaction, you would need
to know at least:
A. The masses of the reactants and products in the given
reaction
B. The mole ratios of all reactants and products in the
0009
9
reaction
C. The formulas of all reactants and products in the reaction
D. All of the above
4160012 B
15 25369 32 14191076
Which of the following is a balanced chemical equation?
A. H + O = H O
4
2
2
2
0019
B. Cu + Cl = CuCl
4
2
2
4
9
C. Ag + Cl = AgCl
2
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
4160013 C
15 25373 32 081803830031
When the following equation is properly balanced, what is the sum
of the coefficients of H O and Fe O ?
4
2
23
4
9
0040
Fe + H O _____> Fe O + H
2
23
2
A. 7 B. 8 C. 4 D. 5 E. 9
4160014 C
15 25377 32 038308180031
When the equation CaCl + Fe (SO ) _____> CaSO + FeCl
4
2
2 43
4
3
0040
is correctly balanced the number that appears before CaSO is
4
4
9
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
4160015 B
15 25381 32 038308180031
Which of the following equations is balanced?
A. 2NaHCO + 2HCl _____> 2NaCl + CO + 2 H O
4
3
2
2
B. Fe O + 3H _____> 2Fe + 3H O
4
23
2
2
C. 2KClO _____> 2KClO
0040
4
3
2
D. Na O + 2H O ____> 2NaOH + O
4
22
2
2
9
E. Both A and D.
4160016 E
15 25386 32 038308180031
The equation Na O + H O _____> NaOH + O , when correctly
4
22
2
2
balanced, appears as
A. Na O + 2H O _____> 2NaOH + O
4
22
2
2
B. 2Na O + 2H O _____> 4NaOH + 2 O
4
22
2
2
C. 4Na O + 3H O _____> 4NaOH + 2 O
4
22
2
2
D. 3Na O + 2H O _____> 6NaOH + O
4
22
2
2
E. 2Na O + 2H O _____> 4NaOH + O
94
22
2
2
4160017 C
14 25393 52 1419
05
Which of the following equations is a balanced chemical
equation corresponding to the statement "the diatomic
elements hydrogen and bromine react to form hydrogen
bromide?"
A. H + Br = HBr
C. H + Br = 2HBr
4
2
2
B. H + B = 2HB
4
2
2
9
D. H + Br = H Br
2
2
2 2
4160018 C
14 25398 52 1419
05
Which of the following statements corresponds to the
equation 2Cs + Cl = 2CsCl.
4
2
A. Cesium chlorate is formed by the reaction of two atoms
of cesium with one atom of chlorine.
B. The reaction between cesium and chlorine produces
cesium chlorate.
C. Two atoms of cesium react with one molecule of
chlorine to form two formula units of cesium
chloride.
0040
9
D. Two molecules of cesium chlorite are formed by the
reaction of two atoms of cesium with two atoms of
chlorite.
4160019 C
14 25406 32 07041419
0540
According to the equation N + 3H = 2NH ,
4
2
2
3
A. one molecule of nitrogen reacts with 3 atoms of
hydrogen
B. one molecule of nitrogen reacts with 3 moles of
hydrogen
C. one mole of nitrogen reacts with 3 moles of hydrogen
9 D. one atom of nitrogen reacts with 3 moles of hydrogen
4160020 C
14 25411 32 07041419
0540
According to the equation 2NH = N + 3H , one mole of
4
3
2
2
ammonia (NH ) decomposes to form
4
3
A. one mole of nitrogen
C. one_half mole of nitrogen
9 B. one mole of hydrogen
D. one_half mole of hydrogen
4160021 A
14 25415 32 07041419
0540
According to the equation 2NH = N + 3H , one mole of
4
3
2
2
ammonia decomposes to form
A. 1.5 moles of hydrogen
B. one mole of hydrogen
C. one mole of nitrogen
D. three moles of hydrogen
9
4160022 B
15 25419 32 07041419
0540
According to the equation 2Al + 6HCl = 2AlCl + 3H ,
4
3
2
A. production of 2 moles of H requires 3 moles of HCl
4
2
B. production of 1 mole of AlCl requires 3 moles of HCl
4
3
C. production of 2 moles of H requires 2 moles of Al
4
2
E. production of 0.5 mole of AlCl requires 3 moles of HCl
4
3
9
4160023 E
15 25426 32 07041419
0540
According to the equation 2Al + 6HCl = 2AlCl + 3H ,
4
3
2
A. 1 mole of HCl yields 1 mole of H
4
2
B. 1 mole of HCl yields 1 mole of AlCl
4
3
C. 2 moles of HCl yields 1 mole of AlCl
4
3
D. 2 moles of HCl yields 2 moles of H
4
2
E. 2 moles of HCl yields 1 mole of H
94
2
4160024 E
14 25433 51 1809
05
Which of the following is the correct net ionic equation for
the reaction of silver nitrate and calcium chloride to form
insoluble silver chloride?
5
+
_
2+
_
+
_
2+
_
A. Ag + NO + Ca + Cl ___> Ag + Cl + Ca + NO
4
3
3
5
2+
_
2+
_
B. AgNO + Ca + 2Cl ___> AgCl(s) + Ca + 2NO
4
3
3
5
+
_
2+
_
2+
_
C. 2Ag + 2NO + Ca + 2Cl ___> 2AgCl(s) + Ca + 2NO
4
3
3
5
+
_
2+
_
2+
_
D. Ag + 2NO + Ca + 2Cl ___> AgCl(s) + Ca + 2NO
4
3
3
5
+
_
9 E. Ag + Cl ___> AgCl(s)
MSU
4160025 C
14 25445 51 1809
05
Which of the following is the correct detailed ionic equation for
the reaction of silver nitrate and calcium chloride to form
insoluble silver chloride and calcium nitrate?
5
+
_
2+
_
+
_
2+
_
A. Ag + NO + Ca + Cl _____> Ag + Cl + Ca + NO
4
3
3
5
2+
_
2+
_
B. AgNO + Ca + 2Cl ____> AgCl + Ca + 2NO
4
3
3
5
+
_
2+
_
2+
_
MSU
C. 2Ag + 2NO + Ca + 2Cl ____> 2AgCl + Ca + 2NO
4
3
3
5
+
_
2+
_
2+
_
D. Ag + 2NO + Ca + 2Cl ____> AgCl + Ca + 2NO
94
3
3
4160026 C
15 25457 31 1809
05
When AgNO is added to a solution of MgCl , AgCl
4
3
2
precipitates. The detailed ionic equation which represents
this reaction is
5
+
_
2+
_
2+
_
A. Ag + NO + Mg + Cl ____> AgCl(s) + Mg + NO
4
3
3
5
+
_
2+
_
2+
_
B. Ag + 2NO + Mg + Cl ____> AgCl(s) + Mg + 2NO
4
3
3
5
+
_
2+
_
2+
_
C. 2Ag + 2NO + Mg + 2Cl ____> 2AgCl(s) + Mg + 2NO
4
3
3
5
+
_
2+
_
2+
_
D. 2Ag + 2NO + 2Mg + 2Cl ____> 2AgCl(s) + 2Mg + NO
4
3
3
5
+
_
2+
_
+
2+
_
E. 2Ag + 2NO + Mg + Cl ____> AgCl + Ag + Mg + 2NO
94
3
3
MSU
4160027 B
15 25472 51 1809
05
MSU
When solid CaCO is treated with a solution of KHSO ,
4
3
4
gaseous CO is evolved. The detailed ionic equation which
4
2
represents this reaction is
5
+
_
2+
+
2_
A. CaCO + K + HSO ____> Ca + CO + H O + K + SO
4
3
4
2
2
4
5
+
_
2+
+
2_
B. CaCO + 2K + 2HSO ____> Ca + CO + 2K + 2SO
+HO
4
3
4
2
4
2
5
+
_
2+
+
2_
C. CaCO + 2K + 2HSO ____> Ca + CO + K + H O + 2SO
4
3
4
2
2
4
5
+
_
2+
+
2_
D. CaCO + 2K + 2HSO ____> Ca + CO + K + SO
+HO
4
3
4
2
4
2
5
+
_
2+
2_
+
E. CaCO + K + HSO
94
3
4
____> Ca
+ SO
4
+ 2K + H O
2
4160028 D
14 44685 31 1809
05
MSU
Which of the following is the correct net ionic equation for the
reaction of iron(III) bromide with KOH in water solution to form
insoluble iron(III) hydroxide and potassium bromide?
A. FeBr (s) + KOH ____> Fe(OH) (s) + KBr(aq)
4
3
3
5
3+
_
+
_
+
_
B. Fe (aq)+3Br (aq)+K (aq)+OH (aq)___>Fe(OH) (s)+K (aq)+Br (aq)
4
3
5
3+
_
+
_
+
_
C. Fe (aq)+3Br (aq)+3K (aq)+3OH (aq)__>Fe(OH) (s)+3K (aq)+3Br (aq)
4
3
5
3+
_
D. Fe (aq)+3OH (aq)____>Fe(OH) (s)
94
3
4160029 B
14 25496 51 1809
05
In water solution, strontium chloride reacts with potassium
carbonate to form potassium chloride and insoluble strontium
carbonate. The correct detailed ionic equation for this
reaction is
5
2+
_
+
2_
2+
2_
+
_
A. Sr + Cl + K + CO
____> Sr + CO
+ K + Cl
4
3
3
5
2+
_
+
2_
+
_
B. Sr + 2Cl + 2K + CO
____> SrCO3 + 2K + 2Cl
4
3
3
2+
_
+
2_
+
_
C. Sr + 2Cl + 2K + CO
____> SrCO + K + Cl
4
3
3
5
2+
2_
D. Sr + CO
____> SrCO
94
3
3
MSU
4160030 C
15 25506 51 1809
05
Which of the following is a detailed ionic equation which
represents the reaction of soluble CrCl with the hydroxide
4
3
ion to form insoluble chromium(III) hydroxide ?
5
3+
+
_
_
+
_
_
A. Cr + 3Na + 3Cl + 3OH ____> Cr(OH) + 3Na + 3Cl + OH
4
2
5
_
3+
MSU
B. 3OH + Cr
____> Cr(OH)
4
3
3+
_
+
_
+
_
C. Cr + 3Cl + 3Na + 3OH ____> Cr(OH) + 3Na + 3Cl
4
3
5
+
D. CrCl + 2NaOH ____> Cr(OH) + 2Na
4
3
2
5
+
_
2+
_
_
E. CrCl + 3Na + 3OH ____> Cr + 2OH + 3Cl
94
3
4160031 D
15 25518 51 1809
05
Consider the equation
5 3+
_
_
Fe + 3Cl + 3NH OH ____> Fe(OH) (s) + 3Cl + 3NH
4
4
3
3
A. It is a balanced detailed ionic equation.
B. It is a balanced net ionic equation.
C. It is a net ionic equation, but it is not balanced.
D. It is a detailed ionic equation, but it is not balanced.
9 E. It is a molecular equation.
MSU
4160032 B
14 25524 51 1809
05
Which of the following is a correct detailed ionic equation
for the reaction of magnesium and hydrochloric acid to form
magnesium(II) chloride and hydrogen gas ?
A. Mg + HCl ____> MgCl + H
4
2
2
5
+
_
2+
_
B. Mg + 2H + 2Cl ____> Mg + 2Cl + H
4
2
5
+
_
C. Mg + 2H + 2Cl ____> MgCl + H2
4
2
2
5
+
+
2+
_
+
9 D. Mg + 2H + 2Cl ____> Mg + 2Cl + 2H
MSU
4160033 A
14 25532 51 1809
05
Which of the following detailed ionic equations describes
the reaction of Li O with HCl ?
4
2
5
+
_
+
_
A. Li O(s) + 2H + 2Cl ____> 2Li + H O + 2Cl
4
2
2
5
+
_
MSU
4
4
5
94
B. Li O(s) + 2HCl ____> 2Li + H O + 2Cl
2
2
C. Li O(s) + 2HCl ____> 2LiCl(s) + H O
2
2
+
_
+
_
+
_
D. Li O(s) + 2H + 2Cl ____> 2Li + 2Cl + H + OH
2
4160034 B
15 25540 51 1809
05
Consider the equation
5
+
2_
+
_
2H O + Pb(s) + 2Na + CrO
____> PbCrO (s) + H + 2Na + 2OH
4 2
4
4
2
A. The equation is a net ionic equation.
B. The equation is a detailed ionic equation.
C. The equation is not balanced.
D. This is not an ionic equation because PbCrO is not
4
4
written ionically.
5
+
E. To be a detailed ionic equation, the Na must be
9
removed from both sides of the equation.
MSU
4160035 C
15 25549 51 1809
05
Which of the following equations is of the detailed ionic type?
5
3+
_
A. 2Al + 6HCl ____> 2Al + 6Cl + 3H (g)
4
2
+
_
B. 2Al + 6H + 6Cl ____> 2AlCl + 3H (g)
4
3
2
5
+
_
3+
_
C. 2Al + 6H + 6Cl ____> 2Al + 6Cl + 3H (g)
4
2
5
+
3+
D. 2Al + 6H ____> 2Al + 3H (g)
4
2
5
+
_
3+
_
_
9 E. 2Al + 6H + 6Cl ____> 2Al + 6Cl + 6H
MSU
4160036 D
15 25558 51 1809
05
Reaction of solid CaCO with hydrochloric acid, HCl, yields
4
3
gaseous CO . The net ionic equation is represented by
4
2
5
+
_
+
_
2+
_
MSU
4
5
4
4
5
4
5
94
A. CaCO (s) + 2H + 2Cl ____> CO + H + OH + Ca + 2Cl
3
2
2+
2_
+
_
2+
_
B. Ca + CO
+ 2H + 2Cl ____> CO + H O + Ca + 2Cl
3
2
2
C. CaCO (s) + 2HCl ____> CO + H O + CaCl
3
2
2
2
+
2+
D. CaCO (s) + 2H ____> CO + H O + Ca
3
2
2
+
_
2+
_
E. CaCO (s) + 2H + 2Cl ____> CO + H O + Ca + 2Cl
3
2
2
4160037 D
15 25570 51 1809
05
Consider the equation
5
+
_
2+
_
Ni(OH) (s) + H + I ____> Ni + I + H O
4
2
2
A. The equation is balanced as it is written.
B. The equation is a balanced net ionic equation.
C. The equation is a balanced detailed ionic equation.
D. The equation is an unbalanced detailed ionic equation.
E. To be a detailed ionic equation, the Ni(OH) (s) should
4
2
5
2+
_
be represented as Ni + 2OH and the equation
9
should be balanced.
MSU
4160038 A
15 25579 51 1809
05
Consider the balanced equation
5
+
_
3H S + 2H + 2NO ____> 2NO(g) + 4H O + 3S
4
2
3
2
A. It is a net ionic equation.
B. It is a detailed ionic equation.
C. It is a molecular equation.
D. It will be a detailed ionic equation if two Na+ ions
are added to both sides.
E. It will be a detailed ionic equation if 3H S on the
4
2
+
2_
9
left side is replaced by 6H + 3S .
MSU
4160039 D
15 25587 51 1809
05
Consider the following three balanced equations
MSU
5
1.
4
5
2.
4
5
3.
9
+
2+
HgS + 2H ____> H S + Hg
2
2+
_
2+
_
Cu + Hg + 2NO ____> Hg + Cu + 2NO
3
3
2+
_
+
_
+
+
_
Cu + 2Cl + K + HS ____> CuS + K + H + 2Cl
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Equations 2 and 3 are net ionic equations.
Equations 1 and 2 are net ionic equations.
Equations 1 and 2 are detailed ionic equations.
Equations 2 and 3 are detailed ionic equations.
Equation 1 is a detailed ionic equation.
4160040 C
15 25596 51 1809
05
Which of the following is the correct detailed ionic
equation for the reaction of potassium hydroxide and
sulfuric acid to form potassium phosphate and water ?
5
+
_
+
2_
+
2_
+
_
A. K + OH + H + SO
____> K + SO
+ H + OH
4
4
4
5
+
_
+
2_
+
2_
B. K + OH + H + SO
____> K + SO
+HO
4
4
4
2
5
+
_
+
2_
+
2_
C. 2K + 2OH + 2H + SO
____> 2K + SO
+ 2H O
4
4
4
2
5
+
_
+
2_
+
2_
D. 2K + 2OH + 2H + SO
____> 2K + SO
+HO
4
4
4
2
5
+
_
+
3_
+
2_ +
_
E. K + OH + 2H + PO
____> 2K + SO + H + OH
94
4
4
MSU
4160041 A
15 25609 51 1809
05
Consider the following equation
5 2+
_
+
2_
+
_
Ba + 2Cl + 2Na + SO
____> BaSO + 2Na + 2Cl
4
4
4
A. It is a balanced detailed ionic equation.
B. It is a balanced net ionic equation.
C. It is an unbalanced detailed ionic equation.
D. It is an unbalanced net ionic equation.
9 E. It is a molecular equation.
MSU
4160042 D
15 25615 51 1809
05
Which of the following is the correct detailed ionic
equation for the reaction of barium bromide with ammonium
sulfate to form ammonium bromide and solid barium sulfate ?
5
2+
_
+
2_
2+
2_
+
_
A. Ba + Br + NH + SO
____> Ba + SO
+ NH + Br
4
4
4
4
4
5
2+
+
2_
2+
2_
+
B. Ba + 2br + 2NH + SO
____> Ba + SO
+ 2NH + 2Br
4
4
4
4
4
5
2+
_
+
2_
+
_
C. Ba + Br + NH + SO
____> BaSO + NH + Br
4
4
4
4
4
5
2+
_
+
2_
+
_
D. Ba + 2Br + 2NH + SO
____> BaSO + 2NH + 2Br
4
4
4
4
4
5
2+
_
+
2_
E. Ba + 2Br + 2NH + SO
____> BaSO + 2NH Br
94
4
4
4
4
MSU
4160043 D
15 25629 51 1809
05
Consider the following equation
5 3+
_
+
_
Sb + 3Cl + H S ____> Sb S + H + 3Cl
4
2
23
A. It is a balanced net ionic equation.
B. It is a balanced detailed ionic equation.
C. It is an unbalanced net ionic equation.
D. It is an unbalanced detailed ionic equation.
9 E. It is a molecular equation.
MSU
4160044 B
15 25634 51 1809
05
Which of the following is the correct detailed ionic
equation for the reaction of solid manganese (IV) oxide with
hydrochloric acid to form manganese (II) chloride, chlorine
gas and water ?
5
+
_
2+
_
A. MnO + H + Cl ____> Mn + Cl + Cl + H O
4
2
2
2
5
+
_
2+
_
B. MnO + 4H + 4Cl ____> Mn + 2Cl + Cl + 2H O
4
2
2
2
5
+
_
2+
_
C. MnO + 4H + Cl ____> Mn + Cl + 2H O
4
2
2
5
+
_
2+
_
MSU
D. MnO + 4H + 4Cl ____> Mn + 4Cl + 2H O
4
2
2
5
+
_
E. MnO + 4H + 4Cl ____> MnCl + Cl + 2H O
94
2
2
2
2
4160045 C
15 25646 51 1809
05
Consider the following equation
5 2+
_
+
_
Cu + 2Cl + H S ____> CuS + 2H + 2Cl
4
2
A. It is a balanced net ionic equation.
B. It is an unbalanced net ionic equation.
C. It is a balanced detailed ionic equation.
D. It is an unbalanced detailed ionic equation.
9 E. It is a molecular equation.
MSU
4160046 B
15 44916 51 1809
05
MSU
Which of the following is the correct detailed ionic equation for
the reaction of barium nitrate with magnesium sulfate to form barium
sulfate and magnesium nitrate ?
5
2+
_
2+
2_
2+
_
A. Ba + NO + Mg + SO
____> BaSO (s) + Mg + NO
4
3
4
4
3
5
2+
_
2+
2_
2+
_
B. Ba + 2NO + Mg + SO
____> BaSO (s) + Mg + NO
4
3
4
4
3
5
2+
_
2+
2_
2+
2_
2+
_
C. Ba + NO + Mg + SO
____> Ba + SO
+ Mg + NO
4
3
4
4
3
5
2+
_
2+
2_
2+
2_
2+
_
D. Ba + 2NO + Mg + SO
____> Ba + SO
+ Mg + 2NO
4
3
4
4
3
5
2+
_
2+
2_
2+
2_
E. Ba + NO + Mg + SO
___> Mg(NO ) (s) + Ba + SO
94
3
4
32
4
4160047 C
15 25664 32
071101
In the balanced equation for the oxidation of ammonia,
___NH + ___O = ___N O + ___H O
4
3
2
2
2
the coefficient for H O is
4
2
9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
0064
4160048 E
0064
15 25667
52
071101
The complete combustion of ethane, C H , yields carbon
4
26
dioxide and water as products as indicated in the
equation,
___C H + ___O = ___CO + ___H O
4
26
2
2
2
The ratio of the number of molecules of O required
4
2
to molecules of ethane burned is
9 A. 1
B. 3/2
C. 2
D. 3
E. 7/2
4160049 C
15 44574 32
071101
___Ag S + ___Al = ___Ag + ___Al S
4
2
23
For the reaction above, how many moles of silver atoms will be
formed when one mole of aluminum atoms reacts?
9 A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 7
0064
4160050 B
15 25676 52
071101
Acetylene, C H along with the by_product Ca(OH) , is produced
4
22
by adding CaC to water. The coefficient preceding the formula
4
2
for water, H O, in the balanced equation is
4
2
9 A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
0064
4160051 E
15 25680 52
071101
The following reaction (unbalanced) is important in the recovery
of gold from ores
__Au + __KCN + __O + __H O = __KAu(CN) + __KOH
4
2
2
2
The balanced equation shows that for every molecule of 0
4
2
used, ___ atoms of gold reacted.
9 A. 1
B. 2
C. 2.5
D. 3
E. 4
0064
4160052 E
15 25686 52
071101
Under appropriate conditions, ammonia reacts with oxygen as
represented by the following unbalanced equation
__NH + __O = __NO + __H O
4
3
2
2
The ratio of the coefficients of NH /O in the balanced equation
4
3 2
would be
9 A. 2/1
B. 3/2
C. 1/1
D. 3/5
E. 4/5
0064
4160053 D
15 25691 52
071101
For the reaction (unbalanced)
__Fe O + __NH = __Fe O + __N + __H O
4
23
3
34
2
2
the coefficients of NH and Fe O in the balanced equation would
4
3
34
be in the ratio _____, respectively.
9 A. 3/2
B. 1/2
C. 9/2
D. 1/3
E. none of these
4160054 E
15 45189 71
Which of the following equations is (are) NOT balanced?
1. ZnCl + NaOH ___> Zn(OH) + NaCl
4
2
2
2. Fe O + 2CO ___> 2Fe + 2CO
4
23
2
3. NH NO ___> N O + 2H O
4
4 3
2
2
9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1 and 2 E. 1,2 and 3
4160055 C
15 45193 71
Which one of the following equations is properly balanced?
A. NH NO ___> 2H O + N
4
4 3
2
2
B. CH CHO + 3O ___> 2CO + 2H O
4
3
2
2
2
C. Sn + 4HNO ___> SnO + 4NO + 2H O
4
3
2
2
2
D. 2Na SO + 3Bi(NO ) ___> Bi (SO ) + 9NaNO
4
2 4
33
2 43
3
E. Na CO + 2H SO ___> Na SO + 2H + CO
94
2 3
2 4
2 4
2
2
4160056 E
15 45199
When the equation
71
__C H N + __N O ___> __N + __CO + __H O
4 282
24
2
2
2
is balanced, the sum of all the coefficients (simplest whole number)
is:
9 A. 10 B. 11 C. 12 D. 13 E. 14
4160057 D
15 45288 71
Complete combustion of a 0.20 mol sample of a hydrocarbon, C H ,
4
xy
0064
gives 0.80 mol of CO and 1.0 mol of H O. The molecular formula
4
2
2
of the original hydrocarbon is:
A. C H
B. C H
C. C H
D. C H
E. C H
94
38
45
48
4 10
9 20
4162001 B
14 25696 31 039301138004
When gasoline or natural gas are burned completely the main
products are
A. carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
B. carbon dioxide and water
C. water and carbon (soot)
9 D. carbon monoxide and water
2 OS
4162002 C
14 25699 31 080604078004
A product resulting from the reaction between calcium and water
is
A. hydrogen peroxide
B. calcium oxide
C. hydrogen
9 D. oxygen
2 OS
4162003 A
15 25701 31 116711591323
When potassium and oxygen react, the oxide most commonly formed
is:
A. K O B. K O C. KO D. KO E. None of these.
4
2
22
2
9
0042
4162004 B
15 25704 31 117811670236
Which pair of ions in solution exhibit the lowest molar solubility?
5
+
_
2+
_
A. Ag and NO
B. Cu and OH
4
3
5
+
2_
2+
_
+
_
C. K and CO
D. Ca and Cl E. Rb and I
4
3
9
0042
4162005 D
15 25708 52 080609431055
Which product is usually produced from the indicated chemical
species.
A. Sulfide ion when sulfur is oxidized
B. MnO when KMnO is reduced in an acidic solution
4
2
4
C. Nitrogen oxide when concentrated nitric acid is used as an
0042
oxidant
D. Water when an acidified solution of H O is reduced
4
22
E. Nitrogen dioxide when dilute HNO reacts with iron.
94
3
4162006 E
15 25715 32 022400180080
What is the formula of the salt which is formed by the
neutralization of Al(OH) with sulfuric acid?
4
3
A. Al (SO ) B. AlSO C. Al SO
4
3 42
4
2 4
D. Al(SO ) E. None of these.
94
42
0042
4162007 B
14 25719 51 080606000083
A product of the thermal decomposition of sodium bicarbonate is:
A. NaH B. CO C. NaHCO D. C H
94
2
3
22
0043
4162008 D
14 25721 51 002109770403
5
2_
Oxidation of S O
by I yields:
4
23
2
0043
5
2_
A. SO
94
3
2_
B. SO
4
2_
C. S O
27
2_
D. S O
46
4162009 D
14 25724 51 009404071331
Colloidal sulfur may be produced by reaction between solutions of
A. H S O and H SO B. Na S O and I
4
227
2 4
223
2
94
C. Na S and FeCl
2
2
0043
D. FeCl and H S
3
2
4162010 D
14 25728 31 116700250066
When rubidium is reacted with oxygen, the compound formed is:
A. RbO B. Rb O C. Rb O D. RbO
94
2
22
2
0043
4162011 D
14 25730 52 013800870008
5
_
The OH concentration of a solution prepared by adding one mole
of Na O to enough water to make one liter of solution is:
0043
4
9
2
A. 0.5 M B. 0.2 M C. 1.0 M D. 2.0 M
4162012 D
14 25733 52 00870236040751
A dilute solution of palladium(II) sulfate is mixed with a dilute
solution of sodium iodide. A black precipitate results. The
products of this reaction are
5
2+
_
A. Pd (aq) + I (aq) + NaI(s)
B. I (aq) + SO (g) + PdNa (s)
4
2
2
2
5
+
_
C. PdO(s) + Na (aq) + I (aq) + SO (g)
4
2
5
+
=
D. PdI (s)+Na (aq)+ SO (aq)
94
2
4
9000
4162013 B
15 25740 51 116700080219
Calcium carbide reacts with excess water to give
A. acetylene + carbon monoxide
B. ethyne + calcium hydroxide
C. acetylene + coke
D. ethene + calcium oxide
9 E. carbon dioxide and calcium hydride
0020
4162014 A
15 25743 32 131906000407
The general expression for a decomposition reaction is
A. AB _____> A + B
B. AB + C _____> AC + B
C. AB + CD _____> AC + BD
D. A + B _____> AB
9 E. AB + C _____> A + CB
0020
4162015 C
15 25746 32 022413240066
The predicted formula for a compound formed from magnesium and
fluorine is
A. MgF B. Mg F C. MgF D. Mg F E. None oF these
94
2
2
23
0020
4162016 A
15 25749 51 005604070008
Sulfuric acid will react with sugar to give carbon and
A. water
B. sulfur trioxide
C. a hydrate
0020
9
D. sulfur dioxide
E. none of these
4162017 C
15 25752 32 140901610968
Under conditions of constant temperature and pressure 1 liter
of carbon monoxide (CO) and 2 liters of hydrogen (H ) react to
4
2
produce 1 liter of a compound. The simplest formula of the
compound must be _______.
A. CH O B. CH O C. CH O D. H O E. C H O
94
2
22
4
2
242
0019
4162018 D
14 25757 52 003104071171
The equation for the reaction of Ag CO , a water insoluble solid,
4
2 3
with a strong acid is best written as
5
+
2_
A. Ag CO (s) _____> 2 Ag (aq) + CO (aq)
4
2 3
3
5
2_
+
B. CO (aq) + 2 H _____> CO (g) + H O
4
3
2
2
C. Ag CO (s) _____> Ag O(s) + CO (g)
4
2 3
2
2
5
+
+
D. Ag CO (s) + 2 H _____> 2 Ag (aq) + CO (g) + H O
94
2 3
2
2
0009
4162019 B
14 25765 32 003104070087
The net ionic equation for the reaction that occurs when
solutions of AgNO and Na CO are mixed is
4
3
2 3
A. 2AgNO (aq) + Na CO (aq) _____> Ag CO (s) + 2NaNO (aq)
4
3
2 3
2 3
3
5
+
2_
B. 2Ag (aq) + CO (aq) _____> Ag CO (s)
4
3
2 3
5
+
_
C. Na (aq) + NO (aq) _____> NaNO (s)
4
3
3
9 D. No reaction
0009
4162020 D
15 25772 32 035112840097
If an atom containing 3 protons and 4 neutrons combines with a
second atom with 9 protons and 10 neutrons, the ion of the second
atom will have
0035
9
A. 12 protons. B. 4 Protons. C. 10 Protons.
D. 9 Protons. E. None of these.
4162021 B
15 45224 71
The net ionic equation for the acid_base reaction between formic
acid and sodium hydroxide is
A. HCOOH(aq) + NaOH(aq) ___> NaHCOO(aq) + H O(l)
4
2
5
+
_
B. H (aq) + OH (aq) ___> H O(l)
4
2
5
_
_
C. HCOOH(aq) + OH (aq) ___> HCOO (aq) + H O(l)
4
2
5
+
_
+
_
D. H (aq) + HCOO (aq) + Na (aq) + OH (aq) ___> NaHCOO(aq) + H O(l)
4
2
5
+
_
+
_
+
_
E. H (aq)+HCOO (aq)+Na (aq)+OH (aq)___>Na (aq)+HCOO (aq)+H O(l)
94
2
4162022 A
15 45235 71
All of the following are methods for making hydrogen chloride
(hydrochloric acid), EXCEPT
A. NaCl(s) + HaHSO (s) ___> Na SO (s) + HCl(g)
4
4
2 4
B. NaCl(s) + H SO (aq) ___> NaHSO (s) + HCl(g)
4
2 4
4
C. CH (g) + Cl(g) ___> CH Cl(g) + HCl(g)
4
4
3
D. H (g) + Cl (g) ___> 2HCl(g)
4
2
2
E. H O(l) + Cl (g) ___> HOCl(aq) + HCl(aq)
94
2
2
4164001 A
15 25776 52 1966
Chemicals DF and E F are produced from a chemical reaction
4
2
2
between D E and F . If one mole of E F is formed in this
4
26
2
2
reaction, how many moles of D E are consumed?
4
26
9 A. 0.33 B. 0.50 C. 1 D. 3 E. None of these
CRNS
4164002 D
15 25781 52 1966
Octane burns in air according to the following unbalanced
WKMN
equation:
C H + O ____> CO + H O
8 18
2
2
2
4
If 4 liters of liquid octane are completely oxidized, how many
liters of carbon dioxide would be produced at STP? Density of
5
3
liquid octane is 0.703 g/cm .
9 A. 4.420 B. 552.5 C. 8682 D. 4420 E. 55.25
4164003 C
15 25787 32 00090094800113
Iron reacts with sulfur as in the equation, Fe + S___> FeS.
The number of grams of FeS that can be obtained from 100 g
of S is approximately
9 A. 57 B. 175 C. 275 D. 157 E. 36
ETS2 05
4164004 C
15 25790 72 01990200800113
About how many grams of glucose are formed in the process of
photosynthesis if 2,031,000 calories of solar energy are absorbed?
The equation for the photosynthesis reaction is as follows:
(Assume 100% efficiency)
6CO + 6H O + 677,000 calories ___> C H O + 6O
4 2
2
6 12 6
2
ETS2 OS
glucose
9
A. 180
B. 90
C. 540
D. 360
E. 720
4164005 C
15 25796 72 00420025800113
If 10.0 kg magnesium are burned with 10.0 kg oxygen to produce
magnesium oxide as shown by the equation
2Mg + O ___> 2 MgO, the weight of magnesium oxide obtained is
4
2
9 A. 10.0 kg B. 8.3 kg C. 16.6 kg D. 33.2 kg E. 25.0 kg
ETS2 OS
4164006 A
15 25801 72 02150209800113
The reaction of sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid is given
by the equation NaOH + HCl ___> NaCl + H O. How many grams of
4
2
NaOH are needed to produce 100 g NaCl? (atomic weights
Na, 23.0; O, 16.0; H, 1.0; Cl, 35.5)
A. 68.4 g
B. 52.3 g
ETS2 OS
9
C. 30.8 g
D. 23.4 g
E. None of these
4164007 B
15 25806 72 02160209800113
Calcium carbonate reacts with hydrochloric acid as represented
by the equation CaCO + 2HCl _____> CaCl + H O + CO .
4
3
2
2
2
If 20 grams of calcium carbonate are placed with 20 grams of
hydrochloric acid, how many grams of hydrochloric acid will be
left over at the close of the reaction?
9 A. 7.6 B. 5.4 C. 0.70 D. 3.7 E. 13
ETS2 OS
4164008 B
15 25812 52 00140216800113
The equation for the preparation of carbon dioxide is
CaCO + 2HCl _____> CaCl + H O + CO
4
3
2
2
2
ETS2 OS
100
73
111
18
44
where the numbers are proportional to the relative weights of
the compounds. The number of grams of CO obtained from 25 grams
4
2
of CaCO is
4
3
A. 6.25
B. 11
C. 22
D. 44
9 E. None of these
4164009 B
15 25818 32 01970217800113
Given the equation CaO(s) + H O(l) ___> Ca(OH) (s)
4
2
2
the mass of CaO needed to produce 100 g Ca(OH) is
4
2
9 A. 31.1 B. 75.7 C. 100.0 D. 132.1 E. 162.2
ETS2 OS
4164010 A
15 25822 52 02160056800113
NaCl + H SO _____> HCl + NaHSO
4
2 4
4
How many grams of HCl can be prepared from 40 grams of NaCl?
(Atomic weights Na = 23; Cl = 35.5; H = 1)
A. 24.9
B. 5.1
C. 16.0
D. 4.1
ETS2 OS
9
E. 28.0
4164011 E
15 44934 52 02120014800113
Balance the equation below and answer the following question.
ETS2 OS
CH + O ___> CO + H O.
4 4
2
2
2
The volume of CO produced in burning 100 L methane is (both volumes
4
2
are measured under the same conditions)
9 A. 50 L B. 275 L C. 33.3 L D. 220 L E. 100 L
4164012 E
15 25831 72 02180196800113
The union of nitrogen and hydrogen with a suitable catalyst and
the addition of heat produces ammonia according to the equation
(atomic weight N=14, H=1)
N (g) + 3H (g) ___> 2NH (g) /\H = _24 kcal
42
2
3
__
when 136 liters of ammonia are produced, the number of liters of
nitrogen needed is
A. 90.7 liters
B. 112.0 liters
C. 204.0 liters
D. 272.0 liters
9 E. 68.0 liters
ETS2 OS
4164013 D
15 25837 72 02190025800113
2C H (g) + 5O (g) ___> 4CO (g) + 2H O(l)
4 22
2
2
2
The statement below which is correct (all gases measured at STP) is
A. 4 cc C H will react with 10 cc O to produce 4 cc liq. water.
4
22
2
B. 10 cc C H will react with 30 cc O to produce 24 cc CO .
4
22
2
2
C. 9 cc C H will react with 12.5 cc O to produce 18 cc CO .
4
22
2
2
D. 12.6 cc C H will react with 31.5 cc O to produce 25.2 cc CO .
4
22
2
2
E. 10 cc C H will react with 24 cc O to produce 20 cc CO .
94
22
2
2
ETS2 OS
4164014 A
15 25848 32 01960008800113
The reaction for burning hydrogen at a temperature high enough to
give the product water in a gaseous state is given by the equation
2 H + O ___> 2H O. The number of liters of water vapor formed
4 2
2
2
ETS2 OS
from 50 liters of hydrogen will be
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
9 E. None of these
4164015 B
15 25853 52 00250196800113
If one unit volume of oxygen and two unit volumes of hydrogen are
combined at high temperature, the number of unit volumes of
water vapor (measured at the same T and P) obtained is
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. A small fraction of one unit volume
9 E. An indeterminate volume greater than three
ETS2 OS
4164016 A
15 25858 52 02140025800113
The reaction for burning carbon monoxide may be shown by the
equation 2CO + O ___> 2CO (C = 12; O = 16). The number of
4
2
2
grams of oxygen gas needed to produce 20 grams of carbon dioxide is
most nearly
A. 7.3 grams
B. 11.4 grams
C. 14.5 grams
D. 3.6 grams
9 E. More data is necessary to answer this item
ETS2 OS
4164017 D
15 25863 72 02140014800113
The reaction for burning carbon monoxide may be shown by the
equation 2CO + O ___> 2CO . The number of liters of carbon
4
2
2
dioxide formed from burning 100 liters of carbon monoxide would
be
A. 150
B. 50
C. 200
D. 100
9 E. More data is necessary
ETS2 OS
4164018 D
15 25867 72 01960016800113
The volume of hydrogen at STP produced by 0.27 g of
aluminum (AW 27 and oxidation state +3) is
A. 2.24 liters
B. 3.36 liters
ETS2 OS
9
C. 7.72 liters
D. 0.336 liters
E. None of these numbers
4164019 E
15 25870 72 02230025800113
Butane burns in air according to the unbalanced equation
ETS2 OS
CH +
O = CO +
HO
4 4 10
2
2
2
The volume (at S.T.P.) of oxygen required to burn 58 grams of
butane is (in liters)
9 A. 44.8 B. 179.2 C. 89.6 D. 358.4 E. 145.6
4164020 D
15 25874 72 02120025800113
Consider the equation for the complete combustion of methane in
oxygen:
CH + 2O ___> CO + 2H O
4 4
2
2
2
The volume of oxygen required to burn 100 liters of methane is
A. 20 liters
B. 25 liters
C. 100 liters
D. 200 liters
9 E. 400 liters
ETS2 OS
4164021 A
15 25879 52 07048003
If 1.00 g of Zn is to react completely by
Zn + 2HCl___> ZnCl + H , at least___________ g of HCl must
4
2
2
be present.
(At. Wt H=1.0, Cl=35.5, Zn=65.4)
A. 1.12 g
B. 2.00 g
C. 2.24 g
D. 3.00 g
9 E. 4.48 g
2WVW
4164022 E
15 25883 52 07048003
How much CaCO is required to produce 50 g of CaO, according
4
3
to the equation
CaCO ___> CaO + CO
4
3
2
assuming all the CaCO reacts?
4
3
(At. Wt C=12, O=16, Ca=40)
2WVW
9
A. 0.89 g
B. 2.8 g
C. 28 g
D. 62.5 g
E. 89 g
4164023 A
15 25887 52 8003
If one gram of Zn is to react completely by
Zn(s) + 2 HCl (aq) ___> ZnCl (aq) + H (g)
4
2
2
at least ______ grams of HCl must be present.
9 A. 1.12 B. 2.00 C. 2.24 D. 3.00 E. 4.48
2WVW
4164024 B
14 25891 32 019604048004
The complete combination of one liter of hydrogen with one liter
of chlorine yields a gaseous product whose volume is
A. 1 liter
B. 2 liters
C. 3 liters
9 D. 4 liters
2 OS
4164025 B
15 25894 52 002311670195
When 3.80 g of fluorine (F ) react completely with H , what
4
2
2
volume of HF gas is produced at stp?
5
_1
_1
(At. Wt. H = 1.0, F = 19.0; R=0.0820 liter atm mole deg )
A. 0.20 liter B. 4.48 liters C. 11.2 liters
9 D. 22.4 liters E. 44.8 liters
0042
4164026 E
15 25899 52 013811780236
5
_
The average concentration of Cl ions in human blood plasma is
0.10 molar. If a 10_ml sample of blood is assumed to
precipitate only AgCl upon the addition of 0.050 molar AgNO
4
3
solution, how much AgNO solution must be added if we assume that
4
3
AgCl is completely insoluble?
9 A. 0.050 ml B. 0.10 ml C. 10 ml D. 15 ml E. 20 ml
0042
4164027 A
15 25905 32 002711670031
If one gram of Zn is to react completely by
Zn + 2HCl _____> ZnCl + H , at least ______ grams of HCl must be
4
2
2
present.
0042
9
A. 1.12g B. 2.00g C. 2.24g D. 3.00g E. 4.48g
4164028 E
15 25908 32 055313551159
If 0.50 mole of Na PO is mixed with 0.30 mole of BaCl , the
4
3 4
2
maximum number of moles of barium phosphate which can be formed
is:
9 A. 0.80 B. 0.50 C. 0.30 D. 0.15 E. 0.10
0042
4164029 B
15 25912 32 107618090407
In the completely balanced ionic equation for the reaction of
metallic aluminum with excess hydrogen ions which one is one of
the product terms? (Use only whole number coefficients)
5
3+
3+
A. 6H B. 2Al
C. 3H D. Al
E. H
94
2
0042
4164030 C
15 25916 32 116700310806
If one liter of C H and 5 liters of O react according to the
4
38
2
0042
equation
4
C H + 5O <=====> 3CO + 4H O
38
2
2
2
and assuming that all products are in the gaseous state, then the
products will occupy (under the same conditions)
A. 1 liter B. 6 liters C. 7 liters
9 D. 8 liters E. It is impossible to tell.
4164031 B
14 25922 52 007700870045
5
2_
2+
3+
3+
In acid solution Cr O
will oxidize Fe to form Cr and Fe .
4
27
how many milliliters of 0.100 M K Cr O are required to oxidize
4
2 27
35.0 ml of 0.500 M FeSO ?
4
4
9
0043
A. 7.00 B. 29.2 C. 42.0 D. 175.
4164032 D
15 25927 52 116501280788
Heavy water has a molecular weight of 20 instead of 18 because it
contains, in place of hydrogen, deuterium, a hydrogen isotope
with mass number 2. which of the following is the same
regardless of whether the water is heavy water or ordinary water?
A. Density of the gas produced at the cathode in electrolysis
0044
9
of the water.
B. Grams of gas formed when 0.100 mole of Ca (solid) is added
to the water.
C. Grams of water decomposed per faraday in the electrolysis of
the water.
D. Density of the gas produced at the anode in electrolysis of
the water.
E. Density of the gas produced when lithium is added to the
water.
4164033 D
15 25936 52 0407
Consider the following hypothetical unbalanced reaction:
Ni + S + O _____> NiSO
4
2
4
given: 12.0 grams of Ni, 0.404 moles of S, and 14.5 liters
of O at STP, how many moles of NiSO can be prepared?
4
2
4
0044
14.5
22.4
12.0
A. ________ B. ________ C. .404 D. ____
22.4 x 2
14.5 x 2
58.7
9
E. None of the above.
4164034 D
14 25942 32 10760031055351
Given the balanced equation
4NH + 3O _____> 2N + 6H O
3
2
2
2
9000
how many moles of N could be produced from 6 moles NH ?
4
2
3
9
A. 20
B. 6
C. 4
D. 3
4164035 B
14 25946 32 03980884040751
What mass Na CO (m.w. = 106) Will produce 10 liters CO
4
2 3
2
(measured at stp) in the reaction
Na CO (s) + H SO (l) _____> Na SO (aq) + H O(l) + CO (g)
4
2 3
2 4
2 4
2
2
106
10
106
A. ____ grams B. 106 x ____ grams C. ____ grams
22.4
22.4
10
9000
22.4
D. 106 x ____ grams
10
9
4164036 B
14 25953 32 01950884040751
What volume of CO at stp could be prepared by the reaction of
4
2
9000
10.0 g of calcium carbonate with excess hydrochloric acid?
CaCO (s) + 2HCl(aq) _____> CaCl (aq) + CO (g) + H O(l)
4
3
2
2
2
9
A. 1.12 liters B. 2.24 liters C. 3.36 liters D. 4.48 liters.
4164037 A
14 25958 32 05531167039851
If one mole of H and one mole of O are allowed to react,
4
2
2
according to the equation below, what is the maximum mass of H O
4
2
that could be produced?
2H (g) + O (g) _____> 2H O(l)
4
2
2
2
9 A. 18 grams B. 36 grams C. 54 grams D. 72 grams
9000
4164038 D
14 25963 52 04070795116751
Aluminum chloride may be prepared by the following reaction:
2Al + 3Cl _____> 2AlCl
4
2
3
how many grams of AlCl can be produced if 284 g Cl react
4
3
2
completely?
9 A. 284 B. 200 C. 227 D. 356
9000
4164039 D
14 25967 32 05530546088451
When one mole of pentane, C H , at STP, is burned completely in
4
5 12
oxygen, how many liters of CO at STP are produced?
4
2
9 A. 4.48 B. 11.2 C. 22.4 D. 112
9000
4164040 B
15 25970 52 040401680002
Suppose you have 78 gm of sodium,Na,and 200 gm of chlorine,Cl.
What is the maximum amount of sodium chloride(39% Na and 61% Cl)
that can be formed from this mixture?
9 A. 239 G B. 198 g C. 61 g D. 278 g E. None of these
0018
4164041 D
15 25974 32 079500250407
How many grams of oxygen would be produced from a reaction that
gave 10 gm of hydrogen?
2H O _____> 2H + O
4 2
2
2
9 A. 32 B. 64 C. 16 D. 80 E. None of these
4164042 D
15 25977 52 00370043
The New York city police department seized a package that they
suspected contained LSD (d_lysergic acid diethylamide,C H N O).
4
24 30 3
When the compound was combusted, the following reaction was
expected:
C H N O + 34O ____> 24CO + 15H O + 3NO
4 24 30 3
2
2
2
2
The crime laboratory combusted a 376 gm sample. If the sample
were pure LSD, how many moles NO would have been produced?
4
2
9 A. 12 B. 6 C. 1.5 D. 3 E. None of these
0018
0018
4164043 C
15 25985 32 003103510407
The equation, N + 3H ___> 2NH , says
4
2
2
3
A. Three atoms of hydrogen react with each molecule of
nitrogen
B. Two molecules of product are produced from every molecule of
hydrogen
C. There are 6 atoms of hydrogen contained in the reaction
products for every molecule of nitrogen which reacts
D. A gram of nitrogen will react with 3 grams of hydrogen
9 E. None of the above
0020
4164044 D
15 25991 32 040700310943
The reaction represented by the chemical equation
2H + O ___> 2H O means that
4 2
2
2
0020
9
A. 4 atoms of hydrogen react with 2 atoms of oxygen to give 2
molecules of water
B. 2 molecules of hydrogen react with 1 molecule of oxygen to
give 2 molecules of water
C. 2 molecules of hydrogen react with 2 atoms of oxygen to
give 2 molecules of water
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
4164045 A
15 25997 52 040700310008
The reaction represented by the chemical equation
2H + O ___> 2H O means that
4 2
2
2
A. 4g of hydrogen react with 32 g of oxygen to give 36 g water
B. 2 moles of hydrogen react with one mole of oxygen to give
two moles of water
C. 4 atoms of hydrogen react with 2 atoms of oxygen to give 2
molecules of water
D. All of the above
9 E. None of the above
0020
4164046 C
15 26003 52 003107950553
S (s) + 8O (g) ___> 8SO (g)
this equation says
48
2
2
A. One molecule of sulfur reacts with 8 moles of oxygen
B. One mole of sulfur reacts with 8 molecules of oxygen
C. 256.8 g of sulfur react with 8 moles of oxygen
D. 256.8 g of sulfur react with 16 molecular masses of oxygen
9 E. None of the above
0020
4164047 A
15 26008 52 039811730302
How many grams of sulfur dioxide can be prepared from 50.0 g of
sulfur when it is burned in an excess of oxygen?
9 A. 100 B. 150 C. 200 D. 50 E. 63
0020
4164048 A
15 26011 52 055311591332
How many moles of sulfur dioxide are formed when 4 moles of zinc
sulfide are roasted in air?
9 A. 4 B. 1 C. 3 D. 2 E. none of these
0020
4164049 A
15 44631 52 005611670795
What is the theoretical yield in grams of zinc sulfate which can be
made from 100 g of zinc metal and excess sulfuric acid?
9 A. 247 g B. 162 g C. 227 g D. 273 g E. 100 g
0020
4164050 E
15 26017 52 133100720196
How many grams of ammonia can be produced from 200 g of hydrogen?
N + 3H ___> 2NH
42
2
3
9 A. 567 g B. 283 g C. 113.3 g D. 1133 g E. none of these
0020
4164051 A
15 26020 52 003105531331
Given the equation: 2Al(OH) + 3H SO ___> Al (SO ) + 6H O
4
3
2 4
2 43
2
0020
how many moles of aluminum hydroxide are needed to produce 684 g
of aluminum sulfate?
9 A. 4 Moles B. 1 mole C. 3 moles D. 2 moles E. None of these
4164052 A
15 26024 32 116713351331
Ferric oxide reacts with carbon in a blast furnace to produce
iron and carbon monoxide.
Fe O + 3C ___> 2Fe + 3CO
4
23
How much iron can be produced from 63.9 g ferric oxide?
9 A. 44.7 g B. 89.4 g C. 55.8 g D. 22.3 g E. None of these
0020
4164053 B
15 26028 52 040711590398
In the reaction, CaCO ___> CaO + CO , sixteen grams of CaO was
4
3
2
formed. The mass of CO formed at the same time is
4
2
9 A. 8.8 g B. 12.6 g C. 20.4 g D. 11.2 g E. None of these
0020
4164054 B
15 26032 52 006603020031
The compound C H will burn in air to form water and carbon
4
6 12
dioxide. What number should be written in front of O in the
4
2
correctly balanced equation?
9 A. 3 B. 9 C. 14 D. 6 E. 12
0020
4164055 E
15 26036 52 003202860031
Forty grams of copper are heated with 4 grams of sulfur. The
reaction goes to completion without loss of sulfur, as
represented by the equation: 2Cu + S ___> Cu S
4
2
approximately how many grams of copper remain uncombined?
9 A. 4 grams B. 16 grams C. 32 grams D. 8 grams E. 24 grams
0020
4164056 D
15 26041 52 079500310113
How many grams of oxygen are needed to burn 88.0 g of propane
gas according to the equation: C H + 5O ___> 3CO + 4H O
4
38
2
2
2
9 A. 640 g B. 900 g C. 160 g D. 320 g E. None of these
4164057 A
14 26045 32 007200