TEST BANK to Accompany Functional Behavioral Assessment, Diagnosis, and Treatment, Second Edition The correct response is bold letter font—make sure to remove before submitting test to students Chapter 1: 83 items in the pool 1. An examination of temporally ordered environmental events conducted in order to reveal the purpose of a behavior is called ______________. A. psychology B. an incomplete analysis of human behavior C. experimental analysis of behavior D. a functional behavior-analytic approach to understanding human behavior 2. In a functional behavior-analytic approach, ________behavior is viewed as serving an environmental function. A. operant B. overt C. private D. some 3. A functional behavior-analytic viewpoint examines the role of _________________ A. how people interact with each other B. genetics in the formation of behavior C. both the psychological and biological factors that control behavior D. both the social and physical context. It deals with events that are both observable to us and measurable 4. You change child behavior by _____________ A. changing the behavior of the adults who deal with that child. B. using extinction C. completing a Functional Behavior Analysis D. providing the appropriate medication Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 5. In a functional behavior-analytic approach, behavior is viewed as functional (i.e., purposeful) for certain antecedent contexts because ____________ A. it is purposeful B. it is a more parsimonious explanation than intra-psychic events C. experimental data supports this conclusion D. of the contingency involved. 6. A contingency is the temporal relationship between behavior and ____________ A. genetics B. positive discipline C. a consequence D. an eliciting stimulus 7. When Oskar wants to go out, he complains. Such behavior is not instrumental in getting him outside. The complaining behavior becomes ____ likely in subsequent afternoons when Oskar wants to go outside.. A. conditionally B. more C. equally D. less 8. There are two types of maintaining contingencies for problem (or other) behavior: ___________ and ____________ reinforcement contingencies. A. internal, external B. positive, negative C. intrinsic, extrinsic D. good, bad 9. Positive reinforcement contingencies involve behaviors that produce an environmental event, that subsequently ____________ the level of occurrence of that behavior under the same or similar conditions. A. decreases B. changes C. modulates D. increases Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 10. The operation of positive reinforcement involves a behavior that produces an event (activity, object) that subsequently _________ of that behavior in the future (under certain motivational contexts). A. strengthens the occurrence B. weakens the occurrence C. changes the occurrence D. effects the occurrence 11. The two requirements for identifying a contingency as one involving positive reinforcement are: (1) that the level of the behavior is at ___________ than the level without the contingent relation, and (2) that the contingency is one of a behavior ___________ A. lower or decreased levels B. higher or increased levels C. producing an environmental event D. B and C E. A and C 12. An understanding of negative reinforcement operations is _________ the design of effective treatments, A. unnecessary to B. nice to know in C. critical to D. superfluous to 13. If you serve individuals who more often engage in behavior problems during task demands, compliance situations, instructional conditions, or chores and /work, an understanding of ____________ is critical to the analysis of such behaviors function and the design of effective treatments. A. negative reinforcement B. positive punishment C. mental illness D. parenting styles 14. In negative reinforcement, the effect of the behavior is to ___________ the presentation of, an aversive event. A. cause B. initiate C. terminate or postpone D. Predict 15. Aversive events are ________ to the individual. A. unconditioned B. important C. delivered D. relative Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 16. The subsequent effect of a negative reinforcement contingency on behavior is one of __________ its probability under the same or similar conditions in the future. A. decreasing B. changing C. controlling D. increasing 17. According to the text, all behaviors that are maintained as a result of negative reinforcement are called ___________ A. access behavior B. escape behaviors C. inappropriate D. socially mediated 18. Escape behaviors result in the aversive event being ________________ A. terminated or avoided B. applied C. reinforced D. socially mediated 19. The form or topography of the behavior _______ dictate what environmental function exists. A. will usually B. will always C. will never D. does not usually 20. The same topography of behavior exhibited by a given child _________ environmental effects, that is, consequences that maintain such behaviors. A. always produces the same B. never produces the same C. never produces different D. can produce different 21. ___________ situations involve issuing a request or directive to engage in some behavior A. Positive reinforcement B. Compliance C. Rule governed D. Neutral reinforcement Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 22. When oppositional behavior occurs in compliance situations A. it is generally related to poor parenting B. it can be analyzed in terms of function C. it is a sign of underlying mental illness D. punishment is usually needed 23. In some cases, noncompliance takes an innocuous form, such as the individual simply not attending to the person issuing the command. Such a lack of response is maintained by ___________. A. direct reinforcement B. indirect reinforcement C. positive reinforcement D. negative reinforcement 24. There are two ways to access positive reinforcers: ___________ A. Directly and through social mediation. B. Direct and inter-directly C. Socially mediated and indirectly D. All of the above 25. Escape behaviors can function to produce termination of an aversive event in two ways: ___________ A. Direct and inter-directly B. Directly and through social mediation C. Socially mediated and indirectly D. None of the above Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 26. The two types of reinforcement are; ___________ A. Direct reinforcement and Inter-direct Reinforcement B. Wanted reinforcement and Unwanted Reinforcement C. Positive reinforcement and Negative Reinforcement D. Appropriate reinforcement and Inappropriate Reinforcement 27. With a ________ behavior, the client’s behavior immediately produces access to positive reinforcement In other words; the behavior produces the positive reinforce without social mediation of such. A. direct access B. indirect access C. socially mediated access D. negative access 28. There are four ways reinforcement can be produced: _________________ A. Direct access, Direct escape, Socially mediated access, socially mediated escape B. Direct, Socially mediated, Positive, Negative C. Direct access, direct escape, indirect access, indirect escape D. Tangible access, Social access, demand escape, sensory access 29. An individual is hungry and therefore goes to the refrigerator, opens the door, selects an apple, and eats it. This chain of behaviors involved in getting the apple directly produced the reinforcer—the ingestion of the apple. We would not say that the individual exhibits those behaviors because of the attention someone gives to him, regardless of whether such attention is positive, negative, or neutral. Attention is a tangential consequent event. Getting the apple is the desired reinforcer. This is an example of a _________behavior. A. direct escape B. direct access C. socially mediated access D. socially mediated escape 30. Putting the key in the car and turning it produces the desired result (car starting). Lying down on the bed, when one is tired, is a chain of behaviors that produces rest. These are examples of _____________ behavior. A. socially mediated escape B. socially mediated access C. direct access D. direct escape Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 31. Singing in the car or shower is most likely maintained by _____________ A. direct escape B. socially mediated access C. socially mediated escape D. direct access 32. Behaviors that produce the desired positive reinforcer through the efforts of someone else are labeled ______________. A. direct escape B. socially mediated access C. socially mediated escape D. direct access 33. Behaviors that achieve their effect through the behavior being mediated by someone else are called ______________. A. Direct B. Socially mediated C. Positive D. Negative 34. Socially mediated access only occurs through some form of vocal request. A. True B. False 35. A client with schizophrenia mutters about people stealing her money. Subsequently, after meeting with the facility administrator, she gets a few dollars to spend on candy and soda in the vending machines. This statement is maintained by ___________ A. Socially mediated escape B. Direct access C. Socially mediated access D. Direct escape 36. Behavior can also produce direct termination of existing environmental events. This is a behavior maintained by ______________ A. Socially mediated escape B. Direct access C. Socially mediated access D. Direct escape Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 37. Escape behaviors can often achieve their effect of removing or postponing an aversive condition through the behavior of someone else. This is a behavior maintained by ______________ A. Socially mediated escape B. Direct access C. Socially mediated access D. Direct escape 38. __________ effects can also explain why care providers, parents, and staff respond to their child or client’s behavior in the manner they do. Why doesn’t the parent see that they are enabling the child’s misbehaviors?” Analysis of behavioral function is not just for explaining why clients do what they do. A. Social constructs B. Negative reinforcement C. Poor training D. Positive parenting 39. What can function as a reinforcer for one person may not function as a reinforcer for another person. A. True B. False 40. Keller and Schoenfeld (1950) first used the term __________ to refer to the process by which reinforcers become effective. A. Direct Reinforcement B. Conditioned Reinforcement C. Unconditioned reinforcement D. Establishing Operations (EO) 41. Dr. Jack Michael at Western Michigan University proposed a precise terminology which designated the role of _________variables as: (a) an antecedent variable, and (b) separate from the role of a discriminative stimulus. A. controlling B. motivating C. conditioned D. all 42. Motivating Operations are environmental events that effect an organisms behavior by altering the reinforcing or punishing __________ of some environmental change and the __________ that have in the past been associated with the occurrence of those consequences. A. characteristics, behaviors B. effectiveness, occurrence of the behaviors C. eliciting stimulus control, occurrence of the behaviors D. none of the above Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 43. Motivating Operations can be divided into two distinct operations : ______________ A. Conditioned and conditionable B. Establishing and Abolishing C. Direct and Socially Mediated D. Positive establishing and Negative establishing 44. Establishing Operations refer to the process by which the value of a particular outcome is _______ A. increased B. decreased C. established D. abolished 45. Abolishing Operations refer to the process by which the value of a particular outcome is _________. A. increased B. decreased C. established D. abolished 46. Motivating operations effect the current rate of behavior by increasing or decreasing the ______of the outcome associated with that behavior. A. availability B. value C. salience D. quality Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 47. Behavior that is functional in obtaining food is ________ likely when you have not eaten for several hours. A. less B. equally C. not D. more 48. Behavior that is functional in obtaining food is ________ likely right after a 5 five-course meal. A. less B. equally C. very D. more 49. The SD is a stimulus associated with the _______ of an outcome. A. value B. availability C. quality D. desirability 50. The Sdelta is a stimulus associated with the outcome ___________. A. availability B. quality C. not being available D. quantity Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 51. The simplest ___________ are a resolution of the conditions that established the value of a particular environmental change. A. establishing operations B. abolishing operations C. stimulus changes D. reinforcers 52. Consider the graduate student who has been sleep deprived:, sleep deprivation operates as an ___ for sleep, and consumption of caffeine or other stimulants operates as an ___ for sleep. A. AO, EO B. EO, AO C. SD , Sdelta D. SD , AO 53. There are two general types of Motivating Operations:__________ A. positive and negative B. conditioned and unconditioned C. direct and indirect D. direct and socially mediated 54. _______ are related to the genetically selected items/ or events that are needed for basic survival of the individual and the species. A. Unconditioned Motivating Operations B. Conditioned Motivating Operations C. Controlling stimuli D. Positive reinforcers 55. ____________ do not require any learning history to establish the reinforcing value of a particular outcome. A. Conditioned Motivating Operations B. Positive reinforcers C. Negative reinforcers D. Unconditioned Motivating Operations 56. A UMO is an ___________ A. Unidentified Motivating Operation B. Unconditioned Motivating Operation C. Unconditioned Matching Operation D. Unintentional Matching Operation Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 57. __________ have been identified for sleep, thirst, sexual stimulation, breathing, activity, temperature regulation, and pain/tissue damage. A. Biological correlates B. Specific neuro-receptors C. Unconditioned Motivating Operations D. Specific neurotransmitters 58. _____________ acquire their reinforcing value as a result of the individual’s unique conditioning history. A. Unconditioned Motivating Operations B. Drives C. Requirements D. Conditioned Motivating Operations 59. ___________ appear to acquire value via stimulus-stimulus pairing with UMOs’s or with other CMOs’s. A. Unconditioned Motivating Operations B. Conditioned Motivating Operations C. Drives D. Discriminative Stimuli 60. Conditioned Motivating Operations appear to acquire value via stimulus-stimulus pairing with ___________ A. Drives B. Unconditioned Motivation Operations or other Conditioned Motivating Operations C. Discriminative Stimuli D. Reinforcers 61. The three sub subtypes of Conditioned Motivating Operations have been labeled: __________________ A. Conditioned, Unconditioned, Direct B. Transitive, Commutative, reflexive C. Surrogate, Reciprocal, Transformative D. Surrogate, Transitive, Reflexive Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 62. A stimulus that acquires it’s effect as an MO by being reliably paired with the occurrence of another UMO or CMO and has the same value-altering and behavior-altering effects affects as the MO with which it was paired. This type of MO is called a ____________________. A. Transitive Conditioned Motivating Operation B. Surrogate Conditioned Motivating Operation C. Reflexive Conditioned Motivating Operation D. Commutative Conditioned Motivating Operation 63. Reading an outdoor thermometer that indicates the temperature is minus 20 degrees can act as a _______ establishing the value of warm clothes by being associated with the UMO of being cold. A. Transitive Conditioned Motivating Operation B. Surrogate Conditioned Motivating Operation C. Reflexive Conditioned Motivating Operation D. Commutative Conditioned Motivating Operation 64. Transitive Conditioned Motivating Operation is a stimulus that acquires its reinforcing value by being paired with an item or event that is needed to access to another ____________. A. Positive reinforcer B. Negative reinforcer C. Transformative Conditioned Motivating Operation D. Unconditioned Motivation Operations or Conditioned Motivating Operations 65. ___________ is a stimulus that acquires its reinforcing value by being paired with an item or event that is needed to access to another CMO or UMO. A. Transitive Conditioned Motivating Operation B. Surrogate Conditioned Motivating Operation C. Reflexive Conditioned Motivating Operation D. Commutative Conditioned Motivating Operation 66. If the value of food has been established and you only have access to food in a can, this condition will also establish the value of a can opener. This is an example of a ___________ A. Transitive Conditioned Motivating Operation B. Surrogate Conditioned Motivating Operation C. Reflexive Conditioned Motivating Operation D. Commutative Conditioned Motivating Operation 67. If the value of food has been established and the only food you have access to is in a locked cabinet, this condition will increase the value of the key and also increase the value of interaction with any person that has the key. This is an example of a _________ A. Transitive Conditioned Motivating Operation B. Surrogate Conditioned Motivating Operation C. Reflexive Conditioned Motivating Operation D. Commutative Conditioned Motivating Operation Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 68. A stimulus that acquires it’s reinforcing value by systematically preceding avoidable worsening and establishes the value of it’s own termination as effective reinforcement is called a ________. A. Transitive Conditioned Motivating Operation B. Surrogate Conditioned Motivating Operation C. Reflexive Conditioned Motivating Operation D. Commutative Conditioned Motivating Operation 69. Some students find lengthy tasks aversive. The delivery of a task demand for a lengthy task may establish its removal as a reinforcer. If task demands reliably precede or “warn” of any type of worsening situation, then any behavior that removes the warning signal (task demand) will be strengthened. This is an example of a ______________ A. Transitive Conditioned Motivating Operation B. Surrogate Conditioned Motivating Operation C. Reflexive Conditioned Motivating Operation D. Commutative Conditioned Motivating Operation 70. What is the point at which food will operate as an effective reinforcer in humans? A. 2 hours after the person has eaten B. 4 hours after the person has eaten C. Food deprivation is relative to the individual under consideration and dependent on level of activity D. 6 to 12 hours after the person has eaten 71. The variables that determine when food will be effective as a reinforcer for a particular person are _________ with a high degree of accuracy. A. quantifiable and can be determined B. too idiosyncratic to determine C. unable to be determined D. not the purview of behavior analysis Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 72. The Sdelta is a stimulus associated with an outcome _______ for a given behavior. A. not being available B. being available C. not being valuable D. being more valuable 73. The SD is a stimulus associated with an outcome ______ for a given behavior. A. not being available B. being available C. not being valuable D. being more valuable 74. The Open/Closed sign on the restaurant is a ____ stimulus if the value of food has not been established. A. Discriminative B. Delta C. warning D. neutral Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 75. One could argue that seeing the Open sign at a restaurant acts as conditioned reinforcement for looking at the sign, but only if the ___________ A. value of food has been established B. sign has visual stimuli that are independently reinforcing to the person C. person has not eaten in that restaurant in the past 76. If in the presence of this stimulus a particular environmental change more or less valuable the stimulus is a ___________ A. discriminative stimulus B. delta stimulus C. neutral stimulus D. motivating operation 77. If in the presence of this stimulus is a particular environmental change is more or less available the stimulus is a ____________. A. discriminative stimulus B. delta stimulus C. neutral stimulus D. motivating operation 78. Consider the following example. A squirrel is engaged in eating when a predator approaches. The squirrel stops eating and runs up a tree to avoid the predator. The presence of the predator is a __________. A. Neutral Stimulus B. Establishing Operation C. Discriminative Stimulus D. Delta Stimulus 79. A person deprived of food for 24 hours will be much _____ likely to engage in behavior that is associated with food than if that person has just finished eating a full meal. A. more B. less 80. As the value of the Establishing Operation EO increases, the frequency, duration, and intensity of behaviors associated with _____ that EO will also ______. A. reinforcing, establish B. abolishing, increase C. punishing, decrease D. abolishing, decrease Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 81. As the value of the EO increases, the response latency following onset of the SD will ______. A. increase B. stay the same C. decrease 82. The ____ the value of the EO the more rapid, frequent, and intense the behavior associated with that EO. A. higher B. lower C. more salient D. less salient 83. There are 2 two ways to assure that a reinforcer is at its maximal value. A. wait for naturally occurring environmental changes that establish the value of a particular outcome. B. contrive a situation that increases the value of some outcome as a reinforcer. C. provide small samples of the reinforcer at regularly scheduled intervals D. A and B E. A and C Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC Chapter 2: 79 test items in pool 1. Which of the following is not a question you should ask when determining if you should conduct a functional assessment A. Does the individual’s behavior pose a danger to himself or others? B. Does the behavior affect the client’s welfare in the current environment? C. Will the results of the assessment meet publication standards D. Does the behavior pose a health or safety hazard to the individual client or others? E. Does the behavior prevent the individual from accessing less restrictive environments in either the school, home, or community settings? 2. Which of the following is not a question you may want to consider when determining if the problem behaviors are jeopardizing the individual’s current or future inclusion in mainstream environments? A. Is there some variation on the behavioral standards, in the environment or are they strictly enforced? B. What specific behaviors are comprised in the problem? On the surface, would such behaviors pose a problem for current (or future) educational work or residential mainstream environments? Is the problem behavior inappropriate in mainstream environments of people or children of similar age to the client? C. What are the standards of social behavior that the current (or future) environment has in place? Are they in writing or are they implied? D. What ramifications does the problem behavior incur for the client? Do they restrict the client’s access to activities, events, and people that are of some reinforcing value in the current environment? For example, is the client often prevented from accessing community events because of her behavior when in the community? E. All of the above Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 3. In a functional behavioral assessment, the critical first step is to ____________. A. assure that you have a DSM diagnosis first B. assure that funds are available to complete the assessment C. assure that all medical conditions have been treated D. define the presenting problem 4. “John Smith, a 3rd grade mainstreamed student with anger issues, is reported by his teacher to be uncontrollable and incorrigible!” Based on this information you can begin baseline data collection. A. True B. False 5. Unobservable behaviors, personality characteristics, or traits _________ the primary criterion for measurement of behaviors in a functional behavioral assessment. A. quite often are B. for mental health clients are C. are D. do not constitute 6. Your first task is to take the unobservable entities often provided by the referral agent and define them into discrete, observable, and measurable behaviors. This is called________. A. preliminary definition generation B. pinpointing a target behavior C. a function based definition D. an optional activity 7. The pinpointing of observable target behaviors can be obtained by one of two methods: (1) _______ and (2). __________ A. using DSM symptom descriptions B. behavioral interviewing C. B and D D. direct observation (by you) E. B and A 8. Very often, initial data gathering is gained through ____________. A. indirect observation B. a behavioral interview of others who are directly involved with the client. C. a review of medical records D. an interview of the individual’s psychiatrist Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 9. Hyperactivity constitutes a measurable and pinpointed behavior A. True B. False 10. Oppositional trait constitutes a measurable and pinpointed behavior A. True B. False 11. Laziness constitutes a measurable and pinpointed behavior A. True B. False 12. Uncaring constitutes a measurable and pinpointed behavior A. True B. False 13. Unappreciative constitutes a measurable and pinpointed behavior A. True B. False 14. Disturbed attitude constitutes a measurable and pinpointed behavior A. True B. False 15. Under-socialized constitutes a measurable and pinpointed behavior A. True B. False Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 16. Emotional lability constitutes a measurable and pinpointed behavior A. True B. False 17. Impulsivity constitutes a measurable and pinpointed behavior A. True B. False 18. Anger constitutes a measurable and pinpointed behavior A. True B. False 19. Schizophrenia constitutes a measurable and pinpointed behavior A. True B. False 20. Why is it important to pinpoint ambiguous terms? A. Garbage in, garbage out B. Ambiguous terms lead to unreliability in data collection C. Ambiguous terms can lead to misdiagnosis D. Clear definitions are needed for billing purposes 21. The “Incident method” is used to ________. A. report low frequency data B. pinpoint behavioral definitions C. determine the most effective intervention D. investigate unusual incidents 22. If a referral source indicated that a child was incorrigible you would ask the referral source to identify previous events or incidents that were representative of the child’s “incorrigibility.” This would be an example of __________ A. gestalt interviewing methods B. indirect observation methods C. direct observation D. the incident method Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 23. A second effective method to help pinpoint observable behaviors is to schedule time to observe the client when _________. A. they are most relaxed B. the behavior of interest is highly likely C. it is most convenient for the program D. you have an open appointment time 24. If the behavior problem(s) is highly frequent, so that one can view a number of occurrences in a short (30–60 minute) session _________ would be the best method to develop an initial definition of the problem behavior. A. a trigger analysis B. direct observation C. behavioral interviewing D. the incident method 25. Methods of measuring and quantifying the level of behavior include the following: _________ A. frequency of occurrence, duration and interval recording methods. B. direct observation, indirect observation and staff report C. frequency counts and indirect observation D. partial interviews and duration 26. Collecting data prior to conducting an intervention has been termed __________ A. a priori data collection B. the incident method C. precursor data collection D. baseline assessment. Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 27. Frequency counts require that someone ________ a behavior occurs A. count (and record) the number of times B. observes that C. provides a verbal report that D. calculate the average rate at which 28. Frequency is the ______ measure of behavior. A. least common B. most common C. best D. worst 29. Duration measurement requires that one measure _______________. A. the length of time a behavior occurs B. every time the behavior occurs C. the average length of the target behavior D. the percentage of time the behavior occurs 30. Duration measures require: __________ A. elaborate timing mechanisms to record time to the hundredth of a second B. a timepiece of some kind (e.g., stopwatch, second hand on a watch) C. procedures that are too complicated to be used in applied settings D. at least two observers to assure accuracy 31. Duration measures are _______used in classrooms, residential settings, and or community and work environments. A. frequently B. not frequently C. rarely D. never 32. Duration measures are preferred when the target behavior _______________ A. at very high rates B. at very low rates C. when stimulus control issues are suspected D. occurs for varying lengths of time 33. ___________ is very popular with test items or situations where a client is given a certain number of opportunities to do something. A. Duration B. Frequency C. Percentage of occurrence D. Percentage of intervals Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 34. ___________ is also utilized in interval recording systems. A. Percentage of occurrence B. Duration C. Magnitude D. Indirect observation 35. A clients social worker reports that the client is de-compensating. You should ___________ A. begin collecting baseline data B. talk with the psychiatrist about changing medications C. begin an intervention D. pinpoint the definition of de-compensating 36. In some cases where the behavior occurs more than several times an hour you can have the person collect data on A. total duration of the target behavior B. total frequency per day C. average number of occurrences per hour D. a limited sample of the total length of time. 37. ____________ is appreciated in applied settings, and ___________ is often punished by personnel failing to follow through on your requests and avoiding you in future circumstances. A. Flexibility, inflexibility B. Formality, informality C. Simplicity, complexity 38. A possibility to collect baseline data when a continuous measure may not be feasible is to conduct a ___________ (Rolider, 2003; Rolider & Axelrod, 2000). A. brief observation B. staff interview C. trigger analysis D. time series analysis Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 39. In using trigger analysis to collect behavioral data, you present the antecedent condition that you suspect is the __________ for the problem behavior. If you present this antecedent condition ten 10 times over a 1-week period, you can determine what percentage of time the problem behavior occurs. A. Sdelta B. AO C. RO D. EO 40. A trigger analysis is particularly suited in examining the rate of ______________ problem behaviors. A. relatively frequent B. dangerous C. life threatening D. relatively infrequent 41. In order to conduct the trigger analysis of low-rate problem behaviors, you may have to present aversive stimuli or deprive access to a reinforcer prior to the presentation of the trigger. This is termed ______________________ A. pre-session exposure to the motivating operation. B. priming C. punishment D. pre-session deprivation 42. ___________ is the measurement of the target behavior in its current natural state prior to the proposed intervention A. Trigger analysis B. Functional assessment C. Pinpointing D. Baseline data 43. Baseline data presents the level of the target behavior _________ the intervention A. during B. while implementing C. prior to D. following 44. Baseline data reflects the level of behavior under ____________, whereby such a level of behavior would be predicted in the future should the baseline conditions remain in effect. A. the current conditions B. varying conditions C. predictable conditions D. controlled conditions Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 45. How long should one collect baseline data? A. At least three sessions B. For one week. C. Six sessions D. As long as necessary for a reliable pattern to emerge 46. If the baseline data is trending up or down, _________ to continue collecting baseline data until some stability is achieved. A. it is not necessary B. you may want C. it is essential D. only researchers need 47. Selecting a hypothesis regarding the maintenance of the behavior does not mean that you have identified the original factor in the genesis of the behavior! A. True B. False 48. (1) Behavioral interviewing, (2) scatter plot data, (3) A-B-C descriptive analysis method, (4) analogue assessment, and (5) in-situ hypothesis test, are all methods of _____________ A. conducting a functional analysis B. conducting a functional behavioral assessment C. collecting data D. conducting a descriptive assessment 49. Behavioral interviews can be useful in uncovering the maintaining contingency(ies), given ________. A. a very knowledgeable staff person B. a socially mediated behavior C. the right questions D. that no medical issues are involved 50. In conducting a behavioral interview, you interview _____________ A. counselors B. psychiatric professionals C. medical professionals D. people that frequently see the behavior 51. In collecting interview information on why a problem behavior is occurring, you examine the relationship between the behavior and ___________ A. the behavior of the care giver B. psychiatric symptoms C. any biological determinants of the behavior D. some consequent event Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 52. Having direct line personnel describe the conditions surrounding the behavior has been termed _____________ A. Functional analysis B. behavioral interviewing C. indirect observation D. A-B-C descriptive analysis method 53. In an A-B-C descriptive analysis system, direct line personnel observe the client. There are usually three columns for the data collection: The first column is reserved for a description of the _________. The client’s ________is delineated in the middle column. The final column provides a description of the ___________ of the behavior A. staff’s behavior, response, effects B. antecedent conditions, behavior, consequence(s) C. target behavior, verbal report, consequences D. alterations to the environment, behavior, contingencies delivered 54. The A-B-C method differs from behavioral interviewing in that it requires teachers, facility staff, or parents to_____________. A. be precise in the description of the target behavior B. report data at least once per week C. collect data in real time D. pinpoint the behavior prior to recording baseline data 55. The A-B-C descriptive analysis method can serve as a good complement to _________ data. A. trigger analysis B. functional analysis C. duration D. behavioral interview 56. In a ___________, the probability of the contingency is specified for two sets of behavior classes: (1) the target problem behavior and (2) other behaviors. A. trigger analysis B. contingency space analysis C. functional analysis D. partial interval data 57. The antecedent condition contains two variables, MOs and discriminative stimuli. Behavioral descriptions of the antecedent condition often lack a depiction of the_____. A. discriminative stimuli B. motivating operation C. medical conditions D. mental health diagnosis Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 58. In cases of behavior maintained by direct or socially mediated access, the ______ is not seen but has to be inferred. A. SD B. Sdelta C. MO D. consequence 59. One problem with descriptive analysis is the over-selection of ________ as the maintaining contingency. A. Tangible reinforcers B. social attention C. escape D. direct access 60. The utility of a trigger analysis as a behavioral assessment method is the ability to collect data on _________ target problem behaviors. A. infrequent B. frequent C. dangerous D. life threatening 61. _______________ requires the presentation of the hypothesized motivating operation and SD in the real life context, with the persons who normally are involved with the client. The occurrence (or absence) of the target problem behavior is then noted (or its absence). A. Descriptive analysis B. An Analogue functional analysis C. A Trigger Analysis D. A descriptive assessment 62. The data of interest in a Trigger Analysis is ____________ A. frequency of the target behavior B. the ratio of occurrences over the total number of times the MO/SD condition was presented. C. the duration of the target behavior D. the ratio of occurrence of the target and replacement behaviors Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 63. ___________ involves an experimental analysis of the function of the behavior under contrived test conditions. A. Functional Analysis B. Functional assessment C. Descriptive analysis D. Treatment trials 64. Analogue assessment utilizes a quick switching of hypothesized variables to determine the effect on the child’s behavior, similar to conducting a __________. A. scientific experiment B. trigger analysis C. behavioral intervention D. direct observation 65. ___________ allows you to “test” potential hypotheses regarding why the behavior is occurring, in terms of controlling variables. A. Behavioral interviewing B. Descriptive assessment C. Functional Assessment D. Functional Analysis 66. Iwata and colleagues developed four test conditions under which self-injury rates would be evaluated: (1) ________, (2) _________, (3) ________, and (4) ____________. A. control, tangible, socially mediated escape, direct escape B. attention, demand, alone, play C. sensory access, sensory escape, tangible, play D. tangible, noise, alone, attention 67. In the ________ condition, contingent on self-injurious behavior, the therapist would make a statement such as “don’t do that” and touch the child lightly on the arm or shoulder. A. demand B. attention C. play D. alone E. Sensory 68. In the ________ condition, the therapist would ask the subject to complete self-care or educational tasks every 30 seconds. The task or demand would be removed for a 30-second period contingent on self-injurious behavior. A. demand B. attention C. play D. alone E. sensory Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 69. In the _______ condition, the client was placed in the therapy room, with no toys or other materials. This condition tested the possibility of sensory reinforcement for behavior. A. demand B. attention C. play D. alone E. sensory 70. In the _________ condition the client is provided non-contingent access to pleasurable activities. A. demand B. attention C. play D. alone E. sensory 71. The Iwata and colleagues (1982) protocol, involving the quick switching of four test conditions provides ___________ of the problem behavior’s function A. reasonable explanation B. experimental proof C. a description D. little direct information 72. Analogue assessment can also focus on testing ___________ a problem behavior’s function. A. medical contributions to B. how mental illness effects C. a specific hypothesis about D. ecological variables that remove 73. Suppose you hypothesize that the child’s disruptive behavior is serving an escape from instruction function due to lengthy seat work assignments. The analogue test would involve switching between two conditions: (1) ___________and (2) ____________ A. sessions involving a short assignment, sessions involving a difficult assignment(s), B. sessions involving an in class assignment, sessions involving out of class assignment(s), C. sessions involving a hard assignment, sessions involving an easy assignment(s), D. sessions involving a short assignment, sessions involving a lengthy assignment(s), 74. In ___________ a comparison is made between the rates of problem behavior during the functional treatment and the rates of behavior during the baseline (i.e., treatment not implemented). A. an Analog Functional Analysis B. a trigger analysis C. a functional assessment D. an in-situ hypothesis test Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 75. The personnel conducting the in the in-situ hypothesis test implement the data collection for the two conditions for__________, A. once per week B. only a brief period of the day C. at least one hour per day D. across the entire day 76. Which of these is not an advantage of an in-situ hypothesis test? A. It is a direct assessment of the target behavior in the setting of interest, with all relevant contextual variables present. B. It requires little technical expertise to conduct C. If treatment fidelity is obtained, an effective treatment is discovered, leaving only the requirement to develop staff monitoring for extended periods of application. D. The staff, parents, and teachers who implemented the test probably need less convincing that an effective treatment will be worth the time because they “had a hand” in the test. 77. A performance discrepancy analysis involves a comparison of the rates of a client’s problem behavior with ___________. A. the acceptable level (or rate) of that behavior. B. published research regarding the acceptable rates of the behavior C. the level of behavior the staff would prefer to see D. normative data obtained from child development texts 78. In utilizing a __________ method, one first identifies same-aged peers or persons who are judged to be non-problematic with respect to the behavior. Measure the rate of behavior in this criterion group and compare the rate of behavior of the criterion group with the rate of behavior of the client. A. pinpointing B. behavioral interviewing C. ABC analysis D. normative comparison 79. A review of __________ implemented should be conducted prior to the design of the intervention strategy. A. financial obligations B. staff perceptions of the individual C. previous treatments D. medical treatments Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC Chapter 3: 65 test items in pool 1. There are ________ major categories in the behavioral diagnostic system, A. two B. three C. four D. six 2. Each major diagnostic category delineates a specific maintaining contingency with respect to two parameters: (a) the ___________ contingency and (b) the method by which the contingency is produced by the behavior. A. hypothesized B. type of reinforcement C. positive reinforcement D. negative reinforcement 3. Problem behaviors producing positive reinforcement are termed _________ behaviors and behaviors producing negative reinforcement are termed __________ behaviors. A. access, escape B. positive, negative C. escape, access D. wanted, unwanted 4. One of the characteristics of a function-based diagnostic classification system is ____________ A. diagnosis of child characteristics, not behavior problem characteristics B. diagnosis of behavior problem characteristics, not child characteristics C. a high correlation of correspondence between DSM diagnostic categories and function based diagnostic categories D. inclusion of traditional psychiatric diagnostic categories 5. One of the characteristics of a function-based diagnostic classification system is ____________ A. prescriptive treatment derived from DSM diagnostic categories B. diagnostic classification based on observed treatment effects C. diagnostic categories that are independent of treatment procedures D. prescriptive differential treatment derived from a differential diagnosis 6. One of the characteristics of a function-based diagnostic classification system is ____________ A. Assessment data collected to provide information only on rate of behavior B. Assessment data is not collected prior to making a diagnosis C. Assessment data is collected on DSM symptoms that are hypothesized to be controlling the target behavior D. Assessment data collected to provide information on context variables, not just rate of behavior Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 7. One of the characteristics of a function-based diagnostic classification system is ____________ A. Diagnosis phase concludes with assessment phase, in which a function-based category is selected B. DSM diagnosis generates a hypothesis that drives the assessment phase C. Assessment phase concludes with diagnosis phase, in which a function-based category is selected D. Assessment phase concludes with the selection of a function based treatment 8. A function-based diagnostic classification system examines the contextual nature of the problem behavior. This ____________with the current psychiatric approach to diagnosing client behavior (e. g., DSM5). A. is equivalent B. sharply contrasts C. is consistent D. comports 9. In a function based diagnostic system topographically similar behaviors/symptoms can have a different diagnostic classification A. true B. false 10. In a function based diagnostic system topographically dis-similar behaviors/symptoms wiil always have a different diagnostic classification A. true B. false Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 11. In a function-based diagnostic classification system, the form of the behavior (in most cases) does not dictate a particular____________.. A. intervention B. symptom C. diagnosis D. function 12. In contrast to symptoms or target behaviors being the key to diagnosing the child, a functionbased diagnostic approach will assess the _____________ of the client’s behaviors to make a differential diagnosis A. environmental function B. underlying symptoms C. positive intent D. negative byproducts 13. Classifying problem behaviors according to environmental function ________ make a difference in the design of a functional behavioral treatment. In contrast, differential diagnosis using the traditional psychiatric Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders _____________ prove fruitful in determining functional behavioral treatments based on syndromes of behaviors. A. does not, does B. does, does not C. will not, will D. could, may 14. Behavioral Assessment is driven by the need to determine the ___________ that are present when the problem behavior occurs, that is, the social and physical environmental context. A. biological conditions B. extraneous variables C. abolishing operations D. environmental factors 15. A function-based diagnostic classification system provides for a more guided and deliberate approach to ________________. A. DSM diagnosis B. hypothesis generation C. functional analysis D. behavioral treatment selection Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 16. The only technical skill needed in behavioral interventions is to pinpoint the referred problem in observable terms and follow it with an effective consequence. A. True B. False 17. Problem behaviors that serve a positive reinforcement function are termed ________ behaviors. Problem behaviors that serve a negative reinforcement function are termed ________ behaviors. A. access, escape B. escape, access C. positive, negative D. negative, positive 18. __________ can be produced either by social mediation or directly. A. Peer approval B. Reinforcers C. Attention D. Discriminative stimuli 19. Diagnostic code (1.0) A. Direct access B. Socially mediated access C. Direct escape D. Socially mediated escape 20. Diagnostic code (2.0) A. Direct access B. Socially mediated access C. Direct escape D. Socially mediated escape Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 21. Diagnostic code (3.0) A. Direct access B. Socially mediated access C. Direct escape D. Socially mediated escape 22. Diagnostic code (4.0) A. Direct access B. Socially mediated access C. Direct escape D. Socially mediated escape 23. Diagnostic code 1.1 A. DA—direct chain to tangible reinforcers B. DA—immediate sensory stimuli: C. SMA—tangible reinforcers D. SMA—peer attention 24. Diagnostic code 1.2: A. DA—direct chain to tangible reinforcers B. DA—immediate sensory stimuli: C. SMA—tangible reinforcers D. SMA—peer attention 25. Diagnostic code 2.1 A. SMA—tangible reinforcers B. SMA—peer attention C. SMA—adult/staff attention D. DA—immediate sensory stimuli: 26. Diagnostic code 2.2 A. SMA—tangible reinforcers B. SMA—peer attention C. SMA—adult/staff attention D. DE—relatively lengthy tasks/chores 27. Diagnostic code 2.3 A. SMA—tangible reinforcers B. SMA—peer attention C. SMA—adult/staff attention D. DE—relatively difficult tasks/chores Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 28. Diagnostic code 3.1 A. DE—relatively lengthy tasks/chores B. DE—relatively difficult tasks/chores C. DE—Unpleasant social situations D. DE—aversive physical stimuli/events 29. Diagnostic code 3.2 A. DE—relatively lengthy tasks/chores B. DE—relatively difficult tasks/chores C. DE—Unpleasant social situations D. DE—aversive physical stimuli/events 30. Diagnostic code 3.3 A. DE—relatively lengthy tasks/chores B. DE—relatively difficult tasks/chores C. DE—Unpleasant social situations D. DE—aversive physical stimuli/events 31. Diagnostic code 3.4 A. DE—relatively lengthy tasks/chores B. DE—relatively difficult tasks/chores C. DE—Unpleasant social situations D. DE—aversive physical stimuli/events 32. Diagnostic code 4.1 A. SME—relatively difficult tasks/chores B. SME—unpleasant social situations C. SME—aversive physical stimuli/event D. SME—relatively lengthy tasks/chores 33. Diagnostic code 4.2 A. SME—relatively difficult tasks/chores B. SME—unpleasant social situations C. SME—aversive physical stimuli/event D. SME—relatively lengthy tasks/chores 34. Diagnostic code 4.3 A. SME—relatively difficult tasks/chores B. SME—unpleasant social situations C. SME—aversive physical stimuli/event D. SME—relatively lengthy tasks/chores Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 35. Diagnostic code 4.4 A. SME—relatively difficult tasks/chores B. SME—unpleasant social situations C. SME—aversive physical stimuli/event D. SME—relatively lengthy tasks/chores 36. In the diagnostic system, all direct access functions involve stereotypic behaviors that produce sensory reinforcement as the maintaining contingency A. True B. False 37. No social consequences are apparent. A. Socially mediated reinforcement B. Direct reinforcement C. Socially mediated escape 38. Problem behavior does not decrease when social contingencies are withdrawn. A. Socially mediated reinforcement B. Socially mediated escape C. Direct escape 39. Problem behavior decreases when sensory effects of behavior are attenuated. A. Socially mediated reinforcement B. Direct reinforcement C. Socially mediated escape D. Direct escape Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 40. Addictive behaviors, such as smoking and drinking, may be maintained as a result of a direct reinforcement function ___________. A. true B. false 41. Many ritualistic (stereotypic) behaviors appear to produce ____________. Such behaviors often occur independent of the reaction from the social environment. A. Socially mediated reinforcement B. Direct reinforcement C. Socially mediated escape 42. Diagnostic code (2.1) A. SMA: —peer attention B. SMA: —adult/staff attention C. SMA: —tangible reinforcers;, D. SMA: —other. 43. Diagnostic code (2.2) A. SMA: —peer attention B. SMA: —adult/staff attention C. SMA: —tangible reinforcers;, D. SMA: —other. 44. Diagnostic code (2.3) A. SMA: —peer attention B. SMA: —adult/staff attention C. SMA: —tangible reinforcers;, D. SMA: —other 45. Are certain childhood mental disorders more likely to be diagnosed as social mediated functions? A. Yes B. No Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 46. Diagnostic Category (3.1) A. DE—relatively difficult task, chore, instruction B. DE—relatively lengthy task, chore, instruction C. DE—unpleasant social situations D. DE—aversive physical stimuli. 47. Diagnostic Category (3.2) A. DE—relatively difficult task, chore, instruction B. DE—relatively lengthy task, chore, instruction C. DE—unpleasant social situations D. DE—aversive physical stimuli. 48. Diagnostic Category (3.3) A. DE—relatively difficult task, chore, instruction B. DE—relatively lengthy task, chore, instruction C. DE—unpleasant social situations D. DE—aversive physical stimuli. 49. Diagnostic Category (3.4) A. DE—relatively difficult task, chore, instruction B. DE—relatively lengthy task, chore, instruction C. DE—unpleasant social situations D. DE—aversive physical stimuli. 50. Complete your work—get more! Fail to complete your work—get less! A. Negative contingency B. The weird contingency C. The usual contingency D. The Wacky Contingency 51. In school settings, a child’s engagement with the instructional task is aversive to him/her, primarily because s/she is not capable of performing the task accurately and/or fluently. Children who are given academic tasks that are way above their current level face this on a daily basis.___________________ A. The Wacky Contingency B. SME: relatively lengthy task C. DE—Aversive Physical Stimuli D. Instructional Mismatch Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 52. Diagnostic Category (4.1) A. SME—escape from difficult tasks or chores B. SME—aversive physical stimuli C. SME—escape of relatively long tasks or chores D. SME—escape of unpleasant social situations 53. Diagnostic Category (4.2) A. SME—escape from difficult tasks or chores B. SME—aversive physical stimuli C. SME—escape of relatively long tasks or chores D. SME—escape of unpleasant social situations 54. Diagnostic Category (4.3) A. SME—escape from difficult tasks or chores B. SME—aversive physical stimuli C. SME—escape of relatively long tasks or chores D. SME—escape of unpleasant social situations 55. Diagnostic Category (4.4) A. SME—escape from difficult tasks or chores B. SME—aversive physical stimuli C. SME—escape of relatively long tasks or chores D. SME—escape of unpleasant social situations 56. ________________ problem behaviors remove or avoid aversive events or conditions indirectly, through the mediation of another person’s behavior A. Direct escape B. Socially mediated access C. Direct access D. Socially mediated escape 57. ___________ behaviors remove or avoid aversive events directly. A. Direct escape B. Socially mediated access C. Direct access D. Socially mediated escape 58. ____________ problem behaviors produce a positive reinforcer indirectly, through the behavior of another person. A. Direct escape B. Socially mediated access C. Direct access D. Socially mediated escape Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 59. ____________ behaviors are maintained at high levels because they directly access the positive reinforcer(s). A. Direct escape B. Socially mediated access C. Direct access D. Socially mediated escape 60. Within each major category, there are _____________ reflecting the same functional relationships as the major category. A. sub diagnosis B. additional diagnosis C. subcategories D. 2 subcategories 61. The function-based diagnostic classification system can be used to determine the specific __________ for the problem behavior. A. diagnosis B. functional treatment strategy C. underlying psychiatric cause D. environmental cause 62. Diagnostic code (1.0) A. DA B. SMA C. DE D. SME 63. Diagnostic code (2.0) A. DA B. SMA C. DE D. SME 64. Diagnostic code (3.0) A. DA B. SMA C. DE D. SME 65. Diagnostic code (4.0) A. DA B. SMA C. DE D. SME Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC Chapter 4: 77 test items in the pool 1. When treating problem behaviors, one must decrease the target unacceptable behaviors while selecting for specific reinforcement, an alternate desirable behavior(s), termed a ___________, for specific reinforcement. A. alternate behavior B. functionally equivalent skill C. preferred behavior D. replacement behavior 2. The selected replacement behavior must be capable of producing __________ the problem behavior in the identified contexts A. the same function as B. conditions that are incompatible with C. conditions that prevent the occurrence of D. the same reinforcer(s) as 3. Once the “replacement” behavior is developed in the client’s repertoire, it will only replace the problem behavior if the replacement behavior____________, while the target problem behavior is ___________ in achieving the desired result. A. occurs, ineffective B. achieves reinforcement, nonfunctional C. is recognized by staff, ignored and ineffective D. ineffective, effective 4. Disable One Function, _________ Another! A. Enable B. Identify C. Extinguish D. Magnify 5. Too often, naive attempts at developing a replacement behavior involve simply specifying that some _______ should replace the target behavior. A. functional behavior B. selected behavior C. random behavior D. equivalent behavior Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 6. To accomplish the successful transition from a currently functional target problem behavior becoming nonfunctional and a currently nonfunctional appropriate behavior becoming functional, _________ over the maintaining contingencies is required! A. absolute control B. instructional control C. direct control D. social control 7. In summary, the behavior analyst needs to produce two changes in the client/ or child’s environment. 1._________ Eliminate or disable current function 2._________ Enable and enhance desired environmental function A. Replacement behavior; Target behavior B. Target behavior; Replacement behavior C. Functional behavior; Alternate behavior D. Equivalent behavior; Target behavior 8. There are _____ replacement behavior options when treating a target problem behavior that is maintained by direct access to positive reinforcement. A. two B. three C. four D. six 9. All four options require the ______________as a component to address client attempts to engage in the prohibited target behavior, or actually engaging in the behavior when unauthorized. A. chain interruption strategy B. extinction strategy C. replacement behavior strategy D. functional interruption strategy 10. ______________________: Identify an alternate, more acceptable form of behavior (one that is not as inappropriate and/or dangerous) that directly produces the same specific reinforcer. A. Alternate Direct Access Form option B. Access mand (request) option C. Omission Training option (DRO) D. Premack Contingency option E. Chain interruption Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 11. ______________: Identify a requesting behavior that would allow staff to mediate such a request or choice by providing the client with a more appropriate setting (area) in which to engage in the problem behavior. A. Alternate Direct Access Form option B. Access mand (request) option C. Omission Training option (DRO) D. Premack Contingency option E. Chain interruption 12. ____________: Identify a length of time that you want the individual not to perform the target direct access behavior, that is, the nonoccurrence of behavior for a set time period, contingent upon which provides access to the specific reinforcer. A. Alternate Direct Access Form option B. Access mand (request) option C. Omission Training option (DRO) D. Premack Contingency option E. Chain interruption 13. ____________: (engagement in lower probability behaviors as the contingency for access to a specific reinforcer): Identify a regimen of tasks which, when completed, allows the client to access the specific reinforcer. A. Alternate Direct Access Form option B. Access mand (request) option C. Omission Training option (DRO) D. Premack Contingency option E. Chain interruption 14. ______________: interrupting or blocking the performance of the behavior at its earliest onset. In conjunction with the differential reinforcement of the identified replacement behavior, A. Alternate Direct Access Form option B. Access mand (request) option C. Omission Training option (DRO) D. Premack Contingency option E. Chain interruption 15. A chain interruption strategy as a contingency is essential for __________ problem behaviors. In order for the problem behavior to be ameliorated, it must be weakened in its ability (i.e., disabled) to directly contact the sensory or tangible reinforcer. A. Direct Access B. Direct Escape C. Socially Mediated Access D. Socially Mediated Escape Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 16. If the client is not prevented from engaging in the __________ behavior, then the desired sensory or tangible reinforcer is contacted ad lib. A. direct escape B. direct access C. socially meditated access D. socially mediated escape 17. The replacement behavior option must successfully _________ sensory reinforcement, while the target problem behavior is ______________ frequently. If staff can fulfill that requirement, the replacement behavior option will increase in frequency while the DA problem behavior will decrease. A. avoid, reinforced B. produce, reinforced C. block, obstructed D. access, obstructed 18. Concurrent with the ___________ strategy targeting the direct access problem behavior, a strategy for ____________ an alternate replacement behavior needs to be designed A. reinforcement, interrupting B. teaching, teaching C. chain interruption, increasing D. chain development, teaching 19. In some cases, it is possible to identify an acceptable replacement behavior that varies slightly in ___________ from the problem behavior, but still produces directly the same desired result. A. topography B. function C. diagnostic category D. controlling stimuli 20. ________________: teach the individual to request permission to engage in the desired activity A. Alternate Form Option B. Access Mand Option C. Omission Training Option D. Chain Interruption Option 21. This option is particularly suited where the form of the behavior is not dangerous or unhealthy, but is unacceptable in some context(s). Contingent upon a request, staff can then provide an appropriate place for the student or client to engage in the behavior. A. Extinction Option B. Access Mand Option C. Premack Contingency Option D. Omission Training Option Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 22. Suppose a client frequently runs out of her residential facility, and lacks safety skills involving roads and cars. She leaves the facility simply to get outside. Such is not an unreasonable behavior, because one can only stay inside for so long before wanting to have a change in scenery. However, her unauthorized and spontaneous leaving the facility without staff supervision is a definite serious problem, given her inability to navigate roads and cars safely. What replacement behavior option would you select? A. Omission Training Option B. Chain interruption Option C. Premack Contingency Option D. Access Mand Option 23. If the client engages in the target behavior (runs outside), she will be brought back immediately and required to wait a period of time, for example, 1–2 minutes, before being prompted to perform requesting behavior. If she is caught running before getting outside, the same contingency is in effect. This would be an example of ____________. A. Extinction B. Chain interruption C. Time out D. Required Relaxation 24. Omission training is also referred to as the _____________. A. differential reinforcement of incompatible behavior (DRI) B. differential reinforcement of lower rates of behavior (DRL) C. differential reinforcement of higher rates of behavior (DRH) D. differential reinforcement of other behavior (DRO) 25. In __________, the client is taught to forgo engaging in the target behavior that is producing reinforcement for a designated amount of time. Fulfilling this requirement is the contingency for authorized access to the sensory or tangible reinforcer. A. differential reinforcement of incompatible behavior (DRI) B. differential reinforcement of lower rates of behavior (DRL) C. differential reinforcement of higher rates of behavior (DRH) D. omission training (DRO) 26. Contingent upon ________ being obtained with small DRO intervals, the interval is gradually increased. Therefore, the client learns to forego the reinforcer for longer periods of time in a progressive manner. A. success B. reinforcers C. praise D. tokens Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 27. A chain interruption procedure is deployed contingent upon the behavior, with a _______ of the full DRO interval. A. interruption B. termination C. reduction of ten seconds D. restarting 28. The omission training replacement behavior option _______ develop a specific “replacement” behavior. Hence, it is often ____ considered by many as a replacement behavior option. A. does, not B. frequently helps, primarily C. often will, not D. does not, not 29. A replacement behavior ____ consist of a chain of behaviors that accesses reinforcement. A. can B. can not 30. The topography of such a chain of behaviors varies with each delivery of reinforcement, with one common element: absence of the target behavior. A. DRI B. DRO C. Chain interruption D. DRH 31. A common question that comes up when discussing the development of a durable and spontaneous requesting repertoire is, “Do you have to give the reinforcer every time it is requested?” The response is, ________ A. no B. yes C. only if the rate of requesting is higher than the baseline rate D. only if the rate of requesting is lower than the baseline rate 32. In this option, before a client can request a reinforcer and receive it, certain tasks have to be completed. A. Premack Contingency B. Reverse Premack C. DRI D. DRH Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 33. The ________ could be tagged on to the requesting replacement behavior option to begin to develop delay of gratification skills. A. DRI option B. Premack contingency C. chain interruption strategy D. Mand option 34. The ____________ requires some low probability behavior (e.g., completion of a task) to occur prior to the client being allowed to request access to the high probability behavior, that is, the desired sensory reinforcer. A. reverse Premack contingency B. DRC C. Premack contingency D. DRH 35. Similar to Omission training, the Premack Contingency option will eventually _________ of accessing the reinforcer A. reduce the frequency B. increase the frequency C. extinguish the behavior D. develop a new way 36. In contrast to omission training, the _________ requires some performance on designated tasks as the conditional event for reinforcement of the requesting behavior. A. Premack contingency B. DRL option C. Mand option D. Alternate form option 37. There are ______ replacement behavior options when treating a problem behavior that is maintained by socially mediated access to positive reinforcement. A. two B. five C. four D. three 38. With all SMA problem behaviors, ____________ for the occurrence of the target behavior(s) is a requisite for making the alternate behavior functional. A. differential reinforcement B. withdrawal of reinforcement (extinction) C. social attention D. chain interruption Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 39. _____________: Developing and/or strengthening a chain of behaviors that produce the desired tangible reinforcer directly. A. Direct Access to tangible reinforcer B. Access mand (request) option C. DRL group contingencies for peer attention D. Omission Training Option (DRO) 40. __________: Identify a requesting behavior that would allow staff to mediate such a request or choice by providing the client with the desired person’s attention or tangible reinforcer. A. Direct Access to tangible reinforcer B. Access mand (request) option C. DRL group contingencies for peer attention D. Omission Training option (DRO) E. Premack Contingency option 41. _____________: Designating a lower rate of the target behavior, which is the criterion for providing a powerful reinforcer to the group. The target rate may be for either the individual client’s behavior or a group’s level of behavior or performance. A. Direct Access to tangible reinforcer B. Access mand (request) option C. DRL group contingencies for peer attention D. Omission Training option (DRO) E. Premack Contingency option 42. ___________: Identify a length of time that you want the individual not to perform the target behavior, that is, the nonoccurrence of target behavior for a set time period. Contingent upon the client not engaging in the target behavior in the interval, access to the desired adult/ or staff attention and/or tangible reinforcer is provided. A. Direct Access to tangible reinforcer B. Access mand (request) option C. DRL group contingencies for peer attention D. Omission Training option (DRO) E. Premack Contingency option 43. _________________: Identify a regimen of tasks that, when completed, allows the client to access the reinforcer. A. Direct Access to tangible reinforcer B. Access mand (request) option C. DRL group contingencies for peer attention D. Omission Training option (DRO) E. Premack Contingency option 44. With socially mediated access problem behaviors, there is usually no need for _____________, unless the problem behavior can be dangerous to the client or others. A. a chain interruption strategy B. an extinction strategy C. a non-contingent reinforcement strategy D. tangible reinforcement contingencies Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 45. Simply not providing the positive reinforcer contingent upon the problem behavior will be sufficient to facilitate its demise. A. Chain interruption B. DRO C. Extinction D. Time out 46. _________ is defined as the removal of the functional reinforcer contingent upon the target behavior occurring. A. Negative reinforcement B. Negative punishment C. Chain interruption D. Extinction 47. To implement extinction, one must be able to tolerate the occurrence of the ____________. A. target behavior B. staff complaints C. differentially higher rates of behavior D. replacement behavior 48. If the replacement behavior results in a greater and more frequent reinforcement schedule than the target behavior, the change in client behavior _________ occur. A. will not B. should C. is not expected to D. should cause an increase in the target behavior to 49. ___________ :Making the occurrence of the target behavior serve as a “mand” for a nonpreferred regimen of tasks. A. Premack Principle B. Access Mand Option C. Escape Mand Option D. Reverse Premack Principle 50. The occurrence of a higher probability behavior (target behavior) is followed by the client engaging in a behavior of lower probability, thus setting up a punishment contingency. A. Reverse Premack Principle B. Premack Principle C. Escape Mand Option D. Time out option Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 51. A client with developmental disabilities would throw a tantrum and yell loudly when hungry, and staff on an intermittent basis would provide food to him contingently. One treatment option would be to __________________ A. use extinction B. use chain interruption C. teach him to make his own sandwich D. use a Premack contingency 52. In this replacement behavior option, the desired reinforcer, whether it be adult attention or access to a tangible reinforcer, is provided by staff upon an appropriate request. A. Access Mand Option B. Omission training option (DRO) C. group-oriented contingency D. Alternate direct escape form 53. The “Good Behavior Board Game” is an excellent example of a ____________ for a student’s target behavior that is maintained by peer attention. A. Omission training option (DRO) B. Access Mand Option C. group-oriented contingency D. Tolerance training option 54. If the client goes without engaging in the target problem behavior, for a designated period of time, the delivery of the desired reinforcing event occurs. The occurrence of the target behavior only results in the postponement of the reinforcer A. Tolerance training option B. Omission training option C. Access Mand Option D. Premack contingency option 55. How Long Should the initial DRO Interval Be? A. shorter than the baseline average interval of occurrence B. shorter than the baseline average interval of nonoccurrence C. longer than the baseline average interval of nonoccurrence D. longer than the baseline average interval of occurrence 56. In this option, the desired reinforcer is produced following the client’s successful compliance to a designated regimen of tasks or demands. In a school setting, getting free time would be contingent on performing a certain number of tasks. During free time, the student would be allowed to access desired events and activities. A. Tolerance training option B. Omission training option C. Premack Contingency Option D. Access Mand Option Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 57. To reduce the client’s constant desire for a given reinforcer, ______________ is well suited. Requiring the performance of a less preferred event as a condition for access to reinforcement is a strategy that will eventually “wean them off” of frequent access. A. an access Mand Option B. the omission training option C. the tolerance training option D. a Premack contingency 58. There are _______ replacement behavior options when treating a problem behavior that is maintained by direct escape of negative reinforcement. A. two B. five C. six D. four 59. ______________: Identify an alternate acceptable behavior that also produces escape from the aversive situation. Such a behavior should not be inappropriate and/or dangerous but does directly and immediately produce escape from the aversive condition in a more socially desirable manner. A. Alternate direct escape form B. Escape mand C. Tolerance training option D. Premack Contingency option 60. _________________: The protesting or negotiating response is mediated by teacher, staff, or others, by their removing or postponing the aversive condition from the client, or removing the client from the aversive condition. A. Alternate direct escape form B. Escape mand C. Tolerance training option D. Premack Contingency option 61. _________________: Identify a length of time that you want the individual not to perform the behavior, that is, s/he waits appropriately to be removed from the aversive event. The nonoccurrence of the target behavior for the interval period provides for the child/ or client to escape/ or avoid the aversive event A. Alternate direct escape form B. Escape mand C. Tolerance training option D. Premack Contingency option Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 62. ___________: Identify a regimen of tasks that, when completed, allows the client to escape the aversive condition or situation. A. Alternate direct escape form B. Escape mand C. Tolerance training option D. Premack Contingency option 63. ___________: A more acceptable alternate form of escape behavior can be identified and developed. Such a behavior must be just as capable of producing escape from the aversive situation as the target problem behavior. A. Alternate direct escape form B. Escape mand C. Tolerance training option D. Premack Contingency option 64. _______________: The client’s ability to terminate or avoid an undesired social or instructional condition can also be enhanced by developing two types of communicative skills many people use: verbal protests and negotiating skills. A. Alternate direct escape form B. Escape mand C. Tolerance training option D. Premack Contingency option 65. ____________: Identify a length of time for the nonoccurrence of behavior. When this criterion is met, you terminate the child or client’s involvement in the social or instructional situation. A. Alternate direct escape form B. Escape mand C. Tolerance training option D. Premack Contingency option 66. ____________: The completion of a designated number of tasks results in escape and avoidance of further tasks for some period of time. A. Alternate direct escape form B. Escape mand C. Tolerance training option D. Premack Contingency option 67. There are _________ replacement behavior options when treating a problem behavior that is maintained by socially mediated escape of negative reinforcement. A. two B. five C. four D. three Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 68. _____________: Identify an alternate acceptable behavior that also produces escape from the aversive situation. Such a behavior should not be inappropriate and/or dangerous but does directly and immediately produce escape from the aversive condition in a more socially desirable manner. A. Alternate direct escape form B. Escape mand C. Tolerance Training option D. Premack contingency option 69. ______________: The protesting or negotiating response is mediated by teacher, staff, or others, by their removing or postponing the aversive condition from the client, or removing the client or child from the aversive condition. A. Alternate direct escape form B. Escape mand C. Tolerance Training option D. Premack contingency option 70. Identify a length of time that you want the individual not to perform the behavior. The nonoccurrence of the target behavior for a set time period provides escape/ or avoidance of the aversive event (either by request or by direction of staff). A. Alternate direct escape form B. Escape mand C. Tolerance Training option D. Premack contingency option 71. _____________: Identify a regimen of tasks that, when completed, allows the client to escape the aversive condition or situation. A. Alternate direct escape form B. Escape mand C. Tolerance Training option D. Premack contingency option 72. The durability of target behavior under a ________ can be used to assess possible extinction burst effects with escape maintained behavior. A. treatment trial B. momentary extinction trial C. analog functional analysis D. trigger analysis Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC 73. In this assessment method, the therapist presents the aversive condition for a period of time, in a brief session. In some cases, it might be necessary for the staff person who has stimulus control over the behavior to be involved in the session, especially if the problem behavior has not generalized to different people. During the session, the aversive condition is maintained while the rate and/or duration of the problem behavior is recorded. The session would end with the final withdrawal of the request and a change to another activity. A. Extinction B. Trigger analysis C. Treatment trials D. momentary extinction trial 74. ______________: This option can also be applied for escape behaviors that are socially mediated (i.e., SME). The client or child is taught how to perform a series of acceptable behaviors that result in direct termination of the aversive events. A. Alternate Direct Escape Form B. Escape Mand C. Tolerance training D. Premack Contingency 75. ______________: This option can also be applied for escape behaviors that are socially mediated (i.e., SME). The two types of acceptable communicative responses to deal with aversive social situations are protesting behaviors and negotiating skills. A. Alternate Direct Escape Form B. Escape Mand C. Tolerance training D. Premack Contingency 76. In___________, the task is terminated when a certain time interval passes in which no target behaviors occur. Therefore, escape from the aversive condition is conditional upon “not doing the behavior” for some designated period of time. A. Alternate Direct Escape Form B. Escape Mand C. Tolerance training D. Premack Contingency 77. The ____________ contingency can also be utilized for socially mediated escape behavior. The completion of a designated number of tasks results in escape and avoidance of further tasks or chores for some period of time. A. Alternate Direct Escape Form B. Escape Mand C. Tolerance training D. Premack Contingency Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC