Physics 249 Lecture 12, Oct 1st 2012 Reading: Chapter 6 HW4 posted on the course homepage, due Friday 1) The infinite square well potential. It is useful to consider infinite potentials. While infinite potentials will introduce discontinuities in the properties of the wave function, they give easy to understand boundary conditions simplifying solutions. The probability in the infinite region of the potential is zero and only a limited number of functions can satisfy this boundary condition. The infinite potential can be representative of physical situations involving potentials large enough that a particle cannot escape the potential well. However, if we want to understand the behavior at the boundary we will have to analyze the problem more accurately. Aside Similarly we may be interested in time dependent systems but treat them in time independent ways. When an electron transitions between initial and final states in those two states the system are time independent, but transition itself if time dependent. If we want to understand the transition we will have to employ methods to analyze that transition more accurately. Consider: V(x) = 0, 0<x<L and infinity elsewhere. The potential is time independent so we can use the time independent version of the Schrodinger equation. β2 π 2 π(π₯) πΈπ(π₯) = − + V(x)π(π₯) 2π ππ₯ 2 In this case the second derivative of the wave function in space plus a constant is equal to infinity at the boundaries. Thus the wave function itself can and should be continuous, while the first derivative, slope, of the wave function is discontinuous. For a continuous wave function representing the probability the boundary condition specified by this potential requires require the wave function to be zero at the boundaries. There is a discontinuity at the boundary so we can transition from some function to zero at that point. Inside the box β2 π 2 π(π₯) πΈπ(π₯) = − 2π ππ₯ 2 We need wave function that is zero at 0 and L and gives a negative constant when differentiated twice. In genera the solution is a sin or cos or imaginary exponentials (note the imaginary exponential solution is just a specific superposition of sin and cos or vice versa). However, only the sin can be set to zero at x=0. ππ (π₯) = π΄π π ππ(ππ π₯) where π ππ = π , π = 1,2,3, … πΏ πΈ= ππ2 β2 π 2 β2 = π2 2π 2ππΏ2 We solved for A in the homework from Friday ∞ ∞ πΏ π = ∫ π΄2π sin2 (π π₯) ππ₯ = 1 πΏ −∞ π πΏ 2 2 π΄π π π΄π π π΄2π =∫ (cos (2π π₯) − 1) ππ₯ = (πΆπ ππ (2π π₯) − π₯) |πΏ0 = πΏ=1 πΏ 2 πΏ 2 π 2 ∫ |π(π₯)|2 ππ₯ = ∫ ππ∗ (π₯)ππ (π₯) −∞ A is independent of n. 2 π΄=√ πΏ 2 π ππ (π₯) = √ π ππ (π π₯) , π = 1,2,3, … πΏ πΏ 2) Finite potential well. Consider the same problem with a finite potential well and energy low enough that the object is confined to the well. In general the solutions must be symmetric around the center of the well so it is useful to consider a well centered at 0 with walls at +-L/2 The boundary is not infinite so the wave function value and slope should be continuous. In fact for the wave function to be continuous and be a valid solution of the Schrodinger equation we will find that the probability outside the box does not have to be zero. Inside the square well the Schrodinger equation is: β2 π 2 π(π₯) πΈπ(π₯) = − 2π ππ₯ 2 The general solution can be expressed as sin and cos or imaginary exponentials. The book used qualitative arguments about the curvature of the functions to determine the correct functions. Using the superposition of exponentials this can also be understood. ππ (π₯) = π΄1π π ππππ₯ + π΄2π π −ππππ₯ Outside the box the Schrodinger equation is πΈπ(π₯) = − β2 π 2 π(π₯) + π0 π 2π ππ₯ 2 with πΈ < π0 or β2 π 2 π(π₯) −(π0 − πΈ)π(π₯) = − 2π ππ₯ 2 for which the general solution are exponentials ππ (π₯) = π΅1π π πΌπ₯ + π΅2π π −πΌπ₯ πΌ= 1 √2π(π0 − πΈ) β Outside the box at infinity we will want the probability to go to zero. Therefore: ππ (π₯) = π΅1π π πΌπ₯ , π₯ < − ππ (π₯) = π΅2π π −πΌπ₯ > πΏ 2 πΏ 2 Next enforce continuity of the wave function on either side of the box. πΏ πΏ πΏ πΏ ππ (− ) = π΅1π π −πΌ2 = π΄1π π −πππ2 + π΄2π π πππ2 2 πΏ πΏ πΏ πΏ ππ ( ) = π΅2π π −πΌ2 = π΄1π π πππ2 + π΄2π π −πππ2 2 The sum of imaginary exponentials is equal to an exponential. Therefore, the sum must be such that the imaginary exponentials add exactly to a sin or cos function to eliminate the imaginary potions. Thus there are two independent sets of solutions. Proof of independence will come below. π΄1π = π΄2π , cos, and π΄1π = −π΄2π , sin Lets absorb the constants A in the imaginary exponential decomposition in into constants C ππ (π₯) = πΆ1π sinβ‘(ππ π₯) or ππ (π₯) = πΆ2π cos(ππ π₯) πΏ πΏ for the sin solution: sin (ππ 2) = − sin (−ππ 2) Therefore π΅1π = −π΅2π πΏ πΏ For the cos solution: cos (ππ 2) = cos (−ππ 2) Therefore π΅1π = π΅2π Lets call these constants D πΏ πΏ ππ (π₯) = πΆ1π sinβ‘(ππ π₯), ππ (π₯ < 2) = −π·1π π πΌπ₯ ,β‘ππ (π₯ > 2) = π·1π π −πΌπ₯ πΏ πΏ 2 2 ππ (π₯) = πΆ2π cosβ‘(ππ π₯), ππ (π₯ < ) = π·2π π πΌπ₯ ,β‘ππ (π₯ > ) = π·2π π −πΌπ₯ Consider the cos solution. Continuity of the wave function and first derivative gives: πΌπΏ πΏ ππ πΏ ππ (± ) = πΆ2π cos ( β‘) = π·2π π − 2 2 2 πΌπΏ π πΏ ππ πΏ ππ (± ) = ππ πΆ2π sin ( β‘) = π·2π πΌπ − 2 ππ₯ 2 2 Dividing the bottom by the top equation tan ( ππ πΏ πΌ β‘) = 2 ππ for the sin solution −cot ( ππ πΏ πΌ β‘) = 2 ππ For the cos solution. The tangent is a periodic function that runs upward vertically as a function of k, while alpha over k is positive and approximately declines as the inverse of k. Note exactly because k is related to the energy, which is in alpha as well. There will be periodic, quantized, solutions where the two cross. Rewrite this slightly as: ππ πΏ ππ πΏ πΏ1 ππΏ2 π0 2ππΏ2 π 2 β2 ππΏ2 π0 ππ πΏ 2 √ tan ( β‘) = − = −( ) √2π(π0 − πΈ) = √ 2 2 2β 2β2 4β2 2π 2β2 2 or − ππ πΏ ππ πΏ ππΏ2 π0 ππ πΏ 2 cot ( β‘) = √ − ( ) 2 2 2β2 2 where π£ = ππ πΏ 2 Plotting the right and left hand sides of these equations. We can see that when k is zero the right hand side of the equation has a maximum value and declines parabolic-ly starting there. There is also a maximum x value corresponding to E=V. Above that value the particle in the potential has too much energy and can exist outside the well. As V gets larger there are more valid solutions in the box and the solutions will be closer π πΏ ππ to when the trigonometric functions are maximum at π£ = π2 = 2 as above for the infinite solution! Looking graphically at some solutions. Depending on the value of the potential and L there can be substantial probability for the particle to exist outside the box. More on this when we study tunneling.