Name: _________________________________________ Date: _________________________
Final Review Study Guide
Chapter 15 Fingerprints
1. Describe the first identification system. Who created this system?
2. What is a fingerprint?
3. Three Fundamental Principles:
Principle #1=
Principle #2=
Principle #3=
4. Who was Will West?
5. It is estimated that there are as many as ________ ridge characteristics in an average complete
fingerprint.
A) 300
C) 200
B) 100
D) 150
6. The most common ridge pattern is the:
A) arch.
B) whorl.
C) tented arch.
D) loop.
7. What is the minimum number of ridge characteristics necessary before two fingerprints can be
identified as the same?
A) 22
C) 10
B) 16
D) No minimum exists.
8. To permanently alter the fingerprint and produce scars, one must damage the __________________
9. The pores of the sweat glands are located in the _______________________
10. Which fingerprint detection method requires photographs be taken immediately due to fading?
11. AFIS is a(n):
A) computer system programmed to analyze hair.
B) method used to determine age of a latent print.
C) computer software designed to track fingerprint evidence within the chain of custody.
D) computerized system for storing and retrieving fingerprint records.
12. Explain what's meant by patent (visible), plastic, and latent prints.
13. List some examples of porous surfaces.
14. List some examples of non-porous surfaces.
15. List and describe the techniques for developing latent prints on non-porous objects.
16. List and describe the chemical techniques for developing prints on porous objects.
17. Ninhydrin is used on a latent print to detect:
A) amino acids.
C) fatty acids.
B) riboflavin.
D) oils.
18. Physical developer contains:
A) silver nitrate.
B) ninhydrin.
C) acrylate.
D) none of the above.
19. Super Glue fuming is NOT suitable for use on:
A) leather.
C) metal.
B) floor tile.
D) cardboard.
20. Which chemical treatment produces a white-appearing latent print?
A) Super Glue fuming
C) ninhydrin
B) physical developer
D) crystal violet
21. Describe the proper procedures for developing and preserving a latent fingerprint with a
fingerprint powder.
Chapter 9 DNA
22. Describe the structure of DNA.
23. Which of the following depicts correct base-pairing in DNA?
A) C-A
C) C-G
B) A-C
D) G-A
24. The specific proteins produced by a cell are directly related to the:
A) sequence of sugars and phosphates in the cell.
B) sequence of nucleotides in the DNA of the cell.
C) number of mitochondria in the cell.
D) length of the chromosomes.
25. The individuality of an organism is determined by the organism's:
A) environment.
C) DNA nucleotide sequence.
B) decisions.
D) amino acids.
26. The PCR technique requires the use of a thermal cycler to:
A) hydrolyze starches
C) copy DNA.
B) synthesize protein.
D) make probes radioactive.
27. Which of the following is in the correct sequence?
A) addition of radioactive probe → gel electrophoresis → hybridization → Southern blotting → addition
of restriction enzymes → visualization of DNA fragments
B) extraction of DNA from cells → hybridization → Southern blotting → gel electrophoresis →
visualization of DNA fragments
C) addition of radioactive probe → Southern blotting → gel electrophoresis → hybridization →
visualization of DNA fragments on x-ray film
D) extraction of DNA from cells → gel electrophoresis → Southern blotting → hybridization →
visualization of DNA fragments on x-ray film
28. During gel electrophoresis the DNA is:
A) separated by fragment size by an electric current.
B) visualized using x-rays.
C) cut into fragments using heat.
D) extracted from the cell nuclei.
29. The rate at which large DNA fragments move through the electrophoretic gel is ________ the rate at
which small DNA fragments move through the same apparatus.
A) less than
B) the same as
C) greater than
30. STR analysis has replaced RFLP DNA typing because:
A) it requires a large sample size.
B) it is more likely to be degraded.
C) it can undergo PCR to make more copies.
D) it increases time to obtain results from a sample.
31. What distinguishes one individual’s DNA from another individual’s DNA?
A) proteins
C) tandem repeats
B) coded regions of DNA
D) nucleotides
32. What is CODIS? What does it do?
33. How does mitochondrial DNA differ from nuclear DNA?
Chapter 8 Serology
34. What are the components of blood?
35. In routine blood banking, which antigen(s) must be determined in testing for compatibility?
A) D
C) B
B) A
D) all of the above
36. Identify the antigens and antibodies for the following blood types.
Blood type
A
Antigen(s)
Antibody(ies)
B
AB
O
37. The clumping together of red blood cells by the action of an antibody is known as:
A) Radioimmunology
C) Agglutination
B) Clotting
D) Serology
38. To determine whether a bloodstain is of human or animal origin, the serologist will perform:
A) a precipitin test
C) Radioimmunoassay
B) EMIT.
D) a luminol test
39. When an animal is injected with an antigen, the animal will respond by producing
A) monoclonal antibodies
C) agglutinates
B) polyclonal antibodies
D) none of the above
40. In which phenotype pairings can the genotypes of the individuals be directly known?
A) type A and type AB
C) type AB and type O
B) type A and type B
D) type O, type A, and type B
41. An unknown stain can tentatively be identified as blood by:
A) the Kastle-meyer test.
C) gel solvation
B) acid phosphatase test.
D) all of the above.
42. The criminalist must be prepared to answer the question when examining dried blood:
A) Is it blood?
B) How closely can human blood be associated with a single individual?
C) From what species did the blood originate?
D) All of the above
43. The D antigen is also known as the ___________ antigen.
A) monoclonal
C) X
B) polyclonal
D) Rh
44 a) Draw a Punnett square for the following cross: A mother is homozygous for type A blood and a
father is heterozygous for type B blood, what will the children’s genotypes look like?
b) Identify all blood types from part A and determine the percentages of each blood type.
Chapter 6 Toxicology
45. In Western countries the most heavily abused drug(s) is:
A) cocaine.
C) barbiturates.
B) alcohol.
D) amphetamines.
46. A breath test reflects the alcohol concentration in the:
A) lungs.
C) liver.
B) brain.
D) blood.
47. Name three ways in which alcohol is eliminated from the body.
48. Which is a factor in determining the rate at which alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream?
A) the alcoholic content of the beverage
B) the presence or absence of food in the stomach
C) the amount consumed
D) all of the above
49. To analyze blood for alcohol, forensic labs normally use:
A) gas chromatography
C) polymerase chain reaction
B) mass spectrometry
D) gel electrophoresis
50. A substance with a pH of 8 is likely to be:
A) acidic.
B) water.
C) neutral.
D) basic.
51. The presence of high levels of carbon monoxide in the blood of a victim found at the scene of a
suspicious fire is proof that the victim:
A) was the arsonist.
B) was not a cigarette smoker.
C) died before the fire started.
D) perished after the fire started.
52. An average red blood cell contains about ______ molecules of hemoglobin.
A) 280 million
B) 740 thousand
C) 13 trillion
D) 75 billion
53. In a healthy middle-aged individual, a carbon monoxide blood saturation greater than ______ is
considered fatal.
A) 10-20%
C) 5%
B) 30-40%
D) 50-60%
54. The rate of alcohol absorption on a full stomach is ________ the rate of absorption on an empty
stomach.
A) less than
B) greater than
C) the same as
55. Blood is drawn from a living suspect involved in an automobile accident. If the specimen is kept
unrefrigerated and at a moderately warm temperature the alcohol concentration can be expected to:
A) decrease with time.
B) remain unchanged.
C) either increase or decrease with time.
D) increase with time.
56. Which of the following fluids would NOT be collected from an autopsy to detect for the presence of a
drug?
A) gastric contents.
C) blood.
B) spinal fluid.
D) vitreous humor.
57. Lethal dose (LD50) values are determined by the amount of a substance that:
A)
B)
C)
D)
kills at least 50 subjects of the test population exposed to the substance
kills a test population when given at least 50 ml of the substance
kills at least 50% of the test population exposed to the substance
kills a test population when given at least 50g of the substance
58. Some breath-testing devices for alcohol use ___________ light to measure the quantity of alcohol
trapped in a chamber.
A) laser
C) ultraviolet
B) visible
D) infrared
59. In forensic toxicology, all positive drug findings must be confirmed by a specific chemical test. The
confirmation test of choice is:
A) ultraviolet spectrophotometry
C) color test
B) gas chromatography-mass spectrometry
D) infrared spectrophotometry
60. Three blood samples were exposed to antiserums, causing the reactions shown in the
table. Based on these results, determine the ABO/Rh blood type of each sample. (6 pts)
Anti-A
Anti-B
Anti-Rh
Blood Sample 1
Agglutinates
Agglutinates
No reaction
Sample 1________________
Blood Sample 2
No reaction
No reaction
Agglutinates
Blood Sample 3
No reaction
Agglutinates
Agglutinates
Sample 2________________
Sample 3 ________________