Geometry Worksheet 3 – Proofs 1. π΄π΅ and π΄πΆ are chords of a circle, and π΄π· is a line that bisects angle ∠π΅π΄πΆ, where π· is a point on the circumference of the circle. Prove that π΅π· = πΆπ·. (Hint: perhaps draw the tangent at point π·) 2. [Source: UKMT Mentoring] Let π΄π΅πΆπ· be a square. Let π be the midpoint of π΄π΅ and πΎthe point on π΄π· such that ∠πΎππΆ is a right angle. Prove that the sides of triangle πΎπ·πΆ are in the ratio 3: 4: 5 (Hint: there might be some similar triangles in there!). 3. [Source: UKMT Mentoring] A square π΄π΅πΆπ· of length 1 is inscribed inside a circle. A point π is on the arc πΆπ·. Use Ptolemy’s Theorem to show that ππ΄ × (ππ΄ + ππΆ) = ππ΅ × (ππ΅ + ππ·). 4. [Source: UKMT Mentoring] Circle πΎ1 lies inside circle πΎ2 and touches it at π΄. From a point π (distinct from π΄) on πΎ2 , chords ππ and ππ of πΎ2 are drawn touching πΎ1 at π and π respectively. Show that ∠ππ΄π = 2∠ππ΄π. 5. [Source: BMO Round 1] In the cyclic quadrilateral π΄π΅πΆπ·, the diagonal π΄πΆ bisects the angle π·π΄π΅. The side π΄π· is extended beyond π· to a point πΈ. Show that πΆπΈ = πΆπ΄ if and only if π·πΈ = π΄π΅ [Note: ‘if and only if’ means you have to proof both ways, i.e. that if πΆπΈ = πΆπ΄ then π·πΈ = π΄π΅ and if π·πΈ = π΄π΅ then πΆπΈ = πΆπ΄] www.drfrostmaths.com/rzc Geometry Worksheet 3 - ANSWERS 1. Let ∠π΅π΄πΆ = ∠πΆπ΄π· = π. Suppose we draw the tangent at point π·. Then by the Alternate Segment Theorem, the angle between the tangent and each of the chords π΅π· and πΆπ· is π. Since these angles are the same, by an argument of symmetry, it must be that π΅π· = πΆπ·. 2. We have the following diagram on the right. Without loss of generality, let the side length of the square be 2. If ∠ππΆπ΅ = π, then ∠πΆππ΅ = 90° − π and so ∠π΄ππΎ = π. Thus triangles π΄πΎπ and ππ΅πΆ are similar. This allows us to determine that ππΆ = 2πΎπ. Using Pythagoras, π΅πΆ 2 + ππ΅2 = ππΆ 2 , so ππΆ = √5. And since ππΆ = 2πΎπ, πΎπ = √5 2 5 . We can again use Pythagoras on triangle πΎππΆ to find that πΎπΆ = . 3 2 3 4 5 2 2 2 2 Finally using Pythagoras in triangle πΎπ·πΆ, πΎπΆ = . The lengths of πΎπ·πΆ are , , which are in the ratio 3: 4: 5. 3. We know that π΄πΆ = π΅π· = √2. Then applying Ptolemy’s Theorem to cyclic quadrilateral π΄π΅πΆπ, we have √2 ππ΅ = (1 × ππ΄) + (1 × ππΆ) = ππ΄ + ππΆ. Similarly using quadrilateral π΄π΅ππ·, we have √2 ππ΄ = ππ΅ + ππ·. Dividing one equation by the other and then cross-multiplying, we’re done. 4. Let ∠ππ΄π = π. Then by the Alternate Segment Theorem, ∠πππ = ∠πππ = π. Thus ∠πππ = 180 − 2π (internal angles of a triangle). But πππ΄π is a cyclic quadrilateral, so ∠ππ΄π = 180 − (180 − 2π) = 2π. Thus ∠ππ΄π = 2∠ππ΄π. 5. [Note that, like Q2 and Q4, I haven’t seen the ‘model solution’ for this. The model solutions may have a more elegant way of approaching this question, although in some ways I think it’s more beneficial for you to see my ‘internal dialogue’ as I solved this question in a fairly methodical away, rather than some elegant trick for which your reaction might be ‘I would have never thought of doing that.’] I started off by putting the information given into a diagram: My immediate reaction was that I had two chords on the same tangent, so could apply the Alternate Segment Theorem twice. This gives ∠π·πΆπΈ = ∠π΅πΆπ = π. Since these two angles are the same, then by symmetry, it must be the case that πΆπ· = π΅πΆ. I let ∠π·πΆπ΄ = π, because we’d then have another chord in contact with the tangent (i.e. πΆπ΄) and could apply the Alternate Segment Theorem again. www.drfrostmaths.com/rzc Thus ∠π΄π΅πΆ = π + π. We also find that ∠πΆπ·πΈ = π + π because it’s the external angle of triangle π΄πΆπ·. All this information I gleaned is displayed below: This already looks quite promising, because there’s the distinct whiff of similar and congruent triangles. I can see that π΄πΆπΈ and π΄π·πΈ are similar (the tell-tale sign is one triangle embedded within another with ∠πΆπ΄π· = ∠π·πΆπΈ), which I’m hoping will help. We now have two proofs required: a. Forwards proof: Show that if πͺπ¬ = πͺπ¨ then π«π¬ = π¨π©. If πΆπΈ = πΆπ΄ then πΆπΈπ΄ is an isosceles triangle and ∠π·πΈπΆ = π.We can see that triangles π·πΈπΆ and π΄π΅πΆ are not only similar but congruent (I looked at these triangles given that they involve the sides we want to prove something about), because πΆπΈ = πΆπ΄ and π·πΆ = π΅πΆ and ∠π΅π΄πΆ = ∠π·πΈπΆ and ∠π΄π΅πΆ = ∠πΈπ·πΆ. Thus we find that π·πΈ = π΄π΅. b. Backwards proof: Show that if π«π¬ = π¨π© then πͺπ¬ = πͺπ¨. π·πΈ πΆπΈ π·πΈ Triangles π΄πΆπΈ and π·πΈπΆ are similar, so π·πΆ = π΄πΆ. If we can show that π·πΈ = π·πΆ, then π·πΆ = πΆπΈ 1 = π΄πΆ , and thus we’d have shown πΆπΈ = πΆπ΄ as required. We’d have π·πΈ = π·πΆ if ∠π·πΈπΆ = π, thus the proof boils down to showing this is the case. This is easy to show by congruent triangles again. Since π·πΈ = π΄π΅ and since ∠πΈπ·πΆ = ∠π΄π΅πΆ, triangle π΄π΅πΆ is congruent to πΈπ·πΆ. Thus ∠π·πΈπΆ = ∠π΅π΄πΆ = π. π·πΈ πΆπΈ In hindsight, I could have also used the fact that π·πΆ = π΄πΆ in the forward proof as well, since if πΆπΈ = π΄πΆ, then π·πΈ = π·πΆ. It would have then been easy using congruent triangles to show that π·πΈ = π΄π΅. www.drfrostmaths.com/rzc