RZC Geometry Worksheet 3 - Proofs

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Geometry Worksheet 3 – Proofs
1. 𝐴𝐡 and 𝐴𝐢 are chords of a circle, and 𝐴𝐷 is a line that bisects angle ∠𝐡𝐴𝐢, where 𝐷 is a point
on the circumference of the circle. Prove that 𝐡𝐷 = 𝐢𝐷. (Hint: perhaps draw the tangent at
point 𝐷)
2. [Source: UKMT Mentoring] Let 𝐴𝐡𝐢𝐷 be a square. Let 𝑀 be the midpoint of 𝐴𝐡 and 𝐾the point
on 𝐴𝐷 such that ∠𝐾𝑀𝐢 is a right angle. Prove that the sides of triangle 𝐾𝐷𝐢 are in the ratio
3: 4: 5 (Hint: there might be some similar triangles in there!).
3. [Source: UKMT Mentoring] A square 𝐴𝐡𝐢𝐷 of length 1 is inscribed inside a circle. A point 𝑃 is on
the arc 𝐢𝐷. Use Ptolemy’s Theorem to show that 𝑃𝐴 × (𝑃𝐴 + 𝑃𝐢) = 𝑃𝐡 × (𝑃𝐡 + 𝑃𝐷).
4. [Source: UKMT Mentoring] Circle 𝛾1 lies inside circle 𝛾2 and touches it at 𝐴. From a point 𝑃
(distinct from 𝐴) on 𝛾2 , chords 𝑃𝑄 and 𝑃𝑅 of 𝛾2 are drawn touching 𝛾1 at 𝑋 and π‘Œ respectively.
Show that ∠𝑄𝐴𝑅 = 2∠π‘‹π΄π‘Œ.
5.
[Source: BMO Round 1] In the cyclic quadrilateral 𝐴𝐡𝐢𝐷, the diagonal 𝐴𝐢 bisects the angle 𝐷𝐴𝐡.
The side 𝐴𝐷 is extended beyond 𝐷 to a point 𝐸. Show that 𝐢𝐸 = 𝐢𝐴 if and only if 𝐷𝐸 = 𝐴𝐡
[Note: ‘if and only if’ means you have to proof both ways, i.e. that if 𝐢𝐸 = 𝐢𝐴 then 𝐷𝐸 = 𝐴𝐡 and
if 𝐷𝐸 = 𝐴𝐡 then 𝐢𝐸 = 𝐢𝐴]
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Geometry Worksheet 3 - ANSWERS
1.
Let ∠𝐡𝐴𝐢 = ∠𝐢𝐴𝐷 = π‘Ž. Suppose we draw the tangent at point 𝐷. Then by the Alternate Segment
Theorem, the angle between the tangent and each of the chords 𝐡𝐷 and 𝐢𝐷 is π‘Ž. Since these angles
are the same, by an argument of symmetry, it must be that 𝐡𝐷 = 𝐢𝐷.
2.
We have the following diagram on the right. Without loss of generality, let the
side length of the square be 2.
If ∠𝑀𝐢𝐡 = π‘Ž, then ∠𝐢𝑀𝐡 = 90° − π‘Ž and so ∠𝐴𝑀𝐾 = π‘Ž. Thus triangles 𝐴𝐾𝑀
and 𝑀𝐡𝐢 are similar. This allows us to determine that 𝑀𝐢 = 2𝐾𝑀.
Using Pythagoras, 𝐡𝐢 2 + 𝑀𝐡2 = 𝑀𝐢 2 , so 𝑀𝐢 = √5. And since 𝑀𝐢 = 2𝐾𝑀,
𝐾𝑀 =
√5
2
5
. We can again use Pythagoras on triangle 𝐾𝑀𝐢 to find that 𝐾𝐢 = .
3
2
3 4 5
2
2 2 2
Finally using Pythagoras in triangle 𝐾𝐷𝐢, 𝐾𝐢 = . The lengths of 𝐾𝐷𝐢 are , ,
which are in the ratio 3: 4: 5.
3.
We know that 𝐴𝐢 = 𝐡𝐷 = √2. Then applying Ptolemy’s Theorem to cyclic quadrilateral 𝐴𝐡𝐢𝑃, we
have √2 𝑃𝐡 = (1 × π‘ƒπ΄) + (1 × π‘ƒπΆ) = 𝑃𝐴 + 𝑃𝐢. Similarly using quadrilateral 𝐴𝐡𝑃𝐷, we have
√2 𝑃𝐴 = 𝑃𝐡 + 𝑃𝐷. Dividing one equation by the other and then cross-multiplying, we’re done.
4.
Let ∠π‘‹π΄π‘Œ = π‘Ž. Then by the Alternate Segment Theorem, ∠π‘ƒπ‘‹π‘Œ = ∠π‘ƒπ‘Œπ‘‹ = π‘Ž. Thus ∠π‘ƒπ‘‹π‘Œ = 180 −
2π‘Ž (internal angles of a triangle). But 𝑃𝑄𝐴𝑅 is a cyclic quadrilateral, so ∠𝑄𝐴𝑅 = 180 − (180 − 2π‘Ž) =
2π‘Ž. Thus ∠𝑄𝐴𝑅 = 2∠π‘‹π΄π‘Œ.
5.
[Note that, like Q2 and Q4, I haven’t seen the ‘model solution’ for this. The model solutions
may have a more elegant way of approaching this question, although in some ways I think
it’s more beneficial for you to see my ‘internal dialogue’ as I solved this question in a fairly
methodical away, rather than some elegant trick for which your reaction might be ‘I would
have never thought of doing that.’]
I started off by putting the information
given into a diagram:
My immediate reaction was that I had
two chords on the same tangent, so
could apply the Alternate Segment
Theorem twice. This gives ∠𝐷𝐢𝐸 =
∠𝐡𝐢𝑋 = π‘Ž. Since these two angles are
the same, then by symmetry, it must
be the case that 𝐢𝐷 = 𝐡𝐢. I let
∠𝐷𝐢𝐴 = 𝑏, because we’d then have
another chord in contact with the
tangent (i.e. 𝐢𝐴) and could apply the
Alternate Segment Theorem again.
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Thus ∠𝐴𝐡𝐢 = π‘Ž + 𝑏. We also find that ∠𝐢𝐷𝐸 = π‘Ž + 𝑏 because it’s the external angle of
triangle 𝐴𝐢𝐷. All this information I gleaned is displayed below:
This already looks quite promising, because there’s the distinct whiff of similar and
congruent triangles. I can see that 𝐴𝐢𝐸 and 𝐴𝐷𝐸 are similar (the tell-tale sign is one triangle
embedded within another with ∠𝐢𝐴𝐷 = ∠𝐷𝐢𝐸), which I’m hoping will help.
We now have two proofs required:
a. Forwards proof: Show that if π‘ͺ𝑬 = π‘ͺ𝑨 then 𝑫𝑬 = 𝑨𝑩.
If 𝐢𝐸 = 𝐢𝐴 then 𝐢𝐸𝐴 is an isosceles triangle and ∠𝐷𝐸𝐢 = π‘Ž.We can see that triangles 𝐷𝐸𝐢
and 𝐴𝐡𝐢 are not only similar but congruent (I looked at these triangles given that they
involve the sides we want to prove something about), because 𝐢𝐸 = 𝐢𝐴 and 𝐷𝐢 = 𝐡𝐢 and
∠𝐡𝐴𝐢 = ∠𝐷𝐸𝐢 and ∠𝐴𝐡𝐢 = ∠𝐸𝐷𝐢. Thus we find that 𝐷𝐸 = 𝐴𝐡.
b. Backwards proof: Show that if 𝑫𝑬 = 𝑨𝑩 then π‘ͺ𝑬 = π‘ͺ𝑨.
𝐷𝐸
𝐢𝐸
𝐷𝐸
Triangles 𝐴𝐢𝐸 and 𝐷𝐸𝐢 are similar, so 𝐷𝐢 = 𝐴𝐢. If we can show that 𝐷𝐸 = 𝐷𝐢, then 𝐷𝐢 =
𝐢𝐸
1 = 𝐴𝐢 , and thus we’d have shown 𝐢𝐸 = 𝐢𝐴 as required. We’d have 𝐷𝐸 = 𝐷𝐢 if ∠𝐷𝐸𝐢 = π‘Ž,
thus the proof boils down to showing this is the case. This is easy to show by congruent
triangles again. Since 𝐷𝐸 = 𝐴𝐡 and since ∠𝐸𝐷𝐢 = ∠𝐴𝐡𝐢, triangle 𝐴𝐡𝐢 is congruent to
𝐸𝐷𝐢. Thus ∠𝐷𝐸𝐢 = ∠𝐡𝐴𝐢 = π‘Ž.
𝐷𝐸
𝐢𝐸
In hindsight, I could have also used the fact that 𝐷𝐢 = 𝐴𝐢 in the forward proof as well, since if
𝐢𝐸 = 𝐴𝐢, then 𝐷𝐸 = 𝐷𝐢. It would have then been easy using congruent triangles to show
that 𝐷𝐸 = 𝐴𝐡.
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