Psychiatry Exam 2007

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Psychiatry Exam 2007
1. ...
2. Most important role in biochemistry of aggression plays:
a. Aldosterone
b. Serotonin
c. Acetylcholine
d. GABA
3. Which PD? Problems with human interaction, introversion, often seen by others as eccentric,
lonely, limited capacity to express either warm, tender feelings or anger, consistent choice of
solitary activities…
4. Correct description of borderline PD
5. Defense mechanisms that involve stripping the emotion from a difficult memory…
a. ISOLATION
6. 1916 – Albert B.
a. WATSON
7. Which statement concerning antisocial personality disorder is FALSE?
a. prevalence is 3% in men and 1% in women
b. a familial pattern is present
c. antisocial pd is synonymous with criminality
d. The patients appear to lack conscience
8. Which of the following statements about borderline personality is FALSE?
a. Persons with borderline pd have more relatives with mood disorders than do control
group
b. They often feel emptiness
c. … impulses is often connected with self-mutilations
d. …
9. Reaction formation (defence mechanism) choose RIGHT answer
a. CHANGING AN UNACCEPTABLE IMPULSE INTO IT’S OPPOSITE
10. Question about memory (?)
11. Counter-transferance (?) definition
12. …
13. A pervasive pattern of grandiosity, lack of empathy, need for admiration suggests the
diagnosis of:
a. Schizotypal pd
b. Bipolar disorder
c. Narcissistic pd
d. Paranoid pd
14. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the dependent pd?
a. More common in youngest child of a sibship than in older child
b. Pessimism
c. More often diagnosed in men than in women
d. Marked lack of self-confidence
15. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the organic pd?
a. Many patients exhibit low drive and uninitiative
b. Emotions are typically labile and shallow
c. The expressions of impulses is characteristically disinhibited
d. All of the above is true
Questions 16-20 – a story:
A 40-year old farm worker is hospitalized for an infectious pneumonitis. He seems to be responding
well to antibiotics but on the third day of his hospital stay he becomes restless, irritable, and wants
to leave. He appears to be confused. Restraints are applied and a psychiatrist is called in for
consultation. The psychiatrist notes from the chart that the patient is a widower, a veteran that lives
by himself. The history states that he has been in “good general health” with no accidents and that
he smokes and drinks “moderately”. His physical examination is essentially negative apart from the
clearing bronchopneumonia. “There is no history of previous emotional illness” according to the
hospital record.
The man is lying in bed with arms and legs in restraints. He is sweating profusely and the bed is in
disarray. He does not acknowledge the doctor’s presence but is anxiously watching what he claims to
be “big lizards over there in the corner”. He sees these lizards climbing up the wall.
16. The most likely diagnosis here is:
a. Schizophrenia paranoid type
b. Hysterical neurosis, conversion type
c. Delirium tremens
d. Involutional paranoid state
e. Pathological intoxication
17. The preferred treatment includes all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. Removing restraints
b. Intramuscular morphine
c. Parenteral fluids
d. Paraldehyde
e. Magnesium sulphate infusion
With treatment, the patient becomes less disturbed but the nursing staff is still concerned. The
patient is physically healthy, spends his time walking around the unit, but he does not seem to
recognize his surroundings. Even though he is told repeatedly that he is in a hospital, a few minutes
later he appears to have forgotten. He states he is in a hotel, on vacation from his work in a local
automobile factory. He is just waiting to go home to his wife. His general mood is friendly and
cooperative.
18. He is now showing:
a. La belle indifference
b. Preservation
c. Thought blocking
d. Confabulation
e. Flight of ideas
19. This symptom is a manifest of
a. Korsakoff’s syndrome
b. Acute porphyria
c. Malingering
d. Capgras’ syndrome
e. Schizophrenia, simple type
20. Other symptoms that may develop as part of this illness include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Acute pancreatitis
b. Hepatic coma
c. Pellagra
d. Wernicke’s encephalopathy
e. Splenic infarction
21. All of the following statements about bipolar I disorder are true , EXCEPT:
a. Bipolar I disorder most often starts with depression
b. About 10-20 % of patients only experience manic episodes
c. An untreated manic episode lasts about 3 months
d. As the illness progresses, the amount of time between episodes often increases
22. Life events are:
a. A possible factor in the onset and the timing of a specific episode of depression
b. Most associated with the development of depression in later life when a parent is
lost before the age of 11
c. Most associated with the onset of a depressive episode when a spouse is lost
d. All of the above
23. In the treatment of a patient with a depressive disorder
a. TCA are not lethal when taken at overdose levels
b. Antidepressants do not have sexual side effects
c. MAOIs are chosen as first line drugs more often than are SSRIs
d. Antidepressants are effective in the treatment of major depressive episode with
psychotic features
24. Of the following neurological diseases, which is most often associated with depression?
a. Epilepsy
b. Brain tumor
c. Parkinson’s disease
d. Alzheimer’s
25. All of the following statements about patients with bipolar I disorder are true EXCEPT:
a. They have poorer prognosis than do patients with MDD
b. They have bizarre and mood-incongruent delusions and hallucinations when manic
c. About 75% of female pat have had manic episode before exhibiting their first
depressive episode
d. Only 50 – 60% of these pat achieve significant control of their symptoms with lithium
26. Dysthymic disorder:
a. Cannot exist with MDD
b. Usually has an abrupt onset
c. Is synonymous with minor depressive disorder
d. Has not shown successful treatment with antidepressants
27. Cyclothymic disorder is considered an attenuated form of bipolar I disorder because of:
a. A similarity of symptoms in the two disorders
b. The significant number of cyclothymic patients who eventually have bipolar I
disorder
c. The two disorders’ favourable response to lithium
d. A hypomanic response to TCA among cyclothymic disorder patients
28. The lifetime prevalence of dysthymic disorder is:
a. 5‰
b. 1%
c. 2%
d. 4,5%
29. Vegetative signs in depression include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Weight loss
b. Abnormal menses
c. Obsessive rumination
d. Decreased libido
30. Which of the following symptoms is incompatible with dysthymic disorder?
a. Weight change
b. Sleep difficulty
c. Delusions
d. Decreased sexual performance
31. Mark the main way of classical antipsychotics action
a. Blocking D2-receptors in mesolimbic and mesocortical system
b. Inhibition of α1-receptors connected with postural hypotension and sedation
c. Blocking M-receptors connected with anticholinergic effect
d. Modulation of H1-receptors connected with sedation and appetite stimulation
32. Potential adverse effects caused by blockade of muscarinic ach receptors consist
a. Blurred vision, constipation, decreased salivation, decreased sweating
b. Exacerbation of asthma, delayed or retrograde ejaculation, delirium
c. Memory problems, narrow-angle glaucoma, photophobia
d. Sinus tachycardia, urinary retention
e. All of the above
33. Potential dopaminergic adverse effects caused by antipsychotics consists
a. Endocrine dysfunction (hyperprolactinemia, menstrual dysfunction, sexual
dysfunction)
b. Movement disorders (akathisia, dystonia, parkinsonism, tardive dyskinesia)
c. Dizziness, postural hypotension, reflex tachycardia
d. None of the above
e. A+B
34. Weight gain in psychiatric patients
a. Accompanies the use of many psychotropic drugs
b. Is result of retained fluid, increased caloric intake, decreased exercise, or altered
metabolism in course of medication
c. Is a very common reason for noncompliance with the drug treatment regime
d. All above are true
35. Intoxication with carbamazepine manifests as
a. Drowsiness, nystagmus, diploplia
b. Seizures, nausea, vomiting
c. Hypomania, tachycardia
d. All above
36. Therapeutic level of lithium bicarbonate
a. Should be monitored in every patient
b. Monitoring is indicated only in bipolar patients
c. The level is too low if the patient claims about tremor
d. None of the above
37. The most common side effects of olanzapine is:
a. Acute dystonia
b. Sedation and weight gain
c. tachycardia
d. Akathisia
38. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome means:
a. The development of severe muscle rigidity and elevated temperature associated
with the use of neuroleptics
b. Acute agranulocytosis connected with clozapine use
c. Acute dyskinesia connected with classical antipsychotics
d. Frequent collapses after use of antipsychotics with strong anticholinergic effect
39. The most common typr of schizophrenia is:
a. Paranoid
b. Hebephrenic
c. Catatonic
d. Residual
40. Nowadays in dopaminergic hypothesis of schizophrenia the main disturbance is
a. Generalized hyperactivity of dopaminergic system
b. Generalized hypoactivity of dopaminergic system
c. Dopaminergic hyperactivity in frontal lobe and hypoactivity in limbic system
d. Dopaminergic hypoactivity in frontal lobe and hyperactivity in limbic system
41. The lifetime prevalence of schizophrenia is
a. 0,5%
b. 1%
c. 2%
d. 3%
42. A patient with diagnosis of residual schizophrenia (indicate false)
a. May present clinical features similar to simple type of schizophrenia
b. Might present before paranoid typr, catatonic, hebephrenic or more than one type
of schizophrenia
c. Now presents only negative symptoms of the disease
d. Doesn’t need any medication
43. The most typical content of delusion in schizophrenia is
a. Delusion of self-accusation
b. Delusion of persecution
c. Delusion of reference
d. Delusion of thought withdrawal, insertion, broadcasting
44. When both parents are schizophrenic the risk of schizophrenia in child is about:
a. 4-5%
b. 17-18%
c. 45-48%
d. 60-65%
45. According to ICD-10 classification the time criteria for schizophrenia is at least
a. 2 weeks
b. 1 month
c. …
d. 6 months
46. According to ICD-10 classification the time criteria for delusional disorder is:
a. 1 month
b. 2 months
c. 3 months
d. 6 months
47. Find truth about dementia
a. In late period of the course of illnesses patients with Alzheimer’s disease usually
present similar symptoms as vascular dementia
b. About 5% of syndromes of dementia are reversible
c. There aren’t genetic factors in etiology of Alzheimer’s disease
d. In the course of Alzheimer’s disease focal neurological symptoms are typical
48. Find illness which is not a risk factor for vascular dementia
a. Diabetes
b. Hypertension
c. Atherosclerosis
d. Pellagra
49. Features of Kluver-Bucy syndrome is the most typical for
a. Alzheimers disease
b. Parkinson’s dis
c. Pick’s dis
d. Vascular dementia
50. Common reasons for amnestic disorder are EXCEPT for:
a. Vit. B1 def
b. Head trauma
c. Vit. B12 def
d. Cerebrovascular disease esp. thalamic and temporal lobe
51. ADHD- find true sentence
a. Equal prevalence in girls and boys
b. Usually diagnosed in children between 5 and 11 yrs
c. Most often appear in middle class
d. Never diagnosed in adults
52. Typical features of ADHD – find FALSE sentence
a. Impulsivity
b. Hyperactivity in situations when calmness is expected
c. Lack of relation with parents
d. Deficit in attention
53. Children with ADHD – find FALSE sentence
a. …
b. …
c. Worse marks obtained in school
d. Too tough and too frank contact with adults
54. Successful in ADHD treatment – which is FALSE?
a. Imipramine
b. Concerta (methylphenidate hydrochloride)
c. Analytic psychotherapy
d. Learning in small, calm classes
55. Tourette syndrome - find FALSE sentence
a. Ticks usually might be stopped according to will
b. Emotional stress exaggerate ticks
c. There are much fewer ticks during sleeping
d. The syndrome is more common in boys than in girls
56. Typical features of childhood autism - find FALSE sentence
a. Stereotypical behavior
b. Surprisingly high IQ level
c. Avoiding eye contact
d. Echolalia
57. Mental retardation
a. It’s described as decrease in intellectual level and disability in taking more care of
oneself
b. At least 50% of children with deep mental retardation is not recognized and
diagnosed at school
c. In moderate mental retardation the IQ level is about 60
d. Other skills (like painting) are often observed in children with mental retardation
58. Obsessive-compulsive syndrome - find FALSE sentence
a. Resistance to compulsive activities cause the increase in inner tension
b. Clomipramine and SSRIs are successful in therapy
c. Often occurs in bus drivers
d. Obsessive thoughts are often focused on sex or death
59. Impulse control disorders – which one does not belong here?
a. Pathological gambling
b. Trichotillomania
c. Intermittent explosive disorder
d. Playing truants
60. Which of the following medications may produce depressive symptoms?
a. Analgesics
b. Antibacterials
c. Antipsychotics
d. All of the above
61. Drugs that may precipitate mania include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Bromocriptine
b. Isoniazid
c. Propranolol
d. …
62. A manic episode is differentiated from a schizophrenic episode by:
a. Quality of mood
b. Psychomotor activity
c. Speed of onset
d. All of the above
63. Major depressive disorder:
a. Is more common in men than in women
b. Peaks in women after age 55
c. Shows no conclusive evidence for any difference btw blacks and whites
d. Is highest in the poor
64. Characterized by episodes of hypomanic-like symptoms and periods of mild depression
a. Cyclothymic disorder
b. Bipolar II disorder
c. Both
d. Neither
65. Characterized by major depressive episodes and hypomanic episodes
a. Cyclothymic disorder
b. Bipolar II disorder
c. Both
d. Neither
66. All of the following statements about seizures associated with alcohol withdrawal are true
EXCEPT:
a. They are tonic-clonic in character
b. They usually recur after 3-6 hrs after 1st seizure
c. They often progress to status epilepticus
d. They do not respond to anticonvulsants
67. The feature of addiction that differentiates it from other forms of substance misuse is:
a. Overwhelming involvement in seeking and using a drug
b. Physical dependence
c. Use of narcotics
d. Antisocial behavior
68. Alcohol dependence or abuse is a problem of:
a. 30%
b. 10%
c. …
d. 50% of world population
69. Biochemical factors of alcohol dependence is:
a. The alcohol dehydrogenase
b. The aldehyde dehydrogenase
c. The catalase
d. All of them
70. The main features of labile affect which differentiate it from mood swings is:
a. The experienced emotions
b. The rapidity of changes in emotional feeling tone
c. The situation in which it appears
d. The adequacy to the external situation
71. The feature of addiction that differentiate it from other forms of alcohol misuse is:
a. Overwhelming involvement in seeking and using the alcohol
b. Physical dependence
c. Antisocial behavior
d. Tolerance and withdrawal
72. Defense mechanisms playing main role in addiction is:
a. Acting out
b. Denial
c. Regression
d. Somatization
73. The neurostructure playing main role in secondary emotions os
a. Frontal lobe
b. Amygdala
c. Cerebellum
d. Temporal lobe
74. The main aim of psychoanalytical therapy is:
a. Bringing the unconscious conflict into the consciousness
b. Reduction of anxiety
c. Desensitization
d. Improving the communication skills
75. Therapeutic techniques used in behavioral therapy is:
a. Desensitization
b. Interpretation
c. Dream analysis
d. Free associations
76. Testing automatic thoughts is a technique used in:
a. …
b. …
c. …
d. Relaxation training
77. Unfocused fear not attached to any idea is:
a. Dysphoric mood
b. Blunted affect
c. Free floating anxiety
d. Expansive mood
78. Stupor is a syndrome which can occur in every of the following states EXCEPT
a. Melancholia
b. Schizophrenia
c. Mania
d. Hysteria
79. Anhedonia is:
a. A person’s inability to or difficulty in describing feelings or mood
b. A person’s expression of feelings without restraints
c. Loss of interest in and withdrawal from all regular and pleasurable activities
d. Sadness appropriate to a real loss
80. Which of the following should not be taken into consideration when talking about aetiology
of schizophrenia?
a. Genetics
b. Family interaction
c. Geographic area
d. Structural brain abnormalities
81. The downward drift hypothesis – choose the correct description:
a. Synonym to “social causation hypothesis”
b. One of possible schizophrenia risk factors
c. Hypothesis suggesting that there is a tendency to moving into lower socioeconomic
groups because of schizophrenia
d. Hypothesis suggesting that members of low socioeconomic groups tend to develop
schizophrenia
82. Which of the following is NOT the feature towards good prognosis in schizophrenia
a. Late onset
b. Young onset
c. Acute onset
d. Mood disorder symptoms
83. Choose the WRONG statement referring to paranoid schizophrenia
a. May appear delusions of control, influence, or passivity
b. Hallucinatory voices commenting patient’s behavior or voices from different parts of
the body may be met
c. The disorder is not due to alcohol related intoxication
d. May be attributable to organic brain damage
84. Post-schizophrenic depression – which is correct?
a. The general criteria for schizophrenia are still present
b. General criteria for schizophrenia must have been met during past 12 months, but
are not present now
c. The depressive symptoms observed in this disorder might be quite weak
d. The postschizophrenic depression occurs more often in men than in women
85. A 34-year old patient with history of paranoid schizophrenia is brought to the psychiatry
department by his family for the second time during one year. The family admits that the
patient is not very willing to all medicines. Which of the following explanations is the most
probable?
a. Weak response to the neuroleptics
b. Impaired judgement
c. Impaired insight
d. Automatic judgement
86. Which of the following CANNOT be described as a negative symptom in schizophrenia
a. Lack of motivation
b. Poverty of speech
c. Anhedonia
d. Delusion of control
87. Which of the following does NOT refer to hebephrenic schizophrenia
a. Early onset
b. Aimless activity
c. Surprisingly good contact with reality
d. Dilapidated social behavior
88. Archaic thinking and emotionality are connected neurophysiologically with:
a. Brain stem
b. Limbic area, diencephalon, and prefrontal cortex
c. Cerebellum
d. Frontal cortex
89. Which phrase is NOT correct to characterize mental retardation?
a. Involuntary processes of the grown-up mind
b. Arrested or incomplete development of the mind
c. Oligophrenia
d. Dementia praecox
i. B+D
ii. A+D
iii. C
iv. D
90. Somatic complaints in children may belong to clinical presentation of:
a. Mood disorders
b. Neurosis
c. Oppositional defiant disorder
d. All above
91. Show the correct clinical characteristic of the severe depression in children
a. Mood –congruent delusions and hallucinations
b. Depressed or irritable mood
c. Social skills disturbances
d. Denying complaints in a straightforward way
i. All phrases are true
ii. Only A, B, C are true
iii. Only B is true
92. Which of the following features are NOT typical for schizophrenia with childhood onset
a. Usually normal intelligence
b. Excessive interest in religious and philosophical themes
c. Abrupt, acute onset
d. Visual hallucinations
93. Such symptoms as enuresis or getting dirty, vomiting, ticks, nightmares, mutism are the most
characteristic for:
a. Conduct disorder
b. Childhood schizophrenia
c. Neurosis
d. Mental retardation
94. Which of the complications while treating wth Clozapine (Leponex) you exclude?
a. Leukopenia
b. Extrapyramidal side effects
c. Severe anticholinergic effect, even delirium
d. Seizures
95. Choose the correct phrase which characterize anxiolytics
a. They influence psychotic symptoms
b. They may induce akathisia and reinforce muscle tension
c. They have increasing tolerance and easy dependence
d. They lower seizure threshold
96. Which of the following drugs DOESN’T belong to benzodiazepines?
a. Chlordiazepoxide
b. Chlorprotixen
c. Clonazepam
d. Alprazolam
Questions 97-99 – a story:
You are called to the local police station to evaluate a 26-year old man who has suddenly killed a lifelong neighbor. He claims that the neighbor has been spying on him and just recently trained his dog
to dig up his roses. When you are introduced to the patient, he mutters something like “He sent
you”. The man is unwilling to sit down. He paces around restlessly and refuses to be touched.
Ocasionally he stops and seems to talk quietly to himself. At other times he appears to be talking to
some private sounds or voices.
97. The disturbed man attacked his neighbor to prevent what he believed to be spying. The
delutional mechanism whereby he justified his assult is:
a. Association
b. Rationalization (?)
c. Projection
d. Displacement
e. …doing
98. The most likely diagnosis of this patient is:
a. … Sexual panic
b. Bipolar disorder, manic type, acute
c. …
d. Schizophrenia, paranoid type
e. Dissocial personality
99. The present symptoms are best treated by:
a. Imipramine
b. Chlorpromazine
c. Barbiturates
d. Amphetamine
e. Chlordiazepoxide
100.
A patient admits that he is profoundly depressed and is thinking seriously about
killing himself. You should:
a. Shout out how stupid and self-defeating such a terrible act would be
b. Send him home to get his clothes so that he can be admitted to the hospital that day
or next
c. Institute or maintain a high intake of antidepressants and set up daily outpatient
appointments
d. Admit him directly to the hospital from your office. Be sure he is closely
accompanied in the hospital unit
e. Arrange contact for him with on of the suicide prevention grous, like “Rescue”. They
will care for him
101.
a.
b.
c.
d.
102.
a.
b.
c.
d.
103.
a.
b.
c.
d.
104.
a.
b.
c.
d.
105.
a.
b.
c.
d.
106.
a.
b.
c.
d.
107.
a.
b.
c.
d.
108.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Drug in treating childhood enuresis may be recommended:
…
…
… or vasopressin
None of the above
The side effects of tricyclics are all of mentioned below EXCEPT:
Delirium
Cardiac arrhythmia
Enuresis
… turning depression into mania
SSRI – choose FALSE
Inhibit 5HT-receptors by presynaptic neurons without effect on (some other
receptors)
Is used in eating disorder, panic disorder, obsessive-compulsive disorder
May be used in co-therapy with MAOI to reinforce therapeutic effect
Are safe in patients with cardiacdisturbances
Lithium – choose FALSE
Regulate the membrane structure by means of … ion channels
In prophylactic and treatment for bipolar I disorder and schizoaffective disorder
Lithium has narrow therapeutic window
Common side effects: cardiac dysrhythmias, polyuria, hepatotoxicity
Clozapine – choose FALSE
Is indicated for drug-resistant schizophrenia
Is recommended after non-successful … of treatment
Is indicated for enuresis
Effect appears usually later – even after 2-3 weeks
You can expect the following side effects connected with Clozapine, EXCEPT:
Leukopenia, agranulocytosis
Xerostomia, scanty salivation
Seizures
Delirium
The most typical description of haloperidol (?), choose false
Severe antipsychotic, sedative and inhibiting properties
Many different forms and doses
Is contraindicated in patients with cardiovascular disease or insufficiency
May cause different extrapyramidal side effects
Autistic disorder, choose FALSE answer
Synonym is Kanner’s autism
Typically are: social interaction deficits, communication deficits, behavior deficits
Diagnosed in children before/after (?) 3 years old
The risk of autistic disorder increases as the IQ decreases
109.
a.
b.
c.
d.
110.
a.
b.
c.
d.
111.
a.
b.
c.
d.
112.
a.
b.
c.
d.
113.
a.
b.
c.
d.
114.
a.
b.
c.
d.
115.
a.
b.
c.
d.
116.
a.
b.
c.
d.
ADHD – choose FALSE:
Presence of severe…
May remit at puberty – usually btw the age of 12 and 20 yrs
In 15-20% of cases, symptoms persists into adulthood
Main cause is probably connected with hyperacticity in both the adrenergic and the
dopaminergic systems
The most common type of dementia
Alzheimer’s
Cerebrovascular
Parkinson’s
Pick’s
The subtype of schizophrenia which usually begins in adolescence is
Paranoid
Hebephrenic
Catatonic
Residual
The lifetime prevalence of schizophrenia in both sexes is:
More common in male
More common in female
The same in both sexes
Those data varies among races
A patient with the diagnosis of simple schizophrenia (indicate FALSE)
May present clinical features similar to residual typr of schizophrenia
Might present before paranoid type, catatonic, hebephrenic or more than one type
of schizophrenia
Now presents only negative symptoms of disease
Does not need neuroleptic treatment
When one of parents is schizophrenic the risk of schizophrenia in child is about
4-5%
17-18%
45-48%
60-65%
Indicate FALSE
Men and women commit suicide with the same frequency
Women more often attempt suicide
Men more often attempt suicide
Men and women attempt suicide with the different frequency
Risk factors for suicide in different mental disorders is (indicate FALSE)
Depressive episode – 15%
Substance-abuse related disorder – 15%
Schizophrenia – 30%
Bipolar disorder – 10%
117.
In emergency situations the first choice neuroleptic is:
a. …
b. …
c. Haloperidol
d. Levomepromazine
118.
Using of physical restraints in violent patients need well-trained staff. Preferred
number of persons who restrain violent patient is:
a. 3
b. 5
c. 6
d. 2
119.
Abuse of substance is:
a. A synonym of dependence
b. Self administration of drug in culturally disapproved manner
c. Psychological and physiological stat connected with abrubt cessation of a substance
d. The development of reversible, substance specific syndrome due to a recent dosage
of the substance
120.
“Cold turkey” is a term connected with:
a. Opiod withdrawal
b. Amphetamine withdrawal
c. Cocaine withdrawal
d. Cannabis withdrawal
Questions from substance abuse disorders:
1. Match one FALSE answer: The diagnostic criteria for alcohol dependence are:
a. A craving or feeling of compulsion to use the alcohol
b. Progressive neglect of pleasures, behaviors or interests in favor of using the alcohol
c. Persistent use of the alcohol in social situations
d. Presence of tolerance to the alcohol’s effects
2. Alcohol addicts use alcohol despite evident presence of harmful consequences because, find
FALSE:
a. Their ability to control drinking is impaired
b. They experience strong craving or compulsion to drink
c. Their intellectual skills are impaired
d. Strong mechanisms of denial are involved
3. Alcohol dependence or abuse is a problem of …… of the the world population
a. 26%
b. 13%
c. 50%
d. 9%
4. Shaky walk, mumbling speech, considerable, dimunition of motor efficiency, lack of
emotional self-control are symptoms of alcohol intoxication in the degree of:
a. 0,2-0,5‰
b. 0,5-1,5‰
c. 1,5-3,0‰
d. 3,0-5,0‰
5. Alcohol coma may be the effect of alcohol intoxication in the degree of:
a. 0,2-0,5‰
b. 0,5-1,5‰
c. 1,5-3,0‰
d. 3,0-5,0‰
e. >5,0‰
6. Patient with the history of chronic alcohol abuse accuses his spouse of infidelity, and doesn’t
accept any rational argument against his suspicions. This may be the symptom of:
a. Korsakoff’s psychosis
b. Othello’s syndrome
c. Paranoid schizophrenia
d. Dementia
7. Unsuccessful attempts or wishes to cut down on or control substance use is characteristic
for:
a. Substance dependence
b. Substance abuse
c. Social drinking
8. Re-experiencing of perceptual symptoms that were caused by intoxication with a
hallucinogen, but occur after the drug is not longer being taken is:
a. Flashback
b. Adverse reaction
c. The sympathomimetic effect
9. The classic amphetamine drugs exert their major effect through the:
a. Dopaminergic system
b. Serotoninergic
c. Noradrenergic
d. Opioidergic
10. The neurotransmitter system on which hallucinogens act is:
a. Serotoninergic
b. Cholinergic
c. GABAergic
d. Opioidergic
11. Hypersensitivity to external stimuli, hypersensitive perception, subjectively slowed
appreciation of time, dilation of conjunctival blood vessels (red eye) are symptoms of ……
intoxication:
a. Cocaine
b. Cannabis
c. Amphetamine
d. Hallucinogens
12. The apathy, dimished social and occupational functioning, impaired judgement, impulsive or
aggressive behavior (with nausea, anorexia, nystagmus, depressed reflexes, diploplia) are
symptoms of …… intoxication:
a. Hallucinogens
b. Cannabis
c. Inhalants
d. Amphetamine
13. Pupillary constriction is typical for:
a. Opiod intox
b. Hallucinogen intox
c. Cocaine intox
14. Physiological dependence DOESN’T occur in case of:
a. Cocaine
b. Hallucinogens
c. Opioids
d. Benzodiazepines
15. Withdrawal symptoms such as: severe muscle cramps and bone aches, profuse diarrhea,
abdominal caramps, rhinorrhea, piloerection or gooseflesh, yawning, fever, papillary
dilatation, hypertension, tachycardia, and temperature dysregulation (“cold turkey”) are
typical for:
a. Cannabis
b. Hallucinogens
c. Opiods
d. Inhalants
16. Amphetamine is currently indicated for therapeutic use in case of:
a. ADHD
b. PTSD
c. Nausea secondary to cancer treatment
d. The necessity to stimulate appetite in AIDS patients
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