Follow-Me-Quiz
Homework
Solution Book
Declan Finlayson
Page 1 of 62
Contents
1.1.3 Sc. Method & Expt FMQuiz Homework Solution ............................................................................ 4
1.2.1 Life – 1.3.3 Food Structure Homework Solution ............................................................................. 6
1.3.3 Biomolecular Structures FMQuiz Homework Solution ................................................................... 7
1.3.4 Biomolecular Components FMQuiz Homework Solution ............................................................... 8
1.3.5 +1.3.6 Role of Biomolecules FMQuiz Homework Solution ............................................................. 9
1.3.8 Biomolecules & Minerals FMQuiz Homework Solution ................................................................ 10
1.4.2 - 1.4.6 Ecology FMQuiz Homework Solution ................................................................................. 11
1.4.6 - 1.4.7 Ecology FMQuiz Homework Solution ................................................................................. 12
1.4.8 + 9 Nutrient Recycling & Human Impact FMQuiz Homework Solution ........................................ 13
1.4.10 - 12 Relationships & Population Dynamics FMQuiz Homework Solution ................................... 14
1.5 Ecosystem Study FMQuiz Homework Solution ................................................................................ 15
2.1 Cell Structure & Microscopy 1 FMQuiz Homework Solution ........................................................... 16
2.1 Cell Structure & Microscopy 2 FMQuiz Homework Solution ........................................................... 17
2.2.3 Enzymes FMQuiz Homework Solution .......................................................................................... 18
2.2.4 Photosynthesis 1 FMQuiz Homework Solution ............................................................................. 19
2.2.4 Photosynthesis 2 FMQuiz Homework Solution ............................................................................. 20
2.2.5 Respiration FMQuiz Homework Solution ...................................................................................... 21
2.2.6 Movement through Membranes FMQuiz Homework Solution .................................................... 22
2.2.7 Enzymes FMQuiz Homework Solution .......................................................................................... 23
2.2.9 Photosynthesis FMQuiz Homework Solution ................................................................................ 24
2.2.10 Respiration FMQuiz Homework Solution .................................................................................... 25
2.3 Cell Continuity FMQuiz Homework Solution .................................................................................... 26
2.5.1 - 4 Genetics 1 FMQuiz Homework Solution .................................................................................. 27
2.5.5 + 2.5.15 Genetics 2 FMQuiz Homework Solution ......................................................................... 28
2.5.6 - 2.5.8 Genetics 3 FMQuiz Homework Solution ............................................................................ 29
2.5.9 - 2.5.14 Genetics 4 FMQuiz Homework Solution .......................................................................... 30
3.1.1 - 3.1.3 Monera Homework Solution .............................................................................................. 31
3.1.4 Fungi 1 FMQuiz Homework Solution............................................................................................. 32
3.1.4 Fungi 2 FMQuiz Homework Solution............................................................................................. 33
3.1.4, 6, 10 Fungi, Protista, Growth Curves FMQuiz Homework Solution ............................................. 34
3.2.1 Plant Structure 1 FMQuiz Homework Solution ............................................................................. 35
3.2.1 Plant Structure 2 FMQuiz Homework Solution ............................................................................. 36
3.2.2 Blood & Circulation 1 FMQuiz Homework Solution ...................................................................... 37
3.2.2 Blood & Circulation 2 FMQuiz Homework Solution ...................................................................... 38
3.2.3 + 4 Blood Cells & Heartbeat FMQuiz Homework Solution ............................................................ 39
3.3.1 + 2 Nutrition & Storage in Plants FMQuiz Homework Solution .................................................... 40
Page 2 of 62
3.3.3 + 4 Human Nutrition & Digestion 1 FMQuiz Homework Solution ................................................ 41
3.3.4 Digestion 2 FMQuiz Homework Solution ...................................................................................... 42
3.3.4 Digestion 3 FMQuiz Homework Solution ...................................................................................... 43
3.3.5 Blood Transport of Nutrients FMQuiz Homework Solution .......................................................... 44
3.4.1 - 3.4.4 Homeostasis, Plant Exchange, Breathing System FMQuiz HW Solution ........................... 45
3.4.4 + 3.4.7 Breathing System FMQuiz Homework Solution ................................................................ 46
3.4.6 Excretory System 1 FMQuiz Homework Solution ......................................................................... 47
3.4.6, 8 Excretory System 2 FMQuiz Homework Solution ..................................................................... 48
3.5.2 Plant Responses FMQuiz Homework Solution .............................................................................. 49
3.5.3 + 7 Defence System FMQuiz Homework Solution ........................................................................ 50
3.5.3 Endocrine & Musculoskeletal System FMQuiz Homework Solution ............................................ 51
3.5.3 Eye & Ear FMQuiz Homework Solution ......................................................................................... 52
3.5.3 Musculoskeletal System FMQuiz Homework Solution ................................................................. 53
3.5.3 Nervous System FMQuiz Homework Solution .............................................................................. 54
3.6.1 Asexual, Flower Structure, Gamete Formation FMQuiz Homework Solution .............................. 55
3.6.1 Dormancy & Germination FMQuiz Homework Solution ............................................................... 56
3.6.1 Fruit Formation & Dispersal FMQuiz Homework Solution............................................................ 57
3.6.1 Pollination & Fertilisation FMQuiz Homework Solution ............................................................... 58
3.6.2 Birth, Breastfeeding, Infertility & Birth Control FMQuiz Homework Solution .............................. 59
3.6.2 Structures & Hormones FMQuiz Homework Solution .................................................................. 60
3.6.4 + 5 Embryo Development & Menstrual Cycle FMQuiz Homework Solution ................................ 61
Page 3 of 62
1.1.3 Sc. Method & Expt FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. What is a hypothesis?
A. Educated guess based on observation
A. Hypothesis can develop into a theory or
explained
Q. True or False. In science, a hypothesis is an
educated guess based on observations.
A. TRUE
Q. What might an hypothesis develop into?
A. A Theory
Q. Why is a control important in an experiment?
A. Standard for comparison
Q. State two ways in which the results of an
experiment may be presented.
A. Table / Graph
Q. Explain the term Data in relation to the
scientific method.
A. Measurements or observations or information
gathered from an experiment
Q. Explain the term Replicate in relation to the
scientific method.
A. Make a duplicate(s) of an experiment or
procedure
Q. Explain the importance of double-blind testing
in scientific experimentation.
A. Avoidance of bias
Q. Why is it a good idea to repeat an
experiment?
A. To verify results /(statistical) reliability/
minimise error
Q. True or False. In experiments the factor that is
changed is called the dependent variable.
A. FALSE
Q. When investigating the effect of a mineral on
wheat growth. Suggest a reason why the seeds
used were all taken from one parent plant.
A. To minimise (genetic) variation
Q. Explain the term Theory in relation to the
scientific method.
A. A proven hypothesis
Q. The compost was sterilised at the start of the
investigation. Suggest a way in which this may
have been achieved.
A. Heat (or method of heating) or named
chemical or irradiation
Q. As a result of observations a scientist may
formulate a …
A. Hypothesis
Q. After formulating an hypothesis a scientist will
then progress her investigation by devising a
series of … and then carefully analysing the
resulting …
A. Experiments / Data
Q. Suggest where a scientist may publish the
results of her investigations
A. Scientific journal / Internet
Q. Why were the young wheat plants divided
into two equal groups?
A. As experiment and control
Q. During the investigation the two groups of
plants were kept under identical conditions. Why
was this?
A. To have only one variable (or explained)
Q. Name two conditions you think they would
have kept constant during the investigation.
A. Temperature / Light / pH / CO2 / humidity /
other minerals / H2O
Q. In relation to the scientific method, explain
the term experiment.
A. Test of hypothesis or test of prediction
Q. Why was the investigation repeated several
times before the results were published?
A. To ensure (statistical) reliability
Q. In relation to the scientific method, explain
the term theory.
A. Hypothesis supported (by experiment)
Q. How does a hypothesis differ from a theory?
Q. What is meant by metabolism?
A. All the chemical reactions taking place in living
organisms
Page 4 of 62
Page 5 of 62
1.2.1 Life – 1.3.3 Food Structure Homework Solution
Q. What is meant by metabolism?
A. The sum of all the chemical reactions in an
organism OR catabolism + anabolism
Q. What is a disaccharide?
A. Carbohydrate made of two sugar units or
monosaccharides
Q. A sex cell is also known as a ...
A. Gamete
Q. Removal from the body of the waste products
of metabolism is called ...
A. Excretion
Q. Give two reasons why living things need
energy.
A. For movement / heat / making products /
internal transport / etc.
Q. Name a polysaccharide that has a different
role to cellulose.
A. Starch, glycogen
Q. Describe a test for a named polysaccharide.
A. Iodine & Blue/Black colour
Q. True or False. Nutrition is the way living
organisms get rid of waste.
A. FALSE
Q. Name the reagent(s) used when testing for a
protein.
A. Biuret OR Copper sulphate and sodium
hydroxide
Q. Give an example of a trace element in the
human diet.
A. Iron OR copper OR zinc
Q. What is the initial colour of the reagent(s)
used in the test for a reducing sugar?
A. Blue
Q. In relation to the human diet, what is meant
by a trace element?
A. Small amount needed
Q. True or False. Nitrogen is a trace element.
A. FALSE
Q. Does the test for reducing sugar require heat?
A. Yes
Q. What colour indicates a positive result in the
test for reducing sugar?
A. Brick red
Q. True or False. Polysaccharide molecules
contain many sugar units.
A. TRUE
Q. What is the initial colour of the reagent(s)
used in the test for a protein?
A. Blue
Q. True or False. Glucose is a monosaccharide.
A. TRUE
Q. Does the test for protein require heat?
A. No
Q. Calcium and iron are examples of essential …
A. Minerals / elements
Q. Name a monosaccharide.
A. Glucose, lactose, ribose, deoxyribose
Q. Cellulose is a polysaccharide. What is it
formed from?
A. Glucose or monosaccharides units
Q. What colour indicates a positive result in the
test for protein?
A. Violet
Q. What is the ratio of hydrogen atoms to
oxygen atoms in a carbohydrate?
A. 2:1
Page 6 of 62
1.3.3 Biomolecular Structures FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. Vitamins are either water-soluble or
__________-soluble.
A. Fat
Q. Cellulose is a polysaccharide. Explain the term
polysaccharide.
A. Made up of many sugar units
Q. Fats are composed of oxygen, hydrogen and
...
A. Carbon
Q. When an iodine solution is added to a food
sample and remains red-brown in colour,
___________ is absent.
A. Starch
Q. When two monosaccharides unite they form a
...
A. Disaccharide
Q. Vitamin … is an example of a water-soluble
vitamin.
A. Vitamin C / Vitamin B
Q. State a use of the Biuret test (copper sulphate
and sodium hydroxide solutions) in the biology
laboratory
A. Test for protein
Q. Give an example of a fat-soluble vitamin.
A. Vitamin A or D or E or K
Q. State a use of Benedict’s (or Fehling’s) test in
the biology laboratory.
A. Test for reducing sugar
Q. Give an example of a reducing sugar.
A. Glucose or Maltose
Q. In the test for reducing sugar which of the
following is correct? 1. No heat needed; 2. Heat
but do not boil; 3. Boil.
A. Heat but do not boil
Q. 1. Name a monosaccharide. 2. Give its
formula. 3. Name a polysaccharide that can be
formed from it.
A. 1. Glucose; 2. C6H12O6; 3. Starch
Q. State a good source of a fat-soluble vitamin in
the human diet.
A. A – Carrots, D – Dairy products, E – Oils, nuts,
K – Liver
Q. Fats are composed of fatty acids and …
A. Glycerol
Q. What name is given to fats that are liquid at
room temperature?
A. Oils
Q. Name a chemical element found in proteins
that is not found in carbohydrates.
A. Nitrogen
Q. State two good sources of protein in the
human diet.
A. Lean meat, fish, eggs
Q. Proteins are digested to simpler substances.
What are these simpler substances called?
A. Amino acids
Q. Give an example of a polysaccharide.
A. Cellulose or Starch or Glycogen or Chitin
Q. Biomolecules of the general formula Cx(H2O)y
are examples of …
A. Carbohydrate or Sugar or Saccharide
Q. In carbohydrates, which two elements are in
the ratio 2:1?
A. Hydrogen and Oxygen
Q. Name the elements found in Carbohydrate.
A. Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen
Q. Name the elements found in Fat.
A. Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen
Q. Apart from Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen and
Nitrogen name one other element that may be
present in protein.
A. Sulphur
Page 7 of 62
1.3.4 Biomolecular Components FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. Give two good sources of protein in the
human diet.
A. Lean meat, fish, eggs
A. Contains N or contains –NH2 or contains –
COOH (group)
Q. How may one fat differ from another, in terms
of chemical composition?
A. Different fatty acids or some are
phosphorylated (have phosphate)
Q. Name a test or the solution(s) that is (are)
used to detect protein in a food source.
A. Biuret or Copper sulphate and sodium
hydroxide
Q. True or False. Lipids are made of amino acids.
A. FALSE
Q. Glucose is an example of which type of
biomolecule?
A. Carbohydrate / monosaccharide / sugar
Q. True or False. All vitamins are fat soluble.
A. FALSE
Q. The same elements are found in
carbohydrates and fats. Name these elements.
A. Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen
Q. True or False. Eggs are a good source of fat in
the diet.
A. TRUE
Q. State one way in which carbohydrates differ
from fats.
A. Hydrogen and oxygen not in 2:1 ratio
Q. What food in a student’s lunch (a tuna and
sweetcorn sandwich, an apple and a bag of
crisps) is a good source of protein?
A. Tuna
Q. How do phospholipids differ from other
lipids?
A. They have one of the three fatty acids
replaced with a phosphate group
Q. What food in a student’s lunch (a tuna and
sweetcorn sandwich, an apple and a bag of
crisps) is a good source of fat?
A. Crisps / “Butter” (on bread)
Q. State one way in which an oil differs from a
fat.
A. Oil is liquid at room temperature or fat is
solid or oils are unsaturated or explained
Q. Suggest one food in the lunch (a tuna and
sweetcorn sandwich, an apple and a bag of
crisps) that contains a water-soluble vitamin.
A. Bread or Sweetcorn / Apple
Q. What is a triglyceride?
A. Fat (or lipid or oil) unit (or molecule) or
glycerol and three fatty acids
Q. Name one water-soluble vitamin.
A. B or C
Q. For which purpose did you use Brown paper
or Sudan III in food testing?
A. Test for fat (or lipid or oil)
Q. Proteins always contain the elements carbon,
hydrogen, oxygen and …
A. Nitrogen
Q. How many common amino acids are found in
proteins?
A. 20
Q. An example of a fat-soluble vitamin is …
A. A or D or E or K
Q. State a use for a water bath in biological
investigations.
A. Keep temperature constant / to vary
temperature / denaturing enzyme / heating
Q. A solution used to test for the presence of
glucose is …
A. Benedict’s or Fehling’s
Q. Was heat necessary to test a food for starch?
A. No
Q. Give one way in which an amino acid differs
from a monosaccharide, in terms of chemical
composition.
Page 8 of 62
1.3.5 +1.3.6 Role of Biomolecules FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. What term is used to describe a cellular
reaction in which large molecules are broken
down to smaller ones?
A. Catabolic
Q. Give an example of a protein that has a
structural role.
A. Keratin or myosin or elastin or collagen
Q. Give an example of a catabolic reaction in an
animal.
A. Respiration or digestion or deamination
Q. Give an example of an anabolic reaction in a
plant.
A. Photosynthesis or protein synthesis or
replication
Q. Is energy release a feature of anabolic or
catabolic reactions?
A. Catabolic
Q. What is the role of the polysaccharide starch
or glycogen?
A. Energy storage
Q. Where precisely in a plant cell would you
expect to find cellulose?
A. Cell wall
Q. Give a role of lipids in cells.
A. Component of cell membranes or
phospholipid or lipoprotein or energy storage
Q. Is protein synthesis an anabolic or catabolic
process?
A. Anabolic
Q. Name the protein found in human hair, nails
and skin.
A. Keratin
Q. Is the conversion of ADP to ATP an anabolic or
catabolic process?
A. Anabolic
Q. Are the reactions in which product molecules
are larger than substrate molecules anabolic or
catabolic processes?
A. Anabolic
Q. Name a monosaccharide and state a role for it
in living organisms.
A. Glucose or lactose or ribose / Energy
Q. Cellulose is a polysaccharide. What is it
formed from?
A. Glucose or monosaccharide molecules
Q. State two functions of fats in the human body.
A. Insulation / energy / storage / cell membrane
/ structural
Q. Give one structural function of proteins in
living organisms.
A. Growth and repair of muscle (myosin), hair
(keratin), nails, etc.
Q. Give one metabolic function of proteins in
living organisms.
A. Enzymes or immunity (antibodies)
Q. An example of a water-soluble vitamin is …
A. B or C
Q. State a role for cellulose in living organisms.
A. Cell wall formation
Q. True or False. Anabolism is the breaking down
of large molecules.
A. FALSE
Q. Name a polysaccharide that has a different
role to cellulose.
A. Starch or Glycogen
Q. Cellulose is an example of a structural …
A. Carbohydrate or Polysaccharide
Q. What reagent or chemicals did you use to test
for protein?
A. Biuret or Copper sulphate and sodium
hydroxide
Q. In the test for protein what colour change
occurred if protein was present?
A. Purple or violet.
Page 9 of 62
1.3.8 Biomolecules & Minerals FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. Name two monosaccharides.
A. Glucose and ribose
Q. Give a function of carbohydrates other than a
structural one.
A. Energy or storage
Q. Name a disorder associated with a deficiency
of Vitamin A in the human diet.
A. Night blindness
Q. Give one role for magnesium in plants.
A. Chlorophyll formation
Q. To which group of biomolecules do enzymes
belong?
A. Proteins
Q. Name two minerals required by the human
body.
A. Iron & Calcium
Q. Name a fat-soluble vitamin.
A. A or D
Q. What is the function of iron in the body?
A. Needed for haemoglobin formation
Q. Name a disorder associated with a deficiency
of Vitamin C in the human diet.
A. Scurvy
Q. What is the function of calcium in the body?
A. Needed for bone and teeth development
Q. Give two functions of water in a living
organism.
A. Solvent / transport / reaction medium /
reactant / turgidity
Q. State a good source of Vitamin A in the
human diet.
A. Carrots
Q. Name a disorder associated with a deficiency
of Vitamin D in the human diet.
A. Rickets
Q. True or False. Nitrogen is a trace element.
A. FALSE
Q. True or False. Polysaccharide molecules
contain many sugar units.
A. TRUE
Q. State a good source of Vitamin D in the
human diet.
A. Dairy products
Q. State two functions of fats in the human body.
A. Insulation / energy storage / cell membrane /
myelin sheath
Q. State a role of carbohydrates other than a
structural one.
A. Energy store or release
Q. True or False. Glucose is a monosaccharide.
A. TRUE
Q. What is the initial colour of the reagent(s)
used in the test for a protein?
A. Blue
Q. What colour indicates a positive result in the
test for reducing sugar?
A. Brick red
Q. State one function of protein in the human
body.
A. Growth, repair, enzymes
Q. What term is given to a protein which changes
metabolic rate?
A. Enzyme
Q. What colour indicates a positive result in the
test for protein?
A. Violet
Page 10 of 62
1.4.2 - 1.4.6 Ecology FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. What is an ecosystem?
A. A community of living organisms interacting
with one another and their environment
Q. Explain the term biosphere.
A. The part of the planet where life occurs
A. The position of an organism in a food chain
Q. What is a food web?
A. Interconnected food chains or more than one
species at each trophic level
Q. True or False. Herbivores normally live long
lives.
A. False
Q. What is a habitat?
A. The place where an organism lives
Q. In ecological studies what are abiotic factors.
A. Non-living features that influence the
distribution of organisms
Q. Organisms capable of making their own food
are known as …
A. Producers
Q. Where in a food chain are primary producers
found?
A. First (level)
Q. Explain the term edaphic.
A. Relating to the soil
Q. True or False. The term abiotic refers to the
living factors in an ecosystem.
A. FALSE
Q. Give an example of an abiotic factor that
influences the distribution of a named plant in
an ecosystem.
A. e.g. Climatic, edaphic, etc.
Q. Give an example of an edaphic factor.
A. Particle size or Soil type or pH or Air content
or Water content or Mineral content or Humus
content
Q. In ecological studies what are biotic factors.
A. Living features that influence the distribution
of organisms
Q. What is meant by a pyramid of numbers?
A. The numbers of organisms at each trophic
level
Q. Give an example of a biotic factor that
influences the distribution of a named animal.
A. Predator (fox) influences distribution of
rabbits
Q. What term is used by ecologists to describe
the organisms that form the base of a pyramid of
numbers?
A. Producers or autotrophs
Q. Why are most food chains short i.e. only
consist of a few trophic levels?
A. Large energy loss from one level to next or
small energy transfer
Q. What term is used to describe organisms that
feed on primary producers?
A. Primary consumer(s) or herbivore(s)
Q. What deduction may be made if the
organisms at the start of the chain are less
numerous than those that feed upon them?
A. Producers are large or primary consumers are
parasites
Q. Can a parasite be the first member of a food
chain?
A. No. They are not producers
Q. Energy enters food chains in the form of light.
In which form do you think most energy is lost
from food chains?
A. Heat
Q. Name the process that takes place in plants in
which the sun’s energy is converted to a usable
form.
A. Photosynthesis
Q. What is the source of energy for the earth’s
ecosystems?
A. The sun
Q. In ecology what is meant by a trophic level?
Page 11 of 62
1.4.6 - 1.4.7 Ecology FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. What substance do plants possess that allows
them to carry out photosynthesis?
A. Chlorophyll
Q. Name a primary producer.
A. Any autotroph, i.e. plant that makes food
Q. Position in a pyramid of numbers.
A. Trophic level
Q. If all the tertiary consumers were removed
(e.g. by disease) what would happen to the
secondary consumers?
A. Their number would increase
Q. What are secondary consumers?
A. An organism which feeds on the primary
consumer
Q. Name one herbivore.
A. Caterpillar, Mouse, Greenfly, etc.
Q. Explain the term consumer.
A. An organism that eats another organism /
heterotroph
Q. What would happen to the number of
caterpillars if all the thrushes died?
A. Increase in number
Q. What is a pyramid of numbers?
A. The numbers of organisms at each trophic
level
Q. Name one carnivore.
A. Hawk, Spider, Ladybird, etc.
Q. What does the animal plankton feed on?
A. Plant plankton (phytoplankton)
Q. True or False. Grazing food chains begin with
animals.
A. FALSE
Sparrow hawk. The primary consumer in this
food chain is …
A. Caterpillar
Q. Name one omnivore.
A. Human, thrush, etc.
Q. Hawtho
Sparrow hawk. If the sparrow hawks’ numbers
increase, the number of blue tits may …
A. Decrease
Sparrow hawk. The hawthorn leaves represent
the …
A. Producer / Autotroph
Q
Sparrow hawk. Name a carnivore from this food
chain.
A. Blue tit / Sparrow hawk
Q. The number of trophic (feeding) levels in a
food chain is limited by the small transfer of …
from one level to the next.
A. Energy
Q. Explain the term niche.
A. The functional role of an organism in an
ecosystem
Q. Explain the term edaphic.
A. Relating to the soil
Q. What is the biosphere?
A. The part of the planet where life occurs
Q. Energy enters food chains in the form of light.
In which form do you think most energy is lost
from food chains?
A. Heat
Q. What term is used to describe organisms that
feed on primary producers?
A. Primary consumer(s) or herbivore(s)
Q. Organisms capable of making their own food
are known as …
A. Producers
Page 12 of 62
1.4.8 + 9 Nutrient Recycling & Human Impact FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. What is meant by nitrogen fixation?
A. The conversion of nitrogen into nitrates
Q. State one conservation practice from
agriculture.
A. e.g. control of fertiliser usage
Q. Name an important group of biomolecules
that plants make from nitrates.
A. Proteins
Q. The term used to describe micro-organisms
and other organisms that return nutrients to the
environment by decay is …
A. Decomposers
Q. Explain the term ectoparasite.
A. Organism living on host (or explained) /
causing damage
Q. Suggest two reasons for conserving wild
species.
A. Recreational / food supplies / possible sources
of drugs / prevent extinction / biodiversity
Q. State one conservation practice from
fisheries.
A. e.g. control of mesh size
Q. Outline the problems associated with the
disposal of waste.
A. Toxicity / non-biodegradable / pollute rivers /
availability of land-fill / incineration causes
toxins
Q. What is meant by nitrification?
A. The process of converting ammonia into
nitrites and/or nitrites to nitrates
Q. Farmers add nitrates as fertilizers to the soil,
but not when heavy rain is forecast. Why not?
A. Fertiliser may be washed off the land /
eutrophication
Q. Name a group of organisms involved in
nitrogen fixation.
A. Bacteria / Monera / Lichens/ Clover / Legumes
Q. Explain the term decomposition.
A. Decaying / rotting
Q. State one conservation practice from forestry.
A. e.g. plant trees
Q. Suggest two ways of minimising waste.
A. Reduce or Recycle or Re-use
Q. Give an example of the use of microorganisms in waste management.
A. Landfill sites / sewage treatment plants /
digesters / compost heaps
Q. Give an advantage for the incineration of
domestic waste.
A. Amount of waste greatly reduced or Useable
heat or Reduced landfill
Q. Why are elements recycled in nature?
A. Limited supply or words to that affect or
reused
Q. What is meant by pollution?
A. The harmful addition to the environment by
humans
Q. Suggest why continual monitoring of the
environment is valuable.
A. To detect change(s) early or To remedy effect
of change or To detect levels of pollutants
Q. Give an example of a human activity that
results in the pollution of air.
A. e.g. burning fossil fuels
Q. Give a disadvantage for the incineration of
domestic waste.
A. Harmful products produced
Q. Explain conservation in relation to wild plants
and animals.
A. The protection, preservation and wise
management of endangered plants and animals
Q. Give an example of a human activity that
results in the pollution of water.
A. e.g. fertiliser run-off
Q. Why is waste management becoming an
increasingly difficult problem?
A. Increasing population & consumption; Too
little recycling; Shortage of landfill sites
Page 13 of 62
1.4.10 - 12 Relationships & Population Dynamics FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. Comment on the relative sizes of an individual
producer and an individual primary consumer in
a pyramid of numbers.
A. Producer larger or consumer smaller
Q. Where one organism lives in or on a second
species, feeding on it and causing it harm is
called …
A. Parasitism
Q. What is a predator?
A. An animal which kills and eats another animal
for food
Q. Name a factor, other than competition, that
controls wild populations.
A. Disease or Parasitism or Predation or Hunting
Q. What does an ecologist mean by competition?
A. When two or more organisms fight for a
resource that is in short supply
Q. Mortality levels resulting from infection by a
particular virus tend to decline over the years.
Why?
A. Host immunity develops or natural selection
or vaccination
Q. What term is used to describe an animal that
is killed and eaten?
A. Prey
Q. True or False. Competition is generally more
intense between members of the same species
than between members of different species.
A. True
Q. Suggest possible effects of the disappearance
of a plant species on the populations of other
plants and animals in the ecosystem.
A. Consumers of this plant may decrease;
numbers of other plant species may increase;
new species may appear to fill the niche.
Q. What is contest competition?
A. One organism loses the resource
Q. What term do ecologists use to describe an
animal which kills and eats other animals?
A. Predator
Q. If the population of prey declines suggest two
possible consequences for the predators.
A. Starvation or death; Migration; Decline in
population; Change food source
Q. Suggest a role for parasites in the overall
scheme of nature.
A. Population control
Q. Name a predator and give one adaptive
technique.
A. Fox, Speed and sharp canine teeth
Q. Suggest an effect on human population of an
increased availability of contraception.
A. Decrease (no increase) in population;
Improved social conditions; Reduced STIs
Q. All the members of a species living in an area
is referred to as …
A. Population
Q. Give four factors that influence the size of the
human population.
A. Famine; Birth control; War; Disease; Birth
rate; Death rate or longevity; Degree of medical
care
Q. Mortality levels tend to be higher in the
migratory animal species. Why?
A. Hazards encountered on migration
Q. What is scramble competition?
A. Each organism gets some of resource
Q. Apart from competition, state another factor
that limits population growth.
A. Disease or Parasitism or Food availability or
Pollution
Q. Give an example of predation by naming a
predator and its prey.
A. e.g. Fox, Chicken, Hawk, Rabbit, etc.
Q. Marking an animal might endanger it. Why?
A. More conspicuous to predators or Social
outcast or Toxic marker
Q. The population of a predator did not decline
following a big reduction in the population of its
main prey. Why?
A. Different prey
Q. A relationship between two organisms in
which both benefit is called …
A. Mutualism or Symbiosis
Page 14 of 62
1.5 Ecosystem Study FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. In ecology the term flora refers to …
A. Plants
Q. Name one human activity that causes
pollution.
A. Fertiliser run-off
Q. How were you able to identify the different
plants in the ecosystem that you investigated?
A. Key(s) or illustrations or guide book
Q. Name pieces of apparatus used to collect
animals from an ecosystem.
A. Pooter; Beating tray; Pitfall trap; Net; etc.
Q. State one role of microorganisms in waste
management.
A. To consume waste
Q. Explain the term conservation.
A. Management of ecosystems
Q. In ecology the term fauna refers to …
A. Animals
Q. Name two groups of micro-organisms in the
soil which are responsible for decomposition.
A. Bacteria and Fungi
Q. In relation to a study of an ecosystem explain
what a qualitative survey is.
A. What is present
Q. Give two possible sources of error that may
have arisen in the course of your survey of plant
species.
A. Misidentification; Non-random quadrat
distribution; Not enough times; Miscount
Q. In relation to a study of an ecosystem explain
what a quantitative survey is.
A. How many present
Q. What is a quadrat used for in your ecology
studies?
A. Quantitative surveys e.g. distribution,
frequency, cover
Q. What is meant by nitrogen fixation?
A. The conversion of nitrogen into nitrates
Q. Farmers add nitrate fertilizers to the soil but
not if heavy rain is forecast. Why not?
A. Eutrophication
Q. Name an important group of biomolecules
that plants make from nitrates.
A. Proteins
Q. Explain the term ectoparasite.
A. Organism living on host causing damage
Q. Organisms that return nutrients to the
environment by decay are called …
A. Decomposers
Q. Name one animal from the ecosystem you
have studied and describe one way in which it is
adapted to its habitat.
A. e.g. Grasshopper / Green colour
Q. What is meant by nitrification?
A. The process of converting ammonia into
nitrites and/or nitrites to nitrates
Q. What is the function of the nitrogen cycle?
A. To make nitrogen available for use by
organisms
Q. What is meant by pollution?
A. Any harmful addition to the ecosystem
Q. List two ways of minimising waste.
A. Reduce; Reuse; Recycle
Q. Name a group of organisms involved in
nitrogen fixation.
A. Bacteria; Monera; Lichens; Clover; Legumes
Q. State problems associated with waste disposal
in Ireland.
A. Finding land for landfill sites; Litter; Pollution
Page 15 of 62
2.1 Cell Structure & Microscopy 1 FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. State a use for iodine in the biology
laboratory.
A. Starch detection; Staining cells
Q. A microscope has an eyepiece lens marked
×10 and an objective lens marked ×20. What is
the total magnification of the image?
A. 200
Q. Name a powerful type of microscope that is
used to show cell ultrastructure.
A. Electron microscope
Q. True or False. If the eyepiece lens of a
microscope is marked X10 and the objective lens
is marked X3, the total magnification is X13.
A. FALSE
Q. If the magnification of the eyepiece of a
microscope is X 10 and the magnification of the
objective lens is X 30, what magnification results
when a slide is viewed?
A. 300
Q. For what purpose did you use a Cover slip in
the course of your practical activities?
A. To examine a specimen / to reduce
evaporation / to hold specimen in place / to
protect lens
Q. True or False. The microscope lenses closest
to the stage are the eyepiece lenses.
A. FALSE
Q. Where in a cell would you expect to find
phospholipids?
A. Membrane
Q. What term is used to describe bacterial cells?
A. Prokaryotic
Q. State two features of plant cells visible under
a light microscope that indicate that they are
typical plant cells.
A. Cell wall / chloroplasts / large vacuoles /
starch granules / shape
Q. What cellular organelle is the site of energy
release?
A. Mitochondrion
Q. What cellular organelle is the site of water
storage?
A. Vacuole
Q. Is the cell of Amoeba prokaryotic or
eukaryotic?
A. Eukaryotic
Q. What component of a cell allows osmosis to
occur?
A. Cell membrane
Q. What is a selectively permeable (semipermeable) membrane?
A. Allows some molecules through
Q. Name two features of a plant cell which are
not normally associated with an animal cell.
A. Cell wall / vacuole / chloroplast / definite
shape
Q. What is usually found in the vacuole?
A. Sap or component e.g. water, glucose
Q. State a function of a Ribosome.
A. Protein synthesis
Q. Name a carbohydrate found in the cell wall.
A. Cellulose
Q. State a function of the cell membrane.
A. Selectively permeable
Q. When preparing an animal cell for
examination under a microscope, name the stain
that you used.
A. Methylene blue
Q. Give two characteristic features of eukaryotic
cells.
A. Nucleus, Membrane-bound organelles
Q. The liquid in which chemical reactions take
place in the cell is …
A. Water or cytoplasm
Q. True or False. Plant cells have chloroplasts;
animal cells do not have chloroplasts.
A. TRUE
Page 16 of 62
2.1 Cell Structure & Microscopy 2 FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. True or False. Cell membranes let only some
molecules pass through.
A. TRUE
Q. State one feature that would allow you to
identify a eukaryotic cell.
A. Nucleus, Membrane-bound organelles
Q. What is an enzyme?
A. A biological catalyst
Q. What term is used to describe cells similar to
bacterial cells?
A. Prokaryotic
Q. For what purpose did you use Methylene blue
in the course of your practical activities?
A. To stain animal cells
Q. Where in a plant cell does photosynthesis
take place?
A. Chloroplast
Q. True or False. Animal cells do not have
membranes.
A. FALSE
Q. Are fungi prokaryotic or eukaryotic?
A. Eukaryotic
Q. True or False. Human chromosomes are found
in the nucleus.
A. TRUE
Q. List two differences between a plant cell and
an animal cell.
A. Plant cells have a wall, large vacuole,
chloroplast
Q. State the precise location of the cell
membrane in plant cells.
A. Immediately inside the cell wall
Q. True or False. If the eyepiece lens of a
microscope is marked X10 and the objective lens
is marked X3, the total magnification is X13.
A. FALSE
Q. Where in a cell would you expect to find
phospholipids?
A. Membrane
Q. State a function a Ribosome.
A. Protein synthesis
Q. True or False. Chloroplasts contain DNA.
A. TRUE
Q. True or False. The microscope lenses closest
to the stage are the eyepiece lenses.
A. FALSE
Q. With what type of cell do you associate
membrane-bound organelles?
A. Eukaryotic
Q. Why is a cover slip placed on a slide?
A. To prevent drying out or to protect lens or
easier to view or keeps cells in place
Q. Give two functions of the cell membrane.
A. Holds cell together / selectively permeable /
displays antigens
Q. State a function of the cell membrane.
A. Selectively permeable
Q. Which organelle is known as “the powerhouse
of the cell”?
A. Mitochondrion
Q. Why does the nucleus of a cell have many
pores?
A. To allow passage of materials
Q. Is the cell of Amoeba prokaryotic or
eukaryotic?
A. Eukaryotic
Q. The release of energy is associated with what
cellular organelle?
A. Mitochondrion
Page 17 of 62
2.2.3 Enzymes FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. What is meant by the term metabolism?
A. All the chemical reactions in living cells
Q. Give the term for the substance that results
from the action of an enzyme on its substrate.
A. Product
Q. For what is ATP an abbreviation?
A. Adenosine Triphosphate
Q. In relation to an enzyme, explain the term
optimum activity.
A. Working at maximum rate
Q. To which group of molecules do enzymes
belong?
A. Proteins
Q. In an experiment that you carried out to
investigate the effect of pH on the rate of
enzyme action, explain how you varied the pH.
A. Used buffers
Q. What is a bioreactor?
A. A Vessel in which products are made by cells
or organisms.
Q. What is meant by an enzyme?
A. Organic protein catalyst
Q. Explain the term bioprocessing.
A. Using micro-organisms or enzymes to make
product(s)
Q. Name the compound from which the
immobilising beads are formed in the laboratory.
A. Sodium alginate
Q. In an experiment to investigate the effect of
temperature on the rate of action of an enzyme,
how did you vary the temperature?
A. Water bath or ice or thermostat
Q. What is meant by immobilisation?
A. Enzyme trapped in beads or gel so that it will
react with, but not mix with, its substrate
Q. In an expt. to investigate the effect of temp
on the rate of action of an enzyme, how did you
measure the rate of the enzyme’s action?
A. By the volume of suds produced
Q. Name a factor that influences the activity of
an enzyme.
A. Temperature or pH
Q. What name is given to the substance that an
enzyme acts on?
A. Substrate
Q. State one advantage of using an immobilised
enzyme in a bioreactor.
A. Enzyme can be recovered
Q. True or False. Immobilised enzymes can act as
catalysts.
A. TRUE
Q. Name a substance that is used to immobilise
enzymes.
A. Sodium alginate
Q. Comment on the shape of enzyme molecules.
A. Fits substrate / active site / folded /can
change shape
Q. State a use for Buffer solution in the biology
laboratory.
A. To keep pH constant
Q. The action of amylase on starch is a catabolic
reaction. Explain the underlined term.
A. Breakdown of large molecules into smaller
ones
Q. Apart from C, H and O, there is one other
element always present in the building blocks of
enzymes. Name that element.
A. Nitrogen
Q. Suggest one reason why enzymes are not
found in body soap or shampoo.
A. May damage skin
Q. Distinguish between Enzymes and Hormones
A. A catalyst and a chemical messenger
Page 18 of 62
2.2.4 Photosynthesis 1 FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. What is the final destination of excited
electrons in Pathway 1 of the light-dependent
stage?
A. Chlorophyll
Q. What is carried into the dark phase as raw
material for glucose manufacture?
A. Hydrogen
Q. Name the structure that is controlled by
guard cells.
A. Stomata
Q. This is a possible destination for oxygen
released during the light phase.
A. Mitochondria
Q. What is the waste product of Pathway 2?
A. Oxygen
Q. What is the energy source used during the
light-independent phase?
A. ATP
Q. The splitting of water using light energy is
known as …
A. Photolysis
Q. This is one of the limiting factors affecting the
rate of photosynthesis.
A. Temperature
Q. Name the carrier of electrons into the lightdependent phase.
A. NADP
Q. What is the energy source of the light phase?
A. Sunlight
Q. What element is necessary for chlorophyll
formation?
A. Magnesium
Q. What is the addition of a phosphate to ADP
forming ATP, using light energy called?
A. Photophosphorylation
Q. Name the disc-shaped membranes found in
the chloroplasts covered with chlorophyll
molecules.
A. Grana
Q. Name the site of photosynthesis
A. Chloroplast
Q. What term that describes photosynthetic and
chemosynthetic organisms?
A. Autotrophs
Q. Name the ion necessary for the production of
ATP?
A. Phosphate
Q. One molecule of... is produced for every six
molecules of CO2.
A. Glucose
Q. Name the layer of leaf tissue with the highest
density of chloroplasts.
A. Palisade
Q. Name the aquatic plant that is usually used in
photosynthesis experiments?
A. Elodea
Q. What are the sources of carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere?
A. Respiration; Combustion (burning)
Q. How could you artificially increase the rate of
photosynthesis?
A. Increase lighting, carbon dioxide or heating
Q. As light intensity increases, the rate of
photosynthesis ...
A. Increases
Q. As light intensity decreases, the rate of
photosynthesis ...
A. Decreases
Q. How would you vary the light intensity in an
experiment?
A. Adjust lamp distance or bulb wattage
Page 19 of 62
2.2.4 Photosynthesis 2 FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. How would you measure the rate of
photosynthesis?
A. Count the number of bubbles per minute OR
Use a data logger
Q. What is the equation for photosynthesis?
6CO2 + 6H2O + Light + Chlorophyll  C6H12O6 +
6O2
Q. Give the location of cells in the leaf which
contain most chlorophyll
A. Near upper surface
Q. What term is used to describe the type of
nutrition in plants?
A. Autotrophic
Q. What is the equation for aerobic respiration?
C6H12O6 + 6O2  Energy + 6CO2 + 6H2O
Q. Name the organelle where chlorophyll is
found.
A. Chloroplast
Q. What is the fate of water molecules in
photosynthesis?
A. Photolysis or Split into Protons (H+), electrons
and Oxygen
Q. What is the fate of the protons (H+) that result
from the splitting of water?
A. Released into pool and combine with CO2 to
form glucose
Q. Name some sources of carbon dioxide in pond
water.
A. Respiration (plant, animal, bacterial);
Decomposition; From air
Q. What is the fate of the electrons that result
from the splitting of water?
A. Passed to chlorophyll
Q. Where does carbon dioxide enter a leaf?
A. Stoma
Q. What is the primary role of chlorophyll in
photosynthesis?
A. To trap or use light
Q. Name the part of the leaf where most
photosynthesis occurs.
A. Palisade layer
Q. During photosynthesis oxygen is produced
from ...
A. Water
Q. The following are needed for photosynthesis carbon dioxide and ...
A. Water
Q. During which stage of photosynthesis is
oxygen produced?
A. Light dependent stage
Q. What is the fate of oxygen produced during
photosynthesis?
A. Respiration; Diffuses to atmosphere
Q. Name the gas used (needed) for
photosynthesis.
A. Carbon dioxide
Q. Name the part of the plant where most
photosynthesis takes place.
A. Leaf
Q. Why is photosynthesis important?
A. Supplies O2 and food for other organisms
Q. Why do cells in the palisade layer contain
most chloroplasts?
A. Usually closer to the light
Q. What gas is produced during photosynthesis?
A. Oxygen
Q. Name the energy source for photosynthesis.
A. Sun or light
Q. As light intensity increases, the rate of
photosynthesis ...
A. Increases
Page 20 of 62
2.2.5 Respiration FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. Yeast cells produce ethanol in fermentation. Is
this process affected by temperature? Explain
your answer.
A. Yes. Rate of enzyme action affected by
temperature
Q. Distinguish between aerobic and anaerobic
respiration.
A. Aerobic respiration requires oxygen or
anaerobic respiration does not
Q. Write a balanced equation to summarise
aerobic respiration.
A.
C6H12O6 + 6O2  ENERGY + 6CO2 + 6H2O
Q. Where in the cell does the first stage of
respiration occur?
A. Cytoplasm
Q. To what is pyruvic acid converted under
anaerobic conditions in yeast?
A. Ethanol and CO2
Q. Under aerobic conditions pyruvic acid is
converted to an acetyl group and in the process
a small molecule is released. Name this
molecule.
A. Carbon dioxide
Q. In respiration acetyl co-enzyme A enters a
cycle of reactions. What name is given to this
cycle?
A. Kreb’s cycle
Q. To what is pyruvic acid converted under
anaerobic conditions in a human muscle cell?
A. Lactic acid
Q. Is oxygen required for the first stage of
respiration?
A. No
Q. Give two industrial uses of the anaerobic
respiration of yeast.
A. Baking, brewing
Q. To what might pyruvic acid be converted, in
the absence of oxygen?
A. Lactic acid or Ethanol + CO2
Q. What is the final product of the first stage of
respiration under aerobic conditions?
A. Pyruvic acid (Pyruvate)
Q. Pyruvic acid is used for the second stage of
respiration. Where does this second stage take
place?
A. Mitochondrion
Q. If conditions in a human muscle cell become
anaerobic pyruvic acid is converted to another
substance. Name this other substance.
A. Lactic acid
Q. When lactic acid builds up in the blood, a
person is in oxygen debt. This debt must
eventually be paid. Suggest how the debt is paid.
A. Increased breathing (deeper or faster) or
oxidation of lactic acid
Q. What is the first stage process of respiration
called?
A. Glycolysis
Q. In the first stage of respiration there is a
release of ATP as glucose is converted to another
substance. Name this other substance.
A. Pyruvic acid (Pyruvate)
Q. Where in the cell does Kreb’s Cycle take
place?
A. Mitochondrion
Q. What is the cytosol?
A. Cytoplasm minus organelles or liquid part of
cytoplasm
Q. What is fermentation?
A. Anaerobic respiration or respiration that
produces lactic acid or ethanol CO2
Q. Is oxygen required for the second stage of
aerobic respiration?
A. Yes
Q. Suggest a situation in which some cells in the
human body may not be able to engage in the
second stage of aerobic respiration.
A. Lack of oxygen or strenuous exercise or
restricted blood supply
Q. What term is used to describe respiration in
which only Stage 1 occurs?
A. Anaerobic or Fermentation
Q. Name an organism that is used in industrial
fermentation.
A. Yeast
Page 21 of 62
2.2.6 Movement through Membranes FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. Water enters the outermost cells of the root
by osmosis. What does this tell you about the
cell sap of these outermost cells?
A. Lower water concentration or higher solute
concentration
A. Pressure of cell contents on cell wall
Q. Osmosis has been described as a special case
of diffusion. Explain why.
A. Movement of water along a concentration
gradient through a selectively permeable
membrane
Q. Name a substance found in a plant cell
vacuole.
A. Water or sugar or sap or salt(s) or protein
Q. What is meant by a selectively permeable
membrane?
A. Allowing some substances to pass through
Q. Give locations in a cell at which there is a
selectively permeable membrane.
A. Chloroplast, mitochondrion, nucleus, vacuole
Q. What is diffusion?
A. Movement of molecules from area of high
concentration to area of lower concentration
Q. Give an example of osmosis in plants.
A. Water movement between cells or from soil
to root
Q. Give a feature of a plant cell that allows it to
remain turgid for long periods.
A. Vacuole or cell wall or cell sap
Q. True or False. Plant cell walls are fully
permeable.
A. TRUE
Q. Water for photosynthesis enters the roots of
plants by what process?
A. Osmosis
Q. Suggest a way in which turgor is of value to
plants.
A. Support
Q. Why is diffusion alternatively known as
passive transport?
A. No energy (ATP) required
Q. Explain the biological basis for the use of high
sugar or high salt concentrations in the
preservation of food.
A. Bacteria lose water by osmosis; this leads to
inactivity or death
Q. What did you use as the selectively permeable
membrane in your investigation of osmosis?
A. Visking tubing
Q. Name the terms used in biology to describe
the movement of substances through cell
membranes.
A. Diffusion; Osmosis; Active transport
Q. What process is responsible for the uptake of
minerals in a plant?
A. Active transport
Q. What is meant by osmoregulation?
A. Controlling the water/salt balance within an
organism
Q. What is active transport?
A. Movement of molecules against a
concentration gradient using energy
Q. Where precisely does water enter a plant?
A. Root hairs
Q. Name two substances that enter a human
muscle cell by diffusion.
A. Oxygen; glucose; water; amino acids;
phosphate; iron
Q. The drooping of the leaves of a plant resulting
from loss of turgidity due to lack of water is
known as …
A. Wilting
Q. Suggest an advantage to the cell of having a
selectively permeable membrane.
A. Substances can be kept in (or out) or
substances can be let in (or out)
Q. Explain the term turgor.
Q. In which tissue does water ascend through
the plant?
A. Xylem
Page 22 of 62
2.2.7 Enzymes FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. What is a denatured enzyme?
A. Loss of enzyme function or activity
Q. Give two features of a denatured enzyme.
A. Changed structure, loss of function
Q. What is meant by an enzyme?
A. Organic protein catalyst
Q. What term is used for the substance(s) that
result(s) from the action of an enzyme on its
substrate?
A. Product
Q. Suggest a temperature at which human
enzymes work best.
A. 37 °C
Q. What is meant by immobilisation?
A. Enzyme trapped in beads or gel so that it will
react with, but not mix with, its substrate
Q. What is a vessel containing organisms
producing useful products called?
A. A Bioreactor
Q. Name the product produced as a result of the
action of catalase on hydrogen peroxide.
A. Oxygen
Q. What term best describes the shape of an
enzyme?
A. Folded
Q. Name a substance that is used to immobilise
enzymes.
A. Alginate
Q. To which group of molecules to which
enzymes belong?
A. Proteins
Q. What is meant by an enzyme’s optimum pH?
A. pH at which enzyme works best
Q. In relation to an enzyme, explain the term
optimum activity.
A. Working at maximum rate
Q. Name a factor that influences the activity of
an enzyme.
A. Temperature or pH
Q. True or False. Enzymes are not essential for
metabolism.
A. FALSE
Q. What is meant by the specificity of an
enzyme?
A. Enzyme acts on only a particular substrate
Q. Give an advantage of using immobilised cells
in industrial fermentation.
A. Can be re-used or Pure product produced
Q. State a use for Buffer solution in the biology
laboratory.
A. To keep pH constant
Q. The loss of enzyme function or activity is
known as …
A. Denaturation
Q. State one way by which an enzyme may be
denatured.
A. High temperature or high or low pH or
agitation or high salinity or alcohol
Q. The substrate for the enzyme amylase is …
A. Starch
Q. The substrate of the enzyme catalase is …
A. Hydrogen peroxide
Q. Apart from C, H and O, what other element is
always present in the building blocks of enzymes.
A. Nitrogen
Q. True or False. Immobilised enzymes can act as
catalysts.
A. TRUE
Page 23 of 62
2.2.9 Photosynthesis FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. Explain the part played by NADP- in
photosynthesis.
A. Trapping and transferring electrons and
hydrogen ions
Q. What happens to water molecules when they
reach the sites of photosynthesis?
A. Photolysis or split into Protons (H+), electrons
& oxygen
Q. Give a brief explanation of the division of
photosynthesis into light and dark stages.
A. Light stage – light essential; Dark stage –
independent of light
Q. State a precise role for carbon dioxide
photosynthesis:
A. Supplies the carbon for the formation of
C6H12O6
Q. In which of the stages of photosynthesis does
ATP form?
A. Light stage
Q. What is the fate of the NADPH produced in
the light-dependent stage?
A. To carry H into the dark stage for the
reduction of CO2
Q. What is the role of ATP in cells?
A. Stores or provides energy or described
Q. Where in a plant cell does photosynthesis
take place?
A. Chloroplast
Q. What is an energised electron?
A. Electron which has picked up extra energy
from the sun
Q. In which stage of photosynthesis does carbon
dioxide provide carbon for carbohydrate
formation?
A. Dark stage
Q. ATP is an abbreviation. What does it stand
for?
A. Adenosine triphosphate
Q. Explain briefly the role of ATP in the energy
exchanges of a cell.
A. P ~ P bond holds or stores energy and releases
it when needed
Q. What is the fate of the ATP produced in the
light-dependent stage?
A. To supply energy for the reduction of CO2 in
dark stage
Q. Why is the dark stage given the alternative
name of the light-independent stage?
A. Light not required
Q. Suggest a role for NAD / NADP+ in cell
activities.
A. Capturing or transferring electrons or protons
or hydrogen (ions)
Q. During the first stage of photosynthesis where
do the energised electrons come from?
A. Chlorophyll
Q. What is the fate of the oxygen produced in
the light-dependent stage?
A. Respired or released into atmosphere
Q. During photosynthesis compounds of the
general formula Cx(H2O)y are formed. What
name is given to this group of compounds?
A. Carbohydrates
Q. From which simple compound does the plant
obtain the H used to make C6H12O6?
A. Water
Q. Name the simple compound that supplies the
necessary energy for the second stage reactions.
A. ATP
Q. Name a gas that is essential for the dark
stage.
A. Carbon dioxide
Q. Give the name of the second stage of
photosynthesis.
A. Dark stage
Q. To what group of biomolecules do the main
products of the dark stage belong?
A. Monosaccharides or polysaccharides or
carbohydrates
Q. Where in the cell is chlorophyll found?
A. Chloroplast(s)
Page 24 of 62
2.2.10 Respiration FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. Explain the role of ADP in relation to the small
amount of energy released during the first stage
of respiration.
A. First stage uses energy / combines with
phosphate / to form ATP/ ATP stores energy in
high energy bond
Q. Give one product, other than electrons, of the
reactions in Kreb’s cycle.
A. CO2 or ATP or Hydrogen ions (protons)
Q. What is the first stage process of respiration
called?
A. Glycolysis
Q. The electrons released in Kreb's Cycle pass
along a transport chain and release energy. To
what use is this energy put?
A. To form ATP
Q. What is the final product of the first stage of
respiration under aerobic conditions?
A. Pyruvic acid (Pyruvate)
Q. If conditions in a human muscle cell become
anaerobic pyruvic acid is converted to another
substance. Name this other substance.
A. Lactic acid
Q. To what is pyruvic acid (pyruvate) converted
under anaerobic conditions in yeast?
A. Ethanol & CO2
Q. Under aerobic conditions pyruvate is
converted to an acetyl group and a small
molecule is released. Name this small molecule.
A. Carbon dioxide
Q. In the first stage of respiration there is a
release of ATP as glucose is converted to another
substance. Name this other substance.
A. Pyruvic acid or pyruvate
Q. In aerobic respiration the acetyl group enters
a cycle of reactions. What name is given to this
cycle?
A. Krebs cycle
Q. Name a compound to which pyruvate (pyruvic
acid) may be converted, in the absence of
oxygen.
A. Lactic acid or ethanol & CO2
Q. In what part of the cell does the second stage
of respiration take place?
A. Mitochondrion
Q. In the mitochondrion pyruvate is broken
down to CO2 and a two-carbon compound.
Name this two-carbon compound.
A. Acetyl Co-enzyme A
Q. For what is ATP an abbreviation?
A. Adenosine Triphosphate
Q. To what are the electrons transferred at the
end of the electron transport chain in aerobic
respiration?
A. Oxygen or H+ (protons)
Q. Where in the cell does the first stage of
respiration occur?
A. Cytoplasm
Q. In Stage 2 of respiration electrons pass along
an electron transport chain, releasing energy. In
what molecule is this energy stored?
A. ATP
Q. Name the group of protein molecules that
control the rate of respiration.
A. Enzymes
Q. What is fermentation?
A. Anaerobic respiration or respiration that
produces either ethanol or lactic acid
Q. Is oxygen required for the first stage of
respiration?
A. No
Q. C6H12O6 + 6O2  ENERGY + 6CO2 + 6H2O
Is this the equation for photosynthesis or
respiration?
A. Respiration
Q. How did you know that fermentation had
ceased?
A. Bubbling stopped
Q. Is oxygen required for the second stage of
respiration?
A. Yes
Q. Where does Kreb’s cycle take place?
A. Mitochondrion
Page 25 of 62
2.3 Cell Continuity FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. Genes are found on what structures in a cell
nucleus?
A. Chromosomes
Q. In genetics, what is meant by the term
haploid?
A. Single set of chromosomes or half the diploid
number
Q. What is a chromosome?
A. Group of genes joined together or large DNA
molecule
Q. Give one way in which mitosis differs from
meiosis.
A. Two identical daughter cells OR can occur in
haploid cells
Q. What is the function of meiosis?
A. Halving of chromosome numbers or to
produce gametes
Q. A what stage of mitosis are the chromosomes
located at the equator of the cell before they
begin to separate?
A. Metaphase
Q. What is the medical term for the group of
disorders in which certain cells lose normal
control of mitosis?
A. Cancer
Q. Towards the end of mitosis, in what type of
cell does a cell plate form?
A. Plant cell
Q. Suggest a possible cause of cancer.
A. e.g. Radiation, chemicals, smoking, viruses,
etc.
Q. To what are the chromosomes attached
during metaphase of mitosis?
A. Spindle
Q. What name is applied to the period of the cell
cycle in which division is not taking place?
A. Interphase
Q. What is a tissue?
A. A group of cells with the same function
Q. Give a cellular process that occurs during the
period in the cell cycle in which the nucleus is
not dividing.
A. Replication or Growth or Protein synthesis or
Respiration or Photosynthesis
Q. Suggest a possible treatment for cancer.
A. e.g. Chemotherapy / radiotherapy / surgery
Q. What is the function of spindle fibres during
cell division?
A. For chromosomes to attach to & contract to
separate chromosomes
Q. Tissues grow by cell division. Name the type
of cell division by which tissues grow.
A. Mitosis
Q. What is the role of mitosis in single-celled
organisms?
A. Reproduction
Q. Name the two types of cell division.
A. Mitosis & meiosis
Q. Explain the term tissue culture.
A. Cells grown on or in medium or cells grown
outside organism
Q. Give two examples of the use of tissue
culture.
A. Cancer research, Plant propagation
Q. Name a gas that would be needed for the
growth of tissue in the laboratory.
A. Oxygen
Q. Why are sterile conditions needed to grow a
tissue culture in a laboratory?
A. To avoid contamination
Q. What type of cell division, mitosis or meiosis,
is involved in tissue culture?
A. Mitosis
Q. Organs are found in both plants and animals.
What is meant by the term organ?
A. A group of tissues performing the same
function
Page 26 of 62
2.5.1 - 4 Genetics 1 FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. What term is used to describe differences
within a population with respect to features such
as height?
A. Variation
Q. Name the complementary base in RNA for
Adenine.
A. Uracil
Q. Name a carbohydrate that is a component of
nucleotides.
A. Ribose or deoxyribose
Q. Explain the term species.
A. Interbreeding results in fertile offspring
Q. Give one cause of genetic variation.
A. Sexual reproduction; Gene or chromosome
mutation; Genetic engineering
Q. What does the ‘m’ stand for in mRNA?
A. Messenger
Q. Genetics is the study of ...
A. Inheritance or heredity
Q. True or False. Organisms of the same species
can usually produce fertile offspring.
A. TRUE
Q. True or False. Chromosomes are made of DNA
and lipid
A. FALSE
Q. Name the complementary base in RNA for
Cytosine.
A. Guanine
Q. Explain briefly what is meant by a gene?
A. Unit of heredity or code for protein or section
of DNA
Q. Name a component of a nucleotide that is
neither a carbohydrate nor a nitrogenous base.
A. Phosphate group
Q. Give one example of an inherited human
characteristic.
A. e.g. Eye colour
Q. What is a chromosome?
A. Structure found in nucleus composed of DNA
or genes or hereditary material
Q. What is meant by genetic screening?
A. Testing people for the presence of a specific
gene
Q. Give one example of a non-inherited human
characteristic.
A. e.g. Ability to roller skate
Q. Give two applications of DNA profiling.
A. Forensic science / paternity / medical
Q. Explain what is meant by the term DNA
profiling?
A. Examining DNA for a pattern or band to
compare
Q. What is meant by non-coding DNA?
A. Does not code for a protein
Q. Give one structural difference between DNA
and RNA.
A. DNA contains thymine or RNA contains uracil
Q. What are the two main events in the
replication of DNA?
A. DNA opens (unzips) & New strands made
Q. True or False. RNA is not found in ribosomes.
A. FALSE
Q. Name the four bases that are found in DNA.
A. Adenine, Thymine, Guanine, Cytosine
Q. The bases in DNA form a triplet code. What is
meant by a triplet code?
A. Three bases code for one amino acid
Page 27 of 62
2.5.5 + 2.5.15 Genetics 2 FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. The bases in DNA form a triplet code. What is
meant by a triplet code?
A. A sequence of three bases that code for one
amino acid
Q. Explain the term Replication in relation to
DNA.
A. Making a copy
Q. In DNA profiling, what are used to cut DNA
strands into fragments?
A. Enzymes
Q. To which structures in the cell does mRNA
carry the code?
A. Ribosome
Q. Give the role of the enzyme RNA polymerase.
A. Joins nucleotides together to make mRNA
Q. The triplet code is transcribed into mRNA.
What does this statement mean?
A. Information (code) is copied to RNA molecule
Q. Where in the cell would you expect to find
most DNA?
A. Nucleus or Chromosome or Gene
Q. In which structures in the cell does translation
occur?
A. Ribosomes
Q. DNA contains the instructions needed to
make protein. These instructions are called the …
code.
A. Gene or Genetic
Q. What does the letter ‘t’ stand for in tRNA?
A. Transfer
Q. During translation one end of a tRNA
molecule attaches to an mRNA codon. What is
attached to the other end of the tRNA molecule?
A. An amino acid
Q. What is meant by non-coding DNA?
A. Does not code for a protein or for RNA
Q. Explain the term Transcription in relation to
DNA.
A. Complimentary RNA production
Q. What must happen to the newly formed
protein before it can begin to work?
A. It must fold into its functional shape
Q. Give one structural difference between DNA
and RNA.
A. DNA contains thymine or RNA contains uracil
Q. In DNA profiling DNA strands are cut into
fragments. On what basis are these fragments
then separated?
A. Size or Use of gel electrophoresis
Q. True or False. The base Uracil is found in DNA.
A. FALSE
Q. Each mRNA codon specifies one of three
possible outcomes during protein synthesis.
Name these three possible outcomes.
A. Start; Adding an amino acid; Stop
Q. Where in a cell are enzymes produced?
A. Ribosomes
Q. Give two applications (uses) of DNA profiling.
A. Crime (forensic) or Medicine or Paternity or
Archaeology or Evolution
Q. What is meant by genetic screening?
A. Checking for the presence of a specific gene
Q. True or False. DNA is a double helical shape.
A. TRUE
Q. Where in a cell does transcription occur?
A. Nucleus
Q. Name the small biomolecules that are joined
together to make a protein.
A. Amino acids
Page 28 of 62
2.5.6 - 2.5.8 Genetics 3 FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. What term is used to describe an individual’s
genetic make-up?
A. Genotype
A. Neither allele masks the expression of the
other
Q. Name the sex chromosomes that are present
in a human female cell.
A. XX
Q. Explain the term recessive.
A. It is only expressed in the homozygous
condition
Q. A spontaneous change in the genetic material
of an organism is called a ...
A. Mutation
Q. What is an allele?
A. Alternative form of a gene
Q. Explain homozygous
A. Identical alleles or genes
Q. A change in the structure of DNA is a … and
may give rise to a …
A. Mutation / Variation
Q. What is meant by phenotype?
A. Physical appearance or Expression of
genotype or Result of genotype + environment
Q. Explain the term dominant.
A. An allele that is always expressed (masks its
recessive partner)
Q. Explain heterozygous.
A. Different alleles or genes
Q. Name a scientist responsible for the Theory of
Natural Selection
A. Darwin or Wallace
Q. State two types of evidence used to support
the theory of evolution.
A. Fossils or Embryos or Anatomy or Genetics
Q. How many possible gametes can a parent of
genotype AaBb produce?
A. Four
Q. What is ‘junk’ DNA?
A. Does not code for a protein
Q. What is linkage?
A. Genes on the same chromosome
Q. Give two causes of mutation.
A. Chemicals, Radiation, Viruses, Carcinogens,
etc.
Q. Human males and females differ in one of
their twenty three pairs of chromosomes. What
name is given to this pair of chromosomes?
A. Heterosomes or sex chromosomes
Q. What is meant by the term evolution?
A. Inheritable change within a population in
response to change in the environment by
natural selection over time
Q. What is sex-linkage?
A. Genes located on sex (X or Y) chromosome
Q. What is Natural Selection?
A. Organisms best suited to environment have
greater chance of breeding and survival
Q. How many possible gametes can a parent of
genotype Aa produce?
A. Two
Q. What is meant by genetic screening?
A. Testing people for the presence of a specific
gene
Q. Name the sex chromosomes that are present
in a human male cell.
A. XY
Q. What is incomplete dominance?
Page 29 of 62
2.5.9 - 2.5.14 Genetics 4 FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. What is the difference between a nucleus of
an egg cell and that of a somatic (body) cell of an
animal?
A. Egg cell is haploid or Somatic cell is diploid
Q. Explain the term isolation in the context of
genetic engineering.
A. Locating or Removal of a gene (or a piece of
DNA or a plasmid)
Q. Suggest an advantage of producing genetically
identical animals.
A. Same wool quality
Q. In genetics, what is meant by sex linkage?
A. Gene on sex (or X or Y) chromosome
Q. What is meant by genetic engineering?
A. Manipulation of genes
Q. What term is used to describe alleles that lie
on the same chromosome?
A. Linked
Q. State an application of genetic engineering
involving a micro-organism.
A. Production of hormone or enzymes or
interferon
Q. State an application of genetic engineering
involving a plant.
A. Slow ripening tomatoes or Herbicide resistant
plants or freeze-resistant plants
Q. Name three processes involved in genetic
engineering.
A. Isolation / cutting (or restriction) /
transformation (or ligation) / introduction of
base sequence (changes) / expression
Q. Explain the term ligation in the context of
genetic engineering.
A. The joining of DNA (or plasmid or gene)
Q. What is meant by Segregation?
A. Separation of a pair of allelic genes during
meiosis resulting in each gamete having only one
of the pair of genes
Q. Explain why linked genes do not assort
independently.
A. They are transmitted on the same
chromosome
Q. Name a condition in humans that is governed
by a sex-linked allele.
A. Haemophilia or Colour blindness
Q. Which nitrogenous base can link only to
thymine?
A. Adenine
Q. Explain the term expression in the context of
genetic engineering.
A. The activation of the inserted gene or
production of product
Q. Suggest a disadvantage of producing
genetically identical animals.
A. Lack of variation or Prone to disease
Q. State the Law of Independent Assortment.
A. During gamete formation each member of a
pair of genes may combine randomly with either
of another pair
Q. Name the two types of nitrogenous base
found in DNA.
A. Purines and Pyrimidines
Q. State an application of genetic engineering
involving an animal.
A. “antifreeze” in farmed fish or pharmaceuticals
from transgenic animals
Q. Which nitrogenous base can link only to
cytosine?
A. Guanine
Q. Explain the term restriction (cutting) in the
context of genetic engineering.
A. Cutting the DNA (or plasmid) with a
(restriction) enzyme
Q. Explain the term transformation in the
context of genetic engineering.
A. The uptake of DNA (or plasmid or gene)
Q. Name a cell organelle, apart from the nucleus,
in which DNA is found.
A. Mitochondrion or Chloroplast
Q. Name the type of bonding which occurs
between members of a base pair in the DNA
molecule.
A. Hydrogen
Page 30 of 62
3.1.1 - 3.1.3 Monera Homework Solution
Q. To which kingdom do bacteria belong?
A. Monera or Prokaryotae
A. Capsule or Mucilage; Protection
Q. Other than being prokaryotic, state two ways
in which a typical bacterial cell differs from a
typical human cheek cell.
A. Cell wall; size; capsule; flagellum; plasmid
Q. What is meant when a bacterium is described
as being pathogenic?
A. Disease-causing
Q. Describe how some bacteria respond in order
to survive when environmental conditions
become unfavourable.
A. Produce (endo)spores
Q. To which kingdom does the organism used in
industrial fermentation belong?
A. Fungi
Q. What are antibiotics?
A. Substances produced by micro-organisms that
inhibit growth or reproduction of bacteria or
fungi
Q. What are photosynthetic bacteria?
A. Using light to make food or obtain energy
Q. Name two forms of heterotrophic nutrition
found in bacteria.
A. Parasitic and saprophytic
Q. Why are antibiotics not prescribed for a
person suffering from a viral infection?
A. Antibiotics have no effect on viruses
Q. What is autotrophic nutrition?
A. Organism makes its own food
Q. Suggest an advantage of classifying
organisms.
A. Identification
Q. What is saprophytic nutrition?
A. Organisms feed on dead matter
Q. Give examples of two harmful bacteria.
A. Tuberculosis; cholera; tetanus; sore throat
Q. Name a structure, other than the capsule,
which is not found in all bacteria.
A. Flagellum or Plasmid
Q. Name any two of the main bacterial types
(shapes).
A. Rod; Coccus; Spiral
Q. What is the function of flagella?
A. Movement
Q. What is heterotrophic nutrition?
A. Organism uses food already made by other
organisms
Q. Why are doctors reluctant to prescribe
antibiotics to patients suffering from the
common cold?
A. Common cold is a viral disease; antibiotics do
not affect viruses
Q. Under what circumstances does a bacterial
cell form an endospore?
A. Harsh unfavourable conditions
Q. Why are saprophytic bacteria important in
nature?
A. Decompose dead organisms or Recycle
nutrients
Q. What are chemosynthetic bacteria?
A. Use a chemical reaction to make food or
obtain energy (e.g. in soil)
Q. What term is used for the organism from
which a parasite obtains its food?
A. Host
Q. What term is used for the type of asexual
reproduction used by bacteria?
A. Binary fission
Q. Some bacteria have a layer outside the cell
wall. Name this layer and state its function.
Page 31 of 62
3.1.4 Fungi 1 FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. To which kingdom do yeasts belong?
A. Fungi
Q. From what plant did you obtain the leaf yeast
A. Ash
Q. State one feature of Rhizopus that indicates
that Rhizopus belongs to the kingdom Fungi.
A. Stolon or rhizoids or mycelium or hyphae or
sporangium or spores
Q. What are parasitic fungi?
A. They live in or on another living organism
causing harm
Q. Yeasts are eukaryotic organisms. What does
this mean?
A. Possesses membrane-bound nucleus or
organelles
Q. Name the nutrient medium on which you
grew leaf yeast
A. Malt agar
Q. State a function of the zygospore in fungi.
A. Survival; Dispersal
Q. Give one way in which Rhizopus differs from
yeast.
A. Multicellular or Method of reproduction or
Size or Structure
Q. Give two examples of a harmful fungus.
A. Ringworm or Athlete’s foot or Potato blight or
Thrush or Dry rot or Death cap
Q. What are saprophytic fungi?
A. They live on dead organisms or matter
Q. Give a role, other than anchorage, for
rhizoids.
A. Nutritional (Digestion or Absorption)
Q. Give one example of a beneficial fungus.
A. Yeast for brewing or baking or Agaricus
campestris or Agaricus bisporus
Q. Which term describes the mode of nutrition
of Rhizopus?
A. Saprophytic
Q. State a function of the rhizoid in fungi.
A. Anchors; Digestion; Absorption
Q. What is a hypha?
A. A filament
Q. What is the role of parasitic fungi in nature?
A. Keep populations under control or natural
selection
Q. What is the role of saprophytic fungi in
nature?
A. Recycling of nutrients and decay
Q. Why is the reproduction associated with the
sporangium of Rhizopus asexual?
A. The spores all develop from one parent or no
gametes involved
Q. A mass of hyphae is called a …
A. Mycelium
Q. State a function of the sporangium in fungi.
A. Produces spores; Stores spores; Asexual
reproduction
Q. Name a fungus, other than yeast, that you
studied.
A. Rhizopus
Q. State a function of the gametangium in fungi.
A. Produces gametes; Sexual reproduction
Q. Name one structure in plant cells not found in
fungi.
A. Chloroplast
Q. State one way in which yeast is beneficial to
humans.
A. Baking or brewing
Page 32 of 62
3.1.4 Fungi 2 FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. Suggest an adverse condition that triggers
sexual reproduction in Rhizopus.
A. Dehydration
Q. Name one economically harmful member of
the Fungi kingdom.
A. Rhizopus or mildew or rusts or smuts or blight
or dry rot or athlete’s foot
Q. Give two advantages to Rhizopus of zygospore
formation.
A. Can survive drought or named adverse
condition; Dispersal
Q. Give one beneficial use of fungi.
A. Antibiotic production
Q. What term is used to describe the process of
asexual reproduction in yeast?
A. Budding
Q. Outline the importance of saprophytic
nutrition in nature.
A. It breaks down dead organisms or recycling of
nutrients
Q. How does asexual reproduction in Rhizopus
differ from that in yeast?
A. Rhizopus produces spores
Q. TRUE or FALSE. Rhizopus is a member of the
animal kingdom.
A. FALSE
Q. What takes place in the sporangium?
A. Production of spores or reproduction
Q. Having finished the experiment on leaf yeast,
what did you do with the agar plates?
A. Autoclave in disposal bag
Q. Name a fungus, other than Rhizopus or yeast,
and explain how it is of benefit to humans.
A. Mushrooms; Edible
Q. Name a fungus, other than Rhizopus or yeast,
and explain how it is harmful to humans.
A. Mushrooms; Poisonous
Q. State a function of rhizoids.
A. Anchorage or absorption or digestion or
secretion of enzymes
Q. State a function of the sporangiophore.
A. Holds up/supports the sporangium
Q. What term is used to describe the nutrition of
Rhizopus?
A. Heterotrophic
Q. What is the purpose of using agar when
growing fungi or bacteria in the laboratory?
A. Source of nutrients
Q. Which type of division, mitosis or meiosis, is
involved in reproduction in yeast?
A. Mitosis
Q. Suggest one reason why leaf yeasts are more
plentiful in July than in March.
A. More leaves or more suitable temperature or
more reproduction
Q. What are anaerobic conditions?
A. Lack of oxygen
Q. Name the container in which you grew the
leaf yeast
A. Petri dish
Q. What form of heterotrophic nutrition does
Rhizopus have?
A. Saprophytic
Q. How did you recognise the leaf yeasts when
they appeared on the agar?
A. Pink colonies
Q. In anaerobic conditions yeast produces
ethanol and …
A. Carbon dioxide
Q. What is meant by sterile?
A. Free from microorganisms or living things
Page 33 of 62
3.1.4, 6, 10 Fungi, Protista, Growth Curves FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. To which kingdom does Amoeba belong?
A. Protista or Protoctista
A. Organisms are adapting to environment or
low reproductive rate
Q. What term is applied to the first part of a
growth curve?
A. Lag phase
Q. Give one function of pseudopods
(pseudopodia) in Amoeba.
A. Feeding or Movement or Egestion or
Homeostasis
Q. What is continuous flow food processing?
A. Nutrients constantly fed into bioreactor or
Product removed constantly
Q. What is batch food processing?
A. Fixed amount of nutrients added at beginning
or Bioreactor emptied at end of production
Q. What is meant by saprophytic nutrition?
A. Living on dead matter
Q. Name one structure in plant cells not found in
fungi.
A. Chloroplast
Q. Suggest one reason why the contractile
vacuole is more active in freshwater amoebae
than in marine amoebae.
A. Freshwater more hypotonic or More H2O
intake
Q. Name the structure by which Amoeba gets rid
of excess water that has entered by osmosis.
A. Contractile vacuole
Q. What is the role of the sporangium in the
reproduction of Rhizopus?
A. Production and release of spores
Q. Name another form of nutrition (other than
heterotrophic) employed by some fungi.
A. Parasitic
Q. What term is applied to the second part of a
growth curve?
A. Log or exponential phase
Q. In fungi what is the function of the
gametangium?
A. Produces gametes or Sexual reproduction
Q. State a function of rhizoids.
A. Anchorage or absorption or digestion or
secretion of enzymes
Q. A single fungal filament is called a …
A. Hypha
Q. How does asexual reproduction in Rhizopus
differ from that in yeast?
A. Rhizopus produces spores
Q. What term is used to describe the process of
asexual reproduction in yeast?
A. Budding
Q. Give one difference between a plant cell and
an Amoeba.
A. Plant cell has cell wall
Q. What is happening during the log or
exponential growth phase?
A. Organisms reproducing rapidly
Q. State one function of the contractile vacuole
of the Amoeba.
A. Water balance or Osmoregulation
Q. A mass of fungal filaments is called a …
A. Mycelium
Q. Name the substrate on which you grew leaf
yeast.
A. Malt agar
Q. Yeasts are eukaryotic organisms. What does
this mean?
A. Possesses nucleus or membrane-bound
organelles
Q. What is happening during the lag growth
phase?
Page 34 of 62
3.2.1 Plant Structure 1 FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. Name two plant tissues that are not vascular
tissues.
A. Dermal; Ground; Meristematic
Q. True or False. Lenticels serve the same
function as stomata.
A. TRUE
A. Xylem
Q. True or False. Parallel leaf veins are
characteristic of monocotyledonous plants.
A. TRUE
Q. The walls of xylem vessels are reinforced with
…
A. Lignin
Q. How is xylem adapted for its role in water
transport?
A. Tubular or continuous lumen; Reinforced
lignified walls; Narrow bore
Q. What is meant by the term
monocotyledonous?
A. One seed leaf or One embryonic leaf
Q. In which of the vascular tissues are sugars
mainly transported?
A. Phloem
Q. How does the vein arrangement in the leaves
of dicot plants differ from that in monocots?
A. Reticulate or Net or Branched
Q. State a function of Dermal tissue.
A. Protection
Q. State three functions of a root.
A. Anchorage; Absorption; Storage
Q. When preparing a T.S. of a stem what did you
use to cut the section?
A. Blade or scalpel
Q. State one way in which a transverse section
through a monocotyledonous stem differs from
a dicotyledonous one.
A. Vascular bundles scattered
Q. Where precisely is xylem tissue found in the
stem of a young dicotyledonous plant?
A. In the vascular bundle next to phloem
Q. Give one location where mitosis occurs in
flowering plants.
A. Meristematic tissues or Ovule or Embryo sac
or Pollen
Q. Why is a dicotyledonous (dicot) plant so
called?
A. Two embryonic leaves or Two seed leaves
Q. State another function of xylem other than
water transport.
A. Support
Q. How are the veins arranged in the leaves of
monocots?
A. Parallel
Q. Where would you find a meristem in a root?
A. At the tip
Q. What is meant by a vascular tissue?
A. Transports substances
Q. Where would you expect to find xylem and
phloem in a leaf?
A. Vein or Mid rib
Q. Give an example of a monocotyledonous
plant.
A. e.g. Grass, maize, etc.
Q. Name a dicotyledonous plant.
A. Oak, Ash, Elm, Horse chestnut, etc.
Q. Name the tissue in plant stems through which
water rises to the leaves.
Q. Name one substance found in the walls of
xylem cells but not found in the walls of phloem
cells.
A. Lignin
Page 35 of 62
3.2.1 Plant Structure 2 FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. Name one substance found in the walls of
xylem cells but not found in the walls of phloem
cells.
A. Lignin
Q. Name two vascular tissues and give one way
in which they differ.
A. Xylem; Phloem
Q. State a function of ground tissue.
A. Food storage; Photosynthesis; Strength;
Support
Q. Give a location of a meristem in a winter twig.
A. Bud or Stem tip
Q. Give two functions of a stem.
A. Transport; Support; Displays flower or leaf or
fruit; Gaseous exchange; Storage
Q. Where in a young root would you find tissues
xylem and phloem?
A. Centre or Zone of differentiation or Vascular
bundle
Q. Give one main function of the leaf.
A. Photosynthesis; Transpiration; Gas exchange;
Storage of food; Release of waste products
Q. Give a function of the guard cell.
A. Controls stomatal size or Controls passage of
gas or water vapour
Q. Name two gases that enter or leave the leaf.
A. Carbon dioxide; Oxygen; Nitrogen; Water
vapour
Q. Name the process by which the gases move in
or out of the leaf.
A. Diffusion or Passive transport
Q. Name the tissue that transports water from
the root to the leaves.
A. Vascular tissue or Xylem
Q. Flowers are the organs of which type of
reproduction in the plant?
A. Sexual
Q. Which tissue transports food from the leaves?
A. Phloem
Q. Is xylem a living or dead tissue?
A. Dead
Q. Suggest a role of the lignin in xylem.
A. Support
Q. Name one process that causes water to move
upwards through a plant.
A. Root pressure; Cohesion; Adhesion;
Transpiration stream
Q. Name the structures in the leaves through
which water exits the plant.
A. Stomata
Q. Vascular tissue is one type of plant tissue.
Name two other plant tissues.
A. Ground; Epidermal; Meristematic
Q. True or False. Lenticels serve the same
function as stomata.
A. TRUE
Q. State a function of Dermal tissue.
A. Protection
Q. True or False. Parallel leaf veins are
characteristic of dicotyledonous plants.
A. FALSE
Q. In which direction does the transport of water
take place?
A. Upwards
Q. State one way in which a transverse section
through a monocotyledonous stem differs from
a dicotyledonous one.
A. Vascular bundles scattered
Q. Give one location where mitosis occurs in
flowering plants.
A. Meristematic tissue or Buds or Ovule or
Embryo sac or Pollen
Page 36 of 62
3.2.2 Blood & Circulation 1 FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. Name two tissues that are present in the walls
of arteries and veins.
A. Collagen; Muscle; Endothelium
Q. What is the function of the valves?
A. Prevent backflow of blood
Q. Which chamber of the heart has the greatest
amount of muscle in its wall?
A. Left ventricle
Q. What is the function of collagen?
A. Non-elastic fibres that prevent over expansion
of blood vessels
Q. Name the cavity of the body in which the
heart and lungs are located.
A. Thoracic
Q. State one way in which heart muscle differs
from other muscles in the body.
A. Does not get tired
Q. Describe the structure of the lymphatic
system.
A. Composed of lymph nodes and lymph vessels
Q. State one factor that decreases heart rate.
A. Sleep; Drugs (sedatives)
Q. State the procedure that you followed to
expose a semilunar valve.
A. Cut aorta or Cut pulmonary artery
Q. State the precise location of the liver in the
human body
A. Upper abdomen under the diaphragm to the
right of the stomach
Q. Where in your dissection did you find the
origin of the coronary artery?
A. Aorta or Near semilunar valve
Q. To where does the pulmonary artery carry
blood?
A. The lungs
Q. What is the function of the bicuspid valve?
A. Prevent backflow of blood from left ventricle
to left auricle (atrium)
Q. State one factor that increases heart rate.
A. Fear (fright); Exercise
Q. What is the function of endothelium?
A. Lining of blood vessels
Q. Name the blood vessel that supplies the heart
muscle with blood.
A. Coronary artery
Q. What is the function of a semilunar valve?
A. Stops back flow of blood into ventricle or from
artery
Q. State a precise location in the human body at
which red blood cells are made.
A. Marrow of long bones
Q. Name the blood vessel that returns blood to
the heart from the lungs.
A. Pulmonary vein
Q. Name the two circuits of the human
circulatory system.
A. Pulmonary; Systemic
Q. Name two substances that are dissolved in
the liquid part of blood.
A. Glucose; Urea; Insulin; Fibrinogen; etc.
Q. Name the liquid part of blood.
A. Plasma
Q. State a function of red corpuscles.
A. Transport oxygen
Q. State a function of white cells.
A. Protection against disease
Page 37 of 62
3.2.2 Blood & Circulation 2 FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. Name two common blood-grouping systems.
A. ABO and Rhesus
Q. The hepatic portal vein carries blood from the
alimentary canal to the …
A. Liver
Q. Name the structure in the heart that controls
the heartbeat.
A. Pacemaker
Q. State a possible effect of smoking on the
pulse resting rate.
A. Raises rate
Q. Name the chamber of the heart that receives
blood back from the lungs.
A. Left atrium (auricle)
Q. Is the blood in the Aorta oxygenated or
deoxygenated?
A. Oxygenated
Q. Give one reason why the wall of the left
ventricle is thicker than the wall of the right
ventricle.
A. Pumps blood further
Q. What is blood plasma?
A. Blood without cells or Watery liquid part of
blood
Q. Name the major blood vessels that carry
blood from the heart to the lungs.
A. Pulmonary arteries
Q. The ABO blood group system has four blood
groups. What are these four groups?
A. A, B, AB, O
Q. Valves are present in veins. What is their
function?
A. To prevent back flow of blood
Q. Suggest a reason why it is important to know
a person’s blood group.
A. When getting a transfusion or To avoid
reaction by mother to foetus
Q. Name the major blood vessels that carry
blood from the lungs to the heart.
A. Pulmonary veins
Q. Which has the bigger lumen (cavity), an artery
or a vein?
A. Vein
Q. The wall of capillaries is only one cell thick.
How is this related to their function?
A. Substances can diffuse easily into and out of
capillaries
Q. Why are valves not needed in arteries?
A. Blood is under pressure as it is pumped from
heart
Q. Give a role for blood plasma.
A. Transports dissolved substances
Q. What is the function of blood platelets?
A. Blood clotting
Q. What structure(s) protects the heart?
A. Rib-cage
Q. Name the upper chambers of the heart.
A. Atria or Auricle
Q. Name the valve between the upper and lower
chambers on the left-hand side.
A. Bicuspid (mitral) valve
Q. How does a portal vein differ from other
veins?
A. Capillaries at both ends
Q. Name the blood vessels that carry blood from
the aorta to the kidneys.
A. Renal arteries
Q. Where in the body are white blood cells
produced?
A. Bone marrow
Page 38 of 62
3.2.3 + 4 Blood Cells & Heartbeat FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. True or False. A nucleus is absent from human
red blood cells.
A. TRUE
Q. State two ways in which red blood cells differ
from typical body cells e.g. from the cheek lining.
A. No nucleus; haemoglobin; shape; size; no
mitochondria; carries O2 or CO2
Q. Name a group of white blood cells, other than
lymphocytes.
A. Phagocytic (white cells) or Monocytes
Q. State a precise location in the human body at
which red blood cells are made.
A. Marrow of long bones
Q. Cardiac muscle may be described as a
contractile tissue. Explain the meaning of the
underlined term.
A. It can shorten
A. Pacemaker
Q. Some people may have the blood group B
Positive (B+).What factor is present in their
blood that makes it positive?
A. Rhesus
Q. Where in the body are white blood cells
produced?
A. Bone marrow
Q. Blood is made up of plasma and blood cells.
What is plasma?
A. Liquid part of blood
Q. Where is the pacemaker located in the heart?
A. Right atrium
Q. What is the function of white blood cells?
A. Fight disease
Q. Give the precise location of the SA node in the
heart.
A. In wall of right atrium
Q. True or False. The sino-atrial node
(pacemaker) is located on the right side of the
heart.
A. TRUE
Q. What is the role of valves in the heart?
A. To prevent backflow of blood
Q. What is the role of the SA (sinoatrial) and AV
(atrioventricular) nodes in the heart?
A. Causes contraction of heart muscle or
Pacemaker or Impulse generation
Q. Give any two functions of the lymphatic
system.
A. Returns fluid to blood; Transport;
Lymphocytes (Immunity)
Q. Name the blood vessel that brings blood from
the heart to the body.
A. Aorta
Q. Give two factors which cause an increase in
heart rate.
A. Exercise; Anxiety; Drugs; Infection
Q. Mention two ways to maintain a healthy
heart.
A. Eat less fat; Exercise regularly; Avoid excess
stress; Eat less salt; Don’t smoke
Q. Name the blood vessels that supply the heart
cells with blood.
A. Coronary or Cardiac arteries
Q. What causes the sound of a heartbeat?
A. Valves closing
Q. Give the precise location of the AV node in
the heart.
A. In (or near) septum or Near tricuspid valve or
Between atrium and ventricle
Q. What structure(s) protects the heart?
A. Rib cage
Q. Name the valve between the upper and lower
chambers on the left-hand side.
A. Bicuspid (mitral) valve
Q. Name the structure in the heart that controls
the heartbeat.
Page 39 of 62
3.3.1 + 2 Nutrition & Storage in Plants FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. Where precisely does water enter a plant?
A. Root hairs
Q. Name the process responsible for the uptake
of minerals by roots?
A. Active transport
Q. Name an autotrophic organism.
A. Grass, seaweed, fern, moss, etc.
Q. Name a type of modified stem that functions
in food storage.
A. Rhizome or Corm or Tuber
Q. In which tissue does water ascend through
the plant?
A. Xylem
Q. Name the process responsible for the entry of
water into a plant.
A. Osmosis
Q. What is the function of stomata?
A. To allow exchange of gas or water vapour or
Transpiration
Q. State one way in which the tissue is adapted
for transporting water and minerals.
A. Has lignin for strength and support
Q. Name the apertures in stems that are
equivalent to stomata.
A. Lenticels
Q. Name a carbohydrate that you would expect
to find stored in modified leaves.
A. Starch or Sucrose or Glucose
Q. Name the openings in the leaf which allow the
entry of carbon dioxide for photosynthesis.
A. Stomata
Q. TRUE or FALSE. A potato is a modified stem.
A. TRUE
Q. Name the plant tissue responsible for
transporting food.
A. Phloem
Q. Describe how nitrates enter the root of a
plant from the soil.
A. Active transport
Q. Name a gas that leaves the leaf at the
stomata.
A. Oxygen; Water vapour; Carbon dioxide;
Nitrogen
Q. Give one example of a root modified for food
storage.
A. Carrot; Turnip; Parsnip; etc.
Q. Name a factor that influences the diameter of
stomata.
A. CO2 concentration or Light intensity or
Potassium ions or Water
Q. Name one process that causes water to move
upwards in a plant.
A. Root pressure or Cohesion or Adhesion or
Capillarity or Transpiration
Q. What will happen to the amount of water
moving through a plant when it gets dark?
A. Decreases
Q. The walls of xylem vessels are reinforced with
…
A. Lignin
Q. State a function of Dermal tissue.
A. Protect from water loss or infection
Q. Where precisely is xylem tissue found in the
stem of a young dicotyledonous plant?
A. Vascular bundle or Next to phloem
Q. What is meant by the term dicotyledonous?
A. Two seed leaves
Q. Name a plant in which the leaves are modified
for food storage.
A. Onion or Tulip or Daffodil
Page 40 of 62
3.3.3 + 4 Human Nutrition & Digestion 1 FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. What is meant by the term omnivore?
A. An animal that eats both animals and plants
Q. What is meant by absorption?
A. Movement across membrane into blood or
lymph
Q. What is a herbivore?
A. An animal that feeds on plants only
Q. What is a heterotrophic organism?
A. One that uses food already made by other
organisms
Q. What is an autotrophic organism?
A. One that makes its own food
Q. What are the final products of the digestion of
a protein?
A. Amino acids
Q. What is meant by the term digestion?
A. Breaking down food
Q. Name a carbohydrate-digesting enzyme in the
human alimentary canal
A. Amylase
Q. What is peristalsis?
A. Muscular activity or contractions to move
food
Q. What is the role of bile in fat digestion?
A. Emulsification
Q. Why is a low pH important in the stomach?
A. Kills germs or Optimal pH for enzymes
Q. The passage of the products of digestion from
the intestine to the blood is called ...
A. Absorption
Q. Where in the alimentary canal does amylase
act?
A. Mouth and Small intestine
Q. Describe two functions of bile in relation to
digestion.
A. Emulsification; Neutralisation or Raises pH or
Makes alkaline
Q. What is a carnivore?
A. An animal that feeds on animals only
Q. Why is fibre important?
A. For peristalsis or Prevent constipation or
bowel cancer
Q. Where is lipase produced?
A. Pancreas
Q. Name an enzyme that is involved in the
digestion of fat.
A. Lipase
Q. What are the products of fat digestion?
A. Fatty acids and glycerol
Q. State the product(s) of amylase digestion.
A. Maltose
Q. State a role of beneficial bacteria in the
alimentary canal.
A. Production of vitamins or Inhibition of
pathogens
Q. State two ways in which the villi are adapted
for the absorption of soluble foods.
A. Large surface area; Rich blood supply;
Microvilli; Thin-walled; Lacteal
Q. Name a structure in the human digestive
system, other than teeth, which is involved in
mechanical digestion.
A. Tongue or Oesophagus or Stomach or Small
intestine
Q. What is a protease enzyme?
A. Breaks down protein
Page 41 of 62
3.3.4 Digestion 2 FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. Name a structure in the human digestive
system, other than teeth, which is involved in
mechanical digestion.
A. Tongue or Oesophagus or Stomach or Small
intestine
Q. Describe two functions of bile in relation to
digestion.
A. Emulsification; Raises pH or makes alkaline
Q. From which part of the alimentary canal does
food arrive into the duodenum?
A. Stomach
Q. Name the part of the digestive system in
which water is absorbed into the blood.
A. Colon
Q. Where does lipase act?
A. Duodenum or Small intestine
Q. Where is lipase secreted?
A. Pancreas or Duodenum
Q. What are symbiotic bacteria?
A. Bacteria that live in or on another organism
involving benefit
Q. Give two activities of symbiotic bacteria in the
human digestive system.
A. Digestion; Production of vitamins; Benefit
immune system; Compete with other microorganisms
Q. Name the part of the digestive system in
which the products of digestion absorbed into
the blood.
A. Ileum or villi
Q. State one digestive function of the pancreas.
A. Produces enzymes or neutralises chyme
Q. What process results from the contraction of
the muscles in the small intestine?
A. Peristalsis
Q. Explain how the ileum (small intestine) is
adapted for the absorption of the products of
digestion.
A. Large surface area; Good blood and lymph
supply; Lining one cell thick; Long; Villi
Q. Indicate which of the following most
accurately represents the pH of the contents of
the small intestine. Acidic. Neutral. Alkaline.
A. Alkaline
Q. What is meant by the term digestion?
A. The breakdown of food
Q. Where in the human body is the liver located
in relation to the stomach?
A. Above and to the right
Q. Name a process involved in the passage of the
products of digestion into the blood.
A. Diffusion or Passive transport
Q. A person who has suffered from constipation
may be advised to increase the amount of
wholegrain cereal in her/his diet. Why?
A. Adds fibre, fibre absorbs water, peristalsis
encouraged, faster digestive transit
Q. Why is digestion necessary?
A. For solubility or For absorption or For
transport
Q. Name two glands that pass their secretions
into the small intestine.
A. Pancreas; Liver
Q. What is the approximate pH of the site of
action of lipase?
A. 7 – 9
Q. Proteins are digested to simpler substances.
What are these simpler substances called?
A. Amino acids
Q. In which organ is food churned into chyme?
A. Stomach
Q. Which teeth grind food into smaller pieces?
A. Molars
Q. From what organ does the bile duct leave?
A. Gall bladder
Page 42 of 62
3.3.4 Digestion 3 FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. Where is bile produced?
A. Liver
A. Gall bladder
Q. What is the role of peristalsis in the digestive
system?
A. Push food along gut; Prevents constipation
Q. The stomach secretes hydrochloric acid onto
the ingested food. Give one function of this acid.
A. Kill bacteria
Q. State whether the contents the small intestine
are acidic, neutral or alkaline.
A. Alkaline
Q. State whether the contents of the stomach
are acidic, neutral or alkaline.
A. Acidic
Q. What is the substrate of the enzyme amylase?
A. Starch
Q. State two functions of symbiotic bacteria in
the alimentary canal.
A. Digest cellulose; Produce vitamins; Immunity
Q. What is meant by egestion?
A. Getting rid of undigested food waste
Q. Where does bile act in the alimentary canal?
A. Duodenum; Small intestine or Ileum
Q. Give a role for incisor teeth.
A. Cutting food
Q. What is the product of the enzyme amylase?
A. Maltose
Q. Give one digestive function of the liver.
A. Bile production
Q. Give one non-digestive function of the
pancreas.
A. Produces insulin
Q. Name an enzyme that is involved in the
digestion of fat.
A. Lipase
Q. From which part of the digestive system does
egestion occur?
A. Rectum
Q. Where does the partially digested food go
when it leaves the stomach?
A. Duodenum or small intestine
Q. What is the role of bile in fat digestion?
A. Emulsification
Q. State one role of the pancreas in digestion.
A. Makes enzymes or Makes NaHCO3
Q. What is a protease enzyme?
A. Breaks down protein
Q. From what part of the digestive system does
the digested food enter the blood?
A. Small intestine
Q. Name a process involved in the passage of the
products of digestion into the blood.
A. Diffusion
Q. Explain the term digestion?
A. Breaking down of food
Q. What are symbiotic bacteria?
A. Bacteria that live in or on another organism
involving benefit
Q. Where is bile stored?
Page 43 of 62
3.3.5 Blood Transport of Nutrients FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. True or False. Urea is formed in the kidneys.
A. FALSE
Q. TRUE or FALSE. The liver produces bile.
A. TRUE
Q. Name a process by which soluble foods are
absorbed into the blood from the small intestine.
A. Diffusion or Passive transport
Q. Give one digestive function of the pancreas.
A. Produces enzymes trypsin, amylase, lipase
Q. What type of food is mainly absorbed into the
lacteal of the villi?
A. Fatty acids and glycerol
Q. The stomach secretes hydrochloric acid onto
the ingested food. Give one function of this acid.
A. Provides medium for pepsin
Q. State a role that the liver plays in the digestive
process.
A. Produces bile; Emulsification; Produces
NaHCO3; Neutralizes acid
Q. The colon contains many symbiotic bacteria –
mostly ‘good’ bacteria. State two benefits we get
from these bacteria.
A. Synthesise vitamins; Out-compete pathogens;
Complement immune system; Break down fibre
Q. Name a substance transported to the liver by
the blood in the hepatic portal vein.
A. Glucose, amino acids, minerals, vitamins, etc.
Q. Where does the partially digested food go
when it leaves the stomach?
A. Duodenum
Q. Name the blood vessel that brings oxygenated
blood to the liver.
A. Hepatic artery
Q. What is the pH of the stomach contents?
A. 1 – 2
Q. Where is bile stored after it has been made in
the liver?
A. Gall bladder
Q. What is meant by egestion?
A. Getting rid of undigested food waste
Q. Give one role that the bile salts play in the
digestive process.
A. Emulsify fats or Neutralise acidic chyme
Q. Give two functions of the liver, other than the
manufacture of bile.
A. Storage of minerals & vitamins; Deamination;
Heat generation; Detoxification
Q. The hepatic portal vein carries blood from the
alimentary canal to the …
A. Liver
Q. Where in the digestive system are the
products of digestion absorbed?
A. Small intestine
Q. What is meant by peristalsis?
A. Muscular contractions in the walls of the
alimentary canal to move food
Q. Proteins are digested to simpler substances.
What are these simpler substances called?
A. Amino acids
Q. Where in the human alimentary canal is most
water absorbed?
A. Colon or Large intestine
Q. What is meant by a ‘balanced’ diet?
A. One which contains all the food types in the
correct proportions
Q. State one digestive function of the pancreas.
A. Produces enzymes or Neutralises chyme
Q. Name the blood vessel that joins the small
intestine) to the liver.
A. Hepatic portal vein
Page 44 of 62
3.4.1 - 3.4.4 Homeostasis, Plant Exchange, Breathing System FMQuiz HW Solution
Q. What is homeostasis?
A. Maintaining a constant internal environment
Q. Note one reason why homeostasis is
important in the human body.
A. Allows normal metabolic activities or Keeps
temperature suitable for enzyme reactions
Q. What is the function of the stomata of the
leaf?
A. To allow exchange of gases; Transpiration
Q. How does the liver contribute to
homeostasis?
A. Absorption or release of glucose; Heat
generation
Q. Name the apertures in stems that are
equivalent to stomata.
A. Lenticels
Q. Name the process by which the gases move in
or out of the leaf.
A. Diffusion
Q. Name the structures in plant cells in which
photosynthesis occurs.
A. Chloroplasts
Q. What is the function of cilia in the trachea?
A. Their motion carries trapped dirt particles and
bacteria upwards to the glottis
Q. Name a gas that leaves the leaf at the
stoma(ta).
A. Oxygen; Water vapour; Carbon dioxide;
Nitrogen
Q. In the spongy mesophyll, gases can diffuse
throughout the leaf. Name one such gas.
A. Air; Water vapour; O; CO2; N2
Q. How do the nephrons of the kidneys
contribute to homeostasis?
A. Excretion or reabsorption of water; Excretion
of salts; Reabsorption of salts
Q. Name a factor that influences the diameter of
the stoma(ta).
A. CO2; Light intensity; Potassium ions; Water
Q. Give a function of the guard cell.
A. Controls stomatal size; Controls passage of
gases
Q. Where do cilia occur in the breathing system?
A. Trachea
Q. State precisely the events that take place in
the alveoli.
A. Exchange of gases – CO2 out, O2 in by diffusion
Q. State the function of the epiglottis.
A. To close off trachea
Q. Name the process involved in the passage of
gas between the alveolus and the blood.
A. Diffusion
Q. Tiny holes called ... allow gases to enter and
leave the leaf.
A. Stomata
Q. How do the lungs contribute to homeostasis?
A. Excretion of water or CO2; Release of heat
Q. How are alveoli adapted for their purpose?
A. Capillary network; Moist surface; Thin walled;
Elastic wall; Large surface area; One cell thick
Q. Name the main gas transported in the
pulmonary vein.
A. Oxygen
Q. How is oxygen transported in the blood?
A. By oxyhaemoglobin
Q. State the function of the larynx.
A. To make sound
Q. Describe the role of the diaphragm in
inhalation.
A. Contracts, lowers and increases volume of
thorax
Page 45 of 62
3.4.4 + 3.4.7 Breathing System FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. What is the average breathing rate at rest?
A. 16 bpm
Q. What is the function of the larynx?
A. To produce sound
Q. Name the process involved in the passage
of gas between the alveolus and the blood.
A. Diffusion
Q. What is the function of the epiglottis?
A. Prevent food going down 'the wrong way'
Q. Name the blood vessel that returns blood
rich in oxygen to the heart.
A. Pulmonary vein
Q. State a possible effect of smoking on the
breathing resting rate.
A. Raises rate
Q. How did you measure the breathing resting
rate?
A. Observe; Count; Repeat; Average; Record
Q. True or False. Humans receive nitrogen
from the air they inhale for protein
manufacture.
A. FALSE
Q. Where is the epiglottis?
A. At the back of the throat; Top of
oesophagus
Q. The trachea contains rings of cartilage.
Suggest a function of this cartilage.
A. To keep trachea open; Protection of trachea
Q. Name the muscles that are used in
breathing.
A. Diaphragm and intercostal
Q. True or False. Humans receive oxygen from
the air they inhale.
A. TRUE
Q. When the diaphragm and intercostal
muscles contract the volume of the thorax …
and the pressure …
A. Increases; Decreases
Q. Breathing rate in humans is controlled by
the concentration of what gas dissolved in the
blood?
A. Carbon dioxide
Q. What is the role of alveoli in the lungs?
A. Exchange gases
Q. State the location in the human body of the
intercostal muscles.
A. Between ribs
Q. Give one way in which water is lost from the
body.
A. Sweating; Breathing out water vapour;
Urination
Q. Give one feature of the alveoli that allows
efficient exchange of gases.
A. Thin walls; Moist surfaces; Surrounded by
capillaries; Large surface area; Expandable
Q. What is the function of cilia in the breathing
system?
A. To trap dirt and bacteria and sweep them
upwards to the glottis
Q. Outline the steps involved in inhalation.
A. Impulse from brain; Diaphragm &
intercostal muscles contract; Thorax volume
increases; Pressure decreases; Air inhaled
Q. What is respiration?
A. Controlled release of energy from food,
within the cells of an organism
Q. When the diaphragm and intercostal
muscles relax the volume of the thorax … and
the pressure …
A. Decreases; Increases
Q. Where do cilia occur in the breathing
system?
A. Trachea
Q. Name the main gas transported in the
pulmonary artery.
A. Carbon dioxide
Page 46 of 62
3.4.6 Excretory System 1 FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. What is meant by the term excretion?
A. Elimination of waste products of
metabolism
Q. Name the tube/structure that delivers urine
outside the body.
A. Urethra
Q. State the role of the kidneys in homeostasis.
A. Maintaining water/salt balance;
Osmoregulation
Q. Explain the term glomerular filtrate.
A. Plasma that has entered Bowman’s capsule
Q. What tube/structure connects the kidney to
the bladder?
A. Ureter
Q. Carbon dioxide is an excretory product.
Name a substance from which it is derived.
A. Carbohydrate or Fat or Fatty acids
Q. Explain the term plasma.
A. Liquid part of the blood
Q. What is the source of the heat that keeps
the body at a fairly constant temperature?
A. Respiration
Q. Explain why red blood cells are normally
absent from glomerular filtrate.
A. Too big to pass into Bowman’s capsule
Q. From which blood vessel does the renal
artery arise?
A. Aorta
Q. Urea is an excretory product. Name a
substance from which it is derived.
A. Protein or Amino acid
Q. The concentration of glucose is the same in
plasma and glomerular filtrate. Why is this?
A. Glucose is small or passes through
Q. Where in the human kidney does reabsorption take place?
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
Q. Name the blood vessel that supplies blood
to a kidney.
A. Renal artery
Q. In which cavity of the body are the kidneys
located?
A. Abdominal or Abdomen
Q. Name one substance, other than water,
excreted in the urine.
A. Urea or Salt or Uric acid
Q. Why is glucose normally absent from urine?
A. Usually reabsorbed
Q. Give a feature of the kidney which indicates
that it is an exocrine gland.
A. Has ducts; Does not produce hormones
Q. Mention one method of excretion in
flowering plants.
A. Diffusion; Leaf fall; Transpiration; Through
lenticels or stomata
Q. State two responses that result when body
temperature begins to drop.
A. Piloerection; Vasoconstriction; Brain
initiates increased metabolic rate
Q. State two ways in which the body is
insulated against loss of heat.
A. Fat (adipose tissue); Trapped air or Hair
Q. Describe the ways in which the body
responds when its internal temperature rises
above the normal level.
A. Vasodilation; Sweat secretion; Hairs lie flat less air trapped
Q. Explain briefly how sweating assists in the
shedding of excess heat
A. Sweating places a film of water on the body
surface, which is heated by the body; water
evaporates with the heat, body left cooler
Q. What is an endotherm?
A. An animal that produces its own body heat
or Body temperature independent of
temperature of environment
Page 47 of 62
3.4.6, 8 Excretory System 2 FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. What word is used to describe animals
which are not endotherms?
A. Ectotherms
Q. Suggest an advantage of being an
endotherm.
A. Temperature always suitable for optimum
enzyme activity; Activity independent of
environmental temperature
Q. What is the main source of a dog’s body
heat?
A. Respiration
Q. Describe the role of the skin in helping to
raise body temperature.
A. Constriction of blood vessels; Hair stands
up; Insulation by subcutaneous fat
Q. Name an excretory substance present in
urine.
A. Urea; Water; Salt
Q. Describe the role of the skin in helping to
lower body temperature.
A. Sweating; Dilation of blood vessels; Hair flat
Q. Give a precise target area for the hormone
ADH.
A. Distal tubule; Collecting duct
Q. What is the main source of a lizard’s body
heat?
A. Environment or The sun or Metabolism
Q. To what structure does the ureter link the
kidney?
A. Bladder
Q. Where does filtration occur in the kidney?
A. Cortex; Bowman’s capsule
Q. What happens to the small arteries
(arterioles) in the skin when the external
temperature drops?
A. Constrict
Q. Explain why red blood cells are normally
absent from glomerular filtrate.
A. Too big to pass into Bowman’s capsule
Q. What is meant by osmoregulation?
A. Balancing salt or water concentration
Q. To which main blood vessel does the renal
artery link the kidney?
A. Aorta
Q. Name the fluid present in the ureter.
A. Urine
Q. Filtration ensures that cells and valuable
substances are not lost from the body when
urine is being formed. Name two of these
substances or cells.
A. Blood cells; Proteins; Glucose
Q. List two functions of the skin other than
excretion.
A. Protection; Melanin production
Q. Suggest a treatment that may be used for a
person whose kidneys are not carrying out
their normal functions.
A. Dialysis
Q. Name an organ in the human body, other
than the kidney, in which excretion takes
place.
A. Skin; Lungs; Liver
Q. Reabsorption of useful substances takes
place in the kidney. In what part does this
occur?
A. Cortex; Medulla; Nephron; Convoluted
tubule; Loop of Henle
Q. Children typically have higher body
temperatures than adults. Suggest a reason for
this.
A. Higher metabolism; Growing (i.e. more cell
division); More active; More infections
Q. Why is glucose normally absent from urine?
A. Usually reabsorbed
Q. From which blood vessel is the afferent
arteriole derived?
A. Renal artery/arteriole
Q. When the water content of the blood drops
a hormone is released. Name this hormone
and the endocrine gland from which it is
secreted.
A. ADH (vasopressin); Pituitary
Page 48 of 62
3.5.2 Plant Responses FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. State a location in a flowering plant where a
growth regulator is secreted.
A. Apical meristems of shoots
Q. Name the group of substances in plants
which control responses to external stimuli.
A. Plant growth regulators or auxins
Q. Give an example of the use of a synthetic
growth regulator.
A. Rooting powder; Weed killer; Ripening of
fruit; Seedless fruits
Q. Suggest a benefit to the plant of
phototropism.
A. Photosynthesis
Q. Give locations for two meristems in plants.
A. Root tip; Shoot tip; Bud; Embryo; Seed
Q. What is an auxin?
A. A growth regulator in plants
Q. What growth regulator did you use when
investigating plant growth?
A. IAA
Q. Define tropism.
A. Growth response of plant to a stimulus
Q. List three types of tropism.
A. Thigmotropism; Phototropism; Geotropism;
Hydrotropism; Chemotropism
Q. State two ways in which growth regulators
in plants are similar to hormones in animals.
A. Chemical in nature; Made at one site &
function at another; Transport slow / in
vascular tissue
Q. List three methods used by plants to protect
themselves from adverse external
environments.
A. Thorns; Stinging cells; Leaf fall; Perennation;
Dormancy
Q. Give the term used for the growth response
by a plant shoot to unidirectional light.
A. Phototropism
Q. TRUE or FALSE. The growth response of a
plant to touch is called thigmotropism.
A. TRUE
Q. Define thigmotropism.
A. Growth response of a plant to touch
Q. Give an example of a growth regulator that
promotes growth.
A. Auxin; IAA; NAA; Ethene
Q. Give an example of a growth regulator that
inhibits growth.
A. Auxin; IAA; NAA; Abscisic acid; Ethene
Q. Name the plant used when you investigated
the effect of a growth regulator on plant
tissue.
A. Cress
Q. Name the growth response of roots growing
towards water.
A. Hydrotropism
Q. What do you understand by the term
adverse external environment?
A. Surroundings that are harmful to
organism(s)
Q. Define Chemotropism
A. Growth response of a plant to chemicals
Q. Through which part of a stem are growth
promoters transported?
A. Vascular bundles / tissue
Q. For what purpose did you use IAA in the
course of your practical activities?
A. To examine the effect of growth regulators
on plants
Q. Shoots grow away from gravity. This is an
example of …
A. Negative geotropism
Q. How would you make up solutions of
different concentrations from a stock solution
of IAA?
A. Serial dilution
Page 49 of 62
3.5.3 + 7 Defence System FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. What is meant by the term immunity?
A. The ability of the body to resist infection
Q. How does the skin help to defend the body
against pathogenic micro‑organisms?
A. Contains the enzyme lysozyme – a
bactericidal agent; Continuous unbroken
covering
Q. What is the purpose of vaccination?
A. To induce immunity
Q. True or False. Immunity that results from
vaccination is effectively the same as the
immunity that develops following an infection.
A. TRUE
Q. What is meant by the term active
immunity?
A. Long-term immunity resulting from the
production of antibodies;
Q. Give a role of memory T-cells.
A. Recognise and destroy infected or damaged
cells; Memory activation; Suppress immune
system
Q. Give an example of a beneficial application
of a virus.
A. Bacteriophage; Used in genetic engineering;
Vaccine production; Vector in disease
treatment
Q. Give a role of helper T-cells.
A. Stimulate B cells; Stimulate killer T cells;
Recognise antigens
Q. Name a virus whose activity poses a major
threat to human health.
A. HIV
Q. What is meant by the term passive
immunity?
A. Recipient receives antiserum, containing
antibodies, from an already immunised
individual
Q. What is meant by the term antigen?
A. Substance on cell membrane; Surface of
virus or bacteria; Foreign substance that
causes antibody production
Q. What is meant by the term antibody?
A. Substance produced in response to
presence of antigen
Q. What is the role of antibodies in the body?
A. To inactivate antigens
Q. Give a role of Killer T-cells.
A. Destroy infected or damaged cells
Q. What is meant by the term vaccination?
A. ‘Safe dose’ of a pathogen, causing antibody
production or an immune response
Q. Give a role of suppressor T-cells.
A. Switch off immune system
Q. To which group of blood cells do
lymphocytes belong? A. White blood cells
Q. How is HIV transmitted?
A. Sexual contact
Q. Give a role of T-cells.
A. Act in one of four processes as helper Tcells, killer T-cells, suppressor T-cells or
memory T-cells
Q. Give a role of B-cells.
A. Produce antibodies
Q. Name the two main chemical components
of a virus.
A. DNA or RNA; Protein
Q. Comment on the difficulty of describing a
virus as a living organism.
A. Non-cellular; One nucleic acid; Obligate
parasite; No metabolism; Do not possess
organelles
Q. Give one example of the use of hormone
supplements.
A. Treatment of diabetes; Contraception
Q. Name two diseases of humans caused by
viruses.
A. Smallpox; Chicken pox; Measles; Polio; ‘Flu;
Common cold; Leaf mosaic; AIDS or HIV;
Mumps; Rubella; Rabies
Page 50 of 62
3.5.3 Endocrine & Musculoskeletal System FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. What is an exocrine gland?
A. A ducted gland
Q. Name one disorder of the musculoskeletal
system.
A. Arthritis; Osteoporosis
Q. Name a product of the endocrine portion of
the pancreas.
A. Insulin; Glucagon
Q. State two ways in which hormone action
differs from nerve action.
A. Chemical transmission; Slower action;
Longer lasting effect; Many target organs
Q. What is an endocrine gland?
A. A ductless or hormone producing gland
Q. Explain what is meant by the axial skeleton?
A. Vertebral column and skull & rib cage
Q. Give a function of red marrow.
A. Formation of blood cells
Q. Give a deficiency symptom of insulin.
A. Diabetes mellitus
Q. What is a hormone?
A. A chemical messenger; Product of endocrine
gland
Q. State two ways in which hormones are
similar to plant growth regulators.
A. Produced in one location; Acts in different
location; Prolonged effect
Q. Give two examples of the use of hormone
supplements.
A. Treatment of diabetes; Contraception
Q. What is meant by an antagonistic muscle
pair?
A. Pair of muscles that have opposite effects
Q. Give a function of cartilage.
A. Protection; Absorbs shock; Reduces friction
Q. Where are the discs in the human
backbone?
A. Between the vertebrae
Q. Give a function of a tendon.
A. Joins muscle to bone
Q. Hormones are secreted by … glands.
A. Endocrine
Q. What is the function of the discs in the
human backbone?
A. Shock absorption; Friction-free movement;
Prevention of wear and tear
Q. State one way in which hormone action
differs from nerve action.
A. Slower to act; More sustained; Chemical in
nature
Q. What is the role of Yellow bone marrow?
A. Fat storage
Q. What is meant by feedback in relation to
hormone action?
A. When the level of a hormone in the blood
controls the production of another or itself
Q. Give two functions of the human skeleton.
A. Strength; Support; Shape; Mobility;
Protection; Muscle attachment; Blood cell
production
Q. Name a long bone in the human body.
A. Femur; Tibia; Fibula; Humerus; Radius; Ulna
Q. What is the role of Red bone marrow?
A. Blood cell formation
Q. State a function of spongy bone.
A. Strength; Rigidity; Makes marrow
Page 51 of 62
3.5.3 Eye & Ear FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. What is the function of the semi-circular
canals?
A. Balance
Q. Suggest a reason why two eyes are better
than one.
A. Increased visual field; To judge distance
(depth); 3D vision
Q. What is the function of the cochlea?
A. Hearing
Q. What is connected to the middle ear by the
Eustachian tube?
A. Throat
Q. What surrounds the bones in the middle
ear?
A. Air
Q. Name two sense organs, other than the ear
and the eye, in the human body.
A. Skin; Tongue; Nose
Q. What is the function of the lens of the eye?
A. To focus light onto the retina
Q. What is the function of the retina of the
eye?
A. To convert light into nerve impulses; Image
forms on it
Q. Outline the role of the suspensory ligaments
in vision.
A. Holds lens in place; Changes shape of lens
Q. In which part of the ear are nerve impulses
generated?
A. Cochlea or semi-circular canals
Q. In which part of the eye are nerve impulses
generated?
A. Retina
Q. Suggest one way by which the ear may be
protected.
A. Skull / bone; Wax; Wear ear protection;
Avoid noisy environments
Q. The hammer (malleus) is a very small bone
located in the ...
A. Ear
Q. Which is present in the middle ear, gas or
liquid?
A. Gas
Q. In which part of the eye would you find rods
and cones?
A. Retina
Q. Outline the role of the cones in vision.
A. Detect colour
Q. What is the function of the Eustachian
tube?
A. To equalise pressure on the eardrum
Q. Outline the role of the optic nerve in vision.
A. Brings impulses from retina; Brings impulse
to brain
Q. TRUE or FALSE. The semi-circular canals in
the ear are involved in balance.
A. TRUE
Q. Outline the role of the brain in vision.
A. Interprets information received from retina
Q. Name the coloured part of the eye.
A. Iris
Q. Explain how the iris works.
A. Muscular contraction in response to light
intensity, pupil size changes, allows more or
less light in
Q. What is the function of the pupil in the eye?
A. To allow light in
Q. Name the type of chemical that carries
messages between two neurons.
A. Neurotransmitter
Page 52 of 62
3.5.3 Musculoskeletal System FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. Give two functions of the human skeleton.
A. Strength; Support; Shape; Mobility;
Protection; Muscle attachment; Blood cell
production
Q. Name one disorder of the musculoskeletal
system.
A. Arthritis; Osteoporosis
Q. Explain what is meant by the axial skeleton?
A. Vertebral column and skull & rib cage
A. Fat storage; Can convert to red marrow
Q. Name a long bone in the human body.
A. Femur; Tibia; Fibula; Humerus; Radius; Ulna
Q. State a function of spongy bone.
A. Strength; Rigidity; Makes marrow
Q. State a function of medullary cavity.
A. Makes (yellow) marrow; Stores fat; Makes
blood cells
Q. Bones are joined to other bones by ...
A. Ligaments
Q. Give a function of Red marrow.
A. Formation of blood cells
Q. A pair of muscles that have opposite effects
are called …
A. Antagonistic muscle pair
Q. Give a function of Cartilage.
A. Protection (absorbs shock); Reduces
friction; Allows bone elongation
Q. Name the vertebrae found in the neck.
A. Cervical
Q. Name the part of the central nervous
system that runs through the vertebrae.
A. Spinal cord
Q. A tendon joins ......... to bone.
A. Muscle
Q. Where are the discs in the human
backbone?
A. Between the vertebrae
Q. Give a function of synovial fluid.
A. Lubrication; Shock absorption; Protection
Q. Where are thoracic vertebrae found?
A. Back of chest
Q. Name the vertebrae found in the small of
the back.
A. Lumbar
Q. Muscles are joined to bones by...
A. Tendons
Q. Which upper arm muscle contracts to raise
the lower arm?
A. Biceps
Q. Where are caudal vertebrae found?
A. Tail end of spinal column
Q. What is the function of the discs in the
human backbone?
A. Shock absorption; Friction-free movement;
Prevention of wear and tear
Q. Name the type of joint at the elbow.
A. Hinge; Synovial
Q. Suggest one reason why the bones of birds
are almost hollow.
A. To be light; To allow flight
Q. Give a role of Yellow bone marrow.
Page 53 of 62
3.5.3 Nervous System FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. True or False. Motor neurons conduct
impulses towards the central nervous system.
A. FALSE
A. Language; Reason; Consciousness; Senses;
Memory; Intelligence; Emotions
Q. What is a neuron?
A. Nerve cell
Q. What is grey matter?
A. Cell bodies of neurons; Few axons; Little
myelin
Q. Briefly explain the role of neurotransmitter
substances.
A. Carries impulse across synaptic cleft and
triggers impulse in next neuron
Q. What are interneurons or association
neurons?
A. Nerves that link two neurons
Q. State a function for the Myelin sheath.
A. Insulation; Protection; Speeds impulse
Q. State one function of the hypothalamus of
the brain.
A. Homeostasis; Endocrine function
Q. Give a function of dendrites.
A. Receives and carries impulses to the cell
body
Q. What is white matter?
A. Many axons; Much myelin; Few cell bodies
Q. What is a sensory neuron?
A. Nerve that carries impulse from receptor
towards CNS
Q. State one function of the cerebellum of the
brain.
A. Movement; Balance; Coordination
Q. State a function for Schwann cells.
A. Produces myelin sheath
Q. What term is used for glands that secrete
hormones?
A. Endocrine
Q. What is the central nervous system?
A. Brain and spinal cord
Q. State one function of the medulla oblongata
of the brain.
A. Involuntary muscle control
Q. TRUE or FALSE. A motor neuron carries
impulses to the brain.
A. FALSE
Q. Name the small gaps between neurons.
A. Synaptic cleft; Synapse
Q. What is peripheral nervous system?
A. Nerves leading to and from CNS; Nerves not
in CNS
Q. What is a motor neuron?
A. Nerve that carries impulse away from CNS
to effector
Q. Give one way in which a nervous response
differs from a hormonal response.
A. Faster; Shorter-lived; Electrical in nature
Q. State one function of the cerebrum of the
brain.
Q. Neurons produce neurotransmitter
substances. What is their function?
A. To carry impulse across synapse
Q. Give an example of a reflex action in
humans.
A. Knee-jerk
Q. Why are reflex actions important in
humans?
A. Fast response; Defence against injury
Page 54 of 62
3.6.1 Asexual, Flower Structure, Gamete Formation FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. What is meant by vegetative propagation?
A. Reproduction that does not involve the
production of seed
Q. Give examples of natural vegetative
propagation that involve different parts of a
plant.
A. Rhizomes; Corms; Root & stem tubers;
Bulbs
Q. List techniques of artificial vegetative
propagation that are used for flowering plants.
A. Cuttings; Layering; Grafting; Budding; Tissue
culturing
A. One fuses with “egg” nucleus other fuses
with primary endosperm nucleus or polar
nuclei
Q. Are the products of vegetative propagation
clones?
A. Yes
Q. Two male gametes are derived from the
generative nucleus. Do these gametes form as
a result of mitosis or meiosis?
A. Mitosis
Q. State a role of the sepal.
A. Protection; Photosynthesis
Q. What is the function of the petal?
A. Attraction of insects
Q. What is the role of the stigma?
A. Traps (catch) pollen; Where pollen lands
Q. Suggest one advantage of artificial
propagation.
A. Fast; Preserves desirable features; Cheap;
More reliable
Q. Name a part of a flower from which a fruit
develops.
A. Carpel; Ovary
Q. Give two differences between vegetative
propagation and propagation involving seeds.
A. No gametes (one parent); Identical plants;
Rapid production; No outside agent
Q. What term is used for the type of asexual
reproduction that produces a daughter plant
by runners?
A. Vegetative propagation
Q. Would you expect a daughter plant
produced by a runner to be haploid or diploid?
A. Diploid
Q. Name the two main types of reproduction.
A. Sexual & Asexual
Q. What is the role of the stigma?
A. Receives pollen
Q. Give two ways in which the petals may be
adapted for their function.
A. Colour; Scent; Size; Shape
Q. Describe the development of pollen grains
from microspore mother cells.
A. Meiosis, 4 haploid microspores, divides by
mitosis, tube and generative nucleus, pollen
grain matures
Q. What happens to the two polar nuclei?
A. Fuse with male gamete nucleus to form
triploid endosperm nucleus
Q. State what happens to the ovule after
fertilisation.
A. Becomes the seed
Q. Suggest one disadvantage of artificial
propagation.
A. Lack of variation; Diseases inherited
Q. State a role of the ovary.
A. Produces (contains) ovule or embryo sac or
female gametes; Becomes fruit; Site of
fertilisation
Q. Describe the fate of the two male gamete
nuclei.
Q. State a role of the anther.
A. Pollen production, storage and release
Q. True or False. Endosperm is a food reserve
in some seeds.
A. TRUE
Page 55 of 62
3.6.1 Dormancy & Germination FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. State a difference between the seeds of
monocots and dicots other than the number of
seed leaves.
A. Food store as endosperm; No endosperm
A. Water; Suitable temperature; Oxygen
Q. For what purpose is oxygen needed in
germination?
A. Aerobic respiration
Q. True or False. Light is essential for the
germination of seeds.
A. FALSE
Q. Seeds may remain inactive for a period
before germination. What term is used to
describe this period of inactivity?
A. Dormancy
Q. What is dormancy?
A. Period of low metabolism; Seed does not
germinate despite favourable conditions
Q. What term is given to the growth of an
embryo into a plant?
A. Germination
Q. What is meant by germination?
A. Growth of seed or embryo
Q. Why is digestion necessary in a germinating
seed?
A. To make food soluble and transportable
Q. What is an agar plate?
A. Petri dish containing a jelly or solid medium
Q. Suggest one way in which knowledge of
dormancy is useful to farmers and gardeners.
A. Optimum storage conditions; Optimum
sowing time; Maximise the growing season
Q. Suggest two advantages of dormancy.
A. Germination at suitable time; Survival of
plant during unfavourable conditions
Q. Why is it necessary for plants to disperse
their seeds?
A. Avoid competition; Avail of suitable
conditions
Q. After fertilisation, what part of the flower
becomes the fruit?
A. Ovary
Q. Name the stage in the plant’s life cycle that
follows dormancy.
A. Germination; Growth
Q. For what purpose is water needed in
germination?
A. Enzyme action; Solvent; Transport of
materials; Bursting testa; Washing away
inhibitors
Q. For what purpose is a suitable temperature
needed in germination?
A. Optimum enzyme activity
Q. State a use for a water bath in biological
investigations.
A. Keep temperature constant; Vary
temperature; Denaturing enzyme; Heating
Q. From what does a seed develop?
A. Ovule
Q. What type of agar plates did you use when
investigating the digestive activity of seeds?
A. Milk or Starch
Q. How did you demonstrate the requirement
for oxygen when investigating the factors
necessary for seed germination?
A. Anaerobic jar
Q. State one method that is used to produce
seedless fruits.
A. Growth regulator; Selective propagation
Q. State two locations in the seed where food
may be stored.
A. Cotyledon; Endosperm
Q. What is the role of the fruit?
A. Reproduction; Seed dispersal
Q. State three environmental factors that are
necessary for germination.
Page 56 of 62
3.6.1 Fruit Formation & Dispersal FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. From what does a seed develop?
A. Ovule
Q. What is a non-endospermic seed?
A. Main food store is in cotyledons
Q. What is an endospermic seed?
A. Main food store is in the endosperm
Q. What is the next step after pollination in the
lifecycle of the plant?
A. Fertilisation
Q. State one method that is used to produce
seedless fruits.
A. Growth regulator; Selective propagation
Q. From what structure in the carpel does the
seed develop?
A. Ovule
Q. State two locations in the seed where food
may be stored.
A. Cotyledon; Endosperm
Q. The radicle of the embryo will develop into
the …
A. Root
Q. Give two methods of fruit and seed
dispersal.
A. Wind; Animal; Self; Water
Q. Name a carbohydrate that you would
expect to be present in the food store of a
seed.
A. Starch
Q. The plumule of the embryo will develop into
the …
A. Shoot
Q. Give two advantages of fruit and seed
dispersal to a plant.
A. Colonisation; Reduces competition
Q. What is meant by fertilisation?
A. Fusion of gametes; Formation of zygote
Q. What is a cotyledon?
A. A ‘seed leaf’, i.e. the first leaf that develops
in the embryo. It is a food store
Q. Name a monocotyledon.
A. Grass, Maize, etc.
Q. To which part of a flower is pollen carried?
A. Stigma of the carpel
Q. Some flowers have nectaries. How are these
flowers pollinated?
A. Insects
Q. Name a dicotyledon.
A. Broad bean, Peanut, Pea, etc.
Q. Give an example of a plant that uses wind
as a method of seed dispersal.
A. Dandelion; Sycamore
Q. What is the role of the fruit?
A. Reproduction; Seed dispersal
Q. Name a part of a flower that may develop
into a fruit.
A. Ovary
Q. Give an example of a plant that uses
animals as a method of seed dispersal.
A. Blackberry; Burdock
Q. Suggest why cross-pollination is preferable
to self-pollination.
A. Increases variation; Reduces chance of
genetic problems
Q. What is an embryo?
A. Part of seed that becomes the new plant
Page 57 of 62
3.6.1 Pollination & Fertilisation FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. What happens to the two polar nuclei?
A. Fuse with male gamete nucleus to form
triploid endosperm nucleus
Q. To which part of a flower is pollen carried?
A. Stigma of the carpel
Q. What happens to the ovary after
fertilisation?
A. Becomes the fruit
Q. What happens to the ovule after
fertilisation?
A. Becomes the seed
Q. True or False. Endosperm is a food reserve
in some seeds.
A. TRUE
Q. Give one location in a seed in which food is
stored.
A. Endosperm; Cotyledon; Nucellus
Q. What is fertilisation?
A. Fusion of gametes; Formation of zygote
Q. What is pollination?
A. Transfer of pollen from anther to stigma
Q. From which structure in the seed did the
root develop?
A. Radicle
Q. Name a carbohydrate that you would
expect to be present in the food store of a
seed.
A. Starch
Q. How are wind-pollinated flowers adapted?
A. No colours; No scent; No nectar; Small or no
petals; Long stamens; Long feathery stigmas
Q. Give two ways in which pollen may be
transported to another flower.
A. Wind; Insect; Artificial
Q. Name a structure through which the pollen
tube grows in order to reach the embryo sac.
A. Stigma; Style; Ovary; Micropyle
Q. What forms in the ovary of a flower after
pollination and fertilization?
A. Seed; Zygote; Embryo; Food reserve
Q. In which part of a flower does a seed form?
A. Carpel; Ovary
Q. What process follows pollination in the life
cycle of a flowering plant?
A. Fertilisation
Q. Some flowers have nectaries. How are these
flowers pollinated?
A. Insects
Q. What is the difference between selfpollination and cross-pollination?
A. Occurs on same plant or flower; Occurs
between plants of same species
Q. Name the part of the flower where
fertilisation occurs.
A. Embryo sac; Ovule; Ovary
Q. Suggest a substance that flowers produce
that may cause hay fever in some people.
A. Pollen
Q. Name two ways in which cross-pollination
happens.
A. Wind; Insect
Q. Suggest why cross-pollination is preferable
to self-pollination.
A. Increases variation; Reduces chance of
genetic problems
Q. What is the function of the sepals?
A. Protection; Photosynthesis
Q. In which part of the flower is pollen
produced?
A. Anther; Stamen
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3.6.2 Birth, Breastfeeding, Infertility & Birth Control FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. Name two female hormones that have a
role in the menstrual cycle.
A. Oestrogen; Progesterone; FSH; LH
Q. Outline how birth occurs.
A. Change in hormone levels; Contractions;
Waters break; Cervix dilates; Delivery; Cord
cut; Afterbirth
Q. What happens to the menstrual cycle when
a woman reaches the menopause?
A. It stops
Q. Explain the term implantation.
A. Embedding of embryo in endometrium
Q. When may it be considered that the process
of fertilisation is complete?
A. When the male and female nuclei have
fused
Q. Give one change experienced by the mother
that indicates to her that the birth process is
starting.
A. Contractions; Waters break
Q. Where does fertilisation normally occur in
the reproductive system of the human female?
A. Half way along Fallopian tube
Q. State one cause of infertility in the female.
A. Hormonal; Blockage; Failure to ovulate
Q. What is meant by in vitro fertilisation?
A. Fertilisation outside the body
Q. What is fertilisation?
A. Fusion of gametes
Q. What is meant by contraception?
A. Prevention of fertilisation or implantation or
pregnancy
Q. Name a hormone associated with the
maintenance of the placenta.
A. Progesterone
Q. Where does implantation occur in the
human female reproductive system?
A. Uterus
Q. For how long will sperm survive in the
female reproductive tract?
A. Up to seven days
Q. For how long do ova remain viable?
A. Up to two days
Q. From what is the placenta formed?
A. Embryonic and uterine tissues
Q. Give two biological advantages of
breastfeeding.
A. Transfer of antibodies; Balanced diet;
Bonding; Contraception; Correct temperature;
Milk sterile
Q. Give an account of the importance of the
placenta during human development in the
womb.
A. Transport in/out; Barrier (plasma proteins,
etc.); Produces progesterone
Q. Where does meiosis occur in the human
female reproductive system?
A. Ovary
Q. State one cause of infertility in the male.
A. Low sperm count; Hormonal
Q. Give an example of a surgical method of
male contraception.
A. Vasectomy
Q. What is done with the products of in vitro
fertilisation?
A. Implanted in a womb; Stored for future use;
Destroyed
Q. List three methods of contraception other
than surgical.
A. Condom; Pill; IUD; Diaphragm; Spermicide;
Implants
Q. Where is FSH produced?
A. Pituitary
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3.6.2 Structures & Hormones FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. Where is testosterone secreted in the body
of the human male?
A. Testis
Q. Where in the human female reproductive
system does meiosis occur?
A. Ovary
Q. Give a brief account of the role of
testosterone.
A. Development of secondary sexual
characteristics; Development of sex organs;
Sperm production
Q. What is the menstrual cycle?
A. Monthly cycle in female; Lining of uterus
(endometrium) shed; Blood discharged
Q. Where are sperm produced?
A. Testis
Q. Name a gland that secretes seminal fluid.
A. Cowper’s gland; Seminal vesicles; Prostate
gland
Q. Where does meiosis occur in the human
male reproductive system?
A. Testis
Q. State a function of seminal fluid.
A. Allows sperm to swim; Provides nutrients;
Lubricant; Protects sperm
Q. Where in the human female reproductive
system does zygote formation occur?
A. Fallopian tube
Q. Where are sperm stored in the human male
reproductive system?
A. Epididymis
Q. What is semen?
A. Sperm cells and seminal fluid
Q. State two secondary sexual characteristics
of the human male.
A. Broken voice; Body hair; More muscle;
Enlargement of testes; Enlargement of penis
Q. What maintains the secondary sexual
characteristics in the adult human male?
A. Testosterone
Q. In which part of the human female
reproductive system is the ovum (egg)
formed?
A. Ovary
Q. Where in the human female reproductive
system does implantation occur?
A. Uterus
Q. What happens in the womb during
menstruation (days 1 – 5)?
A. Loss of blood; Loss of endometrium
Q. Explain the term ovulation.
A. Release of egg from ovary
Q. What is the function of the prostate gland?
A. Seminal fluid production; Nutrition of sperm
Q. What is the function of the sperm duct?
A. To carry sperm
Q. State two ways in which sperm differ from
ova (eggs).
A. Size; Shape; Motile; Chromosomal
difference
Q. What term is used for the time in a young
person’s life when physical changes that
distinguish the sexes take place?
A. Puberty
Q. What is the function of the midpiece of the
sperm?
A. Respiration; Produce energy
Q. What is meant by the fertile period?
A. Time when fertilisation is possible; When
egg is in oviduct
Q. Where does fertilisation occur in the female
body?
A. Oviducts
Page 60 of 62
3.6.4 + 5 Embryo Development & Menstrual Cycle FMQuiz Homework Solution
Q. Where is FSH produced?
A. Pituitary
Q. Give one function of FSH.
A. Production of follicle (egg); Stimulate
oestrogen production
Q. What is the role of oestrogen in the
menstrual cycle?
A. Repairs endometrium; Inhibits FSH;
Stimulates LH
Q. What is the role of progesterone in the
menstrual cycle?
A. Maintenance of endometrium; Inhibits FSH;
Inhibits LH
Q. Explain what is meant by germ layers?
A. Layer of cells in the blastula (embryo); Give
rise to specific tissues or organs
Q. Which part of the female reproductive
system is influenced by both FSH and LH?
A. Ovary; Follicle
Q. By which type of cell division does the
zygote divide?
A. Mitosis
Q. What is the next developmental stage after
the morula?
A. Blastocyst
Q. What is the morula?
A. Solid ball of cells
Q. What is meant by the term infertility?
A. Inability to produce offspring
Q. Name a tissue that the ectoderm gives rise
to.
A. Skin; Nails; Hair; Nervous system
Q. What is a placenta?
A. Structure attached to inner surface of the
womb of pregnant mammals, helps to nourish
the foetus, and discharges its waste
Q. Name a tissue that the mesoderm gives rise
to.
A. Muscles; Skeleton; Excretory system;
Respiratory system; Circulatory system
Q. Explain the term implantation.
A. Embedding of embryo in endometrium
Q. From what tissues does a placenta form?
A. Uterine and embryonic tissue
Q. What is meant by in-vitro fertilisation?
A. Sperm and egg fuse outside the body
Q. Describe the amnion.
A. Sac; Membrane
Q. What is the role of the amnion?
A. Holds; Produces fluid; Protects embryo or
foetus
Q. What is the blastocyst?
A. Fluid-filled or hollow ball of cells
Q. What is meant by fertilization?
A. Fusion of gametes; Formation of zygote
Q. Name a tissue that the endoderm gives rise
to.
A. Inner lining of gut or named part of; Liver;
Pancreas
Q. In which part of the human female
reproductive system does fertilization occur?
A. Fallopian tube; Oviduct
Q. Explain the importance of the amnion for
the foetus.
A. Contains amniotic fluid; Protects embryo
Q. What is meant by the fertile period?
A. Time when fertilisation is possible; When
egg is in oviduct
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