Board Review DH227, Lisa Mayo, RDH, BSDH
Periodontology Test
1. The shape of the col is determined by the shape of
a. Underlying PDL
b. The junctional epithelium
c. Lingual and facial surfaces of adjacent teeth
d. Interproximal contact areas of adjacent teeth
2. Local delivery chemotherapeutic agents containing antibiotics directly inhibit bacterial
growth. These agents inhibit collagenase (MMP) activity.
a. Both statements are TRUE
b. Both statements are FALSE
c. The first statement is FALSE, the second statement is TRUE
d. The first statement is TRUE, the second statement is FALSE
3. Which of the following medications is not associated with gingival hyperplasia?
a. Diltiazem
b. Nifedipine
c. Phenytoin
d. Atenolol
4. Which of the following drugs acts upon the anaerobic organisms of necrotizing
ulcerative gingivitis?
a. Nystatin
b. Penicillin
c. Griseofulvin
d. Metronidazole
e. Amoxicillin
5. A patient with a well-defined, scalloped, red area along a gingival margin is in your chair.
This redness of adjacent to a base-metal crown. Each of the following could have
caused the redness EXCEPT which one?
a. Subgingival crown margin
b. Nickel allergy
c. Poorly contoured crown
d. Poor oral hygiene
e. Galvanic reaction
6. A hygienist notices a 4mm probing depth changed to 2mm at the 4 weeks evaluation
after scaling and root planning. The most likely reason for this is
a. Increase in collagen production
b. Decrease in edema within the tissue
c. Formation of a long junctional epithelium
d. Gain in periodontal attachment to the tooth
7. The epithelium of a periodontal pocket differs from that seen in healthy gingiva in that
the epithelial lining of an active pocket is
a. Atrophic
b. Ulcerated
c. Keratinized
d. Parakeratinized
8. A true pocket differs from a pseudopocket by
a. Gingival bleeding
b. Inflammation of the gingiva
c. Apical movement of the junctional epithelium
d. Gingival proliferation in a coronal direction
9. Swelling and edema of the gingiva are primarily due to
a. Vascularity
b. Endothelium
c. Fluid exudates
d. Cellular elements
e. Collagenous tissue
10. The redness of early gingivitis is most likely caused by
a. Necrosis of connective tissue
b. Overproduction of collagen fibers
c. Hyperkeratinization of the epithelium
d. Dilation of blood vessels
11. Plaque is a causative agent in chronic inflammatory periodontal disease because it
a. Is a precursor to calculus
b. Allows for bacterial growth
c. Mechanically irritates gingiva
d. Releases microbial molecules that stimulate inflammation
12. Which of the following clinical indications most strongly suggests gingivitis has
progressed to periodontitis?
a. Absence of stippling
b. Radiographic loss of alveolar bone
c. Periodontal pocket formation
d. Ulceration of marginal and papillary gingiva
13. Periodontal disease is most accurately identified by
a. Bleeding on probing
b. Recession
c. Presence of plaque
d. Loss of attachment
14. Active periodontitis is most accurately identified clinically by
a. Bleeding on probing
b. Recession
c. Presence of plaque
d. Loss of attachment
15. Increased probing depths always indicate attachment loss associated with periodontitis.
Attachment loss may be found in the absence of increased probing depths.
a. Both statements are TRUE
b. Both statements are FALSE
c. The first statement is TRUE, the second statement is FALSE
d. The first statement is FALSE, the second statement is TRUE
16. Following treatment the junctional epithelium will re-epithelialize within
a. 1-3 days
b. 7-10 days
c. 14-21 days
d. 30-45 days
17. Pocket reduction following scaling and root planning may occur as a result of
a. Decrease gingival inflammation
b. Decreased probe penetration into tissues
c. Healing by forming a long junctional epithelium
d. All the above
18. The best indicator of gingival inflammation during periodontal re-evaulation is
a. Loss of stippling
b. Heavy plaque
c. Bleeding during probing
d. Pain upon probing
19. The most important factor determining the frequency of recall for periodontal
maintenance is
a. Prognosis of the case
b. Amount of alveolar bone loss
c. Amount of calculus present
d. Effectiveness of the patient’s oral hygiene
20. Which of the following alterations is associated with progression from a healthy gingival
sulcus to gingivitis?
a. Appearance of staphylococci in the sulcus
b. Predominance of yeasts in sub-gignvial plaque
c. Increase in gram (-) anaerobic rods in plaque
d. Predominance of spirochetes in supra-gingival plaque
21. The most common postoperative complication of root planning is
a. Hemorrhaging
b. Hypersensitivity
c. Periodontal abscess
d. Gingival inflammation
e. Displacement of cervical restorations
22. Removal of endotoxins is the goal of
a. Scaling
b. Curretage
c. Polishing
d. Root planning
e. Oral irrigation
23. Each of the following may result from Parafunctional occlusal habits except
a. Wear facets
b. Mobile teeth
c. Periodontal pockets
d. Uneven occlusal wear
e. Temporomandibular symptoms
24. In health the junctional epithelium is attached to
a. Cementum
b. Dentin
c. Enamel
d. Bone
25. Which is the most effective control of dental plaque biofilm in the dental environment
a. Systemic antibiotics
b. Antimicrobials
c. Fluoride varnish
d. Toothbrush and floss
26. The term lamina dura refers to the radiographic image of the
a. PDL space
b. Alveolar bone proper
c. Cortical plates
d. Cancellous bone
e. Alveolar crest
27. In acute gingivitis, which is the first inflammatory cell to respond to the injury by
bacterial plaque?
a. B lymphocytes
b. Plasma cells
c. Neutrophils
d. Lymphokines
e. Macrophages
28. A pseudopocket is formed by the
a. Coronal migration of the gingival margin
b. Coronal migration of the epithelial attachment
c. Apical migration of the gingival margin
d. Apical migration of the epithelia attachment
e. Apically directed resorption of the alveolar bone
29. Periodontal pockets can BEST be detected by
a. Radiographic detection
b. The color of the gingival tissues
c. The contour of the gingival margin
d. Probing the Sulcular area
e. Noting the presence or absence of bleeding on probing
30. Periodontitis may BEST be described as
a. A chronic inflammatory disease with periodic of remission and exacerbation
b. A chronic inflammatory disease that usually does not manifest itself clinically
before age 40
c. A degenerative disease of the periodontium
d. An acute inflammatory disease
e. A chronic inflammatory disease that most often affects the entire dentition
equally
31. In case of periodontitis, the first are to be involved in bone resorption if the
a. F and L aspects of supporting bone
b. Cribiform plate
c. Cancellous bone
d. Cortical plate of the interdental septum
e. Bone surrounding the apical area of the tooth
32. Which of the following statements about subgingival plaque are true?
a. Its growth and pathogenicity are strongly influenced by supragingival plaque
b. It forms simultaneously and in the same manner as supragingival plaque
c. It consist primarily of aerobic bacteria
d. Bacteria from plaque are not found in diseased periodontal tissues only bacterial
by-products cause destruction
e. Subgingival plaque does not differ from supragingival plaque
33. Tissue consistency refers to
a. Collagen fibers
b. Elastic fibers
c. Gingival fibers
d. Oxytalan fibers
e. Transseptal fibers
34. All of the following are diagnostic of occlusal trauma EXCEPT
a. Wear facets
b. Fremitus
c. Increase in tooth mobility
d. Periodontal pocket formation
e. Increased width of the PDL space
35. Radiographs will show the
a. Relationships between soft and hard tissues
b. Degree of tooth mobility
c. Extent of all bone loss
d. All areas of calculus presence
e. None of the above
36. The radiographic findings of gingivitis will demonstrate
a. Vertical bone loss
b. Horizontal bone loss
c. Increased bone density
d. Change in bone trabeculation
e. Normal bone pattern
37. Which of the following periodontal diseases is characterized by relatively sparse
subgingival plaque, onset at the age of puberty and bilateral angular bone loss in the
first molars and incisors
a. NUG
b. Rapidly progressive periodontitis
c. Prepubertal periodontitis
d. Localized juvenile periodontitis
e. Refractory periodontitis
38. Which of the following nonsurgical periodontal therapies are appropriate for a patient
with early periodontitis?
a. Oral prophy
b. Gingival curettage
c. Scaling and rot planning and debridement procedures
d. Gingivectomy
e. All the above
39. Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents has been shown to have a side effect
of tooth staining?
a. Sanguinarine
b. Chlorahexidine
c. Hydrogen peroxide
d. Phenolic compound
e. Sodium benzoate
40. The mucogingival junction is located between the
a. Free gingiva and attached
b. Free gingiva and tooth
c. Attached gingiva and alveolar mucosa
d. Base of sulcus and alveolar mucosa
e. Gingival groove and gingival margin
41. Which tissues have little to no keratinization?
a. Sulcular epithelium
b. Attached gingiva
c. Inerdental papillae
d. Palatal mucosa
e. Sulcular epithelium and alveolar mucosa
42. The first bacteria to be deposited on the tooth in bacterial plaque formation are
a. Gram (-) rods
b. Gram (+) rods
c. Spirochetes
d. Gram (+) cocci
e. Gram (-) cocci
43. The fibers of the attached gingiva are mainly
a. Collagen
b. Elastic
c. Cellulose
d. Keratinized
e. Oxytalan
44. Systemic factors are important in the pathogenesis of periodontal disease because
a. They can be the direct cause of periodontal disease
b. They have a direct effect on pocket depth
c. If they are corrected, the periodontal disease can be eliminated
d. They usually determine the pattern of bone loss
e. They can intensify the response of the periodontium to etiologic and local
factors
45. The tissue lining of a healthy gingival sulcus consist of
a. Keratinized epithelium with rete pegs
b. Keratinized epithelium without rete pegs
c. Nonkeratinized epithelium with rete pegs
d. Nonkeratinized epithelium without rete pegs
e. Parakeratinized epithelium with rete pegs
46. The gingival fibers
a. Brace the marginal gingiva against the tooth
b. Help the tooth withstand horizontal forces
c. Keep the tooth from being forced into the bony socket
d. Form and resorb cementum
e. Transmit sensations of occlusal forces applied to the tooth
47. Which of the following is the first clinical feature of inflammatory periodontal disease
a. Tooth mobility
b. Drifting of the anterior teeth
c. Periodontal pocket formation
d. Gingival recession
e. Bleeding on probing
48. A cuplike resorptive area at the crest of the alveolar bone is a radiographic findings of
a. Periodontal abscess
b. Gingivitis
c. Occlusal trauma
d. NUG
e. Early periodontitis
49. The area within the periodontium MOST susceptible to tissue breakdown is the
a. Free gingiva
b. Gingival sulcus
c. Interdental col
d. Interdental papillae
e. Attached gingiva
50. The characteristics of gingivitis are
a. Bone loss, swelling of tissues, apical migration of the epithelial attachment
b. Swelling of tissues, apical migration of epithelial attachment, BOP
c. Bone loss, apical migration of epithelial attachment, widening of the PDL space,
BOP
d. Swelling of soft tissues, BOP
51. Which is NOT a contributing factor of periodontal disease?
a. Open proximal contacts
b. Diet high in sucrose content
c. Mouth breathing
d. Blood dyscrasia
e. Hormonal imbalance
52. During probing, a 4mm pocket is found on the direct facial of tooth #19. The gingival
margin is located at the CEJ. What type of pocket is this?
a. Pseudopocket
b. Periodontal pocket
c. Gingival pocket
d. Combo pseudopocket and periodontal pocket
e. Combo gingival and periodontal pocket
53. Which situation would be an indication for a Gingivectomy?
a. A edematous 5mm pseudopocket
b. A fibrotic area f free gingiva that covers part of the occlusal surface of tooth #32
c. An infraboney pocket 6mm on the distal aspect of tooth #30
d. A fibrotic pocket that extends into the alveolar mucosa
e. A localized area of NUG
54. A pyogenic granuloma
a. Is also referred to as a pregnancy tumor
b. Tends to occur frequently in cases of phenytoin hyperplasia
c. Is usually associated with gingival recession
d. Is frequently associated with juvenile periodontitis
e. Is usually treated with antibiotics
55. A Gingivectomy is PRIMARILY employed to treat conditions in which
a. An infraboney pocket
b. The base of the pocket is apical to the mucogingival junction
c. There is adequate zone of attached gingiva
d. The tissues are edematous
e. There is gingival recession
56. A mucogingival problem exists when
a. The base of the pocket extend apically to the mucogingival junction
b. The base of the pocket is coronal to the mucogingival junction
c. There is less than 3mm attached gingiva
d. There is less than 5mm attached gingiva
e. There is significant bone loss
57. The purpose of placing sutures after periodontal flap surgery is to
a. Hold the soft tissues in place
b. Hold the soft tissues in place and protect the wound
c. Protect the wound and maintain blood clot
d. Hold the soft tissues in place and maintain the blood clot
e. Hold the soft tissues in place, protect the wound, maintain the blood clot, and
prevent food impaction into the wound area
58. The advantage of gut sutures is
a. Their ease of manipulation
b. They hold the knot well
c. They do not cause an inflammatory reaction
d. They dissolve
e. They do not cause any trauma to surrounding tissues
59. An advantage of silk braided sutures is that they
a. Are dissolved by the surrounding tissues
b. Have antibacterial properties
c. Are relatively easy to manipulate
d. Are not treated by the surrounding tissues as a foreign object
e. Can remain in the tissue for up to 3 weeks without creating an inflammatory
reaction
60. The purpose of using rosin in the periodontal dressing is to
a. Provide an antibacterial property
b. Provide a slight anesthetic action
c. Serve as an astringent
d. Improve the taste
e. Act as a filler for strength
61. Following the completion of perio therapy, the patient should be placed on a
continuing-care interval of
a. 12mo
b. 6mo
c. 4mo
d. 3mo
e. No standard time interval
62. Which of the following is recommended for preventive maintenance with dental
implants?
a. Ultrasonic scalers
b. Titanium-tipped curet
c. Chlorhexidine
d. Coarse polishing paste
e. Stainless steel curets
63. Dental implants are commonly made of
a. Titanium
b. Gold
c. Aluminum
d. Teflon
e. Bonded acrylic resin
64. The single BEST criterion for evaluating the success of periodontal treatment and oral
hygiene 6-wk post-op appts is:
a. All calculus removed
b. A smooth and glasslike appearance of the root
c. Lack of accumulation of supra and submarginal plaque
d. No evidence of BOP
e. No probing depths greater than 3mm
65. Which of the following products raises safety concerns with long-term use?
a. Chlorhexidine
b. Hydrogen peroxide
c. Sodium benzoate
d. Listerine
e. Triclosan
66. Use of the following is MOST successful as a means of bacterial plaque control?
a. Penicillin
b. Dextranase
c. Sulfonamides
d. Tetracycline
e. Chlorhexidine
67. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs have which of the following effects in perio
therapy?
a. Elimination of inflammation
b. Inhibiting bone loss
c. Anesthetic effect
d. Reducing bleeding
e. Antimicrobial action
68. Which of the following antibiotics is NOT indicated for perio therapy?
a. Erythyromycin
b. Metronidazole
c. Tetracylcine
d. Augmentin
e. Ciprofloxacin
69. Which of the following conditions exists when a patient demonstrates attachment loss
and is infected by periodontal pathogens after appropriate treatment?
a. Adult periodontitis
b. Desquamative gingivitis
c. Linear gingival erythema
d. Refractory periodontitis
e. Early onset periodontitis
70. What is the relationship between gingivitis and periodontitis?
a. Gingivitis will always progress to periodontitis is untreated
b. Both gingivitis and periodontitis result in attachment loss
c. Both are manifested by alveolar bone loss
d. Both can result in probing depths greater than 3mm
e. Periodontitis precedes gingivitis in the periodontal lesion
71. Gingivitis is initiated MOST often by:
a. Maloclusion
b. A hormonal imbalance
c. A vit deficiency
d. Microorganisms and their products
e. Psychosocial factors
72. The incidence of periodontal disease is MOST highly correlated with:
a. Increasing age
b. Poor oral hygiene
c. Systemic disease
d. Poor nutritional status
e. Occlusal trauma
73. The MOST important single factor determining the frequency of continued-care
appointments for dental hygiene care is the:
a. Amount of alveolar bone loss
b. Prognosis of the case
c. Amount of calculus present at the reevaluation
d. Patient motivation
e. State of health or disease evident at the time of reevaluation
74. A probe reading of 6mm measures the distance from the:
a. Marginal ridge to the epithelial attachment
b. Epithelia attachment to the gingival margin
c. Alveolar crest to the gingival margin
d. CEJ to the gingival margin
e. CEJ to the epithelial attachment
75. Which of the following is MOST reliable clinical sign of gingival inflammation?
a. Redness of the gingiva
b. Loss of stippling
c. Blunted papillae
d. Bleeding upon gentle probing
e. Probing depth
76. Which of the following is characteristic of NUG?
a. Painless
b. Periodontal pocket formation
c. Ulcerated, crater-like gingival lesion
d. Gingival bleeding
e. Severe erythema
77. Which of the following methods is most successful for prevention of periodontal
disease?
a. Regular oral self-care practices and periodontal debridement/root planning
b. Local delivery of antibiotics and periodontal SRP
c. Regular oral self-care and regular oral prophy’s
d. Regular oral self-care, regular oral prophy’s and antimicrobial rinses
78. The primary purpose of periodontal debridement is to:
a. Remove all clinical detectable calculus
b. Remove all plaque-retentive factors
c. Remove diseased cementum and calculus
d. Create a smooth tooth surface
e. Restore health of gingival tissues
79. Studies of the natural history of periodontal disease have shown that:
a. Incidence of perio is related to the amount o plaque and calculus present
b. Periodontal therapy and oral self care will slow rate of attachment loss in
periodontitis
c. People with progress from gingivitis to periodontitis without perio therapy
d. Perio disease is rapid if left untreated
80. Which of the following factors increase an individual’s risk of attachment loss?
a. Female gender
b. Ethnicity
c. Tobacco use
d. Phenytoin
e. Vit C deficiency
81. There are 4 classifications of furcations. With Class III furcation, there is severe bone
loss with recession and the Nabors probe can pass between the roots.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
82. What is the goal of periodontal debridement?
a. Remove all deposits
b. Remove all irregular tooth surfaces
c. Produce a root surface that is biologically compatible with the surrounding
tissues
d. Produce a smooth, glassy surface free of deposits and necrotic cementum
83. A patient returns for a 4-wk re-eval apt exhibiting bleeding in select areas. What is the
best treatment for this appointment?
a. Systemic antibiotics
b. Oral irrigation in the selected sites
c. Evaluation and modification of home care
d. Periodontal debridement in the affected areas
84. What is the best definition of a scaling stroke?
a. A firm pull stroke with proper lateral pressure in the area of the deposit
b. A light push stroke with light lateral pressure applied in a vertical direction on
cementum only
c. A firm push stroke with heavy lateral pressure applied in a horizontal direction
on the entire tooth surface
d. A light horizontal pull stroke with heavy lateral pressure applied in a coronal
direction on the entire tooth surface
85. How does calculus contribute to periodontal disease?
a. Release toxins destroying the junctional epithelium
b. Produced a rough surface irritating the gingival tissues
c. Direct contributing factor by producing bacterial toxins
d. Provides nutrient source for bacteria found in supragingival calculus
86. The primary reason tissue regeneration is performed is to address:
a. Recession
b. Infrabony defects
c. Suprabony defects
d. Collagen deficiencies
e. Hereditary hyperplasia
87. The primary objective at recare appointments following periodontal therapy is to:
a. Re-evaluate probe depths
b. Take necessary radiographs
c. Reinforce home care instruction
d. Ensure that inflammation has not reoccurred
88. The correct order in the stages of wound healing by fibrous repair is:
a. Wound cleansing, blood clotting, wound remodeling, tissue rebuilding
b. Blood clotting, would cleaning, tissue rebuilding, wound remodeling
c. Rebuilding tissue, blood clotting, wound remodeling, wound cleansing
d. Blood clotting, wound remodeling, wound cleansing, rebuilding tissue
89. Aphthous ulcer formation is commonly associated with:
a. Rubella
b. Smoking
c. HIV infection
d. Papillon-LeFevre syndrome
90. Oral irrigation is most effective for:
a. Stain control
b. Flushing planktonic bacteria
c. Removing loosely attached calculus
d. Delivering medicaments to the base of pockets
91. Which type of bony defect has the BEST prognosis following periodontal therapy?
a. Type III mobility
b. One-wall bony defect
c. Two-wall bony defect
d. Three-wall bony defect
92. The ideal time to re-evaluate probing depths following initial therapy is:
a. 6 weeks post-op
b. 4 weeks post-op
c. 3 months post-op
d. 6 months post-op
93. The erythematous, highly vascular tissue associated with wound repair is termed:
a. Collagen
b. Fibronectin
c. Granulation tissue
d. Secondary-intention healing
94. Sites of chronic inflammation would most likely contain:
a. Plasma cells
b. Lymphocytes
c. Macrophages
d. All of the above
95. Which 3 of the following medications are likely to cause gingival enlargement?
a. Procardia
b. Phenytoin
c. Ibuprofen
d. Cyclosporin
96. Which vitamin is required for collagen synthesis?
a. Thiamine
b. Folic acid
d. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin D
97. All of the following characteristics are associated with dehiscence EXCEPT one. Which
characteristic is the EXCEPTION?
a. Root exposure
b. Gingival recession
c. Alveolar bone loss
d. The defect is bordered by alveolar bone along its coronal aspect
98. Which microorganism is LEAST likely to be causative for necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis?
a. Fusobacterium
b. Prevotella intermedia
c. Streptococcus mutans
d. Porphyremonas gingivalis
99. For each Classification listed below, select the correct representative histopathology from
the list provided.
Classification
Histopathology
1. Initial lesion
a. PMNs in sulcus
2. Early lesion
b. Osteoclasts
3. Established lesion
c. Increased gingival fluid
4. Advanced lesion
d. Plasma cells prominent
100. Leukotrienes are produced by:
a. Mast cells
b. Basal cells
c. Melanocytes
d. Red blood cells
1. D
2. A
3. D
4. D
5. E
6. B
7. B
8. C
9. C
10.D
11. D
12. B
13. D
14. A
15. D
16. B
17. D
18. C
19. D
20. C
21. B
22. E
23. C
24. C
25. D
26. B
27. C
28. A
29. D
30. A
31. D
32. A
33. A
34. D
35. E
36. E
37. D
38. C
39. B
40. C
41. E
42. D
43. A
44. E
45. D
46. A
47. E
48. E
49. C
50. D
51. B
52. B
53. B
54. A
55. C
56. A
57. E
58. D
59. C
60. E
61. E
62. C
63. A
64. D
65. B
66. E
67. B
68. A
69. D
70. D
71. D
72. B
73. E
74. B
75. D
76. C
77. C
78. E
79. B
80. C
81. C
82. C
83. D
84. A
85. B
86. B
87.D
88.B
89.C
90.B
91.D
92.B
93.C
94.D
95.A,B,D
96.D
97.D
98.C
99.C,A,D,B
100.A