UA Flashcards Unit 2
1) Diseases affecting the glomerulus are primarily
caused by:
2) All of the following are symptoms of acute
glomerulonephritis except:
A. Periorbital edema
B. Hematuria
C. Proteinuria
D. Hypoalbuminemia
3) The major cause of the nephrotic syndrome in
children is:
4) Damage to the glomerulus can occur as a
result of all of the following except:
A. Increased filtration of electrolytes
B. Deposition of immune complexes
C. Deposition of amyloid materials
D. Cellular infiltration
5) The buildup of crescentic formations on the
glomerular capillaries is characteristic of:
6) The most common cause of end-stage renal
disease is:
7) A renal disorder associated with heroin abuse
is:
8) Blood tests can be used to confirm the
diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis because
of the detection of:
9) Goodpasture syndrome and Wegener’s
granulomatosis are associated with the
presence of which of the following in the urine
sediment?
10) The presence of which crystals can be
associated with nephrotic syndrome?
11) A patient with symptoms of pulmonary
hemoptysis and urinary hematuria should be
tested for:
12) Which of the following disorders has the most
favorable patient prognosis?
A. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
B. Henoch-Schönlein purpura
C. IgA nephropathy
D. Goodpasture syndrome
13) Glomerular basement membrane thickening
occurs in membranous glomerulonephritis as a
result of deposition of:
14) The presence of heavy proteinuria is most
characteristic of:
15) The pronounced edema associated with
nephrotic syndrome is related to the:
Immunological disorders
16) Oval fat bodies and fatty casts are
characteristic urine sediment constituents in
patients with:
17) A decrease in systemic blood flow affects the
Nephrotic syndrome
D
Minimal change disease
A
Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
Diabetic nephropathy
Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
Antistreptococcal antibodies
Red blood cell casts
Cholesterol
Antiglomerular basement membrane antibody
B
IgG immune complexes
Nephrotic syndrome
Hypoalbuminemia
Ischemia
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UA Flashcards Unit 2
renal tubules by producing:
18) Glucosuria and generalized aminoaciduria are
characteristics of:
19) Which inherited renal disorder manifests itself
in the development of gout in teenage years?
20) In which part of the kidney is uromodulin
produced?
21) Which of the following renal disorders is most
likely to be inherited?
A. Nephrotic syndrome
B. Acute interstitial nephritis
C. Acute tubular necrosis
D. Fanconi syndrome
22) Administration of a nephrotoxic antibiotic to a
patient with a decreased glomerular filtration
rate may cause:
23) The presence of increased renal tubular
epithelial cell casts is most indicative of:
24) Infection of the bladder is termed
25) Cystitis can be differentiated from
pyelonephritis by:
26) In diabetic nephropathy, solid material
deposited around the capillary tufts includes:
27) The finding of bacterial casts can be associated
with:
28) The most serious tubulointerstitial disorder is:
29) An increased urinary eosinophils are diagnostic
for:
30) Microscopic urinalysis findings of a patient
with acute interstitial nephritis include all of
the following except:
A. Bacteria
B. White blood cells
C. Red blood cells
D. White blood cell casts
31) Acute renal failure may be classified as all of
the following except:
A. Rapidly progressive
B. Prerenal
C. Renal
D. Postrenal
32) In which disorder would waxy and broad casts
be most likely to be seen?
33) Causes of acute renal failure can include all of
the following except:
A. Malignancy
B. Goodpasture syndrome
C. Acute tubular necrosis
D. Renal calculi
34) Most renal calculi are composed of:
35) Lithotripsy is a procedure that is performed to:
Fanconi syndrome
Uromodulin-associated kidney disease
Proximal and distal tubules
D
Acute tubular necrosis
Acute tubular necrosis
Cystitis
The presence of white blood cell casts
Glycosylated protein
Acute pyelonephritis
Chronic pyelonephritis
Acute interstitial nephritis
A
A
Chronic renal failure
B
Calcium
Aid in the remove of renal calculi
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UA Flashcards Unit 2
36) The microscopic hematuria associated with
renal lithiasis is caused by:
37) All of the following may be helpful in
preventing the formation of renal calculi
except:
A. Increased hydration
B. Increased exercise
C. Dietary restrictions
D. Adjustment of urine pH
38) Initial screening for PKU performed on
newborns before their discharge from the
hospital uses a blood sample rather than a
urine sample because:
39) A routine urinalysis is performed on a
specimen that has turned dark after standing
in the laboratory. The urine is acidic and has
negative chemical tests except for the
appearance of a red color on the ketone area
of the reagent strip. One should suspect:
40) A positive Guthrie test is interpreted by
observing:
41) Patients who have unusually fair complexions
can be indicative for phenylketonuria because:
42) A false-positive reaction for urinary ketones
could be present in patients who have:
43) A positive urine Clinitest reaction can be seen
in patients with:
44) Confirmation of maple syrup urine disease is
made on the basis of:
45) A disease that causes large amounts of
branched-chain amino acids to be excreted in
the urine is:
46) Urine with the characteristic odor of “sweaty
feet” and a positive ketone test indicates:
47) Which of the following foods contains
serotonin, which can interfere with 5-HIAA
testing?
48) The presence of maple syrup urine disease is
first suspected by the presence of abnormal
urine:
49) The finding of a “blue diaper” is indicative of a
defect in the metabolism of:
50) Patients who produce kidney stones at an early
age should be tested for the presence of:
51) Porphyrins are intermediary compounds in the
formation of:
52) The specimen of choice when testing for
protoporphyrin is:
53) The most common cause of acquired porphyria
is:
A. Fanconi syndrome
B. Neurologic
Tissue irritation
B
Increased serum phenylalanine can be detected earlier
Melanuria
Bacterial growth occurs around the positive control disc and
the patient disc
Tyrosine is not available for conversion to melanin
Melanuria
A. Alkaptonuria
MS/MS
Maple syrup urine disease
Isovaleric acidemia
Pineapples
Odor
Tryptophan
Cystinuria
Heme
Blood
Lead poisoning
A
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UA Flashcards Unit 2
C. Psychiatric
D. Photosensitivity
54) The presence of porphobilinogen in the urine
can be suspected when:
55) Urine from a child suspected of having lead
poisoning has a red fluorescence under
Wood’s lamp. This finding is:
56) The concept of vampires is associated with:
57) Characteristic urine odors are associated with
all of the following disorders except:
A. Alkaptonuria
B. PKU
C. Maple syrup urine disease
D. Isovaleric acidemia
58) The presence of amino acids is of particular
concern in which population?
59) All of the following can be classified as
metabolic rather than renal disorders except:
A. Tyrosyluria
B. Maple syrup urine disease
C. Cystinuria
D. Indicanuria
60) The presence of “orange sand” in an infant’s
diaper is indicative of:
61) A patient diagnosed with Lesch-Nyhan disease
can have all of the following conditions,
except:
A. Cystinosis
B. Increase in uric acid
C. Self-destructive tendencies
D. Severe motor defects
62) Mental retardation is a symptom of all of the
following except:
A. Hurler’s syndrome
B. Galactosuria
C. PKU
D. Cystinuria
63) Melituria refers to an increase in urinary:
64) GALT deficiency is a disorder affecting the
metabolism of:
Choose the characteristic odor for the following
disorders:
65) Phenylketonuria
66) Cystinosis
67) Isovaleric acidemia
68) Maple syrup urine disease
True/False
69) Failure of a metabolic pathway to reach
completion may be caused by an inborn error
of metabolism
70) Persons diagnosed with PKU should avoid
foods containing the chemical additive
Acidic urine turns a port wine color after standing
Consistent with lead poisoning because coproporphyrin
fluoresces under ultraviolet light
Porphyrias
A
Newborns
C
Lesch-Nyhan disease
A
D
Sugar
Galactose
Mousy
Sulfur
Sweaty feet
Sweet
True
True
4
UA Flashcards Unit 2
aspartame
71) The 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine reaction is the
confirmatory test for maple syrup urine
disease
72) Argentaffin cell tumors produce large amounts
of serotonin
73) Both cystine and leucine crystals are present in
the urine of patients with cystinuria
74) The free erythrocyte protoporphyrin test is the
recommended screening test for lead
poisoning
75) Uric acid crystals are frequently seen in the
urine of pediatric patients.
76) The presence of a massive amount of urinary
calcium oxalate crystals is indicative of LeschNyhan disease
77) A negative reagent strip test for glucose and a
positive Clinitest on a pregnant woman are
associated with gestational diabetes
78) If CSF tubes numbered 2 and 3 cannot be
analyzed within 1 hour, the correct procedure
is to:
79) A xanthochromic CSF specimen will appear:
80) Cell counts on CSF are performed on:
81) A broad spectrum of reactive and nonreactive
lymphocytes in the CSF is associated with:
82) The third tube of CSF collected from a lumbar
puncture shoul be used for:
83) The primary disadvantage in using a
cytocentrifuge to prepare CSF differential
slides is:
84) Nucleated red blood cells (RBCs) seen in the
CSF indicate:
85) White blood cell (WBC) counts on clear CSF
specimens are performed:
86) To determine the WBC count on a cloudy CSF
specimen that contains both RBCs and WBCs, it
is necessary to:
87) An increase in neutrophils with pyknotic nuclei
can be seen in which situation?
88) When using the cytocentrifuge, a daily control
slide of saline and albumin is prepared to
check:
A. The correct centrifuge speed
B. For the presence of WBCs
C. For bacterial contamination
D. The pH of staining buffer
89) Three tubes of CSF are submitted to the
laboratory. They are numbered 1, 2, and 3 and
show blood in all tubes but decreasing in
amount as one inspects tubes 1 through 3. This
False
True
False
True
False
False
False
Refrigerate tube 3 and leave tube 2 at room temperature
Yellow and clear
Cells as they are counted in the hemocytometer
Viral meningitis
Hematology tests
Cellular distortion
Bone marrow contamination from the puncture
On undiluted specimens if there is no cell overlapping
Dilute the specimen using glacial acetic acid
Traumatic tap specimen
C
A traumatic or bloody tap is suspected and, in all likelihood,
no pathogenic significance should be attached to the
presence of the blood
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UA Flashcards Unit 2
observation should be interpreted as:
90) The presence of hemosiderin containing
macrophages in CSF indicates
91) A CSF specimen, in which there is uneven
distribution of blood among the three tubes
and clots are detected, is an indication of:
92) The presence of xanthochromia and an
increased D-dimer test in the CSF is indicative
of:
93) Examination of a CSF shows 1000 WBCs, of
which 75% are lymphocytes and 25% are
monocytes. This finding is consistent with:
94) Damage to the blood-brain barrier by
Mycobacterium tuberculosis may cause the CSF
to:
95) Dilution of CSF prior to performing a total cell
count should be made using:
96) Increased CSF eosinophils are associated with:
97) Melanoma cells in the CSF must be
differentiated from:
98) Conditions that produce elevated CSF protein
include all of the following except:
A. Fluid leakage
B. Meningitis
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Hemorrhage
99) Myelin basic protein is measured in the CSF to
assess the condition of patients with:
100) Measurement of CSF lactate is useful for
monitoring cases of:
101) The CSF/serum albumin index is performed
to determine:
102) To determine if IgG is being produced within
the central nervous system, the laboratory
must calculate the:
103) The lowest levels of CSF lactate can be found
in patients with:
104) Crystals with a bright yellow color seen in
macrophages are called:
105) The presence of increased glutamine in the
CSF can indicate:
106) Gram stains performed on CSF specimens
are helpful in the:
107) Specimens from patients suspected of
having fungal meningitis should be tested with:
108) India ink preparations are useful in the
diagnosis of:
109) When a CSF specimen is received in the
microbiology laboratory, the first thing the
technologist should do is:
110) A questionable India ink preparation on the
CSF from an immunocompromised patient
Cerebral hemorrhage
Traumatic tap
A cerebral hemorrhage
Viral meningitis
Contain a pellicle or clot
Normal saline
Introduction of foreign material
Macrophages containing hemosiderin
A
Multiple sclerosis
Bacterial meningitis
The integrity of the blood-brain barrier
IgG index
Bacterial meningitis
Hematoidin
Reye’s syndrome
Detection of bacterial and fungal meningitis
Gram stain and India ink
Fungal meningitis
Centrifuge the specimen
A cryptococcal antigen test
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UA Flashcards Unit 2
should be further tested using:
111) Which of the following structures contain
one-way valves?
112) A report of many gram-positive cocci on a
clear CSF sample with a normal cell count may
be the result of:
113) A positive cryptococcal antigen test with a
negative India ink preparation may indicate:
114) A false-positive CSF serologic test for
neurosyphilis in a treated patient can occur if:
115) A positive serum FTA-ABS and a negative
VDRL on CSF indicate:
116) A patient previously diagnosed with
acquired immunodeficiency arrives in the
emergency room with symptoms of meningitis.
A lumbar puncture is performed.
Using the information provided, in addition to
Gram stain, what additional testing should be
performed?
117) A patient previously diagnosed with
acquired immunodeficiency arrives in the
emergency room with symptoms of meningitis.
A lumbar puncture is performed.
Based on the information provided, what
diagnostically significant observation might be
made on the Gram stain?
118) A patient previously diagnosed with
acquired immunodeficiency arrives in the
emergency room with symptoms of meningitis. A
lumbar puncture is performed. Based on the
information provided, what type of meningitis
would most probably be suspected in this patient?
119) True or False? Xanthochromic CSF may
appear pink, orange, or yellow.
120) True or False? Neutrophils may be present in
normal CSF.
121) True or False? The formation of clots does
not occur in CSF that does not contain blood.
122) True or False? The presence of macrophages
containing hematoidin crystals indicates a
recent hemorrhage.
123) True or False? Oligoclonal bands are located
in the gamma region of the CSF protein
electrophoresis.
124) True or False? When calculating an IgG
index, the serum albumin concentration must
be converted to milligrams per deciliter.
125) True or False? A CSF lactate level should not
be performed on a xanthochromic specimen.
126) True or False? Bacterial antigen tests have
replaced the Gram stain as the method of
choice for detecting meningitis.
Arachnoid granulations
Use of contaminated albumin in the cytocentrifuge
The presence of rheumatoid factor
Fluid from a traumatic tap is tested by the FTA-ABS test
Successfully treated syphilis
Cryptococcal antigen test
Starburst microbial pattern
Fungal
True
True
False
False
True
False
True
False
7
UA Flashcards Unit 2
127) True or False? The recommended serologic
test for the diagnosis of neurosyphilis is the
rapid plasma reagin test.
128) Semen analysis on postvasectomy patients
should be performed:
129) To determine if a questionable specimen is
semen, the specimen should be tested for:
130) Absence of a normal sperm acrosome can:
131) Yellow color in a semen specimen may be
caused by all of the following except:
A. Urine
B. Preservation at room temperature
C. Medications
D. Prolonged abstinence
132) Normal semen should liquefy:
133) An increased amount of prostatic fluid in a
semen specimen will:
134) If the first portion of the ejaculation is not
collected, which parameter of the semen
analysis is most critically affected?
135) Semen viscosity is most closely related to:
136) Proper collection of a semen specimen
should include all of the following except:
A. In a sterile container
B. After a 3-day period of sexual abstinence
C. At the laboratory followed by 1 hour of
refrigeration
D. At home and delivery to the laboratory within 1
hour
137) Abnormal sperm morphology is determined
by:
138) Before analysis, semen specimens should be:
139) Sperm motility after 1 hour should be at
least:
140) Prior to reporting a postvasectomy specimen
as negative for the presence of sperm, the
specimen must be:
False
141) Sperm can be immobilized before
performing a sperm concentration using all of
the following except:
A. Heat
B. Normal saline
C. Sodium bicarbonate
D. Tap water
142) Evaluation of sperm motility includes:
143) Computer-assisted semen analysis
determines all of the following except:
A. Sperm morphology
B. Sperm count
C. Trajectory of sperm motion
D. Velocity of sperm motility
B
Until two consecutive monthly specimens show no sperm
Acid phosphatase
Affect ovum penetration
B
Within 1 hour
Lower the pH
Sperm concentration
Specimen liquefaction
C
Head and tail morphology and size
Allowed to completely liquefy
50%
Dentrifuged
Differentiation between forward and lateral movement
A
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UA Flashcards Unit 2
144) When performing sperm morphology
analysis, the minimum number of sperm that
should be evaluated is:
145) When using routine morphology criteria, the
normal value is greater than:
146) When using Kruger’s strict morphology
criteria, the normal value is greater than:
147) Semen specimens should be processed for
analysis:
148) The normal sperm concentration is:
149) A yellow semen specimen with a normal
sperm concentration and decreased motility
may contain:
150) When performing sperm morphology
analysis on a semen specimen with a sperm
concentration of 20 million, 10 spermatids are
seen. This result is:
151) A sperm motility report graded 2.0 is
interpreted as:
152) While performing a sperm morphology
examination, a technologist counts 10
neutrophils per 100 mature sperm. To
determine if this observation is significant, the
technologist must also know the:
153) The finding of 3 million neutrophils per
milliliter in a semen specimen is:
154) The purpose of diluting semen specimens
with sodium bicarbonate and formalin before
counting is to:
155) The motility component of a sperm analysis
includes all of the following except evaluation
of the
A. Progressive and Brownian movement
B. Percentage of motile sperm
C. Quality of movement
D. Motility of normal and abnormal sperm
156) Using a 1:20 dilution of semen, a student
counts 70 sperm in the five RBC squares on
one side of the Neubauer hemocytometer and
82 sperm on the other side. The student
should
157) The sugar of interest in most cases of
infertility is
200
158) Development of male antisperm antibodies
can be caused by all of the following except
A. Vasovasostomy
B. Infection
C. Prolonged abstinence
D. Trauma
C
30% normal forms
14% normal forms
After complete liquefaction
20 to 160 million/mL
Urine
Indicative of abnormal sperm maturation
Slow forward motility with noticeable lateral movement
Sperm concentration
Indicative of infection
Immobilize and preserve the sperm
D
Repeat the count
Fructose
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UA Flashcards Unit 2
159) The immunobead test detects
160) Where there is a lack of prostatic fluid, all of
the following chemicals are decreased in the
semen except
A. Alpha-glucosidase
B. Zinc
C. Citrate
D. Acid phosphatase
161) When examining a specimen for the
presence of sperm, the type of microscopy
recommended for use is
162) Sperm function tests include all of the
following except the
A. Hamster egg penetration assay
B. Cervical mucus penetration test
C. Meiosis and mitosis assay
D. In vitro acrosome reaction
163) All of the following can be used to evaluate
continued infertility with a normal sperm
count except
A. Semen fructose level
B. Eosin-nigrosin stain
C. Plasma and semen agglutination
D. Immunobead test
164) A semen specimen in which clumping of
sperm is observed should be further tested
using the
165) Which of the following parameters directly
relates to and provides a check on the sperm
motility evaluation?
166) When an abnormally low sperm count is
encountered in a fertility examination, the
follow-up test of choice is
167) Which of the following is a normal finding in
an eosin-nigrosin stain?
168) Normal semen analyses accompanied by
continued infertility would most probably be
caused by
169) Spermatogenesis takes place in the
170) True/False:
A semen pH of 6.0 is associated with a decrease in
prostatic fluid
171) True/False:
Semen specimens can contain HIV and hepatitis
viruses
172) True/False:
Greater than 1 million spermatids per milliliter
indicates reproductive tract infection
173) True/False:
The size of the acrosome and the presence of
vacuoles are included when sperm morphology is
evaluated using Kruger’s strict criteria
Male antisperm antibodies
A
Phase
C
A
Immunobead test
Viability stain
Female agglutination studies
75% of the cells appear bluish white
Female antisperm antibodies
Seminiferous tubules
False
True
False
True
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UA Flashcards Unit 2
174) True/False:
Slides for evaluation of sperm morphology can be
stained using Papanicolaou stain
True
175) True/False:
The semen analysis is classified as a moderately
complex test by the Clinical Laboratory
Improvement AmendmentsCLIA
176) True/False:
The World Health Organization has standardized
the performance and reporting of semen analysis
177) True/False:
Antisperm antibodies are produced by both males
and females
178) True/False:
The immunobead test will differentiate between
antisperm antibodies directed against the sperm
head and tail
179) All of the following statements on synovial
fluid are true except that it:
A. Surrounds all joints in the body
B. Is found only in the knee
C. Acts as a lubricant
D. Supplies nourishment to cartilage
180) Which of the following descriptions of
synovial fluid does not correlate?
181) Crystals that are found in synovial fluid
during attacks of gout are most likely:
182) In gout, both serum and synovial fluid will
have increased levels of:
183) Synovial fluid is produced by:
184) The concentration of which of the following
chemicals found in synovial fluid differs most
noticeably from the plasma concentration?
185) A turbid synovial fluid with yellow-green
color indicates:
186) All of the following primary cells are seen in
normal synovial fluid except:
A. Macrophages
B. Neutrophils
C. Monocytes
D. Synovial tissue cells
187) All of the following can cause crystals to be
present in the synovial fluid except:
A. Metabolic disorders
B. Increased ingestion of dairy products
C. Degeneration of cartilage
D. Injection of medications
188) A cloudy, yellow-green synovial fluid with
100,000 white blood cells (WBCs), a
predominance of neutrophils, and a decreased
glucose should be classified as:
False
True
True
True
B
Sepsis: uniform blood
Monosodium urate
Uric acid
Ultrafiltration of plasma
Protein
Infection
B
B
Septic
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UA Flashcards Unit 2
189) An arthrocentesis is performed on a patient
with lupus erythematosus that produces a
cloudy yellow fluid with 2000 WBCs, of which
55% is neutrophils. This fluid should be
classified as:
190) A clear, pale yellow synovial fluid with good
viscosity and a WBC count of 1000 should be
classified as:
191) To determine if an unknown fluid is synovial
fluid, the fluid can be tested:
192) A milky-appearing synovial fluid can be
associated with the presence of:
193) Which of the following crystals would most
likely be present in conjunction with calcium
pyrophosphate crystals in synovial fluid?
194) The recommended diluting fluid for synovial
fluid cell counts is:
195) Neutrophils that contain precipitated
rheumatoid factor in their cytoplasm are
called:
196) All of the following are tests frequently
performed on synovial fluid except:
A. Gram stain
B. WBC count
C. Uric acid
D. Differential
197) Vacuolated macrophages containing
ingested neutrophils seen in synovial fluid are
called:
198) Before performing a cell count on highly
viscous synovial fluid, it may be necessary to
incubate the fluid with:
199) In the Ropes’ or mucin clot test, normal
synovial fluid:
200) Synovial fluid for crystal examination should
be:
201) Crystals that appear to be rhombic-shaped
and are blue when aligned with the slow
vibration of red compensated polarized light
are:
202) Delayed analysis of synovial fluid affects the
results of all of the following tests except the:
A. Mucin clot test
B. Glucose
C. Crystal examination
D. WBC count
203) The presence of neutrophils containing dark
granules in the synovial fluid is associated with:
204) Crystals frequently seen in patients’ joints
with chronic inflammation are:
205) In addition to routine culture media,
synovial fluid cultures should include:
Inflammatory
Noninflammatory
By adding acetic acid and observing clot formation
Monosodium urate crystals
Hydroxyapatite
Saline
Ragocytes
C
Reiter’s cells
Hyaluronidase
Forms a solid clot when added to glacial acetic acid
Examined unstained under direct and red compensated
polarized light
Calcium pyrophosphate
A
Rheumatoid arthritis
Cholesterol
Chocolate agar
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UA Flashcards Unit 2
206) All of the following diseases are frequently
associated with joint disorders except:
A. Lyme disease
B. Tuberculosis
C. Lupus erythematosus
D. Rheumatoid arthritis
207) Based on the information provided, what is
the significance of the blood-streaked fluid?
208) Based on the information provided, what
type of diluting fluid should be used for the
WBC count?
209) Vacuolated macrophages containing
ingested neutrophils are called:
B
210) Fat droplets seen in synovial fluid are
associated with:
211) Synovial fluid crystals seen in patients
undergoing renal dialysis most commonly are:
212) True/False: Synovial fluid viscosity is caused
by the presence of filtered serum proteins.
213) True/False: The polymerization of hyaluronic
acid is decreased when arthritis is present.
214) True/False: Monosodium urate crystals may
be present in synovial fluid from patients
receiving chemotherapy for leukemia.
215) True/False: Automated cell counters should
not be used for synovial fluid cell counts.
216) True/False: The predominant cell in normal
synovial fluid is the lymphocyte.
217) True/False: Monosodium urate crystals are
found both extracellularly and intracellularly.
218) True/False: Red compensated polarized
microscopy separates light into slow and fast
rays.
219) True/False: Synovial fluid should be routinely
cultured for the presence of Borrelia
burgdorferi.
220) True/False: Normal synovial fluid glucose
values are 60% to 70% of the blood glucose.
221) Peritoneal lavage is performed to:
222) Exudate fluids usually result from:
223) The pathologic accumulation of fluid in a
body cavity is termed a/an:
224) Which of the following is most often
associated with the formation of a transudate?
225) The cells lining the pleural cavities are
primarily:
226) The function of serous fluid is to:
Crush injuries and Chronic inflammation
Traumatic collection
Hypotonic saline
Reiter’s cells
Calcium oxalate
False
True
True
False
False
True
True
False
False
Detect intra-abdominal bleeding
Inflammation of the serous membrane
Effusion
Congestive heart failure
Mesothelial cells
Provide lubrication for the serous membranes
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UA Flashcards Unit 2
227) Production of serous fluid is controlled by all
of the following except:
A. Lymphatic secretions
B. Hydrostatic pressure
C. Oncotic pressure
D. Capillary permeability
228) Peritoneal fluid is collected by a procedure
called:
229) Serous fluid effusions may result from all of
the following except:
A. Congestive heart failure
B. Lymphatic obstruction
C. Increased capillary permeability
D. Dehydration
230) A pleural fluid delivered to the laboratory on
ice would be accompanied by a requisition to
test for:
231) Pleural fluid can be better classified as to
transudative or exudative origin by performing
a:
A
232) A decrease in the number of mesothelial
cells seen on a pleural fluid differential
indicates:
233) A decrease in the number of mesothelial
cells seen on a pleural fluid differential
indicates:
234) All of the following are unique
characteristics of malignant cells except:
A. Hyperchromatic nucleoli
B. Cytoplasmic molding
C. Cellular clumping
D. Abnormal nuclear-to-cytoplasm ratios
235) Elevated pleural fluid amylase can be
indicative of all of the following except:
A. Pancreatitis
B. Esophageal rupture
C. Tuberculosis
D. Malignancy
236) A blood-streaked pericardial exudate with an
increased amount of neutrophils is indicative :
237) Structures seen in peritoneal fluid that may
be associated with either benign or malignant
conditions are:
238) A fluid obtained by thoracentesis has a
cholesterol result of 100 mg/dL. This would be
classified as a/an:
239) Differentiation between a hemothorax and a
hemorrhagic effusion on a bloody pleural fluid
is done by:
240) A pleural fluid pH of less than 6.0 is
Tuberculosis
Paracentesis
D
pH
Fluid-to-serum cholesterol ratio
Tuberculosis
C
C
Bacterial endocarditis
Psammoma bodies
Pleural exudate
Performing a hematocrit value, because a hemothorax will
give a value close to that of blood
Esophageal rupture
14
UA Flashcards Unit 2
indicative of:
241) Requests for amylase and alkaline
phosphatase determinations on ascitic fluid
are received in suspected cases of:
242) Which of the following tests is valuable in
the diagnosis of esophageal rupture?
243) A milky pleural fluid that stains strongly
positive with Sudan III indicates:
244) A milky, green-tinged pleural fluid:
245) A pericardial exudate from a patient
diagnosed with AIDS might be tested with:
246) The test performed on peritoneal lavage
fluid is the:
247) An ascitic fluid absolute neutrophil count of
1000/µL is most indicative of:
248) A screening test performed on a cloudy,
green ascitic fluid would be a/an:
249) What is the significance of an ascitic fluid
exudate with a positive CA 125 and a negative
CEA?
250) What is the significance of a peritoneal fluid
with an elevated creatinine level?
251) What is the significance of a pleural fluid
with a hematocrit value of 30% (blood
hematocrit: 34%)?
252) Increased serous fluid can be caused by all of
the following except:
A. Lymphatic obstruction
B. Inflammation
C. Increased plasma sodium
D. Increased hydrostatic pressure
253) The finding of a mesothelioma cell in
pericardial fluid is indicative of:
254) Normal values for chemistry tests on serous
fluid are different from values obtained on
serum.
255) Transudate serous fluid effusions are a
complication of the nephrotic syndrome.
256) Additional testing is most frequently
performed on transudates rather than
exudates.
257) A significant finding in a serous effusion is an
increase in mesothelial cells.
258) Reactive mesothelial cells indicate a
malignant effusion.
259) Pleural fluid amylase is elevated in cases of
pancreatitis.
Gastrointestinal perforations
Pleural fluid pH
Thoracic duct leakage
Stains weakly with Sudan III
An acid-fast stain
RBC count
Bacterial peritonitis
Ictotest
Ovarian malignancy
Ruptured bladder
Hemothorax
C
Metastatic malignancy
False
True
False
False
False
True
15
UA Flashcards Unit 2
260) Amniotic fluid is formed by all of the
following except:
A. Fetal urine
B. Fetal cell metabolism
C. Fetal swallowing
D. Transfer of water across the placenta
261) A dark green amniotic fluid is associated
with:
262) A primary function of amniotic fluid is to:
263) The volume of amniotic fluid increases after
the first trimester as a result of:
264) Amniotic fluid for fetal lung maturity testing
should be preserved:
265) A dark yellow amniotic fluid is caused by:
266) Measurement of amniotic fluid creatinine
levels can be used to:
267) To differentiate between maternal and fetal
blood in blood-streaked amniotic fluid, the
fluid is tested for
268) The presence of a fetal neural tube disorder
may be detected by:
269) An increased level of alpha fetoprotein in
amniotic fluid should be further tested for:
270) Hemolytic disease of the newborn is caused
by:
271) Analysis of amniotic fluid bilirubin levels is
performed using:
272) Alpha fetoprotein is produced by the fetal:
273) The purpose of plotting amniotic fluid
bilirubin on a Liley graph is to
274) Hemolytic disease of the newborn
endangers the fetus by:
275) The A450 of an amniotic fluid is plotted in
zone 3 of a Liley graph. The physician should:
276) Interference with the amniotic fluid
bilirubin analysis on centrifuged fluid is most
likely caused by:
277) The foam, or shake, test is a screening test
for amniotic fluid:
278) In the determination of fetal lung maturity,
which of the following components is
produced by the body at the 35th week of
gestation?
279) Amniotic fluid tests for determining fetal
lung maturity include
280) Decreased levels of phosphatidyl glycerol in
amniotic fluid can be associated with:
281) The test for amniotic fluid lamellar bodies
uses which of following?
282) The Amniostat agglutination test is
performed on amniotic fluid from pregnant
women to detect the presence of:
C
Meconium
Provide protection for the fetus
Production of fetal urine
In the refrigerator
Bilirubin
Differentiate between amniotic fluid and maternal urine
Fetal hemoglobin
Increased maternal serum alpha fetoprotein
Acetylcholinesterase
Maternal antibodies
Spectrophotometry
Liver
Determine further treatment
Destroying fetal RBCs
Request testing for fetal lung maturity
Oxyhemoglobin
Surfactants
Phosphatidyl glycerol
L/S ratio and lamellar bodies
Hyaline membrane disorder SS
An automated cell counter
Phosphatidyl glycerol
16
UA Flashcards Unit 2
283) The most frequent concern of premature
Lungs
delivery is underdevelopment of the:
284) The principle of the shake test and foam
Reduce the surface tension of an alcoholic solution
stability index is that phospholipids:
285) Lamellar bodies contain:
Phospholipids
286) When an L/S ratio by thin-layer chromatographyLecithin
is
twice as concentrated as sphingomyelin
performed, a mature fetal lung will show
287) The method of choice for testing amniotic
Amniostat
fluid contaminated with hemoglobin for fetal
lung maturity is:
288) The test of choice for testing amniotic fluid
Amniostat-FLM
from a diabetic patient for fetal lung
maturity is the
289) A fern test is performed to differentiate
Urine and amniotic fluid
between:
290) Failure of the fetus to begin swallowing will
Polyhydramnios
result in:
291) The volume of amniotic fluid is regulated by
True
fetal swallowing.
292) Amniotic fluid for cytogenetic analysis
False
should be delivered to the laboratory in ice.
293) Meconium is composed of bowel
True
constituents
294) Acetylcholinesterase testing can be
False
performed on amniotic fluid containing blood,
if the specimen is centrifuged.
295) Production of both lecithin and
False
sphingomyelin increases after 35 weeks
gestation.
296) Most laboratories detect the presence of
False
phosphatidylglycerol using thin-layer
chromatography.
297) When performing the foam stability index,
True
amniotic fluid is mixed with ethanol.
298) Pneumocytes in the fetal lungs produce
True
lamellar bodies.
299) Lamellar bodies are approximately the same False
size as red blood cells.
300) The normal brown color of the feces is
Stercobilin
produced by:
301) Stools from persons with steatorrhea
Fat
contain excess amounts of:
302) Which of the following pairings of stool
Yellow-green: barium sulfate
appearance and cause does not match?
303) A black, tarry looking stool is indicative of:
Upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding
304) A pale, frothy looking stool is indicative of:
Excess fat
17
UA Flashcards Unit 2
305) All of the following are secreted into the
small intestine by the pancreas except:
A. Bile salts
B. Chymotrypsin
C. Lipase
D. Elastase 1
306) The recommended specimen for
quantitative fecal testing is a:
307) The presence of amebic dysentery may be
suspected when a stool:
308) The unpleasant odor associated with fecal
analysis is caused primarily by:
309) Diarrhea can result from all of the following
except:
A. Disruption of the normal intestinal bacterial flora
B. Addition of pathogenic organisms to the normal
intestinal flora
C. Increased reabsorption of intestinal water and
electrolytes
D. Increased concentration of fecal electrolytes
310) Large orange-red droplets seen on direct
microscopic examination of stools that have
been mixed with Sudan III stain can represent:
311) Microscopic examination of stools mixed
with Sudan III stain, glacial acetic acid, and
then heated will show small orange-red
droplets that represent:
312) When performing microscopic examination
of a stool for muscle fibers, the structures that
are counted:
313) Crystals seen in a stool after it has been
mixed with acetic acid, Sudan III stain, and
heated may be composed of:
314) Wet preparations for the detection of fecal
neutrophils are stained with
315) Microscopic examination of stools for fecal
cells provides preliminary information as to the
cause of diarrhea because:
316) Increased neutrophils in a stool sample may
indicate that the patient has which of the
following?
317) A positive lactoferrin latex agglutination test
can indicate which of the following?
318) The term occult blood in fecal analysis can
indicate which of the following?
319) A negative trypsin test on a fecal sample can
indicate which of the following?
A
72-hour specimen
Is coated with blood-streaked mucus
Bacterial metabolism
C
Neutral fats
Fatty acids, soaps, and neutral fats
Have vertical and horizontal striations
Cholesterol
Methylene blue
Neutrophils are present in conditions that affect the
intestinal wall
Salmonella infection
Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli
Blood that is not visibly apparent in the stool specimen
Pancreatic insufficiency
18
UA Flashcards Unit 2
320) To prevent false-positive fecal occult blood
results, patients should be instructed to avoid
eating all of the following for 3 days before
testing except:
A. Horseradish
B. Chicken
C. Melons
D. Red meat
321) Before and during collection of a sample for
quantitative fecal fats, a patient should:
322) The coefficient of fat retention should be at
least:
323) The most sensitive fecal enzyme test for the
diagnosis of pancreatic insufficiency measures:
324) A bloody stool from a neonate should be
emulsified in water, centrifuged, and the
supernatant tested with:
325) Tests for the detection of occult blood rely
on which chemical reaction?
326) In the Van de Kamer method for quantitative
fecal fat determinations, fecal lipids are:
327) A patient whose stool exhibits increased
fats, undigested muscle fibers, and the inability
to digest gelatin may have:
328) A stool pH of 5.0 correlates with a:
329) A bloody stool produced by a newborn
should:
330) False-negative results for upper GI bleeding
can be caused by:
331) When performing the Apt test, a pink color
that remains in the supernatant during testing
indicates:
332) What is the significance of the pale, frothy
stool?
333) The absence of what substance most likely
accounts for increased orange droplets?
334) What is the condition indicated by increased
orange droplets?
335) How long should the slide for muscle fibers
sit before being examined?
336) An Apt test performed on a black, tarry stool
is negative for fetal hemoglobin.
337) In the evaluation of a stool specimen, the
results were abnormal in the trypsin test and
normal in a chymotrypsin test.
338) Quantitative fecal fat testing performed on a
patient maintained on a diet of 100 g of fat per
day is 5 g per day. The coefficient of fat
retention is reported as normal.
339) An unusual number of positive occult blood
tests are reported by a new employee in a
satellite clinic.
B
Consume 100 g of fat per day
95%
Elastase 1
NaOH
Pseudoperoxidase activity of hemoglobin
Converted to fatty acids before titrating with sodium
hydroxide
Cystic fibrosis
Positive Clinitest
Have an Apt test performed on it
Degradation of hemoglobin to porphyrin
The presence of fetal hemoglobin
Biliary obstruction
Bile salts
Steatorrhea
5 minutes
Concerned; patients may not be receiving dietary
instructions
Not concerned; 95% retention is normal
Not concerned; 95% retention is normal
Concerned; patients may not be receiving dietary
instructions
19
UA Flashcards Unit 2
340) The electrolyte content of normal feces is
similar to that of plasma.
341) Microbial infections produce osmotic
diarrhea.
342) A stool that appears black and tarry may be
associated with bismuth ingestion
343) The neutral fat and split fat stains are
confirmatory tests for steatorrhea.
344) Staphylococcal food poisoning produces
secretory diarrhea and increased fecal
neutrophils.
345) The guaiac test detects both hemoglobin
and porphyrin.
346) The Apt test should not be performed on a
black, tarry stool.
347) True or False? The D-xylose and lactose
tolerance tests are abnormal in persons with
malabsorption or maldigestion disorders.
348) True or False? Steatorrhea is seen in
association with decreased elastase 1 in the
feces.
349) Which of the following is the most likely
reason a physician would collect vaginal fluid
for analysis?
350) Which of the following vaginitis conditions is
of a noninfectious origin?
351) A vaginal secretion collection can be
performed to help for all of the following
except:
A. Determine causative agent
B. Avoid reinfection
C. Prevent pregnancy
D. Provide a basis for treatment
352) Vaginal secretion collection kits are specific
for which of the following?
353) Which of the following specimen handling
combinations is incorrect?
354) A vaginal fluid collection kit is dropped off in
the laboratory for analysis and the technologist
notices condensation inside the biohazard bag.
Which of the following tests cannot be
performed?
355) You receive a call from a physician’s practice
asking about “extra swabs” for a vaginal
secretions collection for Neisseria possible
infection. Which of the following swabs cannot
be used and why?
356) Which of the following secretion
combinations are considered to be normal?
357) A vaginal fluid was collected from a 25-yearold female that showed the following results:
appearance is pink with flocculent discharge,
True
False
True
False
False
False
True
True
True
Vaginitis
Chemical irritation
C
For the organism sought
Herpes simplex virus (HSV): room temperature
Trichomonas motility testing
Sterile wood shaft swabs with cotton because they are toxic
to Neisseria
White, flocculent discharge
Patient is normal and is menstruating
20
UA Flashcards Unit 2
pH is 3.9, whiff test is negative, many Grampositive rods, clue cells are absent. What is
your interpretation of these results?
358) When testing for vaginal pH, the health-care
provider collecting the sample should:
359) A vaginal pH value of 6.0 could indicate
which of the following conditions?
360) Which of the following conditions is not
likely if a vaginal pH value is greater than 4.5?
361) Based on the following description, identify
the cell: a large irregular shaped cell that
ranges from 25 to 70 microns in diameter with
a prominent central nucleus that is 8–10
microns in size, a cytoplasm that contains no
granules, with “shaggy” borders.
362) Which diagnostic test uses a 10% solution of
potassium hydroxide to detect the
volatilization of amines to produce a distinctive
odor?
363) Which of the following bacterial
characteristics best describes the “normal
flora” found in a vaginal specimen?
364) Normal flora is predominantly of which
genus?
365) Of the following organisms, which one
requires DNA probe amplified by the
polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?
366) All of the following cellular elements are
seen in patients with desquamative
inflammatory vaginitis, except:
A. Clue cells
B. Basal cells
C. Red blood cells
D. White blood cells
367) All of the following cellular elements can be
seen in patients with candidiasis, except:
A. Clue cells
B. White blood cells
C. Epithelial cells
D. Budding yeast
368) A female patient presents to her OB/GYN
with the following complaints: genital itching,
dysuria, and an abnormal looking white
“chunky” substance on her undergarments.
The immediate next step the physician should
take is:
369) The fetal fibronectin test is used to
determine which of the following conditions?
370) The test for placental alpha-1 microglobulin
protein is used to determine:
Place the specimen on the pH paper before placing swab
into the saline solution
Bacterial infection
Vulvovaginal candidiasis
Clue cell
Whiff test
Gram-positive large rods
Lactobacillus sp
Trichomonas vaginalis
A
A
Perform a saline wet prep
Preterm delivery
Fetal membrane rupture
21