Indian Institute of Technology Guwahati Solution to Tutorial Sheet-2 July-Nov 2015 semester MA 521, Modern Algebra Instructor: Shyamashree Upadhyay Ans 1: Since 0(π) = 12 & 0(π) = 22, therefore | < π > | = 12 &| < π > | = 22 Now < π >∩< π > is a subgroup of both < π > and < π > Therefore,0(< π >∩< π >) must divide | < π > | = 12 as well as | < π > | = 22 [Lagrange’s theorem ] The only common divisors of 12 & 22 are 1 and 2. Since < π >∩< π >≠ {π}, therefore it follows that 0(< π >∩< π >) = 2 Ans 2: If π + ππ and π + ππ ∈ π», then (π + ππ)(π + ππ)−1 = (ππ + ππ) + π(ππ − ππ) πππ(ππ + ππ)2 + (ππ − ππ)2 = 1, So that π» is a subgroup. π» is the unit circle in the complex plane ( geometrically). Ans 3: π» is not a subgroup 1 2 [ 0 0 0 ] = [ 2 1 ] is not in π» 2 0 2 Ans 4: Let π = {π₯ ∈⊄∗| π₯ π = 1} Then π = {πππ 2ππ π + π sin 2ππ |0 π ≤ π < π}[ Easy to check!] Now let π and π belong to π, say 2ππ 2ππ + π sin π π 2ππ 2ππ cos π + π sin π for some integers π, π 2π(π−π) 2∏(π−π) + π sin [Easy to check!] π π π = cos and π = Then π −1 = cos such that 0 ≤ π, π < π. And ππ −1 = cos 2π (π π + π − π) + π sin 2π (π π + π − π) Let π&π be the quotient and remainder upon dividing π + π − π by π It is then easy to check that cos 2π (π π + π − π) = cos 2∏π π and sin 2π (π π + π − π)sin 2ππ π Where 0 ≤ π < π. Hence ππ ∈ π for any π, π ∈ π. (proved) Therefore, by one-step subgroup test, π is π subgroup of ⊄β −1 Ans 5: β(π) = {π₯ ∈ πΊ|π₯π = ππ₯} Let π₯, π¦ ∈ β(π) Then π₯π = ππ₯ and π¦π = ππ¦ Since π¦π = ππ¦, we have π = π¦ −1 ππ¦ βΉ ππ¦ −1 = π¦ −1 π Now π₯π¦ −1 π = π₯(ππ¦ −1 ) = (π₯π)π¦ −1 = ππ₯π¦ −1 (proved) Hence π₯π¦ −1 ∈ β(π)∀π₯, π¦ ∈ β(π) Therefore, by one-step subgroup test,β(π) is a subgroup of πΊ. Ans 6: The center Z(πΊ) of a group πΊ is defined as Z(πΊ) = {π₯ ∈ πΊ|π₯π = ππ₯∀π ∈ πΊ} Proof of the fact that π΅(πΊ) ≤ πΊ is similar to the proof in π5 Ans 7: (π’) 0 β ([ 1 π = {[ π π = {[ π 1 π π π π 0 ]) = {[ ] ∈ πΊπΏ(2,1π ) |[ ][ 0 π π π π 1 π π π π π ] ∈ πΊπΏ (2,1π | [ ]=[ ]} π π π π π π ] ∈ πΊπΏ(2,1π )|π = π, π = π} π 1 0 1 π ]=[ ][ 0 1 0 π π ]} π (ii) π₯ π¦ π π π₯ π¦ π π π π₯ π¦ ] ∈ πΊπΏ(2, π )| [ ][ ]=[ ][ ]∀[ ] ∈ πΊπΏ(2,1π )} π’ π£ π π π’ π£ π π π π’ π£ ππ₯ + ππ’ ππ¦ + ππ£ π₯ π¦ ππ₯ + ππ¦ ππ₯ + ππ¦ π π = {[ ] ∈ πΊπΏ(2, π )| [ ]=[ ]∀[ ] ∈ πΊπΏ(2,1π )} π’ π£ ππ₯ + ππ’ ππ¦ + ππ£ π π ππ’ + ππ£ ππ’ + ππ£ Now ππ₯ + ππ’ = ππ₯ + ππ¦ βΉ ππ’ = ππ¦ π₯ π¦ Since our choice of [ ] ∈ πΊπΏ(2,1π )is arbitrary, we see that ππ’ = ππ¦ must hold true for any choice of π’ π£ π₯ π¦ [ ] π’ π£ π₯ π¦ 1 1 Let us take [ ]=[ ] π’ π£ 0 1 Then ππ’ = ππ¦ βΉ 0 = π π₯ π¦ 1 0 Similarly, taking [ ]=[ ], we get π = 0 π’ π£ 1 1 Together ,we get π = π = 0 π π(πΊ) = {[ π π₯ π¦ Now since our choice of [ ] ∈ πΊπΏ(2, π ) is arbitrary, therefore ππ¦ + ππ£ = ππ₯ + ππ¦ and π = π = 0 π’ π£ together give π = π π 0 Therefore Z(πΊ) = {( ) |π ∈ 1π , π ≠ 0} 0 π It is easy to check that for any πΆ ∈ πΊπΏ(2, π ),and for any π ≠ 0 π 0 1 0 π 0 πΆ( ) = ππΆ ( ) = π( ) πΆ (Proved) 0 π 0 1 0 π Ans 8: Let π = π(π₯ −1 ππ₯) Then π is the smallest positive integer such that (π₯ −1 ππ₯)π = π That is, π₯ −1 ππ π₯ = π Clearly, (π₯ −1 ππ₯)10 = π βΉ π(π₯ −1 ππ₯) divides 10 So, π = 10 is one possibility of π(π₯ −1 ππ₯) If π < 10, then π₯ −1 ππ π₯ = π βΉ ππ = π, which is a contradiction since π(π) = 10 Hence π = 10. Ans 9: Let π be an odd prime. Let πΊ be a group with exactly π elements of order π. let g be one of those elements. Then the cyclic subgroup generated by π has π − 1 generators, nameles, π, π2 , . . . ππ−1 each of which has order π. Thus there exists one more element in πΊ of order π, say π₯, such the π₯ is not a power of π But then π₯ , π₯ 2 , . . . . π₯ π−1 all have order π, and all generate the same subgroup < π₯ > Observe that the sets {π, π2 , . . . , ππ−1 } and {π₯, π₯ 2 , . . . , π₯ π−1 } are disjoint So, πΊ must have at least 2 π − 2 many elements of order π. Since π is an odd prime. 2 π − 2 > π, a contradiction. Ans 10: Let π ∈ πΊ be such that π ≠ π. since πΊ is finite, π(π) = π > 1. Let $p$ be a prime factor of n and let n=mp. Observe that o(ππ ) = π. (proved). Ans 11: It may not be true that π(π) = π(π) Because let πΊ = π2 = {0 ,1} Let π = 0, π = 1 2 Then π = 0, π 2 = 0 So, π(π2 ) = π(π 2 ) = 1 But π(π) = 1 ≠ 2 = π(π). Ans 12. In view of the two-step subgroup test, we only need to show that π−1 ∈ π whenever π ∈ π. If π = π, then π−1 = π and we are done If π ≠ π, then consider the sequence π, π2 , π3 ,. . . . . Since π is finite and closed under the group multiplication, we get that all positive powers of π are in π and not all of these positive powers of π are distinct. Say ππ = π π for some π > π Then ππ−π = π Since π ≠ π, we have π − π > 1. Thus ππ−π = π. ππ−π−1 = π Therefore, ππ−π−1 = π−1 But π − π − 1 ≥ 1 βΉ ππ−π−1 ∈ π and we are done. Ans 13: (i) Easy to prove (ii) Let πΊ = π, π» = 2π, πΎ = 3π Then π» ∪ πΎ is not a subgroup of πΊ because 3,2 ∈ π» ∪ πΎ but 5=2+3 ∉ π» ∪ πΎ (iii) β Let π, π ∈ β π»π . Then π ∈ π»π for some π and π ∈ π»π for some π π=1 Let π = max (π , π) Since π»1 ⊆ π»3 ⊆ . . . . . is a chain , it now follows π , π ∈ π»π Now π»π is a subgroup βΉ ππ −1 ∈ π»π β ππ −1 ∈ β π»π π=1 Hence by one − step subgroup test, we are done END