MCB4211 Fall 2011 PRACTICE FINAL
Instructions: Circle the BEST answer from the choices available. Be sure to read all of the alternatives. Make sure to fill
in the correct circle completely, and to erase all stray marks on the computerized bubble sheet.
1. What effect should the expression of a single chain antibody specific for gp120 in a patient’s T lymphocyte cytoplasm
have on the immune system of an AIDS patient?
a. The antibody might serve to block the fusion of mature HIV-1 viral particles to the helper T cell
membrane, and inhibit the progression of AIDS.
b. This antibody might bind to the newly synthesized gp120 and block the insertion of gp120 in patient plasma
membranes, thus preventing multinucleated cell formation.
c. This antibody might bind to CD3 molecules and activate T cell differentiation.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
2. How might you ensure the survival of a xenograft in a human patient?
a. Irradiate the individual’s primary and secondary lymphoid organs.
b. Surgically remove the peritoneal lymph nodes from the individual.
c. Inject adjuvant into several subcutaneous sites.
d. Inject the patient with IL-2.
e. None of the above.
3. Swelling and reddening that develops a day or more after exposure to the poison ivy is an example of what form of
immune activity?
a. Asthma
b. Allergy
c. Type III (immune complex) hypersensitivity.
d. Type IV hypersensitivity.
e. None of the above.
4. Antibodies that bind to receptors on the plasma membrane can cause disease by
a. Activating complement and causing cell lysis
b. Blocking normal ligand binding to the receptor
c. Providing persistent stimulation through the receptor that is not regulated normally
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
5. Neoplasia requires that cells develop the capacity to exceed the Hayflick limit. One way to do this is by increasing the
level of an enzyme that maintains chromosome stability. This enzyme is
a. caspase.
b. aspartame
c. telomerase
d. invertase.
e. DNAse.
6. Pre-existing immunity to an allograft can mediate an immune response that is so fast it prevents
a. the production of serum complement proteins.
b. anti-viral immunity.
c. angiogeneisis that supports tissue nutrient delivery.
d. smooth muscle tissue formation.
e. all of the above.
7. Tumor specific transplantation antigens include those that are expressed
a. On all normal tissues.
b. in some fetal tissues and on certain tumor cells.
c. on Salmonella typhimurium.
d. only on normal stem cells.
e. all of the above.
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MCB4211 Fall 2011 PRACTICE FINAL
8. What evidence shows that transplant tissue rejection is an immunological phenomenon?
a. serum proteins are needed to glue transplanted skin to the graft site
b. transplanted kidneys must be placed in anatomically correct locations for proper function to occur.
c. treatment with injected IL-2 can initiate a cytokine storm
d. prior transplantation with tissue from the same allogeneic source will elicit a second set rejection.
e. all of the above
9. Immunodeficiency can result from
a. Nutritional deficits
b. Exposure to toxic chemicals
c. Irradiation
d. Primary gene defects
e. All of the above
10. The Ames assay measures the mutagenic potential of chemical compounds. The reason for the “fairy ring”
distribution of the bacterial colonies that can now synthesize histidine is
a. that these bacteria have been placed in a local concentration of mutagen that has a high enough
probability of causing a back-mutation of the histidine operon, but which is not so concentrated to induce
lethal numbers of mutations
b. this is the only location in the bacterial lawn where the liver microsomes convert non-mutagens to their active
form
c. this is the pattern used to spread the Salmonella across the petri dish.
d. that the single chain antibodies prevent growth elsewhere in the plate of bacteria
e. none of the above
11. Proto-oncogenes are normal genes that can be converted to oncogenes. Which of these gene types is not a protooncogene type?
a. tyrosine kinase genes
b. growth factor receptor genes
c. phosphatase genes
d. transcription factor genes
e. chemokine genes
12. Protease inhibitors are capable of decreasing the speed of HIV-1 viral replication
a. by interfering with the HIV-1 fusion with the target cell membrane
b. by interfering with HIV-1 uncoating within the infected cell
c. by interfering with proviral integration into host chromosomes
d. by interfering with HIV-1 protein restructuring as the viral particle matures
e. by interfering with the successful synthesis of viral DNA by reverse transcriptase
13. A number of specific mutations can cause primary immunodeficiencies in mice and humans. One example in humans
specifically leads to a defect in the normal development of the thymus and produces an immunodeficiency similar to the
nude mouse. The resulting phenotype is a defect in T cell maturation and subsequently T-dependent acquired immunity.
This mutation in humans is commonly called…
a. DiGeorge syndrome
b. Chediak-Higashi syndrome
c. SCID
d. albino
e. Wiscott-Aldrich syndrome
14. Toxic chemicals can be attached to a monoclonal antibody for use in the treatment of cancer. When Ricin A is
attached to an antibody specific to a tumor-specific transplantation antigen
a. the antibodies can cause the accumulation of the attached Ricin A at the surface of the cancer cell, but
cannot kill the tumor cell without the presence of Ricin B
b. it can irradiate the tumor and kill it.
c. the antibody can make the Ricin accumulate in the blood plasma
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
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15. Down-regulation of CCR5 is potentially valuable in the treatment of HIV infection because
a. it reduces the efficiency of viral replication by slowing viral uptake by target cells
b. it makes cells move more slowly in an infectious environment
c. it increases the production of chemokines that stimulate cell movement
d. it activates complement mediate lysis of virally infected cells
e. it renders the animal more susceptible to viral infections
16. Agents that cause mutation are often carcinogens. Why?
a. Mutations in a gene responsible for cell cycle regulation can increase the rate of secondary mutations in the
cells
b. Mutations in a gene responsible for chromosome length and stability can eliminate the Hayflick limit for that
cell.
c. Mutations can eliminate a cell’s sensitivity to contact inhibition signals
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
18. Lymphocytes can be harvested from an allograft recipient (“mouse A” that has been previously engrafted with “Mouse
C “tissue) and transplanted to a host (“Mouse B”) that is syngeneic to the recipient mouse A. If the transplanted
“mouse A” lymphocytes are treated with anti-CD8 antibody plus complement before injection into the syngenic
“Mouse B” recipient,
a. transplanted tissue from the same “Mouse C” allograft donor to that syngeneic recipient will be rejected faster
than if the adoptively transplanted lymphocytes had been left untreated before injection
b. there will be no significant effect of the anti-CD8 antibody treatment
c. the syngeneic lymphocytes will not survive in the Mouse A recipient, so the Mouse C donor tissue will be
rejected as a “first set” rejection
d. there will be polyclonal activation of B cells
e. None of the above (A-D) will happen.
19. Where possible, donor blood is removed from donor transplant tissue to
a. reduce the number of passenger leukocytes that may provoke GVH disease
b. reduce the weight of the transplanted tissue
c. eliminate the potential for the tissue to slip from the transplant site during surgery
d. reduce the opportunity for clot formation in the recipient
e. all of the above
20. Which of the following therapies would NOT be likely to enhance graft survival in graft recipients?
a. Total lymphoid irradiation
b. Immunosuppressive drugs
c. Elimination of passenger leukocytes from the transplanted tissue
d. Blocking monoclonal antibodies (against IL-2R, for example)
e. Injection with complete Freund’s adjuvant
21. T cell activation that results in signaling cascades can produce increase cytoplasmic calcium levels. A result of this
calcium release is
a. immediate antibody synthesis begins.
b. the cleavage of PIP2 into IP3 and Diacylglycerol.
c. The multimerization of T cell receptors.
d. T cell lysis.
e. Activation of calcineurin-mediated dephosphorylation.
22. The demonstration that there was little polymorphism in the Tasmanian devil population included what
measurements?
a. Measurements of size and weight to show there was little difference between devils
b. Assessment of the allotypes of antibodies in individual devils to show that they were the same
c. 2-way Mixed lymphocyte reactions to show devil similarity
d. Sequencing of the T cell receptors of Tasmanian devils showed a single V chain
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e. Demonstration that there was no agglutination of one devil’s blood with another devil’s serum
23. The siRNA used to treat HIV infection in the humanized mice had to be inserted into infected cells. What mechanism
was used to bring the siRNA into the cell in the experiments described in Kumar, P.. et. al. “T Cell-Specific siRNA
Delivery Suppresses HIV-1 Infection in Humanized Mice.” Cell, 2008. 134:577-586?
a. The target cells were electroporated.
b. The siRNA was attached to a camel single chain anti-M.furfur antibody
c. The siRNA was attached to a single chain anti-CD7 antibody through an arginine linker
d. The siRNA was attached to ConA, which enabled binding to all T cells
e. none of the above
24. Graft versus host disease would be the probable result of
a. transplantation of an allograft spleen
b. corneal graft between sisters
c. heart transplantation between identical twins
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
25. Malignant neoplastic cells are characterized by
a. aggressive immune attack of the tumor by the host in which the tumor is growing.
b. differentiation to a highly differentiated tumor cell morphology
c. rapid growth, a less differentiated morphology, and increased metastatic potential.
d. all of the above
e. none of the above.
26. CTLA4Ig is an immunomodulatory drug that is used to block autoimmune disease because it can
a. bind to immunoglobulins on B cells and interfere with the humoral response
b. cause the catalytic breakdown of T cell receptors.
c. Block second signals due to B7-CD28 interactions.
d. Cause the degranulation of mast cells.
e. Activate complement cascades.
27. “Phage display libraries” enable the identification of
a. Lytic phage that cause disease
b. The sequences of peptides that can interact with a target or “bait” protein
c. The range of animals that are potentially infected by phage
d. The specific sequences of all antibody molecules
e. MHC-associated 2-microglobulin.
28. Which of the following is generally NOT commonly employed to detect an active HIV infection or previous exposure to
the HIV virus?
a. Western blot for GP120 viral antigen
b. Ames assay
c. ELISA for GP120 viral antigen
d. ELISA for serum anti-GP120 antibodies
e. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
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29. MHC class I molecules play a major role in allograft transplant rejection. Why is the MHC class I protein profile of the
transplanted tissue considered to be more important for transplant rejection than other proteins expressed on the same
transplanted cell surfaces?
a. MHC class I proteins are expressed on the surface of almost all cell types.
b. MHC class I proteins have much more diversity relative to other surface proteins.
c. Allogeneic MHC class I proteins may be mistakenly recognized as “MHC + X” (modified self antigen)
to provoke cytotoxic T cell attacks on the transplanted tissue.
d. a and b are correct
e. a, b, and c are correct
30. What physical characteristics are found in some forms of camel antibody?
a. they lack heavy chains
b. they are single chain antibodies with high thermal stability
c. they can constitutively activate complement
d. they are comprised of DNA molecules
e. None of the above.
31. Teratocarcinomas have cells that are part of many different cell lineages as well as cells that can act as stem cells.
How will these E.C. stem cells behave when injected into a blastocyst?
a. They will produce more teratocarcinomas.
b. They will initiate an allograft rejection if they are derived from a strain different from the recipient blastocyst.
c. They will differentiate along normal pathways and will become normal tissue cells of the chimeric
offspring.
d. They will mutate and cause a new tumor to form.
e. None of the above
32. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a potential cause of autoimmune disease?
a. A genetic mutation in the genes for Fas ligand or Fas receptor
b. Infection with a pathogen that makes a “molecular analog” that shares antigenic structures with self molecules
c. Infection with the influenza virus
d. Production of high affinity anti-idiotype autoantibodies
e. Widespread cell lysis causing release of previously sequestered or intracellular antigens
33. Which of the following are examples of a type III hypersensitivity?
a. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus and Rheumatoid Arthritis
b. Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus (I.D.D.M.) and the tuberculin skin test
c. Congenital Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
d. Milk allergy and peanut allergy
e. Asthma and hay fever
34. Members of the immunoglobulin supergene family include
a. CD4
b. CD8
c. MHC Class I
d. MHC Class II
e. All of the above
35. There are some individuals in the human population who are resistant to the immunodeficiency of AIDS, yet who are
infected with HIV-1 virus. Why is this?
a. Their macrophages can kill HIV
b. They have a specific anti-HIV antibody in their blood
c. They lack a chemokine co-receptor that facilitates infection and the viral life cycle
d. They have a CTL population that can kill infected cells
e. none of the above
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36. The gradual transformation of a normal cell to a malignant cancer cell can be influenced by a number of different
events. Which of the following changes is NOT likely to contribute to the development of such neoplasia?
a. A mutation that leads to decrease expression of MHC class II
b. An over-expression of telomerase
c. Express-ion of new or different adhesion molecules
d. A mutation that leads to loss of cell cycle control
e. An overexpression of angiogenic factors
37. What signal can an NK cell use to identify a target cell for killing?
a. Antibody bound to the target cell membrane
b. Activated complement subunits bound to the target cell membrane
c. Perforin bound to the target cell membrane
d. Decreased levels of MHC class I expressed on the target cell membrane
e. None of the above
38. What two types of drugs are currently the most commonly used combination drug treatment for HIV-1 infections?
a. nuclease and cyclase inhibitors
b. protease inhibitors and nucleotide/nucleoside analogs
c. activated complement and CTLA4Ig
d. anti-CD4 and anti-CCR5
e. none of the above
39. SiRNA can be used to block gene activity because it can
a. bind to a specific mRNA and target it for destruction by the slicer and dicer mechanisms
b. inactivate polymerases and downregulate mRNA production
c. fragment DNA at specific DNA sequences
d. prevent protein synthesis by deforming the ribosome
e. lyse any cell into which it is injected
40. Beige mice lack functional NK cells because
a. They cannot make melanocytes
b. They lack the enzymes for rearrangement of the antibody gene loci
c. They cannot manage intracellular granules appropriately.
d. This cell population dies at puberty
e. All of the above
41. Natural immune responses to cancer can include
a. CTL mediated cell killing
b. the activation of angiogenic factors
c. the systemic (throughout the body) release of cytokines
d. chronic activation of complement
e. all of the above
42. Why is angiogenesis important in the process of a “first set” skin graft rejection?
a. because revascularization provides the path that cells can use to enter the engrafted tissue
b. because the angios that are produced result in complement activation and cell death
c. because angiogenesis results in the signal transduction cascade activation that is essential to CTL function
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
43. What is one line of evidence that CD4+ cells are important to graft rejection??
a. CD4+ cells are usually cytotoxic
b. CD4+ cells produce complement components that participate in graft rejection
c. CD4 genes are tightly linked to mating preference genes
d. anti-CD4 antibody therapy will extend the survival of an allograft
e. none of the above
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44. Graft rejection is know to be an immunological phenomenon because
a. graft rejection of MHC-disparate (different) tissues is associated with antibody production against the grafted
tissue
b. prior immunization accelerates graft rejection
c. adoptive transfer of lymphocytes from a allograft recipient that has rejected tissue will accelerate graft rejection
of an identical graft in naïve animals that are genetically identical to the lymphocyte donor.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
45. TILs that are used to treat some forms of cancer
a. Are double chain antibodies with cancer-specific idiotypes
b. Are transplantation-immune lobules with a lytic capacity
c. Are white blood cells recovered from a tumor that can be activated by cytokines before reinjection
into that patient
d. Are single chain antibodies with no lytic capacity
e. Are virus particles that lyse some cancer cell types.
46. Defects in the ability to synthesize MHC class I molecules will result in
a. autoimmune disease
b. cancer
c. complement deficiencies
d. a lack of antibody production
e. susceptibility to viral infection
47. Immune conjugates of antibody and radionuclides are used to treat cancer, but are limited by the
a. need to use radioactive elements that are not poisonous to the patient
b. desire to use elements that decay to non-radioactive products
c. difficulty to chemically couple the radioactive atom to a protein
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
48. Injection of IL2 into tumor patients in order to globally activate the immune system is not often done because
a. the IL2 will produce an autoimmune response
b. the IL2 will initiate a “cytokine storm”; the inappropriate release of cytokines
c. IL2 will not activate the relevant immune cells
d. IL2 will not activate the necessary complement cascade
e. none of the above
49. Anti-idiotypic treatments can be used to stimulate
a. the formation of an immune response to a tumor antigenic shape that is similar to the shape of the
cognate idiotype
b. the abnormal rearrangement of the immunoglobulin gene complex
c. angiogenesis
d. global decreases in IgG isotype production
e. all of the above
50. HIV viral RNA genome is carried in infected cells that are not actively producing viral particles as
a. an integrated cDNA copy of the genome
b. as a palindromic sequence
c. an mRNA molecule that produces the protein precursors of the virus
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
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