Chapter 3: Exchange rates I: the monetary approach in the long run Goals: Understanding how the exchange rates are determined in the long run. In microeconomics law of one price (LOOP) states that in the absence of trade frictions, and under the conditions of free competition and price flexibility, identical goods sold in different locations must sell for the same prices when the prices are expressed in a common currency. π π Let ππΈππ denote the euro price of goods g sold at Eurozone, πππ the dollar price of goods g sold at USA, and πΈ$/€ the spot exchange rate of US dollar against euro. Mathematically, LOOP means π π πππ = ππΈππ πΈ$/€ So if we use dollar as the common currency, the dollar prices of the same goods g at two locations should be equal. Otherwise there are arbitrage opportunities, and arbitrage will ensure that LOOP holds eventually. Exercise: please re-express LOOP if we use euro as the common currency. If we define the relative price of goods g as 1 π π πππ/πΈππ = ππΈππ πΈ$/€ π πππ Then LOOP also implies that π πππ/πΈππ = 1 π The relative price πππ/πΈππ measures how many units of the US goods can be exchanged for one unit of the same goods in Eurozone. There is arbitrage opportunity if π π π πππ/πΈππ ≠ 1 (or equivalently, πππ ≠ ππΈππ πΈ$/€ ). Exercise π Show how arbitrage works when πππ/πΈππ > 1. π π π Step 1: ππΈππ πΈ$/€ (> ππ <) πππ (Hint: π > π ⇒ π > ππ ππ π > 0) So the goods g is costlier in (Eurozone or USA) Step 2: people will buy g in (Eurozone or USA) and sell it in (Eurozone or USA) π π Step 3: ππΈππ will go (up or down); πππ will go (up or down) π Step 4: πππ/πΈππ will converge to __________ assuming πΈ$/€ is fixed. LOOP also implies a formula for the exchange rate: 2 π πΈ$/€ = πππ π ππΈππ So if there is only one goods g, then LOOP implies that the exchange rate equals the price ratio. The principle of purchasing power parity (PPP) is the macroeconomic counterpart to the microeconomic LOOP. PPP states that all baskets of goods have the same prices when expressed in a common currency. Mathematically, πππ = ππΈππ πΈ$/€ where πππ denotes the price of a basket of US goods (or price level), and ππΈππ the price level in Eurozone. The rationale is that if LOOP holds for each goods, then PPP must hold because the baskets in two locations contain the same (tradable) goods with the same weights. It is called purchasing power parity because it implies the a currency have the same purchasing powers at different locations. To see this, note 1 US dollar can buy ____________ US baskets Using the exchange rate πΈ$/€ , 1 US dollar can be converted to __________ euros and that amount of euros can buy_____________ Eurozone baskets. 3 Are the numbers of baskets bought with one US dollar the same at two locations? Why? Let’s define the real exchange rate of US dollar against euro as πππ/πΈππ ππΈππ πΈ$/€ = πππ The real exchange rates measure how many US baskets of goods can be exchanged for one Eurozone basket. It is the macroeconomic counterpart of relative price. To see this, note You need ___________ euro to buy one Eurozone basket. You can convert that amount of euro to ________ dollars, and buy ______ US baskets. Discuss: what is the difference between (nominal) exchange rate and real exchange rate. PPP implies that πππ/πΈππ = 1 Exercise: please show how arbitrage works if πππ/πΈππ < 1 Finally, PPP implies that π πΈ$/€ = π ππ πΈππ (3-1) Absolute PPP 4 So the spot exchange rate equals the ratio of price levels. For example, if a basket of goods costs $460 in US and the same basket costs €400 in Eurozone, the PPP would predict an exchange rate of πΈ$/€ = _______________ If we plug in the expected future price levels in (3-1) then we π can obtain the expected future spot exchange rate πΈ$/€ . The PPP we talk about so far is absolute purchasing power parity. Absolute PPP implies relative PPP, which says that if (31) holds, then βπΈ$/€,t πΈ$/€,t ≡ πΈ$/€,t+1 −πΈ$/€,t πΈ$/€,t ≈ πππ − ππΈππ (3-2) Relative PPP where β denotes time difference, πΈ$/€,t the spot rate at time t, πΈ$/€,t+1 the spot rate at time t+1, πΈ$/€,t+1 −πΈ$/€,t πΈ$/€,t the rate of depreciation of the nominal exchange rate, and βππ‘ ππ‘+1 − ππ‘ π= = ππ‘ ππ‘ the inflation (rate). So relative PPP means that the rate of depreciation of the nominal exchange rate equals the difference between the inflation rates of two countries. Proof for (3-2) (optional) 5 From calculus, the quotient rule of differentials says (see, e.g., page 187 of Chiang and Wainwright’s Fundamental Methods of Mathematical Economics, 4th edition) π₯ π ( ) = ____________________ π¦ So π₯ π (π¦ ) π₯ = ____________________ (π¦ ) Then according to equation (3-1), ππΈ$/€ πΈ$/€ = _____________________________ The final result follows if we approximate the differential (π) by difference (Δ). In practice, we can use (3-2) to forecast exchange rate in long run. Exercise: please show how to modify (3-2) if absolute PPP does not hold (Hint: use the definition of real exchange rate, and read SIDE BAR on page 73). 6 Discuss Figure 3-2 and 3-3: the empirical evidence for PPP 7 A simple monetary model of the exchange rate In macroeconomic course you learn the quantity theory of money: ππ = πΏΜ ππ, where ππ denotes the aggregate money demand, πΏΜ denotes a constant that measures how much demand for liquidity is generated for each dollar of nominal income (the inverse of πΏΜ is the income velocity of money), π the price level, and Y the real income. 8 When money market is in equilibrium, the demand and supply of money are equal: ππ = π where π denotes the money supply. Together we get a formula for the price level: π πΏΜ π π= The above formula implies that π = π−π where π denotes the inflation rates, π the growth rates of money supply, and π the growth rates of real income. Proof: If we add subscripts to index countries, the absolute PPP (3-1) implies that π πΈ$/€ = π ππ = πΈππ πππ Μ πΏππ πππ ππΈππ Μ πΈππ ππΈππ πΏ 9 (3-3) Equation (3-3) is the fundamental equation of the monetary approach to exchange rates. Moreover, (3-3) implies that πΈ$/€,t+1 −πΈ$/€,t πΈ$/€,t ≈ πππ,π‘ − ππΈππ ,π‘ = (πππ,π‘ − ππΈππ ,π‘ ) − (πππ,π‘ − ππΈππ ,π‘ ) (3-6) So the expected rate of depreciation equals the differential in growth rates in money supply minus the differential in growth rates in real income. (3-6) can be used when forecasting the future spot rate. Reminder (3-6) is based on the assumptions that both the absolute PPP (31) and quantity theory hold. Example Case 1: suppose ππΈππ = 0, ππΈππ = 0, πππ = 0, ππ‘−1 = Μ , ππ‘ = 1.1π Μ , ππ‘+π = ππ‘+1 , π ≥ 1 π So there is one-time 10% unexpected increase in money supply at time t Let ππ‘−1 = πΜ , ππ‘ = _______________, ππ‘+π = ______________________, π ≥ 1 Μ πΈ$/€,t = _________, πΈ$/€,t+j = ____________ π ≥ 1 Let πΈ$/€,t−1 = πΈ, 10 Conclusion: a one-time increase in money supply causes a onetime depreciation. Case 2: suppose ππΈππ = 0, ππΈππ = 0, πππ = 0 but the US money supply grows at a steady fixed rate π. At time t the growth rate of money growth changes to π + βπ Let ππ‘−1 = πΜ , ππ‘ = _______________, ππ‘+π = ______________________, π ≥ 1 Let π denote the rate of depreciation of πΈ$/€ , then (3-6) can be rewritten as π = πππ,π‘ − ππΈππ ,π‘ = (πππ,π‘ − ππΈππ ,π‘ ) − (πππ,π‘ − ππΈππ ,π‘ ) 6`) (3- ππ‘−1 = πΜ , ππ‘ = _______________, ππ‘+π = ______________________, π ≥1 In conclusion, all else equal, increases in the rate of money supply growth should equal increases in the rate of inflation and the rate of exchange rate depreciation. 11 A general long-run model for exchange rates and interest rates The general model starts with a modified money demand: ππ = πΏ(π)ππ, where letter π denotes nominal interest rate, which is the opportunity cost of holding money. Everything else equal, when nominal interest rate goes up, people tend to hold less money (and more interest-bearing assets). So πΏ(π) is a decreasing 12 function of π. When the money market is in equilibrium, the following equation holds: π π where π π = πΏ(π)π, is called real money balance. The relative PPP implies that π ΔπΈ$/€ π π = πππ − ππΈππ πΈ$/€ Furthermore, UIP implies that π ΔπΈ$/€ πΈ$/€ = πππ − ππΈππ So if both relative PPP and UIP hold, we can derive an important equation as follows: π π πππ − ππΈππ = πππ − ππΈππ (3-8) which is called the Fisher effect. By definition, the real interest rate, π, is the inflation-adjusted return on an interest-bearing asset. Mathematically, π =π−π So the Fisher equation implies real interest parity 13 π π πππ = ππΈππ 14 (3-9) Finally, the fundamental equation under the general model is π πΈ$/€ = π ππ = πΈππ πππ πΏππ (πππ )πππ ππΈππ πΏπΈππ (ππΈππ )ππΈππ 15 (3-10) 16