Lab 3, Chapter 11 To study growth characteristics, pathogenicity, metabolism, antibiotic susceptibility or othe characteristics, requires: A. A growth medium B. Agar C. Broth D. Pure Culture A Pure culture contains: A. Bacteria B. Virus C. isolated microbes D. A single type of microbe Because bacteria are too small to separate directly without sophisticated micromanipulation equipment, of separation are used. A. Scientific Methods B. Sterile Methods C. Microbiology Methods D. Indirect Methods In the 1870's attempted to obtain pure cultures by performing serial dilutions until each of the containers theoretically contained one bacterium. A. Joseph Lister B. Paul Ehrlich C. Ronald Ross D. Robert Koch In 1880 A. Joseph Lister B. Paul Ehrlich C. Ronald Ross D. Robert Koch prepared solid media Currently, three dilution methods are commonly used for isolating bacteria: A. Streak Plate, Spread Plate, Pour Plate B. Hot Plate, Cold Plate. Warm Plate C. Red Plate, Blue Plate, Green Plate D. Acid Plate, Base Plate, Dilute Plate The and number of bacteria in a sample. A. Streak Plate and Spread Plate B. Streak Plate a Pour Plate C. Spread Plate and Pour Plate are quantitative techniques to determine the 1 The technique, a loop is used to streak the mixed sample many times over the surface of a solid culture medium in a Petri dish. A. Streak Plate B. Spread Plate C. Pour Plate In the technique, a small amount of a previously diluted specimen is spread over the surface of a solid medium using a spreading rod. A. Streak Plate B. Spread Plate C. Pour Plate In the technique, a small amount of diluted sample is mixed with melted agar and poured into empty, sterile Petri dishes. A. Streak Plate B. Spread Plate C. Pour Plate When reporting results for the streak plate method (colony descriptions), which of the following IS NOT reported? a. b. c. d. e. f. Diameter Appearance Margin Elevation Color pH Which of the following is TRUE in regards to inoculating a Petri plate? a. Lift one edge of the corner while the plate rests on the table b. Lift the entire lid while the plate rests on the table c. Take the lid off and place it face down on the table, as well as the plate For the pour plate technique, what happens to the bacteria prior to pouring them into Petri dishes? a. We expose them to flame prior to placing them in the incubator b. We run a series of tests to determine their pH c. The bacteria are diluted through a series of tubes containing 19 ml of melted nutrient agar In regards to Ch.11 “Isolation of Bacteria by Dilution Techniques,” which of the following is NOT an objective? a. Isolate bacteria by using the streak plate and pour plate techniques b. Use various staining techniques in order to isolate bacteria c. Prepare and maintain a pure culture 2 Which of the following correctly depicts the streak plate technique for pure culture isolation of bacteria, as depicted in our lab manual? A B C 3 Which of the following depicts the CORRECT way to mix the inoculum in a tube? A B C 4 What is contamination? a. The presence of unwanted microorganisms b. The absence of unwanted microorganisms c. Using a mixed culture to reach a pure culture Which of the following is NOT one of the most commonly used dilution methods for isolating bacteria? a. Streak plate method b. Spread plate c. Pour plate d. A complex medium consisting of peptones Which of the following is the MOST COMMON isolation technique used today? a. Streak plate b. Pour plate c. Spread plate Chapter 12 True/False One of the major limitations of dilution techniques used to isolate bacteria is that organisms present in limited amounts may be diluted out on plates filled with dominant bacteria. True If bacterium B is heat-resistant, the specimen could be heated after isolation. False Dyes such as phenol red, eosin, or methylene blue are sometimes included in differential media. True What methods are used to isolate particular organisms? A. Selective media B. Enrichment media C. Differential media D. All of the above E. (A and C) F. None of the above What is selective media? A. Contain various nutrients that allow the investigator to distinguish one bacterium from another by how they metabolize or change the media with a waste product B. Media that contain nutrients that enhance growth of desired bacteria. C. Contain chemicals that prevent the growth of unwanted bacteria without inhibiting the growth of the desired organism. 5 What is enrichment media? A. Contain chemicals that prevent the growth of unwanted bacteria without inhibiting the growth of the desired organism. B. Media that contain nutrients that enhance growth of desired bacteria. C. Contain various nutrients that allow the investigator to distinguish one bacterium from another by how they metabolize or change the media with a waste product What is differential media? A. Contain various nutrients that allow the investigator to distinguish one bacterium from another by how they metabolize or change the media with a waste product. B. Media that contain nutrients that enhance growth of desired bacteria. C. Contain chemicals that prevent the growth of unwanted bacteria without inhibiting the growth of the desired organism. Why is special media testing performed? A. It helps isolate organisms found in the minority B. Various enrichment and selective culturing methods are available that enhance the growth of certain organisms. C. Various enrichment and selective culturing methods are available that inhibit the growth of certain organisms. D. All of the above Selective media contains chemicals that prevent the growth of unwanted bacteria without inhibiting the growth of the desired organism. True Fale Enrichment media contains chemicals that inhibit the growth of specific desired bacteria. True False Enrichment media is typically A. Solid and bacteria in addition to the desired one one will grow. B. Solid and no bacteria other than the desired one will grow. C. Liquid and bacteria in addition to the desired one will grow. D. Liquid and no bacteria other than the desired one will grown. With special media testing, how does one incubate the plate? A. Inverted at 0 degrees Celcius B. Inverted at 35 degrees Celcius C. Right side up at 0 degrees Celcius D. Right side up at 35 degrees Celcius 6 Using differential media, dyes such as phenol red, eosin, or methylene blue are included to produce a color change in the medium or colonies. What part of the bacteria reacts to this? A. Products of bacterial metabolism B. Bacterial cell walls C. Products of bacteria organelles D. Proteins in the bacteria Which techniques are used in special media testing? A. Streak plate procedure B. Gram staining C. Aseptic techniques D. All of the above Chapter 22 Extreme ____________ is widely used to control the growth of microbes. A. temperature B. moisture C. light D. all of the above Generally, if _____ is applied, microbes are killed; if _____ temperatures are used, microbial growth is inhibited. A. cold, hot B. heat, cold C. moisture, extreme D. both A & C Psychrophilic refers to optimal growth ranges about ____________. A. 0 degrees celcius to 20 degrees celcius B. 20 degrees celcius to 30 degrees celcius C. 25 degrees celcius to 40 degrees celcius D. 45 degrees celcius to 65 degrees celcius E. about 80 degrees celcius or higher Psychrotrophic refers to optimal growth ranges about ____________. A. 0 degrees celcius to 20 degrees celcius B. 20 degrees celcius to 30 degrees celcius C. 25 degrees celcius to 40 degrees celcius D. 45 degrees celcius to 65 degrees celcius E. about 80 degrees celcius or higher Mesophilic refers to optimal growth ranges about ____________. A. 0 degrees celcius to 20 degrees celcius B. 20 degrees celcius to 30 degrees celcius C. 25 degrees celcius to 40 degrees celcius D. 45 degrees celcius to 65 degrees celcius 7 E. about 80 degrees celcius or higher Thermophilic refers to optimal growth ranges about ____________. A. 0 degrees celcius to 20 degrees celcius B. 20 degrees celcius to 30 degrees celcius C. 25 degrees celcius to 40 degrees celcius D. 45 degrees celcius to 65 degrees celcius E. about 80 degrees celcius or higher Hyperthermophilic refers to optimal growth ranges about ____________. A. 0 degrees celcius to 20 degrees celcius B. 20 degrees celcius to 30 degrees celcius C. 25 degrees celcius to 40 degrees celcius D. 45 degrees celcius to 65 degrees celcius E. about 80 degrees celcius or higher Heat such as that in hot-air ovens or incineration are what type of heating? A. Moist B. Dry C. Extreme D. None of the above Heat methods such as pasteurization, boiling, and autoclaving are what type of heating? A. Moist B. Dry C. Extreme D. None of the above The most effective method of moist heat sterilization that involves steam under pressure is known as __________. A. Boiling B. Autoclaving C. Incineration D. Baking Match the rate of growth to the correct temperature: A) Hyperthermophilic B) Psychrotropic C) Thermophilic D) Psychrophilic E) Mesophilic Temperature in Degrees (in Celsius) 0-20 (D) 20-30 (B) 25-40 (E) 8 45-65 (C) 80 or higher (A) Overall, bacteria are more ______ resistant that most other forms of life. A) Heat B) Cold Heat sensitivity of organism can be affected by what? A) Container size and cell density B) Container size, cell density, and moisture content C) Container size, cell density, moisture content, and pH D) Container size, cell density, moisture content, pH, and medium composition Dry heat denatures enzymes, dehydrates microbes, and kills by oxidation effects. A) True B) False Moist heat methods include which of the following: A) Pasteurization B) Boiling C) Autoclaving D) All of the above A psychrophilic optimal growth range is ________? A. 45° C - 65° C B. 20° C - 30° C. 25° C - 40° C D. 0° C - 20° C A thermophilic growth range is between 45° C - 65° C. True False Bacteria is NOT more heat resistant than most others forms of life. True False Pasteurization, boiling and autoclaving are all examples of _________ A. Dry Heat B. Moist Heat C. Thermophilic D. Procedure Heat Hot air ovens and incineration are which type of heat? A. Dry Heat B. Moist Heat C. Thermophilic D. Procedure Heat Which one of the following is NOT accomplished with Dry Heat? A. Denatures Enzymes B. Dehydrated Microbes C. Oxidation D. Composition Autoclaving is the most effective method of moist heat sterilization. True False Boiling for 2 minutes will kill vegetative bacteria True False 9 Which is appropriate for Pasteurization? A. 63° C for 30 min B. 72° C for 15 seconds C. 59 ° C for 20 minutes D. Both A & B Heat sensitivity can be affected by A. container size B. cell density C. moisture content D. All of the above Chapter 24 Chemical agents used on inanimate objects to lower the level of microbes on their surfaces are A Antiseptics B Bactericidal C Disinfectants Chemicals that cause temporary inhibition of growth are bacteriostatic agents A True B False Chemicals used on living tissue to decrease the number of microbes are A Antiseptics B. Disinfectants C Bactericidal D. All of the above E. Both A and C only Antimicrobial agents must be matched to a specific organisms and environmental conditions. A False B True Variables to consider in selecting an antimicrobial agent include A pH B solubility C toxicity D all of the above What is an important criteria in evaluating the effectiveness of antimicrobial agents A the concentration B the pH of the solution C length of contact D. All of the above E both A and C Bacteriostatic agents cause temporary inhibition of growth A True B False 10 How many strains are used for the use-dilution test for most purposes? A 1 B 4 C 3 D None of the above What type of technique is used for the use-dilution test A Sterile B Aseptic C Clean What is a disinfectant? A. chemical objects used on inanimate objects to lower the level of microbes on their surfaces B. chemical objects used on objects to raise the level of microbes on surfaces C. chemical objects used to show microbes on surfaces D. chemical objects used to collect microbes on surfaces What are the intervals of time used to inoculate bacteria on a Petri dish? E. 5,10,15,and then 20 minutes F. 2,4,6,8, and then 10 minutes G. 1, 3,5,7 and then 9 minutes H. 2.5, 5, 10, and then 20 minutes Disinfectants and antiseptics affect bacteria in many ways. Those that result in bacterial death are called : F. bactericidal fluids G. bactericidal waste H. bactericidal sanitizers I. bactericidal agents Antimicrobials causing temporary inhibition of growth are: A. bacteriostatic agents B. bactericidal agents C. bacteriostatic chemicals D. bactericidal chemicals True or false. The standard method for measuring the effectiveness of a chemical agent is the American Official Analytical Chemist’s use-dilution test. True True or false. The use-dilution test is limited to bactericidal compounds and cannot be used to evaluate bacteriostatic compounds. True 11 Wide varieties of chemicals called microbes. A. Antimicrobial B. Disinfectants C. Antiseptics D. None of the above agents are available for controlling the growth of What are the variables to consider in selecting an antimicrobial agent? A. pH B. Solubility C. Toxicity D. Organic material present E. Cost F. All of the above The effectiveness of disinfectant can be determined by the amount of resulting growth. T In evaluating the effectiveness of antimicrobial agents, the concentration, length of contrast, and whether it is lethal (-cidal) or inhibiting (-static) are the important criteria. T Enumeration When a doctor takes a swab from an infected wound: a. It is to find out which organisms are present so he can select the proper antibiotic b. There will usually be more than one organism present c. Pure cultures need to be made to identify the organism(s) d. All of the above True or false - E. coli forms white colonies: a. True b. False If three organisms each grew different color colonies on a plate, but all were Gram negative: a. If you only did a Gram stain each organism would color differently because they are different organisms b. If you only did a Gram stain it would look as if there were only one organism present c. It is impossible to isolate each organism d. The organisms are not transferrable to a petri dish for further examination When inoculating cultures with a loop: a. Poke the agar several times with the loop to create air holes b. Make sure the loop is still red-hot when placing it in the agar c. Straighten the loop so that it forms a needle-like point and it is no longer round at the end d. Sterilize the loop with a flame between samples to avoid unwanted contamination 12 If your colonies overlap after streaking to isolate the organisms with a zigzag like motion in a petri dish: a. You have created a culture that is difficult to examine the variations in organisms b. You failed because perhaps there were too many organisms on the first quadrant c. You failed because you dragged to long across quadrants of the petri dish d. You failed because your zigzags were too narrow and did not cover enough surface area e. All of the above True or false: When incubating the cultures, you should place them right side up so that condensation is able to collect and provide water to the organisms a. True b. False True or false: Cultures should be placed in the incubator upside-down so that removing it from the incubator is easier and prevents accidental removal of the lid a. True b. False One way to know if your organism isolation techniques were successful is: a. There are multiple colors in each tube indicating multiple organisms b. There is only one color in each tube c. The tube has turned black d. One can never know if their isolation efforts were successful Who is called when there is an unusual amount of people that come in with the same illness? A. The Center for Disease Control (CDC) B. The Hospital C. Urgent Care What does the CDC do when there is an unusual amount of people that come in with the same illness? A. Interview the patients to find out if all the patients went to the same location right before they got sick. B. Count the number of patients in the hospital. C. Examine Nursing techniques. What is the measurement of how many living and dead organisms per ml are in the sample? A. Cultures B. Turbidity (cloudiness) C. Community What is the name of the machine that measures turbidity? A. Microscope B. Spectrophotometer C. Incubator 13 Using a spectrophotometer to measure turbidity is a(n) _________ estimate of cell density. A. Direct B. Indirect What does the indirect method of enumeration of bacteria rely on? A. The color of the sample B. The number of the bacteria in the sample C. The cloudiness of the sample What is the Standard Plate Count (SPC)? A. The number of colonies that grow on a plate. B. The Direct Method of enumeration of bacteria C. All of the above. Before a standard plate count can be performed what must first happen? A. A serial dilution B. Staining C. Culture count Transmission and absorbance are: A. Directly related B. Inversely related C. Neither Cuvettes are made of: A. Plastic B. Optically pure glass C. Cork D. Plates To make a standard plate count, how do you make a plate that has the colonies that are within our ability to count? A. We need to have a plate that does not have too many colonies to count. B. Dilute the original plate and do a series of dilutions. C. Let the bacteria grow for a few days and see how many grew. D. All of the above The number of colonies that are within our ability to count are A. 10-300 B. 30-300 C. 100-300 D. 300-500 14 If there are more than 300, some colonies may overgrow on other colonies and the count is not accurate. If there are less than 30 colonies, there are not enough to count. A. True B. False Which of the below four plates can be used to count colonies? A. Bottle B, first plate = 1:10,000 800 colonies B. Bottle B, second plate = 1:100,000 200 colonies C. Bottle C, first plate = 1:1,000,000 20 colonies D. Bottle C, second plate = 1:10,000,000 10 colonies The formula for Concentration is Colony numbers x Dilution Factor= Concentration A. True B. False How do you write the solution for concentration? A. Write the number and box it B. Convert to scientific notation C. Convert to scientific notation and write units (org/ml) What are the proper dilution sequence when making a dilution series? A. 1:10-- 1:100-- 1:1000 B. 1:100-- 1:1000-- 1:10,000 C. 1:100—1:10,000—1:1,000,000 We counted 50 colonies on a plate that has 1:1000 dilution. What is the total number of organisms in the original solution? A. 50,000 org/ml5.0 x 104 org/ml B. 5,000 org/ml5.0 x 103 org/ml True or false. The more H+ ions, the more acidic the substance is. True What are organisms that grow best at pH 2 and 4 called Thermophiles Hydrophiles autophiles Acidophiles What are organisms that grow best at pH 7 called? Dreams Acidophiles metaphors Neutrophiles 15 What are organisms that grow best at pH 10-12 called? Acidophiles Neutrophiles frogs Alkaliniphiles What does each unit change in pH represent? A 1 fold difference in Hydrogen ions A 10 fold difference in Hydrogen ions A 20 fold difference in Hydrogen ions A 100000 difference in H ions What happens to cells that are placed in a suboptimal pH environment? The proteins in their cell walls can become denatured. The cells get sad The tough cells get going Nothing What disease does alcaligenes faecalis cause? Tourettes Urinary tract infections Stomach ulcers Hand foot and mouth disease True or false. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used to make beer. True What type of organism is staph aureus? Acidophile Basophil A neutrophile An eosinophil True or False. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is a neutrophile. False (it is an acidophile) What is effect of ultraviolet (UV) light on different types of bacteria? A. UV light causes a bond to form between the two thiamine’s, and this stops DNA replication. B. This is the cause of death in the organism. C. If an organism can produce endospores, it could survive UV light exposure for a longer time. D. All of the above 16 When is an antiseptic used? A. on tabletops B. on tissue What are the two kinds of antiseptics A. topical and oral B. Intramuscular and intravenous What are disinfectants? A. detergent B. chemicals that are used on inanimate objects With antimicrobials, are the largest zones of inhibition the most effective? A. yes B. sometimes C. not necessarily Antimicrobials are either: A. Long or short spectrum B. Tall or wide spectrum C. Narrow or broad spectrum D. Flat or oval spectrum What type of antimicrobial is effective against Gram positive organisms? A. Narrow spectrum C. Broad spectrum B. Long spectrum D. Flat spectrum What type of antimicrobial is effective against Gram positive and Gram negative organisms? A. Binding spectrum C. Wide spectrum B. Narrow spectrum D. Broad spectrum If there are a lot of Gram negative bacteria in the blood stream and they are killed, what can be released into the bloodstream and become deadly to the patient? A. Exotoxins C. Endomicrobials B. Endomicrobials D. Endotoxins If your disc has a clear zone around it, which indicates no bacterial growth, this is called what? A. Zone of detection C. Zone of bacterial growth B. Zone of inhibition D. Zone of the clear zone An antibiotic sensitivity table is called a what? A. Snelling chart B. Kirby chart C. Antibiotic chart D. Kirby-Bauer chart The first treatment option for a patient is an antibiotic in which category? A. Intermediate category C. Synergistic category B. Sensitive category D. Effective category 17 If a patient is allergic to the best drug, the second treatment option is to give _______ antibiotic(s) in which category? A. Two, Sensitive category C. One, intermediate category B. One, sensitive category D. Two, intermediate category What is a nonsocomial infection? a) Acquired from sharing needles for recreational drug use b) Acquired from tattoos c) Patient acquired it after admission to the hospital, did not have it before d) Acquired from an open wound How can nonscomial infections be avoided? a) Proper handwashing techniques at all times b) Washing hands only when exposed to blood or handling specimens c) Wearing gloves at all times d) Using hand sanitizer between patients What are transient organisms? a) Organisms that are always present on our skin b) Organisms that are always present on our hands c) Organisms that are on our hands for a short while d) All of the above How are we exposed to transient organisms? a) Touching objects b) Drinking after someone c) Sharing a toothbrush d) None of the above What are resident organisms? a) Organisms that are always present on our skin b) Organisms that are always present on our hands c) Organisms that are on our hands for a short while d) All of the above Are resident organisms harmful to us? a) No, unless there is a break in the skin from which bacteria can enter b) Yes, unless there is a break in the skin c) A and B d) B Are resident organisms harmful to others? a) No, unless there is a break in the skin from which bacteria can enter b) Yes c) A and B d) None of the above 18 True or False: F- Washing your hands with water removes all transient organisms F- Washing with soap and water removes all transient and resident organisms T- Washing with soap and water is more effective than washing with water alone T- Washing with soap and water for a short time removes transient organisms What can you accomplish by washing your hands with soap and water? A. Removes many more organisms than washing with water alone. Additionally, washing for a short time will remove the transient organisms. You have to wash longer to remove the resident organisms. B. Rinses off a few organisms. C. Removes all organisms: your hands are sterile. D. None of the above 19