Name _________________________________________
Period ____
BIOLOGY MID-YEAR REVIEW
Please use your notes, textbook, workbook, vocabulary definitions to answer the following questions.
1. The term biosphere refers to the parts of
Earth that contain
a. freshwater environments.
b. living things.
c. land masses.
d. greater biodiversity.
7. The maintenance of constant internal
conditions in an organism is known as
a. homeostasis.
b. negative feedback.
c. structure specialization.
d. adaptation.
2. Which phrase best describes Earth’s
biodiversity?
a. greater in tropical rainforests
b. greater toward Earth’s poles
c. greater according to energy needs
d. greater where temperatures are most
variable
8. Which aspects of life on Earth are
accounted for by evolution?
a. diversity and unity
b. interaction and conflict
c. lack of genetic and physical change
d. divergence of structure and function
3. An individual living thing is called a(n)
a. species.
b. cell
c. atom
d. organism
4. Which of these characteristics is shared by
all living things?
a. They are made up of one or more
cells.
b. They make their own chemical
energy.
c. They have similar responses to light.
d. They reproduce when one cell
divides into two.
5. The basic unit of life is
a. the cell.
b. an atom.
c. DNA.
d. a species
6. Which statement best explains why the
shape of teeth differs according to the diet
of a species?
a. Individual parts must work together.
b. Organisms interact with other
organisms.
c. Structure and function are related in
biology.
d. Organisms must maintain
homeostasis.
9. A beneficial inherited trait that is passed on
to future generations is a(n)
a. stimulus.
b. adaptation.
c. system.
d. homeostatic mechanism
10. Which word best describes a scientific
hypothesis?
a. provable
b. theoretical
c. testable
d. quantifiable
11. At which stage of scientific inquiry would
scientists find out if their hypotheses were
supported by their data?
a. observing
b. testing hypotheses
c. analyzing data
d. evaluating results
12. In an experiment, the condition that is
manipulated by a scientist is the
a. independent variable.
b. dependent variable.
c. constant.
d. control condition.
13. Which of the following is an important
characteristic of a scientific theory?
a. proven by more than one scientist
b. unchanged by new evidence
c. accepted by the public
d. supported by much evidence
14. One way in which experimental research
differs from observational research is that
only experimental research can
a. test a hypothesis.
b. produce scientific results.
c. support a theory.
d. show cause and effect.
15. An electron microscope would be the best
choice for viewing
a. live bacteria.
b. human ligaments.
c. details of cell structure.
d. a person’s brain activity.
16. Which phrase best defines a gene?
a. basic unit of life
b. segment of DNA
c. slice of a specimen
d. inherited trait
17. Knowledge of biology can promote
advances by helping all people make
a. strong opinions.
b. informed decisions.
c. profitable products.
d. individual values.
18. The use and application of living things and
biological processes is known as
a. medical research.
b. human biology.
c. epidemiology.
d. biotechnology.
19. Which of the following is an example of
transgenic organisms?
a. bacteria that produce human insulin
b. microorganisms that produce cheese
c. yeast used to produce bread
d. algae that produce hydrogen gas
20. Biotechnology raises ethical questions,
primarily concerning the
a. safety of eating transgenic plants.
b. wisdom of continuing to use
technology.
c. ways in which knowledge should be
used.
d. best use of funds for biological
research.
21. Which phrase best describes atoms?
a. single-celled organism
b. smallest basic units of matter
c. parts of a nucleus
d. positively charged particles
22. Which of the following cannot be broken
down by ordinary chemical means?
a. element
b. compound
c. molecule
d. bond
23. What is a compound?
a. two atoms of a single element
bonded together
b. atoms of different elements bonded
together in certain ratios
c. separate atoms of multiple elements
in varying ratios
d. a molecule of two oxygen atoms
24. An ion is formed when an atom gains or
loses
a. protons.
b. neutrons.
c. bonds.
d. electrons.
25. Atoms connected by covalent bonds share
a. pairs of electrons.
b. ionic compounds.
c. carbon and oxygen.
d. hydrogen ions
26. Hydrogen bonds can form between regions
of polar molecules that are
a. nonpolar.
b. negatively charged.
c. oppositely charged.
d. uncharged (neutral).
27. The attraction among molecules of different
substances is called
a. cohesion.
b. adhesion.
c. specific heat.
d. surface tension.
28. Why is water necessary to your body?
a. It prevents large changes in blood
pH.
b. It dissolves and transports
substances.
c. It dissolves nonpolar fats and oils.
d. It forms the solutes in blood plasma.
29. Which of the following phrases best
describes a solvent?
a. has a high concentration of solutes
b. can be dissolved by the solute
c. present in a greater concentration
than solutes
d. usually a sugar or a protein
30. A solution with a high concentration of H
ions
a. shows a pH of 7.
b. kills all organisms.
c. has a high pH.
d. is very acidic
31. Carbon is unique due to the carbon atom’s
a. bonding properties.
b. six outer unpaired electrons.
c. ionic compounds.
d. hydrogen bonding strength.
34. Fats, oils, and cholesterol are all types of
a. cell membranes.
b. hormones.
c. lipids.
d. fatty acids.
35. Proteins are composed of which molecules?
a. amino acids
b. fatty acids
c. monosaccharides
d. nucleic acids
36. DNA and RNA are two types of
a. proteins.
b. nucleic acids.
c. lipids.
d. carbohydrates.
37. Which phrase best describes an exothermic
chemical reaction?
a. does not absorb any energy
b. forms products with higher bond
energy than reactants
c. is in a state of equilibrium
d. releases more energy than it absorbs
38. Chemical reactions change substances into
different substances by
a. conserving matter between the
substances.
b. breaking and forming chemical
bonds
c. strengthening electrical charges of
substances.
d. changing a solvent into a solute.
32. Which category of carbon-based molecules
includes sugars and starches?
a. unsaturated fatty acids
b. phospholipids
c. proteins
d. carbohydrates
39. Identify the reactants in the following chemical
33. The double arrows tell you that the
following reaction
CO2  H2O
CO2CO3
a. takes place very rapidly.
b. is very unstable.
c. occurs in both directions.
d. has high bond energies.
40. What is the term for the amount of energy
that needs to be added for a chemical
reaction to start?
a. chemical energy.
b. activation energy.
c. bond energy.
d. reactant energy.
reaction: 6H2O  6CO2  C6H12O6  6O2
a. 6H2O and 6CO2
b. 6CO2 and C6H12O6
c. 6H2O, C6H12O6, and 6O2
d. C6H12O2 and 6O6
41. Which phrase best describes an exothermic
chemical reaction?
a. does not absorb any energy
b. forms products with higher bond
energy than reactants
c. is in a state of equilibrium
d. releases more energy than it absorbs
42. Which of the following is a term for a
group of similar organisms that can
reproduce and produce fertile offspring?
a. individual
b. population
c. species
d. fossil
43. Which scientist proposed that if an
organism used a structure so much that it
grew, the trait of that larger structure could
be passed to its offspring? (This is no
longer believed to happen…)
a. Erasmus Darwin
b. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
c. Georges de Buffon
d. Charles Lyell
44. Which of the following is a fossil?
a. a plant that has recently died
b. a group of similar organisms that can
reproduce
c. a structure or organ that no longer
functions
d. a trace of an organism that existed in
the past
45. The theory that landforms on Earth’s
surface, such as mountains, waterfalls, and
canyons, were created as the result of
sudden, spectacular events is called the
theory of
a. uniformitarianism.
b. catastrophism.
c. gradualism.
d. evolution.
46. The difference in the physical traits of an
individual from those of other individuals
in a group is called a(n)
a. change.
b. adaptation.
c. species.
d. variation.
47. Over time, adaptations can lead populations
to experience
a. environmental changes.
b. genetic changes.
c. geologic changes.
d. extinctions.
48. What did Charles Darwin observe in finch
populations on the Galápagos Islands off
the coast of South America?
a. different species on different islands
b. all species on one of the islands
c. identical species on all the islands
d. the same species as in North
America
49. What did Charles Darwin learn from the
fossils of a giant armadillo that he found in
Argentina?
a. An earthquake led to the armadillo’s
extinction.
b. Armadillos used to be marine
organisms.
c. Modern animals may be related to
fossilized organisms.
d. Fossils do not resemble modern
animals.
50. The development by scientists of a new
color in a rose is the result of
a. natural selection.
b. artificial selection.
c. descent with modification.
d. overproduction.
51. In natural selection, the selective agent is
the
a. humans.
b. mutations.
c. breeders.
d. environment.
52. All the rabbits living in a particular area
would be an example of a(n)
a. population.
b. species.
c. fossil.
d. individual organism.
53. A bird that can easily out-compete other
birds for food and that can produce many
eggs has a high
a. life expectancy.
b. mutation rate.
c. fitness.
d. adaptability.
54. Which of the following describes natural
selection?
a. It acts on genetic material directly.
b. It acts on existing physical traits.
c. It forms new traits.
d. It forms new genetic material.
55. Which of the following is an example of a
vestigial structure?
a. the wings of red-tailed hawks
b. the hind limbs of a house cat
c. the fins of a shark
d. the wings of an ostrich
56. Biogeography is the study of the
a. distribution of organisms around the
world.
b. environments around the world.
c. different types of rocks around the
world.
d. age of fossils around the world.
57. What is suggested by the similarity of early
embryos of different species of vertebrates?
a. no evolutionary relationship between
the groups
b. recent common ancestry
c. similar environments in the past
d. evolution from a distant common
ancestor
58. Some organisms that share a common
ancestor have features that have different
functions, but similar structures. These are
known as
a. vestigial structures.
b. analogous structures.
c. homologous structures.
d. fossil structures.
59. If an organism has a vestigial structure, that
structure likely once had a function in a(n)
a. close relative.
b. early ancestor.
c. unrelated organism.
d. embryological stage.
60. Paleontology is the study of
a. ecosystems.
b. genetics.
c. fossils.
d. rocks and minerals.
61. Two organisms that are closely related
would have
a. very similar DNA sequences.
b. exactly the same DNA sequences.
c. no proteins in common.
d. completely different DNA
sequences.
62. Evolution is considered to be one of the
most important theories in science, because
it
a. was developed more than 100 years
ago.
b. is not supported by the fossil record.
c. unites the fields of biology, geology,
chemistry, and ecology.
d. was discovered by Charles Darwin, a
famous scientist.
63. Protein sequences in one organism that
resemble those of another suggest a
a. coincidence.
b. lack of evolutionary relationship.
c. great number of mutations.
d. shared ancestry.
64. A measure of how commonly a particular
allele occurs in a population is known as
the
a. gene pool.
b. allele frequency.
c. mutation rate.
d. phenotype.
65. The more genetic variation a population
has, the more likely it is that some
individuals will
a. evolve.
b. migrate.
c. survive.
d. mutate.
66. Genetic variation can arise from a random
change in the DNA of a gene. This change
is called a(n)
a. mutation.
b. gene flow.
c. gene pool.
d. allele.
67. The normal shuffling of alleles during
meiosis results in
a. mutations.
b. hybridization.
c. reproduction.
d. recombination.
68. Which term means the crossing of two
different species that share common genes?
a. mutation
b. hybridization
c. population
d. recombination
69. What do molecular clocks use to measure
evolutionary time?
a. dichotomous keys
b. mutation rates
c. physical characteristics
d. binomial nomenclature
70. Which of the following has the lowest
mutation rate?
a. ribosomal RNA
b. protein sequences
c. amino acids
d. mitochondrial DNA
71. How does mitochondrial DNA differ from
nuclear DNA?
a. Mitochondrial DNA is inherited
from both parents, and nuclear
DNA is not.
b. Mitochondrial DNA has a lower
mutation rate than nuclear DNA.
c. Mitochondrial DNA is inherited
from the mother only, and nuclear
DNA is inherited from both
parents.
d. Mitochondrial DNA is made of
amino acids and nuclear DNA is
made of nucleotides.
72. The best molecular clock for comparing
distantly related species is
a. mitochondrial DNA.
b. ribosomal RNA.
c. nuclear DNA.
d. protein.
73. The best molecular clock for comparing
closely related species is
a. mitochondrial DNA.
b. ribosomal RNA.
c. nuclear DNA.
d. protein.
74. What is the observable change in the allele
frequencies of a population over time
called?
a. selection
b. microevolution
c. distribution
d. recombination
75. Natural selection that changes the
distribution of a trait to favor one extreme
phenotype is called
a. disruptive selection.
b. stabilizing selection.
c. normalizing selection.
d. directional selection.
76. In stabilizing selection, what occurs in a
population?
a. The population shifts toward one of
two extreme phenotypes.
b. Both extreme phenotypes shift
toward the middle.
c. The intermediate phenotype becomes
more common.
d. The intermediate phenotype becomes
rare.
77. A population that is not undergoing natural
selection displays what type of distribution?
a. normal
b. disruptive
c. directional
d. stabilizing
78. In a population of birds, intermediate beak
size is selected against, and both very small
and very large beak sizes are favored. What
type of selection is this an example of?
a. directional
b. disruptive
c. normal
d. stabilizing
79. Chance changes in allele frequencies within
a population are called
a. gene flow.
b. gene pool.
c. genetic drift.
d. sexual selection.
80. A small number of birds, blown off course
during migration, find an island and
colonize it. This population will most likely
experience genetic drift as a result of the
a. founder effect.
b. bottleneck effect.
c. sexual selection.
d. mutations.
81. Fighting between male elephant seals over
females is an example of
a. bottleneck effect.
b. intrasexual selection.
c. intersexual selection.
d. founder effect.
82. What increases genetic variation when
animals move from one population to
another population?
a. genetic drift
b. sexual selection
c. bottleneck effect
d. gene flow
83. A problem in all populations influenced by
the bottleneck effect is that
a. genetic variation is lost.
b. alleles can’t become fixed.
c. offspring inherit harmful alleles.
d. chance no longer affects them.
84. Which of the following conditions could
mean that a population is in HardyWeinberg equilibrium?
a. The population is small.
b. Gene flow is common.
c. Mating is random.
d. Mutations occur frequently.
85. The Hardy-Weinberg equation is used to
a. estimate the rate of mutations in a
population.
b. determine the likelihood of random
mating.
c. calculate the gene flow rate among
organisms.
d. predict genotype frequencies in a
population.
86. The five factors that can lead to evolution
are gene flow, genetic drift, mutation,
natural selection, and
a. sexual selection.
b. controlled mating.
c. emigration.
d. immigration.
87. Mutations are important because they bring
about
a. death of the organism in which they
develop.
b. genetic variation needed for a
population to evolve.
c. benefits for the individual, but not
for the population.
d. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium within
a population.
88. Which of the following statements applies
to real populations?
a. Mutations are rarely passed to
offspring.
b. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is rare.
c. Gene flow represses alleles for
desirable traits.
93. What kind of isolation occurs when two
populations of birds have different
courtship dances?
a. geographic
b. sexual
c. temporal
d. behavioral
89. Evolution cannot occur in large populations
1.What is speciation?
a. combining of two species to form
one with different traits
b. isolation that affects mating behavior
c. timing of mating that prevents
normal sexual selection
d. divergence of two or more species
from an existing one
94. Which of the following processes is
considered to be random?
a. genetic mutation
b. natural selection
c. adaptive radiation
d. coevolution
90. A difference of chemical scents between
two populations is an example of what kind
of isolation?
a. temporal
b. behavioral
c. geographic
d. disruptive
91. An earthquake causes an ocean channel to
open up on an island where a low area
previously existed. The island’s lizard
population is now separated on the two
parts of the island, providing an example of
a. geographic isolation.
b. behavioral isolation.
c. disruptive selection.
d. temporal isolation.
92. Which of the following examples illustrates
a temporal barrier to mating between
populations?
a. Populations of the same species of
seal live on islands too far apart to
swim between them for mating.
b. Species of birds have elaborate
courtship dances, and females
select the best dancers as mates.
c. Varieties of oak tree produce pollen
during different seasons, so they
can’t pollinate one another.
d. Herds of caribou misinterpret each
other’s mating behavior, so they
fight instead of mating.
95. The American flying squirrel and the flying
phalanger of Australia live in similar
environments and look very similar.
However, they are not closely related. Their
resemblance is most likely an example of
a. sexual selection.
b. temporal isolation.
c. convergent evolution.
d. divergent evolution.
96. The Galápagos Islands in the Pacific Ocean
have varied habitats. Divergent evolution is
occurring on these islands, meaning that the
species that live there
a. have lived unchanged through long
periods of stability.
b. are becoming more like each other in
response to their habitats.
c. change in response to changes in
other species they interact with.
d. had common ancestors but have
become increasingly different.
97. Like all flowering plants, the snapdragon
must be pollinated to reproduce, but its
flowers are closed. A bumblebee has just
enough weight to open a snapdragon flower
by landing on it. This adaptation is an
example of
a. convergent evolution.
b. coevolution.
c. divergent evolution.
d. speciation.
98. The total and permanent disappearance of a
species from Earth is called
a. radiation.
b. coevolution.
c. extinction.
d. equilibrium.
99. The fossil footprint of a dinosaur is an
example of a(n)
a. amber-preserved fossil.
b. natural cast.
c. natural cast.
d. permineralized fossil.
100. In which of the following situations would
it be more likely for a fossil to form?
a. A vertebrate dies near a river delta.
b. An invertebrate dies on a mountain.
c. A soft-bodied worm dies in a desert.
d. A mammal dies on a rock bed.
101. The amount of time it takes for half of a
radioactive isotope to decay is known as the
a. isotope.
b. half-life.
c. product.
d. radiocarbon.
102. Radiometric dating of which of the
following samples has estimated the age of
Earth to be 4.5 billion years?
a. Burgess Shale fossils
b. Tollund Man.
c. lake bed deposits
d. fallen meteorites
103. A natural cast forms when an organism
a. is trapped in tree resin, which
hardens around it
b. leaves an impression in sediment that
fills with minerals
c. has hard structures that are
surrounded by minerals
d. becomes encased whole in a material
that preserves it.
104. Fossils that are useful for dating, because
they are common, easy to identify,
widespread, and existed for a brief time are
called
a. trace fossils.
b. extinct fossils.
c. index fossils.
d. key fossils.
105. Earth’s history is organized by
a. the Precambrian time scale.
b. units representing one million years.
c. the geologic time scale.
d. which plants lived on Earth.
106. Which of the following is the longest time
span in Earth’s history?
a. Mesozoic Era
b. Quaternary Period
c. Precambrian Time
d. Paleozoic Era
107. Which of the following periods make up
the Mesozoic era?
a. Paleozoic, Cenozoic, Precambrian
b. Cambrian, Ordovician, Silurian
c. Quaternary, Tertiary, Triassic
d. Triassic, Jurassic, Cretaceous
108. The evolution of primates occurred in
which of the following time periods?
a. Cenozoic Era
b. Mesozoic Era
c. Paleozoic Era
d. Precambrian Time
109. Which of the following contributed most
to the intense heat of the Hadean eon?
a. clouds of carbon dioxide, hydrogen,
and other gases
b. frequent collisions with asteroids and
meteorites
c. lightning strikes and volcanic
eruptions
d. closer proximity to the sun than is
now the case
110. In the lipid membrane hypothesis, it is
proposed that liposomes
a. formed in chimney-like structures at
ocean hydrothermal vents.
b. were the result of lightning striking
early Earth.
c. acted as barriers between organic
molecules and the environment.
d. served as the genetic material on
early Earth.
111. Stanley Miller and Harold Urey were the
first to demonstrate that
a. the earliest genetic material was
RNA, rather than DNA.
b. meteorites contain amino acids,
many of which exist on Earth.
c. Earth formed from a nebula
approximately 4.6 billion years
ago.
d. organic molecules can be formed
from inorganic molecules.
112. Which of the following hypotheses
proposes that early organic molecules
formed near ocean hydrothermal vents?
a. iron-sulfide bubbles hypothesis
b. lipid membrane hypothesis
c. RNA world hypothesis
d. meteorite hypothesis
113. What discovery supports the hypothesis
that RNA was the genetic material in the
earliest organisms?
a. Ribozymes are RNA that can selfreplicate.
b. DNA does not require enzymes to
replicate.
c. RNA stores genetic information on
ribozymes.
d. Chains of RNA will form lipid
membranes.
114. What is the approximate age of the oldest
known fossils?
a. 4.6 billion years
b. 3.5 billion years
c. 3.8 million years
d. 1.8 million years
115. When one organism lives inside the body
of another, and both benefit, the
relationship is called
a. photosynthesis.
b. permineralization.
c. mutation.
d. endosymbiosis.
116. The fossil evidence indicates that
anaerobic prokaryotes were
a. the first living organisms.
b. a source of genetic variation.
c. not capable of photosynthesis.
d. always found in colonies.
117. The theory of endosymbiosis states that
large prokaryotes took up smaller simple
prokaryotes that became
a. the cellular nucleus.
b. complex amino acids.
c. mitochondria and chloroplasts.
d. mitochondria and nuclei.
118. Asexual reproduction produces offspring
with
a. half of a single parent’s genes.
b. the same genes as the parent.
c. a mix of genes from two parents.
d. lots of genetic variation.
119. The rapid diversification of species that
occurred in the early Paleozoic era is called
the
a. Paleozoic radiation.
b. Cambrian explosion.
c. Cretaceous mass extinction.
d. Cenozoic evolution.
120. Which of the following events ended the
Paleozoic era?
a. mass extinction
b. earthquake
c. meteorite
d. land plants
121. The earliest ancestors of mammals first
appeared during the
a. Paleozoic era.
b. Precambrian Time.
c. Mesozoic era.
d. Cambrian explosion.
122. The mass extinction event that is theorized
to have killed many species, including the
dinosaurs, occurred at the end of which
period?
a. Permian
b. Tertiary
c. Jurassic
d. Cretaceous
123. During the Cenozoic era, which group of
organisms underwent the most dramatic
radiation?
a. true birds
b. mammals
c. ray-finned fish
d. flowering plants
124. What group of animals has flexible hands
and feet, large brains in relation to body
size, forward-looking eyes, and arms that
can rotate in a circle around the shoulder
joint?
a. arthropods
b. mammals
c. vertebrates
d. primates
125. What group is the oldest living primate
group?
a. prosimians
b. hominids
c. hominoids
d. anthropoids
126. Hominids include which of the following
organisms?
a. orangutans
b. chimpanzees
c. humans
d. gorillas
127. Which of the following distinguishes the
genus Homo from the genus
Australopithecus?
a. Its fossils were found in Africa.
b. Its limbs were humanlike.
c. Its brain was much larger.
d. Its thumb opposed its other fingers.
128. Which of the following statements is
correct?
a. Modern humans evolved from
chimpanzees.
b. Homo sapiens has the largest brain
of any hominid so far.
c. Modern humans arose about 200,000
years ago.
d. Humans are the only living bipedal
species.
129. The correct order for the levels of
Linnaeus’s classification system, from
general to specific, is
a. kingdom, species, class order,
family, genus, phylum.
b. kingdom, phylum, class, order,
family, genus, species.
c. phylum, kingdom, family, class,
order, genus, species.
d. species, genus, kingdom, family,
order, class, phylum.
130. Which of the following is correctly written
in the binomial nomenclature system?
a. Canis lupus
b. Red wolf
c. Ailurus Fulgens
d. kingdom
131. Which of the following taxa would
generally contain the most members?
a. order
b. species
c. phylum
d. class
132. Which phrase best describes the Linnaean
classification system?
a. Each genus contains one species.
b. The taxa are interchangeable.
c. There is only one kingdom.
d. Each level includes the more specific
levels below.
133. One limitation of the Linnaean
classification system is that it
a. allows scientists to discuss
organisms.
b. is based on physical characteristics
alone.
c. organizes organisms into groups.
d. does not use organisms’ common
names.
134. The evolutionary history for a group of
species is called a
a. clade.
b. phylogeny.
c. convergence.
d. taxonomy.
135. The embryos of both mammals and
reptiles are protected by amniotic fluid.
What is this type of trait called?
a. cladogram
b. outgroup
c. derived character
d. molecular evidence
136. Cladistics is a classification system based
on
a. nomenclature.
b. dichotomous keys.
c. common ancestry.
d. physical characteristics.
137. In a cladogram, what represents the most
recent common ancestor shared by a clade?
a. a mark by the clade’s derived
character
b. the overlapping of one clade upon
another
c. the longest branch
d. the node (point) where branches
meet
138. Which of the following would be
considered the strongest evidence that two
species are related to one another?
a. common structures
b. shared taxon
c. similar genes
d. same extinction pattern
139. Woese separated the kingdom Monera into
the following two kingdoms:
a. Eukarya and Bacteria.
b. Archaea and Prokaryote.
c. Prokaryote and Eukaryote.
d. Bacteria and Archaea.
140. Which of the following lists the three
domains accepted by most scientists?
a. Bacteria, Protista, and Eukarya
b. Bacteria, Fungi, and Protista
c. Eukarya, Archaea, and Bacteria
d. Archaea, Prokaryote, and Eukaryote
141. Which description distinguishes
eukaryotes from prokaryotes?
a. Eukaryotes have a cell wall.
b. Eukaryotes are multicellular.
c. Eukaryotes are photosynthetic.
d. Eukaryotes have a nucleus.
142. Single-celled prokaryotes that are
classified by their ability to survive extreme
conditions are
a. fungi.
b. archaea.
c. protists.
d. eukaryotes.
143. What characteristic of fungi makes them
different from plants?
a. They grow only in shade.
b. They have a different cell membrane.
c. They are always unicellular.
d. They are prokaryotes, not
eukaryotes.