AP Unit 1 Test
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1. In Federalist 44 Madison argues that:
a. the constitution should clearly define all
congressional powers.
Congress should exercise only expressly
enumerated powers.
c. the necessary and proper clause is essential to
allow implied congressional powers.
d. the Constitution should enumerate what
congressional powers are not necessary and
proper for the execution of its enumerated
powers.
e. Congress should function as it needs.
In Federalist 39, James Madison argues that the new
Constitution:
a. eliminates state sovereignty.
b. is both national and federal.
c. is primarily national.
d. retains the major features of the Constitution.
e. is neither national nor federal.
U.S. v. Morrison is part of the Supreme Court’s
recent line of decisions that:
a. upheld the rights of women to seek remedies for
violence at the federal level.
b. refuse federal protections to minorities who
have been discriminated against.
c. limits Congress’ authority in defense of
principles of federalism.
d. Morrison was not a Supreme Court decision.
e. expands Congress’ authority in defense of
principles of federalism.
Passage of the Violence Against Women Act
differed from passage of the Gun-Free School Zone
Act because:
a. it was supported by extensive data gathered by
Congress.
b. it was passed by a unanimous Senate.
c. it was passed by overriding a presidential veto.
d. it was supported by the Supreme Court.
e. it was passed by a unanimous House.
Which of these was NOT a principle established in
the case of McCulloch v. Maryland (1819)?
a. State governments are forbidden spending more
money than they raise each year, while there is
no such requirement on the national
government.
b. The national government can establish a
b.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
national bank, even though the Constiution does
not say that it can.
c. The national government is supreme to the states
when it is acting within its sphere of action.
d. The national government has certain implied
powers that go beyond its enumerated powers.
e. State laws preempt national laws when the
national government clearly exceeds its
constitutional powers and intrudes upon state
powers.
In determing the power of Congress to regulate
commerce in the case of Gibbons v. Ogden (1824),
the Supreme Court:
a. prohibited Congress from regulating business
activity on the grounds it violated private
property rights.
b. listed the implied powers of Congress and the
national government.
c. defined commerce very narrowly in considering
the right of Congress to regulate it.
d. listed the enumerated powers of Congress and
the national government.
e. defined commerce very broadly, encompassing
virtually every form of commercial activity.
In Gonzales v. Raich (2000), the Supreme Court:
a. upheld the California Compassionate Use Act of
1996.
b. deferred to Congress.
c. narrowly interpreted the Commerce Clause of
Article I.
d. overturned Congress.
e. upheld the Americans with Disabilities Act.
The necessary and proper clause:
a. expands congressional power.
b. requires the Supreme Court to adopt a strict
constructionist view of Article I powers.
c. supports presidential prerogative powers.
d. limits congressional power.
e. neither expands or limits congressional power.
According to Madison, the branch of government to
be most feared because of its inherent power is:
a. the executive.
b. the judiciary.
c. the legislature.
d. the bureaucracy.
e. the presidential offices.
10. A central premise of James Madison in numbers 47,
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
48, and 51 of The Federalist is that:
a. weak government is the best government.
b. the combination of legislative, executive, and
judicial power is the very definition of tyranny.
c. men are not angels and therefore those who
exercise political power must be limited.
d. b and c
e. a and b
Persons enter into political society and government
because:
a. they seek a higher authority to protect their
rights against invasion by others.
b. the pursuit of happiness can only be guaranteed
by government.
c. they seek equality with each other.
d. the common defense requires a strong
government.
e. the common defense is unnecessary.
According to Locke, the supreme power of the
Commonwealth is:
a. the legislature.
b. the judiciary.
c. the bureaucracy.
d. the executive.
e. the presidential offices.
Locke argues that government can only be dissolved
when:
a. it fails to protect the Commonwealth against
foreign attacks.
b. laws are enacted that fail to protect private
property.
c. the judiciary assumes legislative authority.
d. government acts without the consent of the
people.
e. government acts with the consent of the people.
Roche argues that the Virginia Plan:
a. capitulated to state interests.
b. provided for an essentially unitary form of
government.
c. embodied the “Madisonian model.”
d. would have allowed the large states to dominate
the national government.
e. would have allowed the small states to dominate
the national government.
Roche concludes that federalism:
a. represented a victory for states’ rights.
b. reflected a necessary compromise to gain state
support for a national government.
c. originally incorporated the doctrine of state
nullification of national laws.
gave the states more power than the national
government.
e. was unnecessary.
16. Beard states that the revolutionists and radicals:
a. were well represented at the Constitutional
Convention.
b. owned no property.
c. were not men of large property interests or
practical business experience.
d. were skeptical of equality and democracy.
e. were men of large property interests or practical
business experience.
17. Beard concludes that under the state constitutions
and the Articles of Confederation:
a. property interests were well protected.
b. every powerful economic class in the nation
suffered losses.
c. a strong national government was unnecessary.
d. majority rule was restricted.
e. minority rights were enhanced.
18. In Federalist 16 and 17, Alexander Hamilton argues
that:
a. the new national government will be a danger to
the collective power of the states.
b. it is illusory to worry that the national
government will subvert state power.
c. the Confederation was an adequate government
in its time but now it must be replaced.
d. the states will retain their sovereignty under the
new Constitution.
e. state power will be subverted by the national
government.
d.
19. Karl Marx is associated with the view that elites
reflect
a. a dominant social class.
b. a group of business, military, labor-union, and
elected officials.
c. an array of appointed bureaucrats.
d. a large number of organized interests.
e. a flexible alliance of religious and cultural
leaders.
20. The Anti-Federalists worried that the new
Constitution would:
a. create state greatness.
b. enhance state power to the detriment of the
national government.
c. establish a weak national government.
d. create strong political parties.
e.
undermine state sovereignty.
21. James Madison in Federalist 45 stated that:
a. state governments cannot act without the
support of the national government.
b. the state governments may be regarded as
constituent and essential parts of the federal
government.
c. the federal government will have the advantage
over state governments.
d. state legislatures are not essential to the election
of the president.
e. state governments should be supreme.
22. Bryce writes that federalism allows states and
localities:
a. to experiment and fail without threatening the
nation.
b. to control the dispensation of all monies
involved in governing.
c. to join together and dominate the national
government.
d. to prosper without worrying about a higher
authority.
e. no freedom whatsoever.
23. By authority, the authors mean
a. the right to use power.
b. the manner in which power is spread.
c. the use of power for good causes.
d. the desire to have power.
e. the desire to give power to others.
24. The term participatory democracy applies most
accurately to which of the following societies?
a. Greece in the fourth century B.C.
b. Modern China
c. The United States since 1787
d. The Soviet Union between 1917 and 1990
e. The southeastern United States before the Civil
War
25. Hobbes believed the answer to the “all-out war” that
existed in the state of nature was
a. an all-powerful government.
b. a sense of political justice.
c. an equal division of property and wealth.
d. democratic institutions with limited power.
e. a system of organized, state-sponsored religion.
26. The pluralist view of power focuses on
a. a dominant social class.
b. a group of business, military, labor-union, and
elected officials.
c.
d.
e.
an array of appointed bureaucrats.
a large number of organized interests.
a flexible alliance of religious and cultural
leaders.
27. The text presents the historical involvement of the
United States in foreign affairs as
a. alternating between outward and inward
movements.
b. consistently drifting toward imperialism.
c. devoid of any pattern whatsoever.
d. being buffeted about by external forces.
e. fluid in times of economic prosperity.
28. The trouble with trying to infer the distribution of
political power from examining the laws on the
books is that
a. laws may be enacted in a great variety of
circumstances.
b. laws are made to be broken.
c. legislative codes may be so obscure as to defy
anyone's comprehension.
d. many congressional enactments never get
recorded at all.
e. the judicial branch is rarely independent from
the legislative branch.
29. The author of the Declaration of Independence was
a. Thomas Jefferson.
b. Thomas Paine.
c. George Washington.
d. Alexander Hamilton.
e. James Madison.
30. Under the Articles of Confederation, amendments
had to
a. be written in secret.
b. be submitted to the national judiciary for
approval.
c. have the approval of half of the state governors.
d. be supported by all thirteen states.
e. All of the above
31. The list of the essential rights demanded by the
colonists included life, liberty, and
a. trading rights.
b. property rights.
c. the right to own slaves.
d. the pursuit of truth.
e. fraternity.
32. The American Revolution is described by the text as
a war of
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
attrition.
ideology.
economic viewpoints.
political elites.
contending social systems.
33. In the Declaration of Independence, the list of
complaints against George III and his ministers
spoke of
a. social conditions in the colonies.
b. economic conditions in the colonies.
c. specific violations of political liberties.
d. the lack of equality among the colonists.
e. All of the above
34. Which of the following was not among the ideas
underlying the American Revolution?
a. The need for a strong executive
b. The priority of human liberty over government
c. The necessity of a written constitution
d. Legislative supremacy over the executive
branch
e. The tendency of human nature toward ambition
35. By 1776, most (eight) states
a. had strong executive leaders.
b. had written constitutions.
c. had expanded voting rights considerably.
d. continued to rely on colonial charters.
e. had abolished elective offices.
36. The Founders assumed that representative
democracy would
a. prevent sweeping changes in policy.
b. allow persons with higher levels of education to
exercise more power.
c. result in decisions that were generally efficient
and timely.
d. often proceed slowly.
e. A and D
37. All of the following were true of the government
under the Articles of Confederation except that
a. larger states had more votes in the national
legislature.
b. there was no national judicial branch.
c. the national government could not levy taxes.
d. the national government could not regulate
commerce.
e. amendment required the support of all thirteen
states.
38. The doctrine of dual federalism grew out of a
protracted debate on the subject of
a. commerce.
b. banking.
c. manufacturing.
d. welfare.
e. licensing of commercial fishermen.
39. Under the Articles of Confederation, the national
government could
a. run the post office.
b. levy taxes.
c. regulate commerce.
d. establish a national judicial system.
e. None of the above
40. One conspicuous feature of the Articles of
Confederation was that there was no
a. legislature.
b. executive.
c. national judiciary.
d. recognition of states.
e. mention of the treaty-making power.
41. The effect of Shays’s Rebellion on attendance by
delegates at the planned Constitutional Convention
of 1787 was to
a. encourage attendance by delegates fearing the
collapse of state governments.
b. encourage attendance by delegates fearing
intervention by the British.
c. discourage attendance by delegates fearing a
public outcry against any strengthening of the
Articles of Confederation.
d. discourage attendance by delegates fearing
intervention by the British.
e. discourage attendance by delegates who fought
in the Revolutionary War.
42. The Great Compromise finally allocated
representation on the basis of
a. population, in both houses.
b. equality, in both houses.
c. population in the House and statehood equality
in the Senate.
d. equality in the House and population in the
Senate.
e. None of the above
43. Applying the principles of Thomas Jefferson to
current political issues would probably dispose one
to
a.
b.
favor the decentralization of government power.
oppose the decentralization of government
power.
c. favor seven-year terms for presidents.
d. oppose seven-year terms for presidents.
e. favor a more powerful bureaucracy.
44. In Federalist No. 45, Madison describes the powers
of state governments as
a. broad but limited.
b. numerous and indefinite.
c. narrow but critical.
d. limited and subject to review.
e. without substance.
45. An important outcome of Marshall’s ruling in
McCulloch v. Maryland (1819) was to
a. place limits on the constitutional powers granted
to Congress by refusing McCulloch’s appeal.
b. give greater power to the states in taxing agents
of the federal government, including banks.
c. protect newspaper editors who publish stories
critical of the federal government.
d. restrict the power of the Court in cases involving
conflicts between states and the federal
government.
e. confirm the supremacy of the federal
government in the exercise of the constitutional
powers granted to Congress.
46. The doctrine of nullification refers to
a. the power of Congress to veto state laws that
violate the U.S. Constitution.
the claimed authority of the states to declare a
federal law void for violating the U.S.
Constitution.
c. the power of the president to veto state laws for
violating the U.S. Constitution.
d. the authority of the president to dissolve
Congress and to call for new elections.
e. the power of the federal government to
invalidate state laws on matters of commerce.
b.
47. The interstate commerce that the federal government
can regulate is now interpreted to include
a. almost any kind of economic activity.
b. only the movement of goods between states.
c. almost any commerce in goods, but not labor
transactions.
d. commerce between states and a handful of
transactions within states.
e. shipping and handling, but not production.
48. When a locality is required by federal law to do
something, regardless of whether it receives federal
funding for that purpose, this duty is called a
a. condition of aid.
b. mandate.
c. string-attached edict.
d. court decision.
e. pontification.
49. The text says that it would be a mistake to conclude
that the doctrine of dual federalism is
a. entirely dead.
b. alive and well.
c. much changed.
d. no longer a threat.
e. an empirical reality.
50. In U.S. v. Lopez (1995), the Supreme Court ruled
that Congress overstepped its power to regulate
commerce by prohibiting ________ in a school
zone.
a. guns
b. adult bookstores
c. cigarette sales
d. alcohol sales
e. dog races
51. The Violence Against Women Act of 1994 was
conspicuous because it allowed women who were
the victims of gender-based violence to
a. sue the families of their attackers.
b. collect fees from businesses.
c. file class-action suits on behalf of high school
students.
d. sue in federal court.
e. collect up to $60 million in punitive damages.
52. Which of the following allows national governments
the right to alter or even abolish local government?
a. A constitutional government
b. Federalism
c. A unitary system
d. Socialism
e. A confederation
53. Which is a procedure that enables voters to reject a
measure adopted by the legislature?
a. Initiative
b. Referendum
c. Recall
d. Logrolling
e. Rollback
54. This procedure, which is in effect in about one-third
of the states, permits voters to remove an elected
official from office.
a. Initiative
b. Referendum
c. Recall
d. Logrolling
e. Rollback
55. The first form of grant-in-aid to the states made by
the federal government to the state governments was
that of
a. cash grants-in-aid.
b. block grants.
c. revenue sharing.
d. categorical grants.
e. land grants.
56. A categorical grant is a transfer of federal funds
designed for
a. the private sector.
b. discretionary use by a state.
c. the accomplishment of broad goals.
d. programs with matching grants.
e. specific purposes.
57. To qualify for certain federal highway funds, states
must allow drivers to make a legal right-hand turn
after stopping at a red light. This requirement by the
federal government is known as a
a. mandate.
b. quid pro quo order.
c. condition of aid.
d. pro bono requirement.
e. per curiam order.
58. The text suggests that we might expect to find more
mandates in policy areas where the government
a. spends less.
b. spends more.
c. wants the states to spend less.
d. has been involved a longer period of time.
e. cannot possibly enforce them.
59. Which statement best summarizes Madison’s view
of federalism?
a. He was a consistent supporter of the notion of a
supreme national government.
b. He was a consistent supporter of the notion of
the supremacy of state governments.
c. He was first an ardent supporter of national
supremacy, then of states’ rights.
He was first an ardent supporter of states’ rights,
then of national supremacy.
e. He assumed the national government would be
supreme except in times of war.
d.
60. The Republican effort to pass on to the states many
federal functions is known as
a. third-order devolution.
b. marble-cake federalism.
c. devolution.
d. neo-institutionalism.
e. fragmented federalism.
AP Unit 1 Test
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
C
B
C
A
A
E
B
A
C
D
A
A
D
B
B
C
B
B
A
E
B
A
A
A
A
D
A
A
A
D
B
B
C
A
B
E
A
A
A
C
A
C
A
B
E
B
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
A
B
A
A
D
C
B
C
E
E
C
A
C
C