BIOL 212 SI Exam 3 Review 10/31/13
Biotechnology – Ch. 20.1 & 20.3
1. Which of the following are correct differences between cDNA and genomic DNA?
a. There are no differences
b. Genomic DNA contains exons & introns, cDNA only contains exons
c. cDNA is made from mRNA as a template
d. cDNA contains ribose, genomic DNA contains deoxyribos
e. cDNA is single stranded, genomic DNA is double stranded
2. You have created a gene that will increase milk production in cows. If you create transgenic
cattle, how do you ensure that this gene is expressed?
a. Simply inject the recombinant plasmid into the oocyte; the gene will be expressed in all
cells.
b. Insert the gene downstream from a mammary gland enhancer on the plasmid only
c. Insert the gene next to a promoter for another mammary gland gene in the plasmid
d. Inject the DNA directly into the oocyte, no plasmid is needed
3. For an experiment you need a large sample of one particular gene, you obtain DNA from the
subject with a cheek swab. Now what?
a. Insert this DNA sample into a vector such as a plasmid and insert this plasmid into host
cells such as E. coli.
b. Subject this DNA sample to PCR using primers flanking the gene of interest
c. Run the DNA sample on a gel using electrophoresis
d. Nothing, you can study the DNA sample directly
4. During gene cloning, you insert your gene of interest into a vector containing the ampR gene and
then introduce this vector to E. coli. What does it mean if your sample fails to produce any
colonies on a plate containing ampicillin media?
a. The host E. coli cells did not take up the vector
b. The host E. coli cells took up the vector but the gene of interest was not successfully
inserted into the vector
c. Nothing. No E. coli cells can survive on ampicillin plates
d. The lacZ gene on the vector has been disrupted
5. During a gene cloning experiment, you insert your gene of interest into a plasmid vector
containing the lacZ gene. You plate the host cells onto media containing X-gal. Should you select
a blue colony or a white colony for further study? Why?
a. Blue
b. White – this means the gene has been successfully inserted into the lacZ gene, no βgalactosidase produced, X-gal not cleaved, no blue color
6. The technique above is called blue-white screening. What must be true about the restriction
enzymes used in gene cloning in order for this to work?
a. They must cut at a site outside the lacZ gene
b. They must cut at a site within the lacZ gene
c. They must cut at a site outside the ampR gene
d. They must cut at a site within the ampR gene
Cell Specialization – Ch. 10, 19, 35
7. What would happen if the extension sequences were not removed when procollagen exits the
cell?
a. The procollagen polypeptide α chains would not be able to assemble into triple helixes
b. The procollagen triple helixes would assemble into large collagen fibers inside the cell
which would be disastrous to the cell because they are too large
c. The procollagen would assemble into fibrils but not fibers
d. The procollagen triple helixes would not be able to assemble into larger fibrils or fibers
8. What is the function of elastin in the ECM?
a. It is a protein that helps adhere the ECM to itself and cell surfaces
b. It is a polysaccharide that gives the ECM a gel-like quality
c. It is a polysaccharide that provides structure and the ability for a tissue to expand or
contract
d. It is a protein that provides structure and the ability for a tissue to expand or contract
9. Which types of animal cell junctions form connections with the cytoskeleton?
a. Anchoring
b. Tight
c. Gap
10. T/F if the gene that encodes for the protein integrin were nonfunctional, cells would no longer
be able to connect to each other via anchoring junctions.
a. There are 4 types of anchoring junctions: adherens, desmosomes, hemidesmosomes, &
focal adhesions. And there are 2 types of proteins found in anchoring junctions: integrin
and cadherin. Integrin facilitates cell-ECM connections in hemidesmosomes & focal
adhesions. Cadherin facilitates cell-cell connections in adherens junctions &
desmosomes .
11. Which of the following would NOT pass through a gap junction?
a. Ca2+
b. cAMP
c. Cadherin – This is a protein, much too large
d. Glycine (an amino acid)
12. T/F In animals, cell migration helps produce new tissues & organs by moving cells to appropriate
locations during embryonic development. In plants, it occurs in adult life as well.
a. This is true in animal cells, however it also occurs in adult animals. It does not occur at
all in plants, at any stage of life.
13. Which of the following are true about plant vascular tissue?
a. Xylem transports water and minerals, phloem transports sugars & other nutrients
b. Phloem transports water and minerals, xylem transports sugars & other nutrients
14. Which of the following is not true about morphogens?
a. They will function if they are present
b. They must be above the threshold concentration to function
c. They influence the fate of a cell
d. They can induce cell migration
15. (Use this scenario for questions 15-17) In some developing animal there are 3 cell types: A, B, &
C. In the B cell, the gene “x” encodes a signaling molecule that binds to a receptor, encoded by
gene “y” in the pre-C cell. When the receptor is activated it induces cellular changes that induce
pre-C to differentiate. What will happen if the “x” gene in the pre-C cell is mutant?
a. Probably nothing – As long as the “x” gene in the B cell is functional, all the pre-C cell
needs is a functional y gene, so that it has the receptor necessary to receive the x cell
protein product
b. Pre-C will not differentiate into C
c. Pre-A will not differentiate into A
d. Pre-B will not differentiate into B
16. You perform an experiment in which the “z” gene is mutated in the B cell. Pre-A does not
differentiate and pre-C does. Is it likely that pre-A and pre-C both contain a receptor that binds
the “z” gene protein product?
a. Yes
b. No
17. Let’s say the pre-A cell can differentiate into either B or C, what would you classify pre-A as?
a. Totipotent stem cell
b. Pluripotent stem cell
c. Multipotent stem cell
d. Unipotent stem cell
18. Which genes are responsible for the different characteristics of each segment in a developing
fruit fly?
a. Maternal effects genes
b. Segment-polarity genes
c. Homeotic genes
d. Gap genes
e. Pair-Rule genes
19. T/F In some made up animal there are three segments: head, middle, end. There is one gene for
each segment. Then these genes must appear on the chromosome in the same order that the
segments appear on the body (along the anteroposterior axis, that is).
a. True, this is called the colinearity rule
20. If an Arabidopsis plant has a defective “A” homeotic gene:
a. It will develop all leaves
b. It will develop normally
c. It will only develop carpels and stamens – look at Fig. 19.24 on p.409 in your textbook
21. T/F Flowers are continuously produced as long as conditions are favorable
a. False, this is indeterminate growth, flowers undergo determinate growth
22. What does the procambium give rise to?
a. Parenchyma
b. Epidermis
c. Collenchyma
d. Sclerenchyma
e. All of the above
f. None of the above – gives rise to vascular tissue (xylem & phloem)
23. During which stage of plant development are the meristems inactive?
a. Seed
b. Seedling
c. Reproductively mature plant
24. What is the difference between the sporophyte & gametophyte generations of a plant?
a. Sporophyte generation is diploid, gametophyte generation is haploid
b. Sporophyte generation is haploid, gametophyte generation is diploid
c. Sporophyte generation is microscopic, gametophyte generation is large
d. Sporophyte generation is large, gametophyte generation is microscopic
e. a & d
f. b & c
25. What is unique about GNOM mutants?
a. They lack stem cells
b. They lack apical-basal polarity
c. They form only leaves
Nutrition & Digestion – Ch. 45
26. How does HCl help convert pepsinogen to pepsin?
a. It cleaves pepsinogen so that is active site is exposed
b. It cleaves the pepsinogen dimer into 2 active pepsin monomers
c. It induces self-cleavage of pepsinogen to reveal it’s active site
d. It actually induces pepsin to convert into pepsinogen
27. T/F Glucose enters alimentary canal cells via facilitated diffusion because it is too large to diffuse
through the membrane on its own.
a. False, it is too large, but it must be put through via secondary active transport using the
pre-existing Na+ gradient. Review: what generates this pre-existing Na+ gradient? The
Na-K pump!
28. What enzymes digest vitamins and minerals?
a. Amylase
b. Pepsin
c. Trypsin
d. Lipase
e. None of the above – vitamins & minerals do not require enzymatic digestion, they are
absorbed whole
29. How are lipids absorbed?
a. Lipase breaks them down into small lipids
b. Lipase breaks them down, they form micelles, small lipids leave the micelles to be
absorbed – Fig. 45.12 p. 953
c. The micelles are absorbed
d. They form chylomicrons in the intestinal lumen & these chylomicrons are absorbed
30. What is the role of gastrin?
a. Stimulates muscle contraction & acid production in the stomach
b. Stimulates secretion of digestive enzymes & bicarbonate ions from the pancreas into
the small intestine
c. Stimulates contraction of the gallbladder which releases bile into the small intestine
31. Bayliss & Starling exposed one dog's small intestine to a cell extract made from a second dog's
small intestine that had been exposed to acid. If the first dog’s small intestine did not secrete
molecules into the blood after this, what would this mean?
a. Activity of the digestive tract cannot be regulated independently of brain signals
b. Small intestine secretion is not stimulated by acid
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
Transport & Circulatory Systems – Ch. 47, 38
If there are questions that the professor does not get to in class on Thursday we will skip them. If she
gets further than this we will review more at Monday’s session.
32. The arterial end of a capillary has higher pressure than the venous end because:
a. There is high protein in the arterial end
b. H2O leaves
c. Small solutes such as O2 leave
d. The beating of the heart creates high pressure as it pumps blood
33. In mammals, which heart chamber does blood return to after being pumped to the body
tissues?
a. Right atrium – for a simplified diagram of this, check out Fig. 47.4 p. 983
b. Left atrium
c. Right ventricle
d. Left ventricle
34. What is the cardiovascular response to epinephrine? (Connection to the last unit!)
a. More vigorous heart contractions
b. More blood pumped out per pump
c. Increased heart rate
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
35. What happens to turgor pressure as water diffuses into a cell via osmosis?
a. Increases
b. Decreases
36. Water will leave the xylem and flow into the phloem if the sugar concentration in the phloem is:
a. High – pressure-flow hypothesis, p. 807-808
b. Low