Final Exam Review Multiple-Choice Questions Combined
1. Use the VSEPR theory to predict molecular geometry of IF5.
a) tetrahedral
c) trigonal bipyramidal
b) see-saw
d) square pyramidal
e) octahedral
2. Use the VSEPR theory to predict molecular geometry of CO32-.
a) bent
c) trigonal pyramidal
b) tetrahedral
d) T-shaped
e) trigonal planar
3. What is the bond angle between the O-N-O bonds in NO2- ion?
a) 180
b) 120
c) 118
d) 90
e) 88
4. What is the molecular shape of SeO3?
a) see-saw
c) trigonal planar
b) trigonal pyramidal
d) tetrahedral
e) T-shaped
5. What is the molecular shape of the SF3- ion?
a) linear
c) trigonal planar
b) bent
d) tetrahedral
e) T shaped
6. For XeF4, the valance electron geometry around the central atom is _____.
a) trigonal planar
c) trigonal bipyramidal
e) square planar
b) tetrahedral
d) octahedral
7. The molecular shape for XeF4 is _____.
a) trignoal planar
c) trigonal bipyramidal
b) tetrahedral
d) octahedral
e) square planar
8. The F-Xe-F bond angle in XeF4 molecule is _____.
a) 90
b) 109.5
d) 180
e) none of these
For the following 4 questions, the following molecular substances are referred to. Any substance may
be used more than once in answering the questions. CO2, SO2, SiF4, XeF4
9. The species which has tetrahedral as the valence electron geometry is ____.
a) CO2
b) SO2
c) SiF4
d) XeF4
e) none of these
10. The species which has linear molecular geometry is ____.
a) CO2
b) SO2
c) SiF4
d) XeF4
11. The species which is polar is ____.
a) CO2
b) SO2
d) XeF4
c) SiF4
e) none of these
e) none of these
12. The species which has two lone pairs of valence electrons on the central atom is ___.
a) CO2
b) SO2
c) SiF4
d) XeF4
e) none of these
13. The species which bond angle is close to 120 degrees is ___.
a) CO2
b) SO2
c) SiF4
14. The species which bond angle is 109.5 degrees is ___.
a) CO2
b) SO2
c) SiF4
d) XeF4
e) none of these
d) XeF4
e) none of these
15. A polar molecule is one in which there is a separation of charge caused by ____.
a) an average distribution of electrons
c) a complete loss of electrons
b) a non-uniform electron distribution
d) an uneven number of electron pairs
16. Which of the following is <strong>not</strong>a polar molecule?
a) hydrogen chloride
c) water
b) hydrogen
d) ammonia (NH3)
17. Identify the formula which represents a nonpolar molecule.
a) HCl
b) NH3
c) CF4
d) H2S
e) Al2S3
18. Which represents a polar molecule?
a) F2
b) O2
d) CO2
e) HCl
d) I
e) O
c) CH4
19. Which atom will form the most polar bond with hydrogen?
a) F
b) Cl
c) Br
20. Why is NH₃ classified as a polar molecule?
a) It is a gas at room temperature and 1 atmosphere pressure.
b) N-H bonds are non-polar.
c) Nitrogen and hydrogen are both nonmetals.
d) NH₃ molecules have asymmetrical charge distributions.
21. Which represents a nonpolar molecule?
a) H2
b) NH3
c) CF4
d) SO2
22. Which statement best explains why carbon tetrachloride (CCl4) is non-polar?
a) Each carbon-chloride bond is polar.
b) Carbon and chlorine are both nonmetals.
c) Carbon tetrachloride is an organic compound.
d) The carbon tetrachloride molecule is symmetrical so all the polar bonds cancel each other out.
23. The compound XeF4 is _____.
a) ionic
b) polar
c) nonpolar
d) none of these
24. Which is an example of a nonpolar molecule that contains polar covalent bonds?
a) CBr4
b) N2
c) H2
d) NH3
25. A solute is most likely to be highly soluble in a solvent if the solute is _____ and the solvent is
______.
a) ionic or polar, polar
c) nonpolar, polar
b) ionic or polar, nonpolar
d) nonpolar, ionic
26. Why is the normal boiling point of hydrogen fluoride is so much higher than that of hydrogen
chloride, the hydride of the next element in group 17?
a) The electron cloud in the HF molecule is more easily distorted (i.e. is more polarizable) than that of
HCl.
b) The HF molecules undergoes a higher degree of hydrogen bonding than HCl.
c) HCl molecules are non-polar.
d) The HF molecules have a lower dipole moment.
e) Chlorine in HCl is more electronegative than fluorine in HF.
27. The boiling point of CH4 is much lower than that of HF. This is because:
a) HF is more polarizable.
d) of dipole-dipole interactions in CH4.
b) of hydrogen bonding in HF.
e) CH4 is polar.
c) of ion-dipole interactions in CH4.
28. The vapor pressure of a liquid increases exponentially with increasing temperature chiefly because
____.
a) the enthalpy of vaporization increases
b) atmospheric pressure increases
c) the average molecular mass increases
d) the fraction of high energy molecules increases much faster than the average energy
e) the strength of the intermolecular forces increases
29. At room temperature, F2 and Cl2 are gases, Br2 is a liquid, and I2 is a solid. This is because ______.
a) dispersion interactions increase with molecular size
b) dipole-induced dipole interactions increase with molecular size
c) dipole-dipole interactions increase with molecular size
d) polarity increases with molecular size
e) dispersion interactions increase with molecular size and polarity increases with molecular size
30. Molecular iodine would be most soluble in ____.
a) water
b) carbon tetrachloride
c) vodka (ethanol and water)
d) vinegar (acetic acid and water)
e) equally soluble in all four
31. The concept of "like dissolves like" is illustrated by which of the following?
a) CuSO4(s) is more soluble in CCl4 than in water.
b) NaCl (s) is more soluble in CCl4 than in water.
c) I2(s) is more soluble in CCl4 than in water.
d) CCl4 is soluble in water.
e) I2(s) is more soluble in water than in CCl4.
32. For a given substance, which of the following phase transitions should RELEASE the most energy?
a) Solid to liquid.
c) Solid to gas.
e) Gas to liquid.
b) Gas to solid.
d) Liquid to gas.
33. The boiling point of water is about 200°C higher than one would predict from the boiling points of
hydrogen sulfide and hydrogen selenide. One may explain this apparent anomaly by which of the
following?
a) Water is less polar than hydrogen sulfide and hydrogen selenide.
b) Water has the lowest molecular weight.
c) The H-O covalent bond is much stronger than the H-S and H-Se bonds.
d) The water molecule is lighter than the other two molecules.
e) The intermolecular attractive forces are much greater in water than in hydrogen sulfide and hydrogen
selenide.
Based on the following information:
CF4, Molecular Weight 87.99, Normal Boiling Point -182°C
CCl4, Molecular Weight 153.8, Normal Boiling Point -123°C
34. Which of the above substances would have the higher equilibrium vapor pressure assuming that
both substances are in the liquid state at the same temperature?
a) CF4
b) CCl4
c) CF4 and CCl4 would have the same vapor pressure.
d) Impossible to determine from the information given
35. The intermolecular forces of attraction in the above substances is described by which of the
following?
a) Dipole-dipole forces (permanent dipoles).
d) Dispersion (or London) forces.
b) Gravitational forces.
e) Ion-dipole forces.
c) Repulsive forces.
36. State why the normal melting point of ICl (27.2°C) is so much higher than that of Br2 (-7.2°C). The
molecules of both substances have the same number of electrons.
a) The Cl atom in the ICl molecule is more polarizable than the Br atom in the Br2 molecule.
b) The ICl molecules undergo hydrogen bonding.
c) The ICl molecules have a lower molecular weight.
d) ICl molecules are polar.
e) Iodine in ICl is more electronegative than bromine in Br2.
37. One of the reasons that solid CuSO4 dissolves in water is ____.
a) The ion-dipole forces between the ions and the water molecules.
b) The electrostatic force of attraction between the Cu2+ and the SO42- ions.
c) Instantaneous dipole-induced dipole forces (dispersion or London forces) between the Cu2+ and the
SO42- ions.
d) The hydrogen bonding between the water molecules.
e) Instantaneous dipole-induced dipole forces (dispersion or London forces) between the water
molecules.
38. When ice melts, ____.
a) a phase change occurs from a solid phase to liquid phase
b) an endothermic process occurs which requires energy
c) the water changes from a crystalline solid to a liquid
d) the water molecules take on more kinetic energy
e) all of the above
39. When water freezes, _____.
a) a phase change occurs from a liquid phase to a solid phase
b) an exothermic process occurs where energy is lost from ice to the surrounding
c) the liquid water changes froom a random structure to a crystalline solid
d) water molecules reduce their kinetic energies
e) all of the above
40. Solids have all of the following properties EXCEPT:
a) a definite shape
c) a definite color
b) a definite mass
d) a definite volume
e) all of the above
41. Liquids have all of the following properties EXCEPT:
a) no definite shape
c) a definite shape
b) a definite mass
d) a definite volume
e) all of the above
42. The following are all properties of gases EXCEPT:
a) a definite volume
c) no definite volume
b) no definite shape
d) no definite mass
e) all of the above
43. Which of the following is true as solid changes into a liquid during melting?
a) Increase in particle order.
d) Temperature stays constant.
b) Energy change is exothermic.
e) Decrease in kinetic energy for particles.
c) Particles lose freedom.
44. Which of the following is true when a liquid changes into a gas during boiling?
a) Temperature rises.
d) Energy change is exothermic.
b) Increases in particle order.
e) Decrease in particle kinetic energies.
c) Particles gain freedom.
45. Gases diffuse because they ____.
a) easily move as convection currents
b) are made of rapidly moving particles
c) have low boiling points
d) have a low density
e) none of the above
46. Which of the following best describes what happens to the particles of water when it boils?
a) They lose energy and escape into the atmosphere.
b) They gain kinetic energy and increase their freedom to move without significant attraction.
c) They lose energy and lose freedom to move about.
d) They gain energy and gain freedom to move about.
e) None of the above.
47. Which of the following is true as a gas is changing to a liquid in condensation?
a) particles gain freedom
b) energy change is exothermic
c) decrease in particle order
d) temperature rises
e) increase in particle kinetic energy
48. Which is most effective in changing a gas into a liquid?
a) Reduce the temperature and pressure.
b) Increase the temperature and pressure.
c) Reduce the temperature and increase the pressure.
d) Increase the temperature and reduce the pressure.
e) Increase the temperature but hold the pressure constant.
49. The cooling effect accompanying the evaporation of a liquid is the result of ____.
a) higher energy particles being added to the liquid
b) lower energy particles being added to the liquid
c) lower energy particles leaving the liquid
d) higher energy particles leaving the liquid
e) all are correct
50. The temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the existing atmospheric pressure at
the surface of the liquid is called the ____.
a) boiling point of the liquid
b) equilibrium vapor pressure temperature
c) saturation point of the atomosphere
d) normal atomospheric temperature
e) dew point
51. The intermolecular forces in a liquid X are greater than those in a liquid Y. Comparing the two
liquids, it could be expected that liquid X would have _____.
a) the lower normal boiling temperature
b) the lower critical temperature
c) the lower vapor pressure at a given temperature
d) the higher rate of evaporation
e) no conclusions can be stated
52. Which is a basic assumption of the kinetic molecular theory?
a) Particles are in random motion.
b) Particles undergo inelastic collisions.
c) Particles lose energy with an increase in velocity.
d) Particles travel faster as the temperature decreases.
e) Particles lose energy when the temperature increases.
53. Which statement best accounts for the fact that gases can be greatly compressed?
a) Molecules occupy space.
b) The collisions of molecules are elastic.
c) The molecules of a given gas are identical.
d) Molecules of gases are in constant motion.
e) Molecules of gases are relatively far apart from each other.
54. A solute is most likely to be highly soluble in a solvent if the solute is _____ and the solvent is
______.
a) non-polar, polar
c) ionic or polar, polar
e) ionic, non-polar
b) ionic or polar, non-polar
d) non-polar, ionic
55. Which element is present in all organic compounds?
a) Carbon.
c) Oxygen.
b) Nitrogen.
d) Phosphorous.
e) Chlorine.
56. Which property is generally characteristic of an organic compound?
a) Low melting point.
c) Soluble in polar solvents.
e) None of these.
b) High melting point.
d) Insoluble in nonpolar solvents.
57. Which compounds are isomers?
a) 1-propanol and 2-propanol
b) methanoic acid and ethanoic acid
c) methanol and methanal
d) ethane and ethanol
e) none of these
58. Which statement explains why the element carbon forms so many compounds?
a) Carbon atoms combine readily with oxygen.
b) Carbon atoms have very high electronegativity.
c) Carbon readily forms ionic bonds with other carbon atoms.
d) Carbon readily forms covalent bonds with other carbon atoms.
e) None of these.
59. What is the name of the compound that has the molecular formula C₆H₆?
a) butane
c) benzene
e) none of these
b) butene
d) butyne
60. In a molecule of CH₄, the hydrogen atoms are spatially oriented toward the centers of a
regular ____.
a) pyramid
b) tetrahedron
c) square
d) rectangle
e) octahedron
61. In which pair of hydrocarbons does each compound contain only one double bond per molecule?
a) C2H2 and C2H6
c) C4H8 and C2H4
e) None of these pairs.
b) C2H2 and C3H6
d) C6H6 andC7H8
62. Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?
a) Ethene
b) Ethane
c) Ethyne
d) Ethanol
63. What is the maximum number of covalent bonds than an atom of carbon can form?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5
64. Which class of organic compounds can be represented as R -OH?
a) acids
b) alcohols
c) esters
d) ethers
e) ketones
65. Which molecule contains a total of three carbon atoms?
a) 2-methylpropane
c) propane
b) 2-methylbutane
d) butane
e) pentane
66. What substance is made up of monomers joined together in long chains?
a) ketone
b) protein
c) ester
d) acid
e) alcohol
67. Which compound is an organic acid?
a) CH3OH
b) CH3OCH3
c) CH3COOH
d) CH3COOCH3
68. Which of the following statements is true regarding ethene?
a) Both carbon atoms are sp2 hybridized and the molecule is planar.
b) Both carbon atoms are sp2 hybridized and all bond angles are approximately 109.5˚.
c) One carbon atom is sp hybridized while the other is sp2.
d) Both carbon atoms are sp3 hybridized and all bond angles are approximately 109.5˚.
e) Both carbon atoms are sp hybridized and the molecule is planar.
69. Which of the following compounds contains the greatest percentage of oxygen by weight?
a) C3H6O5Cl
b) C3H6O2
c) C5H10O5
d) C4H8O3
e) All are equal.
70. The first and simplest alkane is _____.
a) ethane
b) methane
c) C2H2
d) methene
e) CCl4
71. Compounds that have the same composition but differ in structural formulas are _____.
a) used for substitution products
d) having the same properties
b) called polymers
e) called isomers
c) usually alkane
72. Ethene is the first member of the ___.
a) alkane series
c) saturated hydrocarbons
b) alkyne series
d) unsaturated hydrocarbons
73. The characteristic group of the organic ester is ____.
a) -COb) -COOH
c) -CHO
74. The double bond in alkenes have _____ hybridized orbitals.
a) sp
b) sp2
c) sp3
e) aromatic hydrocarbons
d) -O-
d) sp3d2
e) -COO-
e) sp4d3
75. The multiple bond in alkyne can be best described as ____.
a) Two sigma bonds and one pi bond.
d) Three sigma bonds.
b) Two sigma bonds and one pi bond.
e) Three pi bonds.
c) One sigma bonds and two pi bonds.
76. sp2 hybridization will be found for carbon in ____.
a) CH4
b) C2H4
c) C2H6
d) CH3OH
e) CH3OCH3
77. The primary products of complete combustion of hydrocarbons are ____.
a) water and carbon
d) hydrogen and carbon
e) hydrogen and carbon
b) water and carbon monoxide
monoxide
dioxide
c) water and carbon dioxide
78. Which of the following statements is the best expression for the sp³ hybridization of carbon
electrons?
a) The new orbitals are one s orbital and three p orbitals.
b) The s electron is promoted to the p orbitals.
c) The s orbital is deformed into a p orbital.
d) Four new and equivalent orbitals are formed.
e) The s orbital electron loses energy to fall back into a partially filled p orbital.
79. The structure of the third member of the alkyne series is ____.
a) H—C≡C—H
c) H—C≡C—CH2CH3
b) H—C≡C—CH3
d) H—C≡C—C≡C—H
e) H—C—C—CH=C—H2
80. As ice cools from 273 K to 263 K, the average kinetic energy of its molecules will ______.
a) decrease
c) remain the same
e) decrease first then increase
b) increase
d) increase first then decrease
81. The phase change represented by the equation: I2(S)  I2(g) is called _______.
a) sublimation
b) condensation
c) melting
d) boiling
e) freezing
82. Under the same conditions of temperature and pressure, a liquid differs from a gas because the particles
of the liquid _____.
a) are in constant straight-line motion
b) take the shape of the container they occupy
c) have no regular arrangement
d) have stronger forces of attraction between them
e) None of these.
83. Which process releases heat as it occurs?
a) Evaporation of water.
b) Melting of snow.
c) Burning hydrogen in the air to make water.
d) Condensation of steam into water droplets.
84. The heat of fusion is the heat energy required to convert _____.
a) a solid to a gas
b) a liquid to a gas
c) a solid to a liquid
d) a gas to a liquid
85. Which two processes involve the same heat change, but differ only in the direction of the flow of heat?
a) freezing and melting
c) condensation and melting
e) freezing and condensation
b) freezing and condensation
d) melting and boiling
86. Heating a solid at its melting temperature ____.
a) raises the temperature of the solid
b) drives the change from solid to liquid
c) has no effect
d) reverses the process
87. Sublimation is ____.
a) conversion of a liquid to the vapor state
b) conversion of a solid directly to the vapor state
c) conversion of a solid to a liquid immediately followed by heating the liquid to the boiling point
d) conversion of a liquid to the solid state
88. The graph below represents the heating curve of a substance that starts as a solid below its freezing
point.
<img src="../X- Images/heating curve of a substance.png" alt="heating curve of a substance.png"
title="heating curve of a substance" width="749" height="440" style="display: block; margin-left: auto;
margin-right: auto; text-align: center;"></img>
What is the melting point of this substance?
a) 30°C
b) 55°C
c) 90°C
d) 120°C
89. The temperature above which gas molecules become to energetic to form a true liquid, no matter what
the pressure, is called the ________.
a) Melting point
b) Critical point
c) Boiling point
d) Triple point
90. Which of the following processes can occur when the temperature of a substance is increased at constant
pressure?
I.
Sublimation
II.
Melting
III.
Boiling
a) I only.
b) II only.
c) II and III.
d) I, II, and III
91. During which of the following phase changes must heat be added to overcome intermolecular forces?
I.
Vapoization
II.
Sublimation
III.
Deposition
a) I only.
c) I and II only.
e) I, II, and III.
b) II only.
d) II and III only.
92. The temperature change represented by one Kelvin degree compared to one Centigrade degree is ____.
a) 273 times as great
c) identical
e) none of these
b) 1/273 as great
d) 100 times as great
93. The expression “a cubic foot of air” is unsatisfactory because ______.
a) air volume is negligible
d) gas volume is difficult to measure
b) air has a very low density
e) the metric system is more exact
c) gas volume is dependent on its temperature
94. When the pressure of ammonia gas is increased at constant temperature, _____.
a) the energy if the molecules increases
d) liquid ammonia forms
b) the spaces between molecules increase
e) none of these
c) the bonds between atoms are broken
95. A toy balloon tends to become spherical when inflated because ______.
a) gases exert pressure equally in all directions
d) the rubber used in balloons contains impurities
b) the balloon contains carbon dioxide
e) none of these reasons
c) air tends to be permeable
96. Which of the following gas occupies the smallest volume?
a) Gas A: 2 moles at 760 mm and 273 K.
d) Gas D: 2 moles at 760 mm and 546 K
b) Gas B: 1 mole at 380 mm and 273 K.
e) Gas E: 3 moles at 760 mm and 546 K
c) Gas C: 1 mole at 760 mm and 273 K.
97. A gas has a volume of 100 ml. at a temperature of 27˚C. At constant pressure, what volume does this gas
occupy at standard temperature?
a) 10.7 mL
b) 81.9 mL
c) 91.0 mL
d) 109.9 mL
e) 819.0 mL
98. If there is no change in pressure for a sample of gas at 25 ˚C, which temperature will cause an increase in
volume of this gas?
a) 248 K
b) 298K
c) 35˚F
d) 310K
e) none of these
99. Which gas contains molecules with the highest average kinetic energy?
a) Gas A: 2 moles at 273 K.
c) Gas C: 1 mole at 500 K.
b) Gas B: 1 mole at 293 K.
d) Gas D: 2 moles at 546 K.
e) Gas E: 2 mole at 500 K.
100. Two moles of nitrogen gas are mixed with 3 moles of hydrogen gas at 273 K and placed in a 22.4 liter
container. The pressure of this mixture of gases is ____.
a) 4 atm
b) 1 atm
c) 5 atm
d) 3 atm
e) 6 atm
101. Which of the following gases would be the densest at standard temperature and pressure?
a) Helium
b) Argon
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Xeon
e) Nitrogen
102. In the laboratory, a sample of hydrogen is collected by water displacement. The sample of hydrogen has
a volume of 25 mL at 24.0˚C and a barametric pressure for the day of 758 mmHg. What is the pressure of the
dry gas at this temperature? (The water vapor pressure at 24.0 ˚C is 22.4 mmHg.)
a) 455 mmHg
b) 470 mmHg
c) 736 mmHg
d) 758 mmHg
e) 780 mmHg
103. A sample of dry air contains 210 mL of oxygen, 780 mL of nitrogen, and 10 mL of all other gases. What is
the pressure in mm of Hg due to the nitrogen if the total pressure was 1000 mmHg?
a) 1000 mmHg
b) 780 mmHg
c) 577 mmHg
d) 210 mmHg
e) None of these.
104. Which system contains molecules with the same average kinetic energy as the molecules in 10.0 grams
of carbon dioxide at 100˚C?
a) 10 grams if CO2 at 40˚C.
c) 20 grams if CO2 at 5˚C.
e) None of these.
b) 20 grams if CO2 at 20˚C.
d) 40 grams if CO2 at 10˚C.
105. At the same temperature and pressure, which gas diffuses most rapidly through a porous membrane?
a) NH₃
b) CO₂
c) NO
d) N₂
e) O₂
106. A gas sample is at 350^oC. If the pressure remains unchanged, which temperature will cause
a decrease in volume of this gas?
a) 51^oF
b) 38^oC
c) 308 K
d) 40 ^oC
e) None of these.
107. The temperature of a sample of helium gas is a measure of its ____.
a) kinetic and potential energy
d) total potential energy
b) average potential energy
e) average of kinetic and potential energy
c) average kinetic energy
108. If the level of the mercury column inside a eudiometer is one inch lower than the level of the mercury
outside the eudiometer, the gas pressure inside the eudiometer is ________.
a) equal to that of the atmosphere
d) more than barometric pressure
b) equal to barometric pressure
e) less than the atomsphere
c) less than barometric pressure
109. A gas occupies a 1.5 liter container at 250^oC and 2.0 atmospheres. If the gas is transferred
to a 3.0 liter container at the same temperature, what will be the new pressure?
a) 1.0 atm
b) 2.0 atm
c) 3.0 atm
d) 4.0 atm
e) 5.0 atm
110. Doubling the initial pressure under which 1000 ml. of a gas was confined causes the volume of the gas to
________.
a) double
c) decrease very slightly
e) increase greatly
b) remain the same
d) decrease greatly
111. If the volume which a certain number of gas molecules occupies remains constant as the temperature is
lowered, then the pressure exerted by this number of molecules ______.
a) remains constant
d) first increases and then decreases
b) steadily decreases
e) first decreases and then increases
c) steadily increases
112. When a bottle of perfume is opened, its fragrance spreads quickly all over a room. This is an example of
_____.
a) molarity
b) compressibility
c) diffusion
d) expansibility
e) ductility
113. Equal volumes of ideal gases contain the same number of molecules, provided the gases have equal
_____.
a) masses
c) temperatures
e) masses and temperatures
b) pressures
d) temperatures and pressures
114. The volume of a certain amount of dry gas is inversely proportional to the pressure, provided the
temperature remains constant. This Law is credited to ____.
a) Charles
b) Boyle
c) Kelvin
d) Bohr
e) Avgardro
115. Hydrogen is collected by water displacement. The water levels in the bottle and the pneumatic trough
are made equal. The barometric pressure is 723.2 mmHg and the vapor pressure is 19.8mmHg. What is the
pressure of the H2 collected and what must be measured to determine the mass of H2 collected?
a) 703.4 mm; the volume of H2 must be determined.
b) 703.4 mmHg; nothing else is needed.
c) 740.0 mmHg; the volume of H2 must be determined.
d) 740.0 mmHg; the Celsius temperature must be converted to Kelvin.
e) 723.2 mmHg; the moles of H2 must be determined.
116. Nitrogen is collected in a gas tube over water. The water level inside the tube is 28.6 mm lower that
that outside. The barometric pressure that day is 770 mmHg. The water vapor pressure at the room
temperature of 22^oC is 19.8 mmHg. What is the pressure of the dry nitrogen?
a) 721.6 mmHg
b) 761.2 mmHg
c) 778.8 mmHg
d) 792.4 mmHg
e) 818.4 mmHg
117. Equal masses of three different ideal gases, X, Y, and Z, are mixed in a sealed rigid container. If the
temperature of the system remains constant, which of the following statements about the partial pressure of
gas X is correct?
a) It is equal to 1/3 the total pressure.
b) It depends on the intermolecular forces of attraction between molecules of X, Y and Z.
c) It depends on the relative molecular masses of X, Y and Z.
d) It depends on the average distance traveled between molecular collisions.
e) It can be calculated with knowledge only of the volume of the container.
118. One mole of nitrogen, two moles of neon, and four moles of argon are sealed in a cylinder. The
combined pressure of the gases is 1400 mm of Hg. What is the partial pressure of the nitrogen, in mm of Hg?
a) 100 mm
b) 200 mm
c) 400 mm
d) 500 mm
e) 1,400 mm
119. A gas mixture contains twice as many moles of O₂ as N₂. Additions of 0.200
mole of argon to this mixture increases the pressure from 0.800 atm to 1.10 atm. How many moles of
O₂ are in the mixture?
a) 0.355 mole
b) 0.178 mole
c) 0.533 mole
d) 0.200 mole
e) 0.0750 mole
120. If there are 7.0 x l0⁴ molecules of water vapor and 3.0 x 10⁶ molecules of
CO₂ present in a container having a total pressure of 670 mmHg, what is the partial pressure of
CO₂?
a) 15 mmHg
b) 90 mmHg
c) 456 mmHg
d) 564 mmHg
e) 655 mmHg
121. If 3.4 moles of chlorine gas are added to 2.2 moles of fluorine gas at 136.5 K and placed in a 22.4 liter
container, what is the pressure of this gas mixture?
a) 2.8 atm
b) 4.4 atm
c) 5.6atm
d) 6.8 atm
e) 8.2 atm
122. Cooling a gas from 100^oC to a temperature of 0^oC causes its original volume
to _____.
a) remain unchanged
b) be decreased by 100/373
c) be increased by 100/373
d) be halved
e) be doubled
123. Consider the reaction: NO + O₂ --> NO₂. If 6 liters of NO₂ gas
(at STP) are formed according to the reaction, what volume of O₂ at 1 atm pressure and a
temperature of 546 K must have been used?
a) 1.0 L
b) 1.5 L
c) 3.0 L
d) 4.8 L
e) 6.0 L
124. If the density for the gas neon is 0.3 gram/liter, what volume will one mole of this gas occupy?
a) 9.7 L
b) 67.3 L
c) 84.1 L
d) 89.3 L
e) 101 L
125. Which conditions generally cause the characteristics of a gas to deviate most from the ideal gas laws?
a) High temperature and low pressure.
b) High temperature and high pressure.
c) Low pressure and low temperature
d) Low temperature and high pressure.
e) Low molecular masses and low volumes.
126. The diffusion rate of hydrogen, H₂, is 1600 meters/sec. Under similar conditions, what is
the diffusion rate of oxygen, O₂?
a) 19.89 m/sec
b) 400 m/sec
c) 100 m/sec
d) 600 m/sec
e) 6400 m/sec
127. How does the average kinetic energy of hydrogen molecules compare with that of oxygen molecules
when both gases are at 25^oC?
a) They have equal K.E. (kinetic energy).
b) The K.E. of hydrogen is 1/4 as great.
c) The K.E. of hydrogen is 1/16 as great.
d) The K.E. of hydrogen is 4 times as great.
e) More information is needed.
128. At constant temperature, the behavior of a sample of a real gas more closely approximates that of an
ideal gas as its volume is increased because the ____.
a) collisions with the walls of the container become less frequent
b) average molecular speed decreases
c) molecules have expanded
d) average distance between molecules becomes greater
e) average molecular kinetic energy decreases
129. In which of the following is it impossible to predict whether the pressure of a gas will increase, decrease,
or stay the same?
a) A gas sample is heated.
b) A gas sample is heated, and the volume is increased.
c) A gas sample is cooled, and some gas is withdrawn.
d) Additional gas is added to a sample of gas.
e) A gas sample is cooled, and the volume is increased.
130. Under the same conditions of temperature and pressure, which gas diffuses most rapidly?
a) Ar
b) He
c) N₂
d) CO₂
e) SO₃
131. How many liters of propyne gas, C₃H₄, at 1,000 mmHg pressure and 273 K
were used in a combustion reaction if 80 grams of water resulted from this reaction?
a) 37.8 L
b) 65.5 L
c) 75.6 L
d) 84.0 L
e) 88.8 L
132. Which curve shows the relationship between the volume of an ideal gas (at constant pressure) and its
temperature in degrees Kelvin?
<img src="../X- Images/Q267.png" alt="Q267.png" title="Q267" width="488" height="137" style="display:
block; margin-left: auto; margin-right: auto; text-align: center;"></img>
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5
133. At constant pressure, which curve best shows the relationship between the volume of an ideal gas and
its absolute temperature?
<img src="../X- Images/Q268.png" alt="Q268.png" title="Q268" width="248" height="113" style="display:
block; margin-left: auto; margin-right: auto; text-align: center;"></img>
a) A
c) C
e) None of these.
b) B
d) D
134. At constant pressure density, D, of a gas sample is inversely proportional to the absolute temperature, T.
Which of the following is a graph of the relation of the density of a gas sample to the absolute temperature if
the pressure is constant?
<img src="../X- Images/Q269.png" alt="Q269.png" title="Q269" width="680" height="70" style="display:
block; margin-left: auto; margin-right: auto; text-align: center;"></img>
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5
135. In a balanced chemical equation, ______.
a) coefficients are equal
b) atoms are conserved
c) molecules are equal
d) energy is always produced
e) none of those
136. Which of the following statement about a chemical reaction is <strong>FALSE</strong>?
a) The mass of the reactants consumed equals the mass of the products formed.
b) No atoms are created nor destroyed in the reaction.
c) The number of molecules of products equals the number of molecules of reactants.
d) The reaction produces new moleucles through rearrangement of atoms.
137. To satisfy the law of conservation of mass, a chemical equation _____.
a) must be written in words
b) should show the atomic mass of both reactants and products
c) must be balanced
d) must indicate the physical state of each of the reactants and products
138. The number of atoms of oxygen indicated by the formula
3Ca₃(PO₄)₂ is
a) 24
b) 12
c) 8
d) none of those.
139. Which of the following expressions represents two molecules of water?
a) H₂O
b) H₂O₂
c) 2H₂O
d) 2HO₂
e) None of these.
140. The breakdown of a complex substance to form two or more simpler substance is:
a) decomposition
b) composition
c) replacement
d) double-replacement
141. The substances to the left of the arrow in a chemical equation are called
a) coefficients.
b) prducts.
c) subscripts.
d) reactants.
142. In every balanced chemical equation, one should find represented on both sides the same number of
____.
a) atoms
b) coefficients
c) isotopes
d) molecules
143. A gas whose molecule is monatomic is ____.
a) oxygen
b) helium
c) nitrogen
d) chlorine
e) hydrogen
144. C + O₂ ---> CO₂ means which of the following?
a) Calcium and ozone will react and form a stable compound.
b) When carbon combines with oxygen, carbon dioxide is produced.
c) Carbon monoxide is released when gasoline is burned.
d) The air contains two molecules of oxygen and one of carbon.
145. A hypothetical element Z forms a chloride with the formula ZCl₅. What is the most
probable formula for its oxide?
a) ZO₂
b) ZO₅
c) Z₂O₅
d) Z₅O₂
146. When a correctly written formula equation is balanced, ____
a) the total number of atoms on one side must equal to the total number of atoms of the other side.
b) the sum of the coefficients on the left side must equal to the coefficients sum on the other side.
c) the number of subscripts on each side must be equal.
d) all molecules must be diatomic.
147. A word equation states all of the following <strong>except</strong>:
a) the substances which enter into the chemical reaction.
b) the substances which are produced by a chemical reaction.
c) the quantities of substances involved.
d) an experimental fact or facts.
148. The process whereby a chemist produces a new compound by combining elements or compounds is
called ____.
a) hydrolysis
b) electrolysis
c) analysis
d) synthesis
149. The reaction: methane (CH₄₎ + oxygen ---> carbon dioxide + water is an example of
________ reaction.
a) double-replacement
c) complete combustion
b) synthesis
d) incomplete combustion
150. Which of the following reactions represents a single-replacement reaction?
a) Ni + S ---> NiS
b) 2H₂O ---> 2H₂ + O₂
c) CuSO₄ + Fe ---> FeSO₄ + Cu
d) C + O₂ ---> CO₂
151. An example of a double-replacement reaction is ____.
a) 2HgO ---> 2Hg + O₂
b) Al₂(SO₄)₃ + 3Ca(OH)₂ ---> 2Al(OH)₃ +
3CaSO₄
c) Zn + 2HCl ---> ZnCl₂ + H₂
d) 3H₂ + N₂ ---> 2NH₃
152. The type of reaction represented by the generalized form of an equation: Y + BX ---> BY + X is a ____.
a) synthesis reaction
c) single-replacement reaction
b) decomposition reaction
d) double-replacement reaction
153. All of the following reactions belong to one type <strong>except</strong>:
a) 2NaCl ---> 2Na + Cl₂
b) CaCO₃ --> CaO + O₂
c) Ca(OH)₂ ---> CaO + H₂O
d) Zn + H₂SO₄ ---> ZnSO₄ + H₂
154. The coefficient X which should appear when the following chemical equation is properly balanced?
C₂H₆ + X O₂ ---> CO₂ + H₂O
a) 7
c) 8
e) None of the above.
b) 2
d) 6
155. The following is a combustion reaction. Balance and find the <strong>sum</strong> of the coefficients
in the equation. C₃H₈ + oxygen ---> _______.
a) 9
c) 15
e) None of the above.
b) 13
d) 16
156. Fluorine reacts with sodium hydroxide to form sodium fluoride, oxygen and water. What is the sum of
the coefficients in the balanced chemical equation?
a) 13
b) 17
c) 19
d) 21
e) 32
157. For the following single-replacement reaction, predict the reaction outcome and subsequent products:
Mg + ZnCl₂ ---> ?
a) No reaction.
b) Yes, the reaction will proceed. Product is: MgZnCl
c) Yes, the reaction will proceed. Products are: Zn + MgCl₂
d) Yes, the reaction will proceed. Products are: Zn + MgCl
158. Which of the following chemical equations correctly represents the reaction between aluminum and
oxygen?
a) 2Al(s) + 3O₂(g) ---> Al₂O₃(s)
b) Al(s) + O₂(g) ---> AlO₂
c) 3Al(s) + O₂ ---> Al₃O₂(s)
d) 4Al(s) + 3O₂(g) ---> 2Al₂O₃(s)
159. What is the <strong>balanced</strong> <span style="text-decoration: underline;">net ionic
equation</span> for the reaction of aqueous CaCl₂ and AgNO₃?
a) CaCl₂(aq) + 2AgNO₃(aq) ---> Ca(NO₃)₂(aq) + 2AgCl(p)
b) Ca²⁺(aq) + 2Cl^-(aq) + 2Ag⁺(aq) + 2NO₃(aq) ---> Ca²⁺(aq) + 2NO₃^-(aq) + 2AgCl(p)
c) 2Cl^-(aq) + 2Ag⁺(aq) ---> 2AgCl(p)
d) Cl^-(aq) + Ag⁺(aq) ---> AgCl(p)
160. Classify the following chemical reaction:
2Al(s) + Fe₂O₃(s) ---> 2Fe(l) + Al₂O₃(s)
a) synthesis
b) decomposition
c) combustion
d) single-replacement
e) double-replacement
161. What is the total number of atoms represented by the formula
(NH₄)₂NaPO₄?
a) 3
b) 7
c) 9
d) 16
e) 19
162. The term X in the correctly balanced chemical equation: 4NH₃ + 5O₂ ---> X +
6H₂O is _____.
a) 2N2O
b) 2N2O4
c) 4NO
d) 2N2H4
e) 3NO2
163. Balance the chemical equation: FeS₂ + oxygen gas ---> Fe₂O₃ +
sulfur dioxide. What is the coefficient for oxygen in the balanced chemical equation?
a) 2
c) 7
e) None of the above.
b) 4
d) 11
164. What is the sum of all the coefficients in the complete combustion reaction of
C₇H₁₆? C₇H₁₆ + O₂ ---> __________.
a) 9
b) 16
c) 26
d) 27
e) 29
165. Predict the outcome of the reaction: HF(aq) + Cl₂(g) ---> ?
a) No reaction.
b) Yes, reaction will proceed. Products are HF(aq) + F₂(g).
c) Yes, reaction will proceed. Products are HF(aq) + F(g).
d) Yes, reaction will proceed. Product is HFCl(aq).
166. The reaction: Na⁺ + e^- --> Na⁰ is an example of:
a) oxidation
b) reduction
c) synthesis
d) combustion
167. The equation which represents a reduction is ______.
a) H + OH- --> H2O
b) Cu⁰ --> Cu⁺² + 2e^-
c) Fe⁺² - e^- --> Fe³⁺
d) NaCl --> Na⁺ + Cl^-
e) Br₂⁰ + 2e^- --> 2Br^-
168. Among the following Group 1 metals, the one most likely to oxidize is ____.
a) cesium
b) potassium
c) sodium
d) lithium
169. As the chlorine atom is reduced, the number of protone in its nucleus ______.
a) increases
b) decreases
c) increases or decreases d) stays the same
170. The oxidation number (sometimes also referred to as valence number) of an element indicates ______.
a) its atomic mass
b) how many electrons its atom lends, borrow or shares
c) its stability
d) what compounds it will form with other elements
171. The equation which represents an oxidation is ______.
a) Cl⁰ + Cl⁰ --> Cl²
b) Zn⁺² + 2e^- --> Zn
c) Fe⁺² - e^- --> Fe⁺³
d) Na⁺ --> Na + e^-
172. When sulfur changes from an oxidation state of -2 to +6, it must _______.
a) gain 2 electrons
b) lose 6 electrons
c) gain 4 electrons
d) lose 8 electrons
173. Manganese to change from MnO₄^- to Mn⁺² must _____.
a) gain 1 electron
b) gain 5 electrons
c) gain 3 electrons
d) lose 1 electron
174. The gain of electrons by an atom, ion or group of atoms is ______.
a) oxidation
b) reduction
c) electrolysis
d) hydrolysis
175. In the reaction: AgNO₃ + NaCl --> NaNO₃ + AgCl, silver is ______.
a) oxidized only
b) reduced only
c) neither oxidized nor reduced
d) both oxidized and reduced
176. Which compound has a middle element with the oxidation number of +6?
a) Fe2(SO4)3
b) KMnO4
c) Ba(NO3)2
d) H2SO3
177. In the equation: 2Na + H₂ --> 2NaH, hydrogen is ____.
a) oxidized
c) shows no change in its oxidation number
b) reduced
d) loses electrons
178. The formula that shows chlorine with an oxidation number of +7 is ____.
a) HCl
b) HClO2c) HClO3-
d) HClO4-
179. In the reaction: 2NO + O₂ --> 2NO₂, the oxidation number of nitrogen ____.
a) changes from +2 to -2
c) changes from +2 to +4
b) changes from +4 to +2
d) is unchanged
180. In the reaction: 2H₂S + O₂ --> 2H₂O + 2S, which is the reducing
agent?
a) H2S
b) O2
c) H2O
d) S
181. Which is an example of an oxidation-reduction reaction?
a) HCl + NaOH --> NaCl H₂O
b) CaCO₃ --> CaO + CO₂
c) C + H₂O --> H₂ + CO
d) BaCl₂ + Na₂SO₄ --> 2NaCl + BaSO₄
182. Consider the following reaction in terms of oxidation-reduction. 1/2H₂(g) +
1/2F₂(g) --> HF(g) Which of the following is <strong>wrong</strong>?
a) Hydrogen is oxidized by fluorine.
b) Fluorine is reduced by oxygen.
c) The oxidation number of H₂ is zero.
d) The oxidation number of fluorine in HF is +1.
e) Oxidation number of F₂ is zero.
183. When sulfur dioxide is coverted into sulfur trioxide, each sulfur atom _____.
a) is reduced
c) loses three electrons
b) gains one electron
d) has its oxidation number changed
184. In the following reaction: PbBr2 + 2KI --> PbI2 + 2KBr, ______________.
a) PbBr2 is reduced
c) KI is reduced
b) PbBr2 is oxidized
d) PbBr2 is neither reduced nor oxidized
185. Assume that the order of decreasing activity of three non-metals (X, Y, and Z) is Y, Z, and X. It therefore
follows that ______.
a) Y cannot replace X from its compound
c) Z can oxide X ions but not Y ions
b) X can replace Y from its compound
d) Y can oxide X ions but not Z ions
----------Keys---------1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (c)
4. (c)
5. (e)
6. (d)
7. (e)
8. (a)
9. (c)
10. (a)
11. (b)
12. (d)
13. (b)
14. (c)
15. (b)
16. (b)
17. (c)
18. (e)
19. (a)
20. (d)
21. (c)
22. (d)
23. (b)
24. (a)
25. (a)
26. (b)
27. (b)
28. (d)
29. (a)
30. (b)
31. (c)
32. (b)
33. (e)
34. (b)
35. (d)
36. (d)
37. (a)
38. (e)
39. (e)
40. (c)
41. (c)
42. (a)
43. (d)
44. (c)
45. (b)
46. (b)
47. (b)
48. (c)
49. (d)
50. (a)
51. (c)
52. (a)
53. (e)
54. (c)
55. (a)
56. (a)
57. (a)
58. (d)
59. (c)
60. (b)
61. (c)
62. (b)
63. (d)
64. (b)
65. (c)
66. (b)
67. (c)
68. (a)
69. (c)
70. (b)
71. (e)
72. (d)
73. (e)
74. (b)
75. (c)
76. (b)
77. (c)
78. (d)
79. (c)
80. (a)
81. (a)
82. (d)
83. (d)
84. (c)
85. (a)
86. (b)
87. (b)
88. (b)
89. (b)
90. (d)
91. (c)
92. (c)
93. (c)
94. (d)
95. (a)
96. (c)
97. (c)
98. (d)
99. (d)
100. (c)
101. (d)
102. (c)
103. (b)
104. (d)
105. (a)
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107. (c)
108. (d)
109. (a)
110. (d)
111. (b)
112. (c)
113. (d)
114. (b)
115. (a)
116. (c)
117. (c)
118. (b)
119. (a)
120. (e)
121. (a)
122. (b)
123. (e)
124. (b)
125. (d)
126. (b)
127. (a)
128. (d)
129. (b)
130. (b)
131. (a)
132. (c)
133. (d)
134. (a)
135. (b)
136. (c)
137. (c)
138. (a)
139. (c)
140. (a)
141. (d)
142. (a)
143. (b)
144. (b)
145. (c)
146. (a)
147. (c)
148. (d)
149. (c)
150. (c)
151. (b)
152. (c)
153. (d)
154. (a)
155. (b)
156. (a)
157. (c)
158. (d)
159. (d)
160. (d)
161. (d)
162. (c)
163. (d)
164. (d)
165. (a)
166. (b)
167. (e)
168. (a)
169. (d)
170. (b)
171. (c)
172. (d)
173. (b)
174. (b)
175. (c)
176. (a)
177. (b)
178. (d)
179. (c)
180. (b)
181. (c)
182. (d)
183. (d)
184. (d)
185. (c)